REGD NO. JK––33
THE
JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICIAL GAZETTE
Vol. 139]
Srinagar, Thu., the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[ No. 26
CONTENTS
English
Pages
Vernacular
pages
PART I-A–
Appointments,
promotions,
transfers
and
leave of absence sanctioned by the Governor,
Government and the Ministers ....
PART I-B–
Notifications,
Communiques
and
General
Orders by the Government and the Ministers ....
PART II-A– Appointments,
promotions,
transfers
and
leave of absence sanctioned by Heads of
Departments ....
PART II- B– Notifications, Notices and Orders by Heads
of
Departments,
Provincial
Heads,
Magistrates and other officers competent to
issue public notices under any law or rule ....
PART II-C–
Notifications, Notices and Orders by Election
Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer,
Jammu and Kashmir and other Officers of the
Department,
Election
Petitions
and
Judgements of Election Tribunal ....
PART III–
Laws,
Regulations
and
Rules
passed
thereunder ....
PART IV–
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette
or Gazettes of others Governments....
PART V–
Information and Statistics ....
(a) Rates and prices in the State....
(b) Rates and wages ....
(c) Crop Report and Forecasts ....
(d) Whether Observations ....
(e) Vital Statistics ....
SUPPLEMENT-A– Trade
Monthly Imports and Exports from the
State ....
SUPPLEMENT-B– Police ....
SUPPLEMENT-C– Advertisements
....
258-266
6565-6826
93-96
Printed at the Government Press, Srinagar.
258 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[No. 26
PART I-A
Jammu & Kashmir Government–Orders
_________
HIGH COURT OF JAMMU & KASHMIR AND LADAKH AT
SRINAGAR
(Exercising powers of Bar Council under Section 58 of the Advocates
Act, 1961)
(Provisional Enrollment)
Notification
No. 1712 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Adiba Bashir D/o Bashir Ahmad Sheikh R/o Alamdar Colony
Ibrahim Lane Lal Bazar Tehsil Eidgah, District Srinagar has been admitted
and enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar
Council provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of
this
notification,
subject
to
the
verification
of
educational
certificates/degrees from concerned University and verification of her
character and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under
serial No. JK-497-2026 on the roll of Advocate maintained by this
Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1713 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Arsalan Makhdoomi S/o Khalid Khurshid Makhdoomi R/o 24, Ellahi
Bagh A, Buchpora, District Srinagar has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of his character and antecedents
from CID. His name has been entered under serial No. JK-498-2026 on
the roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
259
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1714 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Asif Mushtaq Bhat S/o Mushtaq Ahmad Bhat R/o Chundina, Tehsil
Tullmulla, District Ganderbal has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of his character and antecedents
from CID. His name has been entered under serial No. JK-499-2026 on
the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1715 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Falak Ali D/o Ali Mohd Munshi R/o Mandir Bagh, Habib Colony
Baghat-Barzullah, Tehsil Channapora District Srinagar has been admitted
and enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar
Council provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of
this
notification,
subject
to
the
verification
of
educational
certificates/degrees from concerned University and verification of her
character and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under
serial No. JK-500-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this
Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
260 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[No. 26
Notification
No. 1716 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Farhat Majeed D/o Ab Majeed Khan R/o Khunbal A, Tehsil
Handwara, District Kupwara has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of her character and antecedents
from CID. Her name has been entered under serial No. JK-501-2026 on
the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1717 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Humera Majid Baig D/o Abdul Majid Baig R/o House No. 19, Haider
Colony Lane No.4, Upper Soura, Tehsil Eidgah District Srinagar has been
admitted and enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir
Bar Council provisionally for a period of one year from the date of
issuance of this notification, subject to the verification of educational
certificates/degrees from concerned University and verification of his/her
character and antecedents from CID. His/her name has been entered under
serial No. JK-502-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this
Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1718 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Ifrah Farooq D/o Farooq Ahmad Nadroo R/o Main Road Near Bridge
Parim Pora, Tehsil Central Shalteng, District Srinagar has been admitted
and enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar
Council provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
261
this
notification,
subject
to
the
verification
of
educational
certificates/degrees from concerned University and verification of her
character and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under
serial No. JK-503-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this
Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1719 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Khushboo Bashir D/o Bashir Ahmad Bhat R/o Kurhama Tehsil
Wakora District Ganderbal has been admitted and enrolled as an Advocate
on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally for a period
of one year from the date of issuance of this notification, subject to the
verification of educational certificates/degrees from concerned University
and verification of her character and antecedents from CID. Her name has
been entered under serial No. JK-504-2026 on the Roll of Advocate
maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1720 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Malik Musaib Nisar S/o Nisar Ahmad Malik R/o Heaven Colony
Ashajipora, District Anantnag has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of his character and antecedents
from CID. His name has been entered under serial No. JK-505-2026 on
the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
262 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[No. 26
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1721 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Mansha Mohi U Din Malik D/o Haji Ghulam Mohi U Din Malik
R/o Owaisa Abad Bemina, District Srinagar has been admitted and
enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council
provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this
notification, subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees
from concerned University and verification of her character
and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under serial No.
JK-506-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1722 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Mehak Mohi U Din D/o Gh Mohi U Din Bhat R/o Kamrazi Bagh
Nazuk Mohallah Tehsil & District Anantnag has been admitted and
enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council
provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this
notification, subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees
from concerned University and verification of her character and
antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under serial No. JK-
507-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
263
Notification
No. 1723 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Mir Furqan Ali S/o Ali Mohammad Mir R/o Bala Tehsil Watergam
District Baramulla has been admitted and enrolled as an Advocate on the
rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally for a period of one
year from the date of issuance of this notification, subject to the
verification of educational certificates/degrees from concerned University
and verification of his character and antecedents from CID. His name has
been entered under serial No. JK-508-2026 on the Roll of Advocate
maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1724 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Mir Mahpara D/o Ghulam Mohammad Mir R/o Sogam Lolab Tehsil
Sogam District Kupwara has been admitted and enrolled as an Advocate
on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally for a period
of one year from the date of issuance of this notification, subject to the
verification of educational certificates/degrees from concerned University
and verification of her character and antecedents from CID. Her name has
been entered under serial No. JK-509-2026 on the Roll of Advocate
maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1725 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Mohammad Muzamil Bhat S/o Altaf Hussain Bhat R/o Manigam
Tehsil Lar District Ganderbal has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
264 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[No. 26
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of his character and antecedents
from CID. His name has been entered under serial No. JK-510-2026 on
the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1726 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Mohammad Shahnawaz Khatana S/o Ghulam Mohammad Khatana
R/o Chattergul Tehsil Kangan District Ganderbal has been admitted and
enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council
provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this
notification, subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees
from
concerned
University
and
verification
of
his
character
and antecedents from CID. His name has been entered under serial
No. JK-511-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1727 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Mudasira Maqbool D/o Muhammad Maqbool Mir R/o Mir Mohalla
Shadab Kerawa Tehsil & District Shopian has been admitted and enrolled
as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council
provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this
notification, subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees
from concerned University and verification of her character
and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under serial
No. JK-512-2026 on the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
265
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1728 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Mumtaza D/o Gulam Mohammad Marazi R/o Shah Colony Bemina
Tehsil & District Srinagar has been admitted and enrolled as an Advocate
on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally for a period
of one year from the date of issuance of this notification, subject to the
verification of educational certificates/degrees from concerned University
and verification of her character and antecedents from CID. Her name has
been entered under serial No. JK-513-2026 on the Roll of Advocate
maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1729 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Mr. Mustafa Owais Bhat S/o Abdul Gani Bhat R/o Iqbal Abad Sozeith
Tehsil Narbal District Budgam has been admitted and enrolled as an
Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally
for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this notification,
subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees from
concerned University and verification of her character and antecedents
from CID. Her name has been entered under serial No. JK-514-2026 on
the Roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
266 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
[No. 26
Notification
No. 1744 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Suriya Mushtaq D/o Mushtaq Ahmad Mir R/o Mandi Mohalla
Harwan, District Srinagar has been admitted and enrolled as an Advocate
on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council provisionally for a period
of one year from the date of issuance of this notification, subject to the
verification of educational certificates/degrees from concerned University
and verification of her character and antecedents from CID. Her name has
been entered under serial No. JK-529-2026 on the roll of Advocate
maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
———
Notification
No. 1730 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 04-08-2026
It is hereby notified that vide High Court Order dated 30.07.2026
Ms. Nafia Malik D/o Abdul Majid Malik R/o Nageen Bagh Krank Shiven
Colony, Tehsil Tarzoo Sopore, District Baramulla has been admitted and
enrolled as an Advocate on the rolls of Jammu and Kashmir Bar Council
provisionally for a period of one year from the date of issuance of this
notification, subject to the verification of educational certificates/degrees
from concerned University and verification of her character
and antecedents from CID. Her name has been entered under serial No.
JK-515-2026 on the roll of Advocate maintained by this Registry.
The renewal/extension of provisional licence/enrollment must be
sought before the date of expiry unless the absolute/final enrollment as an
Advocate is ordered there before.
By order.
Sd/-
SYED MUJTABA HUSSAIN,
Registrar Administration.
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139]
Srinagar, Thu., the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv.., 1948. [No. 26
——————————————————————————————–
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART I—B
Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT
DEPARTMENT, SRINAGAR/JAMMU
Subject :—Restructuring and renaming of Urban Environmental
Engineering Department, Jammu/Kashmir.
———
Government Order No. 198-JK(HUD) of 2026
Dated 21.09.2026
Sanction is hereby accorded to the restructuring and renaming of the
offices
of
the
Urban
Environmental
Engineering
Department,
Jammu/Kashmir, in terms of reorganization of the UEED ordered vide
Government Order No. 29-JK(HUD) of 2026 dated 05.02.2026, forming
Annexure of this Government Order.
194
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
Further, the Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO) powers in respect of
the following offices are delegated to the officers indicated against each :
S.
No.
Name of the Office
DDO powers
delegated to
1.
a. Office of the Chief Engineer(s),
UEED, Jammu/Kashmir.
b. Office of the Superintending
Engineer(s), UEED,
Jammu/Kashmir.
Accounts Officer
concerned
2.
UEED Division(s)
Executive
Engineer
(Civil)
By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.
Sd/-
MANDEEP KAUR, IAS,
Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.
———
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
195
Annexure to the Government Order No.198-JK(HUD) of 2026
dated 21-09-2026
Urban Environmental Engineering Department, Kashmir
1. Staffing of the Office of the Chief Engineer, UEED, Kashmir :
S. No. Name of the Post
No. of Posts
1
Chief Engineer, UEED, Kashmir
1
2
Technical
Officer
to
Chief
Engineer
[Executive Engineer (Civil)]
1
3
Executive Engineer (Mechanical) [Technical
Officer to Chief Engineer]
1
4
Technical Officer to Executive Engineer
(Civil) [Assistant Engineer (Civil)]
1
5
Accounts Officer
1
6
Section Officer
1
7
Senior Stenographer
1
8
Assistant Accounts Officer
1
9
Statistical Officer
1
10
Head Draftsman
1
11
Head Assistant
1
12
Accountant
1
13
Statistical Assistant
1
14
Junior Assistant
1
15
Driver
1
16
Works Supervisor
1
17
Orderly (MTS)
1
Total
17
2. Staffing of the Office of the Superintending Engineer, UEED,
Kashmir :
S. No.
Name of the Post
No. of Posts
1
Superintending Engineer, UEED, Kashmir
1
2
Technical Officer to Superintending Engineer
[Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil)]
1
3
Head Assistant
1
196
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
4
Junior Assistant
1
5
Orderly (MTS)
1
Total
5
3. Staffing of each of the ten (10) Divisions of UEED, Kashmir
(i)
UEED Division (Left River), Srinagar
(ii)
UEED Division (Right River), Srinagar
(iii) UEED Division, Ganderbal
(iv) UEED Division, Bandipora
(v)
UEED Division, Baramulla
(vi) UEED Division, Pulwama
(vii) UEED Division, Budgam
(viii) UEED Division, Kupwara
(ix) UEED Division, Anantnag
(x)
UEED Division, Kulgam-Shopian
S. No.
Name of the Post
No. of Posts
1
Executive Engineer (Civil)
1
2
Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil)
1
3
Assistant Executive Engineer
(Mechanical)
1
4
Assistant Engineer (Civil)
1
5
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical)
1
6
Technical Officer to Executive Engineer
(Civil) [Assistant Engineer (Civil)]
1
7
Assistant Accounts Officer
1
8
Head Draftsman
1
9
Junior Engineer (Civil)
1
10
Junior Engineer (Mechanical)
1
11
Senior Assistant
1
11
Junior Assistant
1
Total
12
Total for 10 Divisions
120
Grand Total for UEED, Kashmir
142
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948.
197
Urban Environmental Engineering Department, Jammu
1. Staffing of the Office of the Chief Engineer, UEED, Jammu :
S.
No.
Name of the Post
No. of
Posts
1
Chief Engineer, UEED, Jammu
1
2
Technical Officer to Chief Engineer
[Executive Engineer (Civil)]
1
3
Executive Engineer (Mechanical) [Technical
Officer to Chief Engineer]
1
4
Technical Officer to Executive Engineer
(Civil) [Assistant Engineer (Civil)]
1
5
Accounts Officer
1
6
Section Officer
1
7
Senior Stenographer
1
8
Assistant Accounts Officer
1
9
Statistical Officer
1
10 Head Draftsman
1
11 Head Assistant
1
12 Accountant
1
13 Statistical Assistant
1
14 Junior Assistant
1
15 Driver
1
16 Works Supervisor
1
17 Orderly (MTS)
1
TOTAL
17
2. Staffing of the Office of the Superintending Engineer, UEED,
Jammu
S.
No.
Name of the Post
No. of
Posts
1
Superintending Engineer, UEED, Jammu
1
2
Technical Officer to Superintending Engineer
[Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil)]
1
3
Head Assistant
1
4
Orderly (MTS)
1
Total
4
198
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
3. Staffing of each of the ten (10) Divisions of UEED, Jammu
(i)
UEED Division (Left River), Jammu
(ii)
UEED Division (Right River), Jammu
(iii)
UEED Division, Kathua
(iv) UEED Division, Samba
(v)
UEED Division, Udhampur
(vi)
UEED Division, Reasi
(vii) UEED Division, Rajouri
(viii) UEED Division, Poonch
(ix)
UEED Division, Ramban
(x)
UEED Division, Doda-Kishtwar
S.
No.
Name of the Post
No. of Posts
1
Executive Engineer (Civil)
1
2
Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil)
1
3
Assistant Executive Engineer (Mechanical)
1
4
Assistant Engineer (Civil)
1
5
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical)
1
6
Technical Officer to Executive Engineer
(Civil) [Assistant Engineer (Civil)]
1
7
Assistant Accounts Officer
1
8
Head Draftsman
1
9
Junior Engineer (Civil)
1
10 Junior Engineer (Mechanical)
1
11 Senior Assistant
1
12 Junior Assistant
1
TOTAL
12
Total for 10 Divisions
120
Grand Total for UEED, Jammu.
141
Total
for
the
Urban
Environmental
Engineering Department, Jammu/Kashmir
283
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139]
Srinagar, Thu., the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
——————————————————————————————–
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART II—B
Notifications, Notices and Orders by the Heads of Departments.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
OFFICE OF THE DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, JAMMU
WAZARAT ROAD, JAMMU-180001 (J&K)–INDIA.
Declaration Under Section 19(1)
Notification No. 03 of 2026
Dated 24-08-2026
Whereas it appears to the Government of Jammu & Kashmir that a
total of 12 Marlas land situated at Village Patnyal, Tehsil Marh, District
Jammu is required for public purpose i.e. for construction of community
Hall ;
Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition, Sub Divisional Magistrate
Marh, vide Order No. 01 of 2025 dated 28-04-2025 constituted a
Committee under Section 4 of RTFCTLARR Act 2013 for preliminary
6566 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
verification of Social Impact Assessment. Whereas, Committee so
constituted conducted joint spot visit and submitted its report that:
1. The building already stands constructed over the subject land
and the same is required to be acquired in compliance with the
directions of the Hon'ble High Court. Further, the
revenue officials, including Tehsildar, Marh and the
concerned Naib Tehsildar, Shahzadpur, have reported that no
alternate/common land is available for the intended
purpose.
2. The particulars furnished, viz. Khasra No. 562 and area
measuring 12 Marlas have been verified and found correct by
the revenue authorities.
3. The area measuring 12 Marlas has been found to be the bare
minimum requirement for the project.
4. The proposed acquisition has been found to be consistent with
the provisions of the Act.
5. No displacement or rehabilitation is involved in the instant
case”.
Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition, Sub-Divisional Magistrate
Marh vide No. SDM/M/LA/25-26/45-48 dated 13-08-2025 considered the
report of above said committee as the SIA (Social Impact Assessment) and
issued preliminary notification u/s 11(1) of Right to Fair Compensation
and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
Act 2013, and called for objections from the interested person(s)
within a period of sixty days from the date of publication of the
Notification ; and
Whereas, no objection was received within the stipulated time, and
against the notification issued under section 11(1) of Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act 2013 ; and
Whereas, after due examination of the report furnished by the
Collector, Land Acquisition, Sub-Divisional Magistrate Marh, the
Government is satisfied after considering the report made by the Collector
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6567
that the land particulars of which are given below is required for public
purposes :—
S.
No.
Name
of
Village
Type of
Title
Private/
Govt./
Common
Type of
land
Rural/
Urban
Khasra
No.
Area under
Acquisition
Trees
Structure
K.
M. Type
of
trees
No. of
trees
1. Patnyal Private
Rural
562
0
12
–
–
–
Total
0
12
–
–
–
Now, therefore, it is hereby declared under the provision of
Section 19(1) of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land
Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 that the said land
is required for public purpose i.e. for construction of community Hall at
Village Patnyal, Tehsil Marh, District Jammu;
The number of families likely to be resettled due to Land
Acquisition is Nil.
A plan of the land may be inspected in the office of the Collector
and Tehsildar concerned on any working day.
Sd/-
DR. RAKESH MINHAS, IAS,
Deputy Commissioner, Jammu.
———
IN THE COURT OF DISTRICT JUDICIAL MOBILE MAGISTRATE
(TRAFFIC), UDHAMPUR
File No. 142/Challan/2017
CNR No. : JKUD030004142017
D. O. Instt. : 18-03-2017
D. O. Order : 13-08-2026
Case Title :– UT through SHO P/S Rehambal
V/s
Irfan Ahmed and anr.
Case FIR No. 68/2016 under Sections 188 IPC & 3 PCA Act.
Coram : Rishabh Koushal (JK00309)
6568 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
Warrant of Arrest u/s 512 Crpc
Whereas in the above said case Parvez Ahmed S/o Noor din
R/o Surinsar Tehsil Jhajharkotli, District Jammu who is facing trial before
this Court has absconded and his immediate arrest in the near future is not
possible and the bail bonds and personal bonds already stand forfeited. As
such the general warrants of arrest u/s 512 Crpc are issued against the
above named accused. This is to authorize you to arrest the accused
wherever he is found and produce the accused before the Court. The
general warrant of arrest shall remain in existence till the accused is
arrested and the warrants are recalled by the Court.
Given under my hand and the seal of this Court this today on 13-08-2026.
Sd/-
RISHABH KOUSHAL,
District, Judicial Mobile Magistrate (T),
Udhampur.
———
IN THE COURT OF SPL. MOBILE MAGISTRATE PASSENGER
TAX JAMMU
File No. 711/2026
D.O.I : 27-03-2026
State V/s Ankur Abrol and ors
FIR No.121/2023
P.S–Crime Branch Jammu.
Offence U/s : 420,120-B IPC.
General Warrant of arrest against the Accused
In the above titled case, the proceedings U/s 299 Cr.P.C have been
initiated against the above mentioned accused Namely Ankur Abrol
S/o Late Sh. Suresh Abrol R/O Hazuri Bagh Lane No. 04 Bohri Jammu
Tehsil and Distt. Jammu, vide order dated 27/03/2026 of this court and an
order for issuing general warrant of arrest has been passed against the
above cited accused. As such, you are hereby directed and authorized
through the medium of this general warrant of arrest to arrest the above
mentioned accused, whenever and wherever he is found either in the union
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6569
territory of J&K or elsewhere, and produce him in the Court of the
undersigned.
Given under my hand and seal of this Court today on 14th day of
August, 2026.
Sd/-
Spl. Mobile Magistrate,
Passanger, Tax, Court,
Jammu.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
OFFICE OF THE COLLECTOR LAND ACQUISITION
(ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER REVENUE), REASI.
Mini Secretariat, District Administrative Complex,
Reasi-182311 (J&K) India.
Subject :—Final award under Section 23 of the Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 read with Rule 32
of the Jammu and Kashmir Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement (Social Impact Assessment and Consent)
Rules, 2023, for the land measuring 01 Kanal (local)
situated at Village Sunarian, Tehsil Pouni, District Reasi to be
acquired for “Construction of Veterinary Dispensary at
Ransoo”.
Detail of Land Acquisition Case
Indenting Department
Director,
Sheep
Husbandry
Department, Jammu
Purpose of land acquisition
Construction
of
Veterinary
Dispensary at Ransoo
Location of the Project
Village Sunarian, Tehsil Pouni,
District Reasi
Total
area
proposed
for
acquisition
01 Kanal (local)
6570 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
Notification
of
SIA
issued
bearing No.
DCREASI-LAoLAAC/1/2024-06-
DC Office Reasi (Outside Sectt.)
(Computer No. 7548676) dated
02-08-2025.
Notification issued under section
11(1) of RFCTLARR Act, 2013
bearing No.
DC/Rsi/LA(ACR)/25-26/73-85
(7548676) dated 10-09-2025
Notification issued under section
19 of RFCTLARR Act, 2013
bearing No.
01-DC(Rsi) of 2026 issued under
endorsement
No.
DC/Rsi/SQ/
25-26/5155-62 dated 21-02-2026
Notification issued under section
21 of RFCTLARR Act, 2013
bearing No.
DC/Rsi/LA(ACR)25-26/185-96
dated 30-03-2026
Final Award
1. Preliminary Proceedings :
The Director, Sheep Husbandry Department, Jammu placed an
indent vide No. DSHJ/F&F/2025-26/1503-1505 dated 25-04-2025 for
acquisition of land for public purpose namely "Construction of Veterinary
Dispensary at Ransoo" situated at Village Sunarian, Tehsil Pouni, District
Reasi. The Revenue Department prepared the revenue papers and map of
Identified land measuring 01 Kanal (local) situated at Village Sunarian,
Tehsil Pouni, District Reasi.
(I)
SIA Exemption : The Deputy Commissioner/District Collector by
virtue of powers vested upon him/her as appropriate Government
under the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 read with JKRFCTLARR(SIAC)
Rules, 2023, subsequently granted the approval for considering the
preliminary report as SIA vide No. DCREAS-LAOLAAC/1/2024-
06-DC Office Reasi, (Outside Sectt) (Computer No.7548676) dated
02-08-2025.
(II) Preliminary Notification : A preliminary notification under
Sub-Section (1) of Section 11 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013
was issued by this Collectorate vide No. DC/Rsi/LA(ACR)/
25-26/73-85 (7548676) dated 10-09-2025. The Notification was
served upon the land owners, Interested persons and the indenting
department, who were asked to file their objections, If any, within
60 days from the date of issuance/publication of this Notification.
The notice was published in local dailies, pasted at the conspicuous
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6571
places like Patwar Khana and Panchayat Ghar of the concerned
Village, published in the Government Gazettee and uploaded on
NIC website of District Reasi for public information.
The particulars of the land as per authenticated Revenue record/
field book as mentioned in the Notification under section 11(1)
dated 10-09-2025 and section 21 dated 30-03-2026 are as under :—
S.
No
.
Name of
the land
owners
Name of
Cultivator
Name of
occupant
Khasra
No.
Area
Kind
of
soil
Boundaries
Trees
Structures
K M
N
S
E
W
Var-
iety
No. Type Plinth
1. Suraj
Ram,
Jagdish
Raj,
Balwant
Singh,
Jagdev
Singh,
sons Mst.
Satya
Devi,
Vidya
Devi,
Pushpa
Devi,
Usha
Devi,
daughters.
Mst. Kiko
Wd/o
Sabeku in
equal
share
Dhayar
Rajput.
Self
Cultivation
Balwant
Singh
Co-sharer
Self
Cultivation
Balwant
Singh
Co-sharer
Through
Vishal
Singh son
79 min
1
0
W-1 Khasra
No. 114
(State
land)
Khasra
No. 79
(Suraj
Ram &
Ors).
Khasra
No. 79
min
(Suraj
Ram &
Ors.)
Khasra
No. 79
min
(Suraj
Ram &
Ors.)
--
--
--
--
Total
1
0
2. Declaration under section 19 (1) of RFCTLARR Act, 2013 that
land is required for public purpose :
This Collectorate requested the appropriate Government (Deputy
Commissioner) Reasi under the Act, vide No.DC/Rsi/LA(ACR)/25-
26/130-32 dated 7-01-2026, to issue a declaration under section 19 of
the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 stating that the land measuring 01 Kanal
(local) at village Sunarian, Tehsil Pouni, District Reasi is required for
the public purpose namely “Construction of Veterinary Dispensary at
Ransoo”. In response to the request, the appropriate Government
issued declaration vide Notification No. 01-DC(Rsi) of 2026 under
endorsement No. DC/Rsi/SQ/25-26/5155-62 dated 21-02-2026
6572 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
endorsing a copy to this office with direction to follow all the
provisions of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, LB-10 of 1980 or any other
relevant laws while determining compensation due to the rightful
claimants.
3. Notice under section 21 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013:
A notice under section 21 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 was issued
by this Collectorate vide No. DC/Rsi/LA(ACR)/25-26/185-96
dated 30-03-2026. All stakeholders, landowners and interested persons
were invited to file their objections, if any, within 30 days from the date
of publication of the notice i.e. by or before 30-04-2026. The
notice was widely publicized as per the provisions of the RFCTLARR
Act, 2013. No objections were received in response to notice under
section 21 of the Act.
4. Basis of determination of the Market Value:
As per Section 26 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the Collector
shall adopt the following criteria to assess and determine the award of
land :
(a) The market value, if any, specified in the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(2 of 1899) for the registration of sale deeds or agreements to sell,
in the area where the land is situated.
(b) The average sale price of similar type of land situated in the
nearest village or vicinity area.
(c) The consented amount of compensation as agreed under sub
section 2 of section 2 in the case of acquisition of land for private
companies or public private partnership projects.
5. Determination of Market Value of the land :
The market value of the land has been assessed and proposed as
per the Stamp Duty rates notified by the Deputy Commissioner Reasi
vide Notification No. 11-DC (Rsi) of 2024 dated 31-12-2024
issued under endorsement No. DC/Rsi/SQ/24-25/7589041/5504-24
dated 31-12-2024 for the year 2025 (the year of section 11 notification).
The proposed market value has been approved in the Collector's
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6573
meeting held on 06-08-2026 and recorded in the minutes of the meeting
vide No. DC/Rsi/SQ/26-27/3439-46 dated 11-08-2026.
S.
No.
Stamp Duty notification No.
& Date for the year 2025
Name of
the
Village
Tehsil
Type
of
land
Rate per
Kanal
Remarks
1. 11-DC(Rsi) of 2024 dated
31-12-2024
issued
under
endorsement No. DC/Rsi/SQ/
24-25/7589041/5504-24
dated 31-12-2024 for the
year 2025
Sunarian
Pouni
W-I
2,64,000/-
6. Multiplication Factor :
As per the Notification issued by the Revenue Department,
Government of Jammu & Kashmir vide No. Rev/LAJK/254/2020
dated 26-08-2020, the multiplication factor for rural areas is 2.00
(Two).
7. Value of Assets attached to the land :
No structures or fruit-bearing/non-fruit-bearing trees have come under
the acquisition.
8. Solatium :
As per the provisions of section 30 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013,
"Solatium" amount equivalent to one hundred percent of the
compensation amount has been imposed to arrive at the final award. It
is clarified that solatium amount shall be in addition to the
compensation payable to any person whose land has been acquired.
9. Additional amount @ 12% :
As per section 30 of the RFCTLARR, Act, 2013, in addition to the
market value of the land provided under section 26, an amount
calculated at the rate of (12%) twelve percent per annum on such
market value shall be awarded for the period commencing from the
date of publication of the Social Impact Assessment Study under
section 2 of section 4, till the date of the Collector's award or the date
of taking possession of the land, whichever is earlier. In the instant
case, the approval for considering the preliminary report as SIA
vide No. DCREAS-LAoLAAC/1/2024-06-DC Office Reasi (Outside
6574 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
Sectt) (Computer No.7548676) dated 02-08-2025 has been taken to
calculate additional amount @ 12% interest.
10. Award Summary :
Award summary as per schedule 01 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013
S.
No.
Description
Amount
(in Rs.)
1.
Basic market value of the land in accordance with
sub section 1 of section 26 read with Sub Section 3
of Section 26 and Section 28 of the Act
2,64,000/-
2.
Value after applying multiplication factor 2.00
(Two) in terms of Sub-Section 2 of Section 26 of the
Act (Step 1x2.0)
5,28,000/-
3.
Solatium @ 100% in terms of Section 30(1)
5,28,000/-
4.
Additional Amount (interest component) @ 12% per
annum on the market value determined under SIA
exemption date (under section 30(3)
26,212/-
5.
Damage under section 28 of the Act
Nil
6.
Total amount of compensation of land (2 + 3 + 4)
10,82,212/-
7.
Administrative Cost @ 2.5%
27,055/-
8.
Total amount of award (6+7)
11,09,267/-
11. Apportionment of compensation :
The particulars of the land and the amount of compensation,
calculated in accordance with the provisions of the RFCTLARR, Act,
2013 and the Jammu and Kashmir Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
(Social Impact Assessment and Consent) Rules 2023, are attached as
Annexure "A",
12. Possession of the land :
The possession of the land shall be handed over within 60 days from
the date on which the full amount of compensation is deposited with
this office. Notice in this regard will be issued to the land owners/
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6575
interested persons who may be in possession of the acquired land.
Upon receipt of the compensation amount from the acquiring
department, the compensation shall be disbursed to the eligible land
owners/interested persons.
13. Mode of Payment :
The payment will be made to the land owners and interested persons
according to their share as per the Revenue record at the time of
Notification u/s 11 read with Section 21 of RFCTLARR, Act, 2013.
In the event of the death of any owner, the compensation would be
paid to the legal heir of the deceased as decided by the Competent
Authority. If any mutation is registered during the process of
acquisition, the record will be updated. Additionally any outstanding
Loan/Mortgage/Charge amount against any land under acquisition,
will result withholding of the compensation until the production of a
clearance certificate/no dues/Non-Encumbrance Certificate from the
concerned Bank/Institution/Society etc. In cases where a dispute
regarding the ownership/entitlement of compensation arises, the
compensation will be withheld until resolution by the Competent
Court of Law. The compensation shall be paid through
DBT/RTGS/PFMS after necessary deduction under the Income Tax
Law. Any clerical error detected after the announcement of the Award
shall be corrected by a corrigendum to the Award. Any overpayment
to the landowners shall be recovered as arrears of land revenue under
the provisions of the J&K Land Revenue Act Svt. 1996. The
compensation for structures and trees shall be disbursed to the
beneficiaries only after the receipt of the title certificate and
demolition certificate from the competent Authority.
14. Vesting of Ownership in the Union Territory of Jammu &
Kashmir Government :
The ownership of the acquired land, as mentioned in the Notice under
section 21 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in
Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, shall
vest absolutely in the department of Sheep Husbandry, Government
of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir, free from all encumbrances.
The acquiring department/user agencies shall ensure that the
6576 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
Record of Rights and all relevant documents relating to the
ownership/occupancy of the said land are updated via mutation as per
existing laws to show the transfer of the land in the name of Sheep
Husbandry Department, Jammu, Government of Union Territory of
Jammu & Kashmir consequent to taking over possession of the said
land and the payment of the compensation to the entitled persons.
15. Announcement of Final Award :
Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred upon me by virtue
of section 26 read with section 30 of the Right to Fair Compensation
and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013, and Rule 32 of the Jammu and Kashmir
Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Social Impact Assessment and
Consent) Rules, 2023, I, Nitin Verma, Assistant Commissioner
Revenue (Collector Land Acquisition) Reasi, do hereby pass an
award of Rs.11,09,267-(Rupees eleven lacs nine thousand two
hundred and sixty seven only) for the land measuring 01 Kanal as
detailed above situated at village Sunarian, Tehsil Pouni, District
Reasi for “Construction of Veterinary Dispensary at Ransoo”.
Notice of this award be given to the land owners/interested persons
by publishing the same in the Government Gazette, Newspapers, the
official website of the district, and also on the notice board of this
Collectorate, office of Tehsildar Pouni, Panchayat Ghar, Patwar
Khana and other prominent places as per the provisions laid down in
the RFCTLARR Act, 2013.
Issued under my seal and signature, this 2nd day of September, 2026.
Sd/-
NITIN VERMA, KAS,
Collector Land Acquisition,
(Assistant Commissioner, Revenue)
Reasi.
———
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6577
6578 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
IN THE COURT OF ADDITIONAL SESSIONS JUDGE (SPECIAL
JUDGE UNDER NDPS ACT), UDHAMPUR
Present : Y. P Sharma
J. O. Code : JK00124
File No. 08/NDPS/Spl. Challan
Registration No. NDPS/8/2018
Date of Institution : 24.04.2018
Date of Order : 17.08.2026
UT of JK through Police Station, Udhampur
FIR No. 92/2018
Offences U/s 8/15/29 NDPS Act.
V/s.
1. Dilbagh Singh S/o Gurdev Singh R/o Dalla Tehsil Jagrwon District
Ludhiana.
General Warrant of Arrest Under Section 512 Cr.PC/299Cr.PC.
To
SHO Police Station, Udhampur
Through Ld. APP
Whereas, in the above said case titled, the accused namely Dilbagh
Singh S/o Gurdev Singh R/o Dalla Tehsil Jagrwon District Ludhiana who
is facing trial before this court and the police report dated 09.09.2024
revealed that above said accused has shifted to Canada alongwith his
family in violation of his bail conditions. His personal bonds were
forfeited, a Robkhar was framed and show-cause notices were issued to
his sureties. Fresh Non Bailable Warrants issued through SSP Udhampur
have repeatedly returned unexecuted. Police tracking team led by ASI
Govind Sharma appeared in person and stated that they conducted raids
and checked the house of accused person in Punjab. The house was found
locked. Accused namely Dilbagh Singh S/o Gurdev Singh R/o Dalla
Tehsil Jagrwon District Ludhiana is reported to be in Canada to evade
arrest and his immediate arrest in the near future is not possible.
As such the General Warrant of Arrest under section 512 Cr. PC/299
Cr. PC is issued against the above said accused. This is to authorize you
to arrest the accused wherever they are found and produce the accused
No. 26]
The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6579
before the court. The general warrant of arrest shall remain in existence
till the accused are arrested and the warrant are recalled by the court.
Given under my hand and the seal of the court today on 17.08.2026.
Sd/-
Y. P. SHARMA,
Additional Sessions Judge,
Udhampur.
———
IN THE COURT OF ADDITIONAL SESSIONS JUDGE (SPECIAL
JUDGE UNDER NDPS ACT), UDHAMPUR
Present : Y. P Sharma
J. O. Code : JK00124
File No. 106/Challan/NDPS
Registration No. NDPS/17/2021
CNR No. JKUD010003212021
Date of Institution : 28.06.2021
Date of Order : 31.07.2026
UT of JK through Police Station, Udhampur
FIR No. 108/2021
Offences U/s 8/15 NDPS Act.
V/s.
1. Mohd Shafi S/o Ghulam Hussain R/o Sunder Check, Tehsil and
District Pathankot, Pubjab.
General Warrant of Arrest Under Section 512 Cr.PC/299Cr.PC.
To
SHO Police Station, Udhampur
Through Ld. APP
Whereas, in the above said case titled, the accused namely Mohd
Shafi S/o Ghulam Hussain R/o Sunder Check, Tehsil and District
Pathankot, Pubjab who is facing trial before this court has absconded since
07.01.2022 and it has been proved to the satisfaction of the court that his
6580 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
immediate arrest in the near future is not possible and the bail bonds stands
already forfeited.
As such the General Warrant of Arrest under section 512 Cr. PC is
issued against the above said accused and proceedings U/s. 299 Cr.PC
have been initiated. This is to authorize you to arrest the accused wherever
he is found and produce the accused before the Court. The general warrant
of arrest shall remain in existence till the accused is arrested and the
warrant is recalled by the Court.
Given under my hand and the seal of the Court today on 31.07.2026.
Sd/-
Y. P. SHARMA,
Additional Sessions Judge,
Udhampur.
———
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (Old name) Rozy Jan to (New Name)
Rouzi Jan. In future I will be known as Rouzi Jan.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirement in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of
UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
———
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6581
NOTIFICATION
I, Wakeel Ahmad Malik F/o Muneeb Wakeel R/o Khuri Batapora
Jagir, Tehsil D.H Pora, and District Kulgam declare that my ward’s name
and DoB have been wrongly entered in Aadhaar Card under Aadhar No.
3690 3308 9543 as Muneeb Ahmad Malik instead as Muneeb Wakeel and
DoB as 4-12-2009 instead as 15-4-2013. Now, I want to apply for
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 5596 3489 4581 my ward’s
name recorded as Sadiya Batool instead of Aleena Muzafar. It needs
correction.
Muzafar Ahmad Wani F/o Aleena Muzafar
R/o Takiya, Gopalpora, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6582 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 9650 5164 2370 my ward’s
name has been recorded as Mufaiz Ahmad Malik instead of Mufaiz Irshad.
It needs correction.
Irshad Ahmad Malik F/o Mufaiz Irshad
R/o Khee, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that I Nasreena Bagam
W/o Shawaiz Ahmad R/o Dhani, Karnah, Kupwara hereby declare that my
daughter’s name has been wrongly mentioned as Aayta Shawaiz in
Aadhaar records. The correct name is Ayait Shawaiz. Now, I am applying
for correction in her Aadhaar Card records accordingly.
Nasreena Bagam W/o Shawaiz Ahmad
R/o Dhani, Karnah, District Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6583
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Hamid Khan F/o Zainab Hameed R/o Zugoo Kharin, Tehsil
Khansahib, District Budgam bearing Aadhaar No. 9820 3334 2607 do
hereby declare that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in my
Aadhaar Card as Zanibe. That my ward’s correct name is Zainab Hameed
as recorded in my Birth Certificate and other genuine documents. That this
affidavit is made to certify that Zanibe and Zainab Hameed refer to one
and the same person. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is an information for general public that the Aadhaar Card of my
daughter bearing registration No. 7541 1573 2796 her name has been
mistakenly mentioned as Abreena Mehraj while as her Actual and correct
name as per her school records is Arbeena Mehraj. Now, I want to apply
for its correction.
Mehraj Ud-din Hundoo F/o Arbeena Mehraj
R/o Laharwalpora, Bandipora, District Bandipora,
J&K, India, Pin code 193502.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6584 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Maqdar Hussain S/o Gulzar Hussain R/o Kotli Kalaban, Tehsil
Manjakote, District Rajouri hereby state that my name is wrongly written
as Muqaddar Hussain in Aadhaar Card with No. 7628 7387 4564 instead
of actual name as Maqdar Hussain. Now, I have applied for correction of
particulars in Aadhaar Card.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohammad Zahim Abas S/o Lal Hussain R/o Ghambir Mughlan,
Tehsil Manjakote, District Rajouri hereby state that my name is wrongly
written as Mohd Zahim Abass in Aadhaar Card with No. 2376 0943 5050
instead of correct name Mohammad Zahim Abas. Now, I have applied for
correction of particulars in Aadhaar Card.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6585
NOTIFICATION
My name has been wrongly written as Rafiq Ah Ganaie while my
correct name is Rafiq Ahmad Ganie. Now, I have applied for the
correction of the same.
Rafiq Ahmad Ganie S/o Abdul Rashid Ganie
R/o Bongam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
6640 7667 8952 my name is wrongly entered as Sunana Shafi instead of
Sunaina Shafi. Now, I want to correct this.
Sunaina Shafi D/o Mohammad Shafi Dar
R/o Adder, Bijbehara Anantnag, J&K, 192124.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6586 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7912 8981 3249 name is wrongly entered as Shazia Banoo instead of
Shazia Gull. Now, I want to correct this.
Shazia Gull D/o Gh Rasool Khandy
R/o Tangwani, Nowbugh, Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
5609 9034 5583 name is wrongly entered as Gh Mohd Lone instead of
Gulam Mohmad Lone. Now, I want to correct this.
Gulam Mohmad Lone S/o Habibullah Lone
R/o Lonepoora Devalgam, Anantnag, J&K, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6587
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2214 6835 5726 name is wrongly entered as Yasmeen Jan instead of
Yasmeena Akhter. Now, I want to correct this.
Yasmeena Αkhter D/o Farooq Ahmad Dar
R/o Nala Sundbrari, Kokernag, Anantnag, J&K, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2384 4207 1298 name is wrongly entered as Sajad Ahmad Chopan instead
of Sajid Ahmad Chopan. Now, I want to correct this.
Sajid Ahmad Chopan S/o Manzoor Ahmad Chopan
R/o Rain Arther, Larnoo, Anantnag, J&K, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6588 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7306 8557 4486, Pan Card bearing No. CKYPA0585N and in School
Record’s Name is wrongly entered as Haseena Akhter instead of Syed
Hassina Akhter. Now, I want to correct this.
Syed Hassina Akhter W/o Nazir Ahmad Reshi
R/o Old Qazi Bagh, Anantnag, J&K, 192101.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my JK Bank Account, Branch
Larnoo bearing No. 0160040150001160 name is wrongly entered as
Amina Akther instead of Meena Banoo. Now, I want to correct this.
Meena Banoo W/o Parvez Ahmad Chohan
R/o Hallan, Nowbugh, Anantnag, J&K, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6589
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2770 8823 1539 name is wrongly entered as Naseem Begum instead of
Naseem Akhtar. Now, I want to correct this.
Naseem Akhtar W/o Shokit Ali
R/o Bhella Khawas, Rajouri, Jammu and Kashmir, 185201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Manzoor Ahmad Tantry S/o Abdul Khaliq Tantry R/o Waltengo
Kund, District Kulgam declare that I have Demat Account No. 10511314
with JKB FSL having DP ID IN303249 but my name is inadvertently
written on my Demat Account as Tantray Manzoor Ahamad S/o Abdul
Khaliq Tantray instead of my correct name Manzoor Ahmad Tantry S/o
Abdul Khaliq Tantry. Now, applying for correction for the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6590 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Ab Rehman Zargar S/o Mohd Ramzan Zargar R/o Ranipora,
Shangus, Anantnag hereby inform the general public that my name and
parentage have been wrongly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7573 4467 8044 as Abdul Rehman Zargar S/o Mohammad Ramzan Zargar
whereas my correct and actual name and parentage is Ab Rehman Zargar
S/o Mohd Ramzan Zargar. Both names refer to one and the same person,
i.e., myself. This notice is issued for correction of my name and parentage
in official records.
Ab Rehman Zargar S/o Mohd Ramzan Zargar
R/o Ranipora, Shangus, Anantnag, 192201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
General public is hereby informed that the name of my son has been
incorrectly recorded as Aharan Ahmad Sood in his Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 3587 1577 6524 instead of his correct name as Sehran Aslam as per
his Birth Certificate. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohd Aslam Sood F/o Sehran Aslam
R/o Manzmoh Astan Check, Tehsil Dooru, District Anantnag, J&K.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6591
NOTIFICATION
I, Kounsar Majeed am holding 1000 of shares of J&K Bank Folio
JKB014196, where my name has been inadvertently recorded as Kounsar
Majid which is incorrect. Whereas my actual name is Kounsar Majeed. In
this regard, I am applying for correction of name under Folio.
Kounsar Majeed W/o Ghulam Mohammad Khan
R/o Nadoora, Dooru, Anantnag J&K, 192211.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Nisar Ahmed S/o Abdul Gani Dar R/o Dhunasa Town, Tehsil &
District Doda, Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir applying for
correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Evaan Ahmed
instead of Numan Nisar Dar in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8840 9683
4677.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6592 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
My name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing
Aadhaar No. 4159 4150 6310 as Fasil Gull instead of Faisal Gul. Now, I
am applying for its correction of the same.
Faisal Gul S/o Ghulam Mohammad Bhat
R/o Bandgam, Tehsil Magam, District Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Yousf holding 1000 shares of J&K Bank under folio No.
JKB025855 where my name has been inadvertently recorded as
Mohammad Yousuf Bhat which is incorrect whereas my actual name is
Mohd Yousf. In this regard I am applying for correction of name under
my folio.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6593
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7999 5545 8332 my name has been
mentioned as Abdul Majeed Dobi Whileas my correct name is Ab Majid
Kachroo. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my
Aadhaar Card.
Ab Majid Kachroo F/o Gh. Ahmad Kachroo
R/o Bilal Colony Bemina, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
The name and Sex of my ward has been wrongly mentioned in
Aadhaar card as Ahisan Ahmad Tantray C/o Bilal Ahmad Tantray (Sex
Male) instead of Ifshana Bilal D/o Bilal Ahmad Tantray (Sex Female) as
per Hospital DoB certificate under DoB 09-03-2019. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
Bilal Ahmad Tantray F/o Ifshana Bilal
R/o Shunglipora, Tehsil Khag, District Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6594 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Hussaina Hassan D/o Ghulam Hassan Lone R/o Chandigam state
that my name has been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar Card No. 7044
1356 7709 as Haseena Hassan instead of Hussaina Hassan R/o
Chandigam. Now, I want to correct my name in the Aadhaar Card as
Hussaina Hassan instead of Haseena Hassan.
Hussaina Hassan D/o Ghulam Hassan Lone
R/o Chandigam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
The name and DoB of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in
her Aadhaar Card as Shabnum Akhtar, DoB 03-03-2005 instead of
Shabnama Akhter and DoB 18-03-2007 as per school records. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
Abdul Ahad Ganaie F/o Shabnama Akhter
R/o Ramdar Chakpora, Tehsil Khag, District Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6595
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar records my name
is wrongly written as Naseema Fatimah instead of Naseem Fatima. Now,
I want to apply for its correction.
Naseem Fatima W/o Mehboob Shah
R/o Panjtaran, Karnah, Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct the name in my daughter's Aadhaar Card bearing No.
3605 0579 3653 from Mehroon Firdous to Mahreen Firdous. Now, I am
applying for this correction.
Firdous Ahmad Rather F/o Mahreen Firdous
R/o Sahipora, Tehsil Qaziabad Kralgund, 193302, District Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6596 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 9383 4179 0409.
Now, I want to change my name from Tahiba Kousar (Old Name) to
Tabiya Kaunsar (New Name).
Tabiya Kaunsar D/o Abdul Haq
R/o Daggal Halal, Rajouri, Jammu and Kashmir-185201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohammad Sarwar Khan S/o Gh. Nabi Khan R/o Dard Pora (Lolab)
state that my son's name has been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar Card
having No. 5550 2035 9583 as Muman Ahmad Khan instead of Momin
Sarwar Khan S/o Mohammad Sarwar Khan R/o Dardpora. My son's actual
name is Momin Sarwar Khan. Now, I want to make Correction in the name
of my Son as Momin Sarwar Khan S/o Mohammad Sarwar Khan R/o
Dardpora.
Mohammad Sarwar Khan F/o Momin Sarwar Khan
R/o Dardpora (Lolab).
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6597
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Tabiya Jan instead of Tabia Riyaz. Now, I want
to apply for its correction.
Tabia Riyaz D/o Riyaz Ahmad Bhat
R/o Shadab Karewa, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Ahsan Waseem Shah instead of
Mohammad Ahsan Shah. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Waseem Ahmad Shah F/o Mohammad Ahsan Shah
R/o Memandar, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6598 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Gulzar Ah. instead of Gulzar Ahmad Wagay.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Gulzar Ahmad Wagay S/o Ali Mohammad Wagay
R/o Kanipora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Rashid Khatri instead of Rashid Ahmad
Katari. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Shafi Katari F/o Rashid Ahmad Katari
R/o Devpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6599
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Momin Attari instead of Aahil Zargar.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Subhan Zargar F/o Aahil Zargar
R/o Rangmullah Machpora, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Showket Ahmad Chohan instead of Showkat
Noor. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Showkat Noor S/o Noor Mohammad Chowhan
R/o Sedow, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6600 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Baj Din Chowhan instead of Meer Baj
Chowhan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Meer Baj Chowhan S/o Jamal Din Chowhan
R/o Sedow, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Zahid Ahmad Chowhan instead of
Zahid Bashir Chowhan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Bashir Ahmad Chowhan F/o Zahid Bashir Chowhan
R/o Devpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6601
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Haleema Bano instead of Halima. Now, I want
to apply for its correction.
Halima W/o Mushtaq Ahmad Wani
R/o Shartpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Masrat Jan instead of Massart Jan. Now, I want
to apply for its correction.
Massart Jan W/o Mudasir Nabi Shah
R/o Nazneen Pora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6602 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Mohd Abas Shah instead of Peer Mohd Abass.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Peer Mohd Abass S/o Peer Gh Hassan Shah
R/o Chaterwachi, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Mudasir Yaqoob instead of Mudasir Ahmad
Malla. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mudasir Ahmad Malla S/o Mohd Yaqoob Malla
R/o Chakoora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6603
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward's name is wrongly written as Fiza Jan instead of Fizat Mubarik. Now,
I want to apply for its correction.
Mubarak Ahmad Banday F/o Fizat Mubarik
R/o Mondojan, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Mezba Jan instead of Misba Mushtaq.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mushtaq Ahmad Mir F/o Misba Mushtaq
R/o Hirpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6604 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform to general public that my child’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8855 9017 2828.
Now, I want to change his name from Anamul Haq Sheer Gojree (old
name) to Inamul Haq Sheer Gojri (new name) as per School Certificate
Document.
Nazir Ahmad Sheer Gojri F/o Inamul Haq Sheer Gojri
R/o Walkul Tekipora, Lolab.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Irma Kousar D/o Tariq Hussain R/o Dudwar, Doda, J&K, 182203
want to inform the general public that my name has been incorrectly
recorded in my Aadhaar UIDAI records 2347-1203-3435 as Iram Kousar
whereas, my actual and correct name as per my Matriculation Marks Sheet
issued by JKBOSE is Irma Kousar. Now, I want my UIDAI records to be
updated as per myMatriculation Marks Sheet issued by JKBOSE.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6605
NOTIFICATION
I, Owais Ahmad S/o Muhammad Altaf Bhat R/o Meerakshah Colony,
Hazratbal, Srinagar, 190006 want to inform the general public that my
name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
8869-7226-2196 as Owais Altaf. Whereas my actual and correct name as
per my Matriculation Marks Sheet issued by JKBOSE is Owais Ahmad.
Now, I want my correct name to be updated in my Aadhaar Card records.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Latif S/o Mohd Shaban R/o Changa, Gandoh, Doda, J&K
182203 want to inform the general public that my name has been
incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9294 6074 9443 as
Latif Mohammad. Whereas my actual and correct name as per my Birth
Certificate & Domicile Certificate issued by competent authorities is
Abdul Latif. Now, I want my correct name to be updated in my Aadhaar
Card records.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6606 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Showkat Ahmad Sofi S/o Ghulam Mohammad Sofi R/o Kani
Mohalla, Saida Kadal, Srinagar, 190003 want to inform the general public
that the name of my daughter has been incorrectly recorded in her Aadhaar
UIDAI records 8884-7716-3281 as Atif Zehra whereas, her actual and
correct name as per her Birth Certificate issued by Office of the Registrar
of Births & Deaths SMC Srinagar is Atifa Zehra. Now, I want her UIDAI
records to be updated as per her Birth Certificate.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2441 2947 8202 my name is wrongly entered as Arshid Ahmad Malik
instead of Aurshid Ahmad Malik. Now, I want to correct this.
Aurshid Ahmad Malik S/o Gulam Rasool Malik
R/o Ahanger Mohalla, Nunner, Ganderbal, J&K, 191201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6607
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Imran Parvaiz Chohan instead of Umar
Parvaiz. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Parvaiz Ahmad Chowhan F/o Umar Parvaiz
R/o Sedow, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Bilkeesa Akhter instead of Bilqies Akhter.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Bilqies Akhter W/o Tariq Ahmad Khan
R/o Narwaw, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6608 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my son’s name is wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 9318 1962 8671 as Saahbaz Ahmed
instead of Shahbaz. Now, I want to correct it.
Shahbaz F/o Mohd Yousaf
R/o Larh, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Arwa Ahsan instead of Arwa Jan. Now,
I want to apply for its correction.
Ahsan Ul Haq Qazi F/o Arwa Jan
R/o Zawoora, Baderhama, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6609
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public my son’s name is wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 6321 3067 6436 as Razwan Ahmed
instead of Razwan. Now, I want to correct it.
Jamal Din F/o Razwan
R/o Jamaslan, Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Burhan Nadeem Ganie instead of
Rehan Nadeem Ganie. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Nadeem Ahmad Ganie F/o Rehan Nadeem Ganie
R/o Mandujan, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6610 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my daughter’s name was
wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 3927 5865 9315 as Yaseem
Akhter instead of Yasmeen Akhter. Now, I want to correct it.
Yasmeen Akhter F/o Ghulam Ali
R/o Mahore Tharil, Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Mahkey Jan instead of Mehki Farooq.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Farooq Ahmad Dar F/o Mehki Farooq
R/o Checki Sidiq Khan, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6611
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my name was wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 2066 4419 6390 as Shaida Akther
instead of Shaista Akhter. Now, I want to correct it.
Shaista Akhter D/o Javid Ahmed
R/o Balmatkot, Chassot, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kalandar Hayat F/o Wahida Kosar R/o VTC Kala Ban, P.O
Kalaban, Sub District Mendhar, District Poonch, J&K, UT, 185111 state
that my daughter 's name has been wrongly written as Whaid Kouser D/o
Rifat Kousar instead of Wahida Kosar D/o Kalandar Hayat in her Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 3542 9281 7617. Now, I am applying for correction of
the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6612 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Jeevan Kumar F/o kaniya Sharma R/o Chopra Shop, Dugli Garhi,
Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 282121 state that my son’s name
has been wrongly written as Kanya Sharma instead of Kaniya Sharma in
my son’s Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 5966 1620 2274. Now, I
am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kavita Devi W/o Girdhari Lal R/o Matlowa, Tehsil Chenani,
District Udhampur declare that my daughter’s name has been wrongly
written in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7092 3721 8496 as Minkashi
Devi instead of Minakshi Devi. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6613
NOTIFICATION
I, Hansa Bibi W/o Mumtaz Ali R/o Village Kali Purani, P.O. Nai Kali,
Tehsil & District Samba, Jammu and Kashmir, UT state that my name has
been wrongly written as Hanfe instead of Hansa Bibi in my Aadhaar Card
bearing registration No. 7586 4329 1637. Now, I am applying for the
correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shaher Banoo W/o Mohd Yaseen R/o Trogen Trankuchan Tronjen,
District Kargil, Ladakh UT, 194103 declare that my name has been
wrongly written as Shahra Bagum instead of Shaher Banoo in my Aadhaar
Card bearing registration No. 9392 0164 6751. Now, I am applying for the
correction of same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6614 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Nazir Ahmed S/o Makhna R/o Village Ladh Bharnsal, Tehsil
Mahore, District Reasi, Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that the name
of my son has been incorrectly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card as
Muzzamal Hussain. The correct name of my son is Muzzmal Hussain.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Yousaf S/o Gulab din R/o Village Ladh Bharnsal, Tehsil
Mahore, District Reasi, Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that the name
of my son has been incorrectly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card as Adil
Hussin S/o Mohd Yousaf. The correct name of my son is Adil Hussain
S/o Mohd Yousaf. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6615
NOTIFICATION
I, Nasar Ahmed S/o Mohd Hussain R/o Ladh Bharnsal, Tehsil
Mahore, District Reasi, Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that my name
has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card as Nasir Ahmed. My
correct name is Nasar Ahmed S/o Mohd Hussain. I hereby declare that
Nasir Ahmed and Nasar Ahmed refer to one and the same person and my
correct and actual name is Nasar Ahmed. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Nasar Ahmed S/o Mohd Hussain R/o Ladh Bharnsal, Tehsil
Mahore, District Reasi, Jammu & Kashmir hereby give this public notice
that the name of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in her Aadhaar
Card as Shabnam Akhter D/o Nasar Ahmed whereas her correct name is
Shabnim Akhter D/o Nasar Ahmed. I hereby declare that Shabnam Akhter
and Shabnim Akhter refer to one and the same person of my daughter. The
correct name to be used for all official, educational, legal and other
purposes shall be Shabnim Akhter D/o Nasar Ahmed.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6616 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Ashrif S/o Noor Hussain R/o Ladh Bharnsal, Tehsil Mahore,
District Reasi hereby declare that my name has been incorrectly recorded
in my Aadhaar Card as Mohammad Ashraf S/o Noor Hussain. My correct
name is Mohd Ashrif S/o Noor Hussain. I hereby declare that Mohammad
Ashraf and Mohd Ashrif refer to one and the same person and my correct
and actual name is Mohd Ashrif. This declaration is made for the purpose
of correction/updation of my name in my Aadhaar Card and other official
records.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name/DoB bearing No. 8462 1184
9349 from Ulfat Ahad, DoB 01-01-1999 to Ulfata Bano, DoB 06-07-1997.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
Ulfata Bano D/o Abdul Ahad Bhat
R/o Fraw Haknar, Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6617
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform to the general public that my name has been wrongly
written as Mohammad Sideeq Khan in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar
No. 3785 6493 3977 while my correct name is Mohammad Sideeq Pathan
S/o Khani Zaman Pathan R/o Chanabal, Pattan, Baramulla which needs to
be corrected.
Mohammad Sideeq Pathan S/o Khani Zaman Pathan
R/o Chanabal, Pattan, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Ghulfam Choudhary M/o Altamash Waseem R/o Uchhad, Tehsil
Mankote hereby declare that my son’s name in Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2541 6643 1479 is incorrectly recorded as Illitmush Waseem whileas
correct name is Altamash Waseem. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6618 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Razwana Kouser W/o Basharat Hussain R/o Chhajla, Tehsil
Mankote declare that my name and DoB is incorrectly recorded in Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 9985 5125 0318 as Rizwana Kouser, 14-04-1996
whileas my correct name is Razwana Kouser and correct DoB as
12-04-1996. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mahfooz Ahmed S/o Abdul Hamid R/o Dharana, Tehsil Mendhar
declare that my daughter’s name is incorrectly recorded as Azia Mahfooz
but the correct name of my daughter is Aiza Mahfooz. Now, I want its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6619
NOTIFICATION
I, Qutib Din F/o Mudsar Ali R/o Lower Badsoo, Badsu, Jammu, J&K
181224 state that my son's name & DoB has wrongly been written as
Mudseer Ali & DoB 20-10-2004 instead of Mudsar Ali & DoB
04-04-2004 in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5693 3225 6453. Now, I am
applying for correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Venkatasubbaiah S/o Subbarayudu R/o 31 Reddira Oni, SS Comp,
Kotal Camp, Ballari, Karnataka-583113 applying for correction of my
name which is wrongly written as Venkata Subbiah instead of correct
Venkatasubbaiah in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9165 7787 5800.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6620 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Yasmeen Kowsar W/o Mohammad Altaf R/o Gohlad, Tehsil
Mendhar hereby declare that my name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7744
6504 5438 is incorrectly recorded as Yasmeen Sumit Yati whileas my
correct name is Yasmeen Kowsar. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Azam S/o Faiz Hussain R/o Village Shahpur, Tehsil Haveli,
District Poonch applying for the correction of my daughter's name which
is wrongly written as Momna Koser instead of Momina Kouser in Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 3525 9277 9276.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6621
NOTIFICATION
It is for the information of general public that my name has been
wrongly mentioned as Yasmeena W/o Mukhtar Ahmad Bhat R/o
Hyderpora, Srinagar instead of Yasmeen W/o Mukhtar Ahmad Bhat R/o
Hyderpora, Srinagar in my Aadhaar Card under No. 4937 8407 8603.
Now, the same needs to be rectified.
Yasmeen W/o Mukhtar Ahmad Bhat
R/o Hyderpora, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Amrika Devi W/o Mohan Lal R/o Mohalla Mandie Tehsil Mohalla,
District Doda, Jammu and Kashmir state that my real name as per my
Voter Card is Amrika Devi unfortunately it is recorded as Amrita Devi in
my Aadhaar Card. Now, I am applying for correction in my name as
Amrika Devi instead of Amrita Devi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6622 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is for the information of general public that my name has been
wrongly mentioned as Khursheeda Begum C/o Mohammad Ismail Hajam
R/o Rambagh Balla, Near Punjab National Bank, Mehjoor Nagar, Srinagar
instead of Khurshi Begam C/o Mohd Ismail R/o Rambagh Balla, Near
Punjab National Bank, Mehjoor Nagar, Srinagar in my Aadhaar Card
under No. 2649 5003 7693. Now, the same needs to be rectified.
Khurshi Begam C/o Mohd Ismail Hajam
R/o Rambagh Balla, Near Punjab National Bank, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is for the information of general public that my name has been
wrongly mentioned as Sahreen Tariq D/o Tariq Ahmad Dar R/o Karpora
Khushki, Rainawari, Srinagar instead of Sehreen Tariq D/o Tariq Ahmad
Dar R/o Karapora Khushki, Rainawari, Srinagar in my Aadhaar Card
under No. 4310 7337 0011. Now, the same needs to be rectified.
Sehreen Tariq D/o Tariq Ahmad Dar
R/o Karapora, Khushki, Rainawari, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6623
NOTIFICATION
I, Dilshad Begum W/o Mohd Arif R/o Bedar Balnai, Tehsil Mandi,
District Poonch, UT of Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that due to an
inadvertently error my daughter's name has been recorded in her Aadhaar
Card as Zahira Tabassum whereas her correct and actual name is Zahira
Arif. Both names refer to one and the same person. Henceforth, she shall
be known as Zahira Arif for all official purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card vide No. 5102 2937 8841 as
Furqan instead of Furkaan Rafiq. Therefore, I want to correct his name in
Aadhaar.
Mohammad Rafiq Sheikh F/o Furkaan Rafiq
R/o Buchwara, Dalgate, Srinagar, J&K, 190001.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6624 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is an information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card
bearing registration No. 9485 4783 8029 my name has been mistakenly
mentioned as Sabreena Bano D/o Nazir Ahmad Baba. While as my actual
and correct name as per my School record is Sabreena Nazir D/o Nazir
Ahmad Baba. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Sabreena Nazir D/o Nazir Ahmad Baba
R/o Aloosa, Tehsil Aloosa, District Bandipora,
J&K, India, Ρincode 193502.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8303 6635 6959 as Somaya
Shafi instead of Sumaya Bano as per documents.
Sumaya Bano D/o Mohammad Shafi Sheikh
R/o Khanabal, Chowkibal, Tehsil Kralpora, District Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6625
NOTIFICATION
General public is informed that my name and parentage has been
incorrectly entered on my Aadhaar Card as Sharik Ahmad Sheikh S/o
Abdul Rashid Sheikh but my correct name and parentage as per my school
records is Shakir Ahmad Sheikh S/o Ab Rashid Sheikh. Now, I want to
rectify my name and parentage on my Aadhaar Card.
Shakir Ahmad Sheikh S/o Ab Rashid Sheikh
R/o Kurigam, Tehsil Qazigund, District Anantnag.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
My daughter's name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card
bearing Aadhaar No. 3956 2972 2667 as Shaffa Showkat instead of Shifa
Showkat. Now, I am applying for its correction.
Showkat Ahmad Beigh F/o Shifa Showkat
R/o Hariwatnoo, Tangmarg.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6626 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 7084 5190 4234 my name
has been enrolled as Jamshed Iqbal Khan instead of Jamshed Ahmad
Khan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Jamshed Ahmad Khan S/o Javid Ahmad Khan
R/o Khawaja Bagh Jetty, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is an information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card
bearing Registration No. 5139 5444 4194 my name has been mistakenly
mentioned as Ghulam Nabi Gojer Swathi while as my actual and correct
name is Gh Nabi Khan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Gh Nabi Khan S/o Gul Rehman Khan.
R/o Koota Sathri, Sumlar Shokbab, Bandipora,
District Bandipora, Jammu and Kashmir, India, Pin code 193502.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6627
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar bearing No. 8445 0862 3214 my name is wrongly
mentioned as Sheikh Athar S/o Abdul Rashid Sheikh instead of Ather
Rashid S/o Ab Rashid Sheikh R/o Parigam Check Teh. Yaripora Dist.
Kulgam. Now, I want to correct the same.
Ather Rashid S/o Ab Rashid Sheikh
R/o Parigam Check, Tehsil Yaripora, District Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is information for the general public that I want to change the
name of my son from Tahrees Yaqoob to Musaib Yaqoob Ganaie in
Aadhaar bearing No. 5210 4015 6107, school records, in DoB Certificate.
Mohammad Yaqoob Ganaie F/o Musaib Yaqoob Ganaie
R/o Kulbugh, Khansahib, Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6628 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my ward's Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 5770 7133 9087 name is wrongly entered as Nazarana Jan
instead of Nazrana Manzoor. Now, I want to correct this.
Manzoor Ahmad Bhat F/o Nazrana Manzoor
R/o Adigam, Kokernag, Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir, 192202.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is notified for the information of the general public that my name in
my Aadhaar Card has been wrongly entered as Aarif Ayoub while my
correct name is Mohammad Aarif Wani. Now, I want the same to be
corrected.
Mohammad Aarif Wani S/o Mohd Ayoub Wani
R/o Yaripora, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6629
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Shoaib Amin instead of Shoib Amin Bhat.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Shoib Amin Bhat S/o Mohammad Amin Bhat
R/o Sedow, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my son’s name in Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 6189 0160 0745 from Urhaan Imtiyaz to Aryan Imtiyaz Bhat.
Imtiyaz Ahmad Bhat F/o Aryan Imtiyaz Bhat
R/o Bahadurpora, Handwara, Kupwara, J&K, 193221.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6630 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3027
3239 3963 from Safeena Jaan to Safia Akhter.
Safia Akhter D/o Ghulam U Din Malla
R/o Bata Gund Langate, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193302.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my son's Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7476 6007 8182 from Salman Shabir to Zaid Shabir.
Shabir Ahmad Mir F/o Zaid Shabir
R/o Nut Nusa, Handwara, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193221.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6631
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9055
6529 3316 from Fatima Begum to Fata Begum.
Fata Begum W/o Mohd Sultan Wani
R/o Wani Mohalla Wari Pora, Guni Pora, Handwara,
Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193221.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3045
7960 2143 from Nazira Jaan to Nazira Akther.
Nazira Akther D/o Ghulam Mohammad Mir
R/o Chera Pawa Villagam, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193224.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6632 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No 5792
7870 4285 from Saima Ahad to Sayama Akhter.
Sayama Akhter D/o Abdul Ahad Mir
R/o New Coloney Jagar Pur, Kupwara, J&K, 193222.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my son’s name is wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 2973 0161 4326 as Aadil Malik
instead of Mohd Adil. Now, I want to correct it.
Bhar Din F/o Mohd Adil
R/o Bagga, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6633
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my daughter’s name was
wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 5567 0984 3877 as Ratuba
Choudhary instead of Rutba Choudhary. Now, I want to correct it.
Mohd Rafi F/o Rutba Choudhary
R/o Shajroo Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my ward's Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 9419 1970 1390 his name is wrongly entered as Mohammad
Owais Dar instead of Mohd Hafi Ullah Dar. Now, I want to correct this.
Irshad Ahmad Dar F/o Mohd Hafi Ullah Dar
R/o Chatterhama, Kashmir University, Srinagar, J&K, 190006.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6634 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public my son name is wrongly mentioned
in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 5405 1884 9602 as Mohd Mashid instead of
Mohd Mushahid. Now, I want to correct it.
Mohd Ashraf F/o Mohd Mushahid
R/o Sarh, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Subash Chand F/o Rakesh Kumar R/o Ladda, Tehsil Moungri,
District Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 182125 state that my son’s
name and DoB has been wrongly written as Angrez Chand and DoB as
29-09-2012 instead of Rakesh Kumar and DoB is 05-10-2012 in my son’s
Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 2599 5080 3021. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6635
NOTIFICATION
I, Pardeep Kumar F/o Smaksh R/o Village Nud Nai Basti Devi Pur,
P.O. Devi Pur, Tehsil Jourian, District Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir, UT
declare that my son’s name has been wrongly written as Samakesh instead
of Smaksh in my son’s Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 7715 0030
6919. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Ganesh Dass F/o Tanish Verma R/o Village Dhoun Chak, Tehsil
Khour, District Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 181202 declare that my
son’s name has been wrongly written as Tanash Verma instead of Tanish
Verma in my son’s Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 9227 2816
8114. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6636 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Abida Bibi W/o Shafeel Ahmed R/o H.No. 282, Rangoora Majeen,
District Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 180004 declare that my
husband’s name has been wrongly written as Ashraf instead of Shafeel
Ahmed in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 5968 8659 4097.
Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kailash Devi W/o Darshan Singh R/o Neeli Nallha Barola, District
Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 182121 declare that my name has
been wrongly written as Kalesh Devi instead of Kailash Devi in my
Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 7149 3527 7686. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6637
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public my daughter’s name was wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 5483 5586 5223 as Sumia Nazir
instead of Sumaya Nazir. Now, I want to correct it.
Nazir Ahmed F/o Sumaya Nazir
R/o Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Mohammad Hanan Dar instead of
Mohammad Ahmad Dar. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Maryama Gull M/o Mohammad Ahmad Dar
R/o Nagam, Kokernag, Anantnag.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6638 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public my daughter’s name was wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 2225 6889 4841 as Nadia Kouser
instead of Naida Akhter. Now, I want to correct it.
Ashaq Hussain F/o Naida Akhter
R/o Mahore, Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Perman Singh S/o Damodar Singh R/o Village Sangar Ransoo,
District Reasi, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 185203 declare that my name has
been wrongly written as Parveen Singh instead of Perman Singh in my
Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 3465 9923 9543. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6639
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my son’s name is wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 5240 9876 4563 as Javeed Ahmed
instead of Javid Ahmed. Now, I want to correct it.
Mohd Shaffi F/o Javid Ahmed
R/o Jamaslan, Tehsil Mahore, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kancharo Devi W/o Sh Perman Singh R/o Village Sangar Ransoo,
District Reasi, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 185203 declare that my name
and my husband’s name has been wrongly written as Kachroo Devi W/o
Parmeen Singh instead of Kancharo Devi W/o Perman Singh in my
Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 9727 1607 6570. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6640 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Yousaf S/o Ghulam Hussain R/o Kansooli, Tehsil Mahore,
District Reasi state that my three children names are wrongly written on
Aadhaar Card as 1. Mohd Younis instead of Mohd Younas 2. Ishfaq Ali
instead of Mohd Ashfaq 3. Mahreen Anjum instead of Mehreen Anjum.
Now, I need necessary correction of Aadhaar Cards of my children.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Dalair Singh S/o Sh Pritam Singh R/o Ward No. 8, Near GPS Dill
Billawar (Tilla), Tehsil Lohai, District Kathua, Jammu and Kashmir, UT,
184204 declare that my name and my father’s name has been wrongly
written as Pritam Singh S/o Dalair Singh instead of Dalair Singh S/o
Pritam Singh in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 6413 8442
4447. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6641
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my JK Bank Demat Account
with Client ID 10360761 name is wrongly entered as Shahida Firdous
Qureshi instead of Shahida Firdous. Now, I want to correct this.
Shahida Firdous W/o Firdous Ahmad Qureshi
R/o Qadeem Masjid Lane, Lal Bazar, Srinagar, J&K, 190011.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Anthony S/o Fransis R/o Ward No. 1, Tehsil Akhnoor, District
Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 181201.That my daughter’s name has
been wrongly written as Kesar instead of Ritika in my daughter’s Aadhaar
Card bearing registration No. 2706 0374 3293. Now, I am applying for the
correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6642 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public my son’s name is wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 2162 7689 8180 as Nashad Ahmed
instead of Nishad Ahmed. Now, I want to correct it.
Mohd Farooq F/o Nishad Ahmed
R/o Sildhar, Reasi.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Raghu Sharma F/o Paavni Sharma R/o Village Chowki Choura,
Tehsil Akhnoor, District Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 185154
declare that my daughter’s name has been wrongly written as Takshita
Sharma and DoB as 2021 instead of Paavni Sharma and DoB is
08-10-2021 in my daughter’s Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 6545
8156 1102. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6643
NOTIFICATION
It is to inform the general public that in my ward's Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 6917 5051 0358 his name is wrongly entered as Saqib Iqbal
Malik instead of Mohammad Saqib Malik. Now, I want to correct this.
Mohammad Iqbal Malik F/o Mohammad Saqib Malik
R/o Boinard, Kalarooch, Kupwara, J&K, 193222.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Aasif Khatri instead of Mohammad
Aasif Katari. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Shafi Katari F/o Mohammad Asif Katari
R/o Devpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6644 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Insha Ali W/o Sh. Sahil Kumar Najawan R/o H. No. 22, Lane No.
1, Shiv Dass Colony, Tomal Bohri, Jammu declare that I got married on
22-06-2026 according to Hindu rites and ceremonies. Post-marriage, I
have changed my name from Insha Ali to Ananya Najawan. In future, I
shall be known as Ananya Najawan for all official, legal, and personal
purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that the name of my ward has been
wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 2328 4251 4269
as Bilqees Kounsar instead of Bilqeesa Qounsar. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
Bilqeesa Qounsar W/o Sajid Akram Bhat
R/o Awantipora, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6645
NOTIFICATION
I, Anupama Bhan (old name) W/o Kuldeep Kumar Bhan R/o H.No.
190, Manorma Vihar, Bohri Patti Chungi, Jammu, J&K do hereby change
my name from Anupama Koul for all future, legal, and other purposes,
including all cards and official documents, I shall be known as Anupama
Koul only. It is declared that both Anupama Bhan and Anupama Koul refer
to one and the same person.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In my child’s Aadhaar Card his name is wrongly mentioned as Musaib
Nazir instead of Pirzada Musaib Nazir. Now, I want to correct the same.
Nazir Ahmad Shah F/o Pirzada Musaib Nazir
R/o Reshi Gund, Tehsil Kralpora, District Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6646 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Muntazira Nabi while my correct name as
per my documents is Muntazir Nabi. Now, I want to update my name in
my Aadhaar as Muntazir Nabi instead of Muntazira Nabi.
Muntazir Nabi D/o Gulam Nabi Bhat
R/o Kral Gund Brah Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir, 192201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
My name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Guddu
Jan under Aadhaar No. 4874 5496 1278 while my correct name is Ruby
Jan as per my School Documents and other Documents.
C/o Mohd Iqbal Shah
R/o Logri Pora, Reshkubal, Pahalgam,
Anantnag, Jammu and kashmir, 192126.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6647
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 8404 0963 3153
from Shaista Iqbal to Shaista Fayaz. Now, I am applying for its Correction.
Shaista Fayaz D/o Fayaz Ahmad Dar
R/o Marat Gam, Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Ajay Kumar S/o Pushap Chander Sharma R/o Galigarh (Trigam)
Tehsil & District Kishtwar hereby declare that my son's name has been
wrongly recorded in the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2159 0629 2153 as
Atharav Sharma whereas the correct name is Atharva Sharma.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6648 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 3041 6332 0593
from Iqbal Theikri to Mohammad Iqbal Theakery. Now, I am applying for
the Correction.
Mohammad Iqbal Theakery S/o Gh Hassan Theakery
R/o Mamer, Tehsil Kangan.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to Correct my ward’s Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 6671
6229 8307 from Soliha Ashraf to Soliya Ashraf. Now, I am applying for
the correction.
Mohammad Ashraf Ganie D/o Soliya Ashraf
R/o Bramri, Tehsil Drugmulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6649
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Zeeshan Umer Khan while his
correct name as per documents is Ishan Umer Khan. Now, I want to update
his name in Aadhaar Card as Ishan Umer Khan instead of Zeeshan Umer
Khan. Now I am applying for its correction.
Umer Jeelani Khan F/o Ishan Umer Khan
R/o Nagbal, Hapatnar, Pahalgam, Anantnag, J&K, 192126.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
My ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as
Mohammad Assan Chopan under Aadhaar No. 5269 4593 2195 while my
ward's correct name is Ehsaan Nazir Chopan as per School Documents.
C/o Nazir Ahmad Chopan
R/o Ainoo Brai, Pahalgam, Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir, 192129.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6650 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Akhil Bhagat S/o Moti Ram R/o Kathar, Tehsil Dansal, District
Jammu, UT of Jammu & Kashmir do hereby inform the general public that
my name has been inadvertently recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7740 9490 3295 as Kalu Ram whereas my correct and actual name is Akhil
Bhagat. It is hereby declared that Kalu Ram and Akhil Bhagat refer to one
and the same person, i.e., myself. My correct name Akhil Bhagat is duly
mentioned
in
my
Birth
Certificate
and
other
valid
official
records/documents. That I have applied for correction/update of my name
in the Aadhaar records from Kalu Ram to Akhil Bhagat.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kamla Devi W/o Sh. Ghanshyam R/o VPO Chawadi, Tehsil &
District Jammu have applied for the correction of my name & DoB which
has wrongly mentioned in Documents as Kamlo Devi & DoB -1950
instead of correct name Kamla Devi & Correct DoB 11-05-1948. Now, I
am going to apply for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6651
NOTIFICATION
I, Ravinder Kour D/o Kartar Singh R/o Zazbugh Dalwana Budgam,
have changed the spelling of my name from Ravender Kour to Ravinder
Kour. In future I will be known as Ravinder Kour. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 3570 2927 6913 my name has
been recorded as Gh Mohd Ganie S/o Abdul Razaq Ganie instead of Gh
Mohmed Gania S/o Ab Razak Gania. It needs correction.
Gh Mohmed Gania S/o Ab Razak Gania
R/o Kantchowa, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6652 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Safiya whileas my correct name as per
my documents is Shafia. Now, I want to update my name in my Aadhaar
Card as Shafia instead of Safiya.
Shafiya D/o Jaleel Khan
R/o Khonmoh, Srinagar, J&K, 190001.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 7856 8234 9230
from Razye to Raziya. Now, I am applying for the Correction.
Raziya D/o Shah Hussain Khan
R/o Manigah, Tehsil & District Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6653
NOTIFICATION
We Nuzhat Ara & Ghulam Rasool Kamal are holding 2000 of shares
of J&K Bank Ltd. under Folio JKB033025 where our names have been
inadvertently recorded as Nuzhat Ara Kamal & G R Kamal which are
incorrect whereas our actual names are Nuzhat Ara & Ghulam Rasool
Kamal. In this regard we are applying for correction of names under the
said Folio.
Self & Nuzhat Ara D/o Ghulam Ahmad Kamal
R/o Shah Mohalla, Nawab Bazar, Srinagar – 190002.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
We Ashaq Hussain Wani & Zahida Ali are holding 1000 of shares of
J&K Bank Ltd. under Folio JKB003291 where my name has been
inadvertently recorded as Zahida Ashaq which is incorrect whereas my
actual name is Zahida Ali. In this regard we are applying for correction of
name under the said Folio.
Self & Ashaq Hussain Wani
Zahida Ali W/o Ashaq Hussain Wani
R/o H. No. 562, Hamdania Colony, Bemina Srinagar – 190018.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6654 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Ayoub Makhdoomi am holding 1000 of shares of J&K Bank
Ltd. under Folio No. JKB024929 where my name has been inadvertently
recorded as Mohammad Ayoub Makhdoshi which is incorrect whereas my
actual name is Mohd Ayoub Makhdoomi. In this regard I am applying for
correction of name under my Folio.
Mohd Ayoub Makhdoomi S/o Mohd Yousuf Makhdoomi
R/o Makhdoom Sahib, Srinagar -190003.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Obaid Ahmad Alloo am holding a bank account with J&K Bank Ltd.
at Safakadal Branch under Account No. 0006040100040263 where my
name has been inadvertently recorded as Ubaid Qayoom which is incorrect
whereas my actual name is Obaid Ahmad Alloo. In this regard I am
applying for correction in name in my bank account record.
Obaid Ahmad Alloo S/o Abdul Qayoom Alloo
R/o Safakadal, Srinagar -190002.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6655
NOTIFICATION
I, Qazi Raj Mohammad Zaman am holding 1000 of shares of J&K
Bank Ltd. under Folio No. JKB024534 where my name has been
inadvertently recorded as Raj Mohamad Zaman which is incorrect whereas
my actual name is Qazi Raj Mohammad Zaman. In this regard I am
applying for correction of name under my Folio.
Qazi Raj Mohammad Zaman S/o Ghulam Mohammad
R/o Ram Bagh E Balla, Srinagar – 190015.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform general public that the name of my Daughter as
mentioned in her Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhar No. 6017 7221 3740 has
been incorrectly recorded as Zanib Showkat while as her actual name is
Zainab Showkat. Now, I want to apply for the correction of same in her
Aadhaar from (old name) Zanib Showkat to (new name) Zainab Showkat.
In future she will be known as Zainab Showkat.
Showkat Ahmad Rather F/o Zainab Showkat
R/o Waripora Bangil, Baramulla, J&K, 193402.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6656 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform to the general public that the name of my ward has
been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar as Sahil Ah Khatana while as his
actual name is Sahil Ahmad Khatana S/o Parvaiz Ahmad Khatana
R/o Awoora, Kupwara, District Kupwara, 193224. Now, I want to apply
for the correction of the same.
Parvaiz Ahmad Khatana F/o Sahil Ahmad Khatana
R/o Awoora, Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Khurshi Begum W/o Ab Majeed Mir R/o Gund Brat, Sopore,
Baramulla, Jammu and Kashmir, 193201 do hereby declare that I have
changed my name from Khursha Begum to Khurshi Begum for all
purposes including Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 7834 4832 0099.
Henceforth, I shall be known as Khurshi Begum. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6657
NOTIFICATION
I, Imroze Ahmad S/o Ghulam Ahmad Parray R/o Hajin, Tehsil Hajin,
District Bandipora, J&K UT hereby inform the general public that my
correct name is Imroze Ahmad as per my school records. However, due to
an inadvertent clerical/typographical error my name has been wrongly
recorded as Amroza Ahmad Parray in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2114
5495 5766. Hence, all concerned are requested to take note that Imroze
Ahmad is my correct name and the incorrect entry may be treated as
erroneous.
Imroze Ahmad S/o Ghulam Ahmad Parray
R/o Hajin, Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Sajad Ahmad Wagay F/o Fatima Sajad R/o Kosum Bagh (Hakbara)
Sonawari, District Bandipora, J&K UT, hereby inform the general public
that my ward's correct name is Fatima Sajad as per her Birth Certificate.
However, due to an inadvertent clerical/typographical error, her name has
been wrongly recorded as Heena Sajad in her Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7317 1793 9445. Hence, all concerned are requested to take note that
Fatima Sajjad is her correct name and the incorrect entry may be treated
as erroneous.
Sajad Ahmad Wagay F/o Fatima Sajad
R/o Kosum Bagh(Hakbara), Sonawari, District Bandipora, J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6658 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Asmat Zahoor D/o Zahoor Ahmad Khan R/o Gund Sadra Kote,
Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT hereby inform the general
public that my correct name is Asmat Zahoor and my correct DoB is
17-01-2007. However, in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7870 4244 5787,
my name has inadvertently been recorded as Aasiya Akhtar and DoB as
15-03-2003. Hence, all concerned are requested to take note of the correct
particulars stated above.
Asmat Zahoor D/o Zahoor Ahmad Khan
R/o Gund Sadra Kote, Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Tariq Ahmad Dar S/o Wali Mohammad Dar R/o Shahgund, Tehsil
Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT father of Aqib Tariq Dar hereby inform
the general public that my ward's correct name is Aqib Tariq Dar as per
his school records. However due to an inadvertent clerical/typographical
error, his name has been wrongly recorded as Aikef Tariq in his Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 3628 9428 2131. Hence, all concerned are requested to
take note that Aqib Tariq Dar is his correct name and the incorrect entry
may be treated as erroneous.
Tariq Ahmad Dar S/o Wali Mohammad Dar
R/o Shahgund, Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6659
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Majeed Parray S/o Wali Mohammad Parray R/o Vijpara,
Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, Jammu & Kashmir hereby inform the
general public that my correct and complete name is Abdul Majeed Parray
as recorded in my Domicile Certificate and Voter ID/Election Photo
Identity Card. However, due to an inadvertent clerical/abbreviation error,
my name has been recorded in my Aadhaar Card as Ab Majid Paray
instead of my correct name Abdul Majeed Parray bearing Aadhaar No.
7343 8743 8163. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by my
correct name Abdul Majeed Parray for all purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shabir Ahmad Ganie S/o Bashir Ahmad Ganie R/o Baharabad,
Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT father of Immadullah Shabir
hereby inform the general public that my ward's correct name is
Immadullah Shabir as per the Birth Certificate issued by the concerned
Births Deaths Registration Authority. However, due to an inadvertent
clerical/typographical error his name has been wrongly recorded as
Ammadulla Shabir in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4787 3200 2930.
Hence, all concerned are requested to take note that Immadullah Shabir is
his correct name and the incorrect entry may be treated as erroneous.
Shabir Ahmad Ganie S/o Bashir Ahmad Ganie
R/o Baharabad, Tehsil Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6660 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Faizana Feroz D/o Feroz Ahmad Hajam R/o Indir Gam, Pattan,
Tehsil Pattan, District Baramulla, J&K UT do hereby declare that my
name has been wrongly entered as Faizan Feroz instead of my correct
name Faizana Feroz in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar Card No. 9587
1702 9669.Now, I have applied for correction of the same.
Faizana Feroz D/o Feroz Ahmad Hajam
R/o Indir Gam, Pattan, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Javeed Ahmad Najar F/o Kashif Javeed Najar R/o Qadriya Colony,
Sopore, Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir, 193201 do hereby declare that I
have changed my son's name from Muhammad Kashif to Kashif Javeed
Najar for all purposes. Including Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 4160
0620 7318. Henceforth, I shall be known as Kashif Javeed Najar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6661
NOTIFICATION
I, Qowsar Manzoor D/o Manzoor Ahmad Dar R/o Ganastan, Tehsil
Sonawari, District Bandipora, Kashmir, declare that my correct and actual
name is Qowsar Manzoor. That my name has inadvertently been recorded
as Qousara Manzoor in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7232 1482 7996,
whereas my correct name is Qowsar Manzoor. That my correct name
Qowsar Manzoor is duly reflected in my school records, educational
certificates, domicile certificate and other relevant documents. That the
names Qousara Manzoor and Qowsar Manzoor refer to one and the same
person, i.e., myself, and there is no difference in identity.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have applied for the correction of my name which has been wrongly
written as Prinkya Badgal instead of correct name Prinka Badgal in my
Aadhaar Card.
Prinka Badgal D/o Bodh Raj
R/o Village Katli, Tehsil and District Samba.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6662 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No.26
NOTIFICATION
I, Bhupinder Kour W/o Daljeet Singh R/o Chak Jawala Singh
Sanjwan, Tehsil Vijaypur, District Samba, U.T of J&K declare that in my
Aadhaar Card my name is wrongly/typographically written as Bhupunder
Kour instead of Bhupinder Kour. That both the names i.e., Bhupunder
Kour and Bhupinder Kour belong to me. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
Notice is hereby given that I, Javed Ahmad Rather S/o Mohd Sabir
Rather R/o Marazigund, Watergan, Paien, Dangi Wachha, District
Baramulla, Jammu Kashmir have changed my name from Javeed Ahmad
to Javed Ahmad Rather. Now, I am applying for its correction.
Javed Ahmad Rather S/o Mohd Sabir Rather
R/o Marazigund, Watergan Paien, Dangi Wachha,
District Baramulla, Jammu and Kashmir.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6663
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhar record bearing No. 2178 1310 6540 my name has been
wrongly recorded as recorded as Madhu Bala instead of Madhu Mala.
Madhu Mala W/o Late Sh. Dharam Chand
R/o Phinder, Tehsil R. S Pura, District Jammu 181101.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Gautam Kumar S/o Sh Vijay Kumar R/o H. No. 560 Prem Nagar
Jammu have applied for correction of name & DoB which has been
wrongly written as Gautam Kumar Tak & DoB 29-07-1990 instead of
Goutam Kumar & DoB 29-07-1991. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6664 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I want To Correct my ward’s Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 2940
6672 4625 from Parray Ziyan to Zeyaan Manzoor Parray which is as per
his school records. Now, I am applying for the Correction.
Manzoor Ahmad Paray F/o Zeyaan Manzoor Parray
R/o Barwalah Tehsil Kangan.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (Old Name) Shabir Ahmad Gani S/o
Mohd Akbar Ganaie to (New Name) Shabir Ahmad Ganaie S/o Mohd
Akber Ganaei. In future I will be known as Shabir Ahmad Ganaie S/o
Mohd Akber Ganaei.
Shabir Ahmad Ganaie S/o Mohd Akber Ganaei
R/o Washbugh Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6665
NOTIFICATION
This is inform to the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Tabasum Ara While as my actual name
is Mariya Rashid C/o Abdul Rashid Ganie R/o Bohipora Kupwara District
Kupwara 193222. Now, I am applying for its correction.
Mariya Rashid C/o Abdul Rashid Ganie
R/o Bohipora, Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar record bearing No. 2067 9658 9401 my name has been
wrongly recorded as Gh Mohd Khanday S/o Abdul Rahim Khanday
instead of Gull Mohammad Khanday S/o Ab Rahim Khanday. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
Gull Mohammad Khanday S/o Ab Rahim Khanday
R/o Danow Qaimoh Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6666 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
The name and DoB of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in
her Aadhaar card bearing No. 7524 1472 6624 as Razia Akhter and DoB
08-10-2014 instead of Roziya Jaan and DoB 04.08.2016. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
Abdul Qayoom Qureshi F/o Roziya Jaan
R/o Mashoon Beerwah.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3500 7966 2800. Now I want
to change my name from Awwalina (Old Name) to Awleena (New Name).
Awleena W/o Mohammad Shafi Rather
R/o Wanigam Bala, Baramulla Jammu and Kashmir-193198.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6667
NOTIFICATION
I, Priyanka Devi D/o Sh Darshan Kumar R/o Village Bhatyari Tehsil
Ramagar District Udhampur do hereby declare that my name has been
wrongly written as Priynka Devi instead Priyanka Devi in my Aadhaar
card bearing No. 3470 3702 4803. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Tirth Singh S/o Sh Lt Rattan Singh R/o Village Daghed Purmandal
District Samba Jammu and Kashmir UT 181145 do hereby declare that my
name has been wrongly written as Tirath Singh instead of Tirth Singh in
my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6091 6020 1836 and my PAN Card bearing
No. CCMPS5558K. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6668 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Gopal Krishan S/o Sh Kanti Kumar R/o Ward No. 1 Ramnagar Post
Office Ramnagar Udampur do hereby declare that my name has been
wrongly written as Gopal krishan Choudhary instead of Gopal Krishan in
my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8378 5794 1133. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Guddi Devi W/o Sh Badri Nath R/o Village Dhanwalt Po Dhanwalt
Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J&K, UT, 182122 do hereby declare
that my name has been wrongly written as Gadi Devi instead of Guddi
Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4719 1051 0216.Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6669
NOTIFICATION
I, Sulakha Devi W/o Sh Kartar Chand R/o Village Jandrari PO
Jandrari Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT that
my name has been wrongly written as Sulekha Devi instead of Sulakha
Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9338 5837 6625. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Jayoti Sharma W/o Sh Sahil Sharma R/o Village Udhak Post Office
Blandh Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J&K, UT 182122. That my
name has been wrongly written as Jyoti Devi instead of Jayoti Sharma in
my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 7216 3988 2582. Now, I am
applying for the correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6670 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Reefa Begum W/o Mashoom Ali R/o Village Blota Chagla PO Sia
Mehri Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT,
182128 do hereby declare that my name and my husband’s name has been
wrongly written as Refa Begum W/o Musham Ali instead of Reefa Begum
W/o Mashoom Ali in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3640 0328 4103.
Now, I am applying for the correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mashoom Ali S/o Alim Din R/o Village Blota Chagla PO Sia Mehri
Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J&K, UT, 182128 do hereby declare
that my name has been wrongly written as Musham Ali instead of
Mashoom Ali in my Aadhaar Card bearing Nо. 4070 1877 1164. Now, I
am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6671
NOTIFICATION
I, Pushpa Devi W/o Sh Kewal kumar M/o Kalmash kumar R/o Village
Surni PO Dalsar Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J and K 182122. Do
hereby declare that my son’s name has been wrongly written as Kalmesh
Kumar instead of Kalmash kumar in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2131
8281 0004. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Seemi Devi W/o Sh Ashok Kumar R/o Village Joffer Po Majouri
Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J and K 182128 do hereby declare
that my name has been wrongly written as Simblo Devi instead of Seemi
Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4704 3321 1366. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6672 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mashoom Ali F/o Abdual Razaq R/o Village Blota Chagla PO Sia
Mehri Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J and K 182128 do hereby
declare that my son’s name and my name have been wrongly written as
Abdul Razaq S/o Musham Ali instead of Abdual Razaq S/o Mashoom Ali
in my son’s Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2380 2483 1556. Now I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Saleem S/o Sh. Mohd Sharief R/o Village Basantgarh Post
office Basantgarh Tehsil Ramnagar District Udhampur J and K do hereby
that my name has been wrongly recorded as Mohd Rafiq in my Aadhaar
Card instead of Mohd Saleem
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6673
NOTIFICATION
I, Rekha Devi W/o Raj Singh R/o Kakol Nagar, Tehsil Bhaderwah,
Disrict Doda state that my son’s name is wrongly written as Yask Kumar
in Aadhaar Card No. 3317 5799 6931 instead of Yash Kumar. Now, I
have applied for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shabina Akhtar D/o Ab Gani Khan R/o Hassanpora Tawaila,
Bijbehara, District Anantnag, do hereby declare that my name has been
wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Shabeena Akhter instead of
Shabina Akhtar. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6674 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Syed Jahangir Hussain S/o Syed Gulab Hussain R/o Paranpillan
Tehsil Uri District Baramulla I&K do hereby declare that my name is
wrongly recorded as Jahangir Hussain S/o Gulab Hussain Shah R/o Paran
Pilan Uri in the Aadhaar record vide No. 5005 2670 4809 instead of Syed
Jahangir Hussain S/o Syed Gulab Hussain R/o Paranpillan Tehsil Uri
District Baramulla J&K. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohammad Hussain Gujar S/o Mohammad Abdullah Gujar, R/o
Kareva Drabgam, Tehsil Rajpora, District Pulwama do hereby declare that
my name and parentage are incorrectly mentioned in my Passport No.
P1713807 as Mohd Haseen Keela S/o Mohd Abdullah Kela instead of
Mohammad Hussain Gujar S/o Mohammad Abdullah Gujar. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6675
NOTIFICATION
I, Kamaljeet Kour W/o Sh Jasbir Singh R/o H.No. 87/14, Nanak
Nagar, Gandhi Nagar Jammu have applied for necessary corrections in my
name which has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
5745 3458 9531 as Kamaljeet Kour instead Kamaljit Kour.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shiweta Rukwal D/o Babu Ram Rukwal R/o Jijote Jodhpur, Doda,
do hereby declare that my Name and DoB was written as Shweta Rukwal
& 31/10/2000 instead of Shiweta Rukwal & 03/10/2000 on my school
record/10th Class Marksheet. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6676 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Katiza Bibi @ Khadiza Beggum W/o Rashid Ahmed R/o Mohargarh
Tehsil & District Samba J&K in my Aadhaar Card my is written as "Katiza
Bibi" but in my Domicile Certificate my name is written as KHADIZA
BEGGUM. The names I,e. Katiza Bibi and Khadiza Beggum belong to
one & same person and my correct name is Khadiza Beggum. Now I
applied for the correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Balwan Chand F/o Debansh Verma R/o Village Manthal Gandala
Tehsil & District Udhampur J&K UT state that my son’s name has
wrongly been written as Neeraj Verma instead of correct name Debansh
Verma in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6700 9339 6326. Now, I am
applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6677
NOTIFICATION
I, Balwan Chand F/o Dibya Verma R/o Village Manthal, Gandala
Tehsil & District Udhampur J&K UT state that my daughter’s name has
wrongly been written as Shavani Devi instead of correct name Dibya
Verma in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6741 8819 3742. Now, I am
applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Naresh Kumar S/o Sh. Gian Chand R/o Village Dhar Dugnoo, Tehsil
Billwar, District Kathua, J&K do hereby declare that my name as per my
previous records is Naresh Kumar that I have voluntarily changed my
name from Naresh Kumar to Naresh Singh for personal and religious
reasons. That I belong to Sikh religion by birth and faith and I have been
professing Sikhism along with my family since long. That I hereby declare
that my religion is Sikhism and I want the same to be updated in all my
official/government records. That both the names Naresh Kumar and
Naresh Singh belong to one and the same person.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6678 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Pawan Kumar S/o Balwant Raj R/o ward No 3 Samba Tehsil and
District Samba. My Correct name is Pawan Kumar which has been
wrongly written in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3668 5188 1613 as
Pawan Gupta. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Salochana Devi W/o Sh. Ashok Kumar R/o Chak Rama, Tehsil,
Khour Distt. Jammu, have applied for the correction of my name which
has wrongly mentioned in Aadhar Card as Salochna Devi instead of
Salochana Devi. Now, I am going to apply for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6679
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8207 6749 1234 do hereby declare
that my name and residential address has been mentioned as Shafkat Ali
Khan, R/o Dilna Baramulla instead of Showkat Ali Khan, R/o Kalampora
Delina Baramulla. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Showkat Ali Khan
R/o Kalampora Delina Baramula.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shabnum Ali, S/o Ali Mohd Bhat, R/o Khaipora Payeen, Tehsil
Tangmarg, District Baramulla do hereby inform the general public that my
name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7176
3965 5691 as Shabnam Ali instead of Shabnum Ali as recorded in my
Domicile Certificate. I have applied for correction
Shabnum Ali S/o Ali Mohd Bhat
R/o Khaipora Payeen, Tehsil Tangmarg, District Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6680 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Abid Hussain F/o Mir Daneen Zehra R/o Vicharnagh Nowshera
Srinagar, do hereby declare that I want to correct the name of my daughter
in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7513 4496 7590 from Daneen Zehra to
Mir Daneen Zehra as per her Birth certificate.
Abid Hussain F/o Mir Daneen Zehra.
R/o Vicharnagh, Nowshera.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Abid Hussain F/o Mir Ahmad Tabaan R/o Vicharnagh Nowshera
Srinagar, do hereby declare that I want to correct the name of my son’s in
his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3732 1472 3744 from Ahmad Tabaan to
Mir Ahmad Tabaan.
Abid Hussain F/o Mir Ahmad Tabaan.
R/o Vicharnagh, Nowshera.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6681
NOTIFICATION
I, Javed Ul Hussan S/o Ghulam Hussan Lone R/o Hajinar Karnah
Kupwara do hereby declare that my daughter’s name has been wrongly
mentioned as Samiya Javaid in her Aadhaar records instead of Sumaya
Javed. Now, I am applying for its correction.
Javed Ul Hussan F/o Sumaya Javed
R/o Hajinar Karnah Kupwara.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Arshid, S/o Mohd Rafiq, R/o Village Balli Hawan, Tehsil
Kalakote, District Rajouri, UT of J&K do hereby declare that my name is
wrongly recorded as "Mohd Irshad" instead of Mohd Arshid in my old
Aadhaar Card. That "Mohd Arshid" and "Mohd Irshad" refer to one and
the same person. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6682 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shehnaz W/o Altaf Hussain R/o W No. 02 Batote Tehsil Batote
District Ramban do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly written
as Shenaz W/o Altaf Hussain instead of Shehnaz W/o Altaf Hussain as per
my Voter Card, Ration Card as well as School records. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Raseela Begum W/o Maqdar Hussain R/o Kotli Kalaban, Tehsil
Manjakote, District Rajouri hereby state that my name is wrongly written
as Rasila Begum in Aadhar Card with No 3769 5216 3230. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6683
NOTIFICATION
I, Hilal Ahmad Dar, R/o Kawari, Handwara do hereby declare that the
name and DoB of my son in his Aadhaar Card has been wrongly recorded
as Kamran Ahmad Dar & DoB as 14-08-2009 instead of Kamran Hilal Dar
and 10-05-2013 Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar Card I Abdul Wahid F/o Mohd Ashfait R/o Tareru P/o
Tareru Tehsil Teryath District Rajouri J and K 185201 do hereby declare
that my son's name and DoB has been wrongly written as Mohd Shafit and
DoB is 06-01-2009 instead of Mohd Ashfait and DoB is 01-03-2010 in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4281 4236 8560.Now I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6684 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shaneez Akhter W/o Ishtyaq Ahmed R/o Prori Gujjran Panihad
Kateranka Rajouri A/P Channi Rama applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Shanaz Akhter instead of correct Shaneez
Akhter in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2879 9576 4606.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Din S/o Hassan Din, R/o Village Mand, Tehsil Udhampur,
District Udhampur J&K 182121 applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Mod Din" instead of "Mohd Din in my Adhaar
Card bearing No. 6285 5950 2104.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6685
NOTIFICATION
I, Shamim Akhter W/o Abdul Kareem R/o Chajjla Tehsil Mankote
District Poonch do hereby declare that my daughter’s name is incorrectly
mentioned as Falika Kareem instead of Falik Kareem in her Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 3015 3216 4368. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Rafiq S/o Muneer Hussain R/o Balnoi Tehsil Mankote
District Poonch do hereby declare that my daughter’s name is incorrectly
mentioned as Arzo Afrida instead of Arzoo Farida in her Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 9867 1539 1448. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6686 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Naseem Akther W/o Safeer Ahmed R/o Sagra Tehsil Mankote
District Poonch do hereby declare that my daughter’s name is incorrectly
mentioned as Feroz Anjum instead of Farooz Akhter in her Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 5864 0485 0657. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Haseena Kouser W/o Mohammed Hanief R/o Dobraj Tehsil
Mankote District Poonch do hereby declare that name of my son is
incorrectly mentioned as Dhim Hanif instead of Daim Hanief in his
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8733 2785 1031. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6687
NOTIFICATION
I, Zeenat Meer W/o Khalil Ahmed R/o Dhargloon Tehsil Balakote
District Poonch do hereby declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned
as Jinat instead of Zeenat Meer in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6335
3345 0460. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Nargis Fatima W/o Baghdad Hussain Shah R/o Surhotti Tehsil
Mendhar District Poonch do hereby declare that my daughter’s name is
incorrectly mentioned as Sayed Hirfat Zehra instead of Sayeda Hirfat
Zehra in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9333 8450 3135. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6688 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Najma Kosser W/o Mohd Murtazah R/o Sangiote Tehsil Mendhar
District Poonch do hereby declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned
as Najma instead of Najma Kosser in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7599
3766 0608. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Kabir S/o Alam Din R/o Village Hubbi, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub
District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185132 do hereby declare that my
daughter's name is wrongly recorded as "Rahkasan Kouser" in her
Aadhaar Card No. 8116 0702 6537 instead of "Rukhsana Kouser". Now, I
am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6689
NOTIFICATION
I, Araf Hussain S/o Mohd Qayoom R/o Villag Kewal, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajour J&K 185233, do hereby
declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Mohammed Arif Mughal in
my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4574 2976 3529 instead of Araf Hussain.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Angraz Singh, S/o Beli Ram, R/o Village Dharsakri, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185132 do hereby
declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Lakshmeta Thakur
in her Aadhaar Card No. 2072 8396 8661 instead of Lakshmita Manhas.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6690 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Rasho Begum W/o Sher Mohammad R/o Village Draj, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K -185233, do hereby
declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Resha in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 8165 5001 2361instaed of Rasho Begum. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shaheen Akhter W/o Mohd Rafiq, resident of Village Samote,
Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, do
hereby declare that my daughter's name and DoB has been wrongly
recorded as Ishrat Naz and 20/08/2018 in her Aadhaar Card bearing No.
9984 8489 2422 instead of Ishret Naz and "05/10/2016". Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6691
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Ishfaq S/o Mohd Bashir R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233 do hereby declare that
my son's name and DoB has been wrongly recorded as Aayan Khoker and
10/06/2019 in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4311 4182 0298 instead of
Mohd Ayaan and 10/06/2020. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mushtaq Ahmed S/o Sher Mohd R/o Village Kandi, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185132 do hereby
declare that my name is wrongly recorded as MUSTHAQ AHMED in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7007 0390 3336 and PAN Card No.
DUOPA3216F instead of MUSHTAQ AHMED. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6692 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Kallo Devi W/o Kuldeep Singh R/o Village Khah, Tehsil Kotranka,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K -185132 do hereby declare that
my name is wrongly recorded as Karti Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 7339 5441 9547 instead of Kallo Devi. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Narges Kouser D/o Mohd Farooq R/o Village Draj, Tehsil Kotranka,
District Rajouri, J&K185233 do hereby declare that my name is wrongly
recorded as Nargas Kouser in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6597 4569
4309 instead of Narges Kouser. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6693
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Iqbal S/o Ghulam Mohd R/o Village Samote, Tehsil
Kotranka. Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233 do hereby
declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Frzeena Kouser in
her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4821 1993 2858 instead Farzeena Kouser.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Wahida Begum W/o Mohd Zaman R/o Village Swari, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K – 185132 do hereby
declare that my son's name is wrongly as Zaheer Ahmed in his Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 9022 8816 8555 instead of Mohd Zaheer. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6694 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Altaf S/o Mohd Hussain R/o Village Shapur, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233 do hereby
declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Tabia Kousr in
her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3739 1376 3699 instead of Taiba Kouser.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Zabir Hussain S/o Mohd Sharief R/o Village Badhal, Tehsil
Khawas, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri. J&K-185201 do hereby
declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Wajad Ali in his
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4866 4556 4325 instead of Wajid Ali. Now, I
am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6695
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohinder Kour W/o Som Raj W/o Village Phalini, Tehsil Kotranka,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K -185233 do hereby declare that
my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as "Harpreer Kour" in her
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4568 2935 0070 instead of "Harpreet Kour".
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Hanifa Begum W/o Amin Shah W/o Village Dramman, Tehsil
Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233 do hereby
declare that the names and DoB’s of my children are wrongly recorded in
their Aadhaar Cards as under:1. Incorrect Name & DoB Rafia Tabassam,
12-06-2011 instead of Rafia Tabasum, 05-11-2012 bearing Aadhaar No.
3075 0278 9756 and Sajied Shah, 02-02-2010 instead of Sajadh Shah,
10-05-2013 bearing Aadhaar No. 2893 4758 9274.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6696 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shanaz Begum W/o Mohd Shafiq R/o Village Shapur (Samote),
Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233, do
hereby declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Naheeda
Kouser in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5762 3777 0082 instead of
Nahida Kouser. Now, I am applying for its corrrection.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Altaf Hussain S/o Mohd Ishaq R/o Village Bhella. Tehsil Khawas,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185201 do hereby declare that
my son's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Mohd Wasim and
02-07-2017 in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 3123 9734 0113 instead of
Mohd Waseem and 1-03-2019. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6697
NOTIFICATION
I, Pervaiz Ahmed S/o Abdul Rashid R/o Village Shapur, Samote,
Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233, do
hereby declare that my daughter's name and DoB has been wrongly
recorded as Wahida Begum and 01/02/2011 in her Aadhaar Card UID No.
2736 8050 0482 instead of Waheeda Begum and "05/10/2011". Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shah Mohd S/o Hussan Mohd R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233 do hereby declare that
my daughter's name and DoB has been wrongly recorded as Raheema
Begum and 02/03/2011 in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 7189 9675 7624
instead of Rakhima Begum and 05/08/2011. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6698 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Aslam S/o Mohd Shawl R/o Village Larkoti, Tehsil Kotranka,
Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233 do hereby declare that
my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Nazia Kosser in her Aadhaar
Card (UID No. 2063 4875 5091) instead of Nazia Kouser. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Chander Kanta W/o Lekh Raj Sharma R/o Abhay Lane Muthi
Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as
Pushpa Sharma instead of correct Chander Kanta in Aadhaar Card bearing
No.6593 3372 9977. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6699
NOTIFICATION
I, Bishamber Dass Gupta S/o Roop Chand R/o 79 Malhotra Street
Purani Mandi Jammu A/P 333 Basant Bihar Trikuta Nagar Sec 3 Jammu
applying for change of my name, address and mobile No. from Bishamber
Mahajan R/o 79, Malhotra Street Purani Mandi Jammu & Mob. No.
9596988990 to Bishamber Dass Gupta R/o 333 Basant Bihar Trikuta
Nagar Sec 3 Jammu & Mobile No. 7006640387 in Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 2629 9123 6106. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Parveen Akhter W/o Mohd Javed R/o Prat Tehsil Sunderbani
applying for correction of my Son's name which is wrongly written as
Fizan Hussain instead of correct Faizan Hussain in Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 5067 2164 8295.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6700 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Aslam S/o Mohd Din R/o Channi Tehsil Siot District Rajouri
applying for correction of my name & father’s name which has been
wrongly written as Mohammad Aslam S/o Mohammad Deen instead of
correct Mohd Aslam S/o Mohd Din in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2280
4833 7887.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shamim Akhter W/o Jung Baz R/o Bhanghai, Tehsil Thanna Mandi,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which has been
wrongly written as Shameema Begum instead of correct Shamim Akhter
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2546 9118 2037.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6701
NOTIFICATION
I, Ramesh Chander S/o Balwant Raj R/o Kanati Bhawani Tehsil
Nowshera, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Romesh Chander instead of correct Ramesh Chander
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8794 6363 9589.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Deelip Singh S/o Jagdev Singh R/o Jagti Kandoli, Nagrota, Jammu,
J&K (UT) applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written
as Dalip Singh instead of Deelip Singh in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5946
7449 5314.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6702 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Faiz Ahmed S/o Mohd Sharief R/o Village Kursari, Post Office
Udrana, PIN-182221, District Doda applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Fayaz Ahmed instead of correct Faiz Ahmed
in my Aadhaar Card.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Prem Paul S/o Babu Ram R/o Phinder Khour Deonian Tehsil
R.S.Pura Distt Jammu(J&K) do declare that's my name has been wrongly
written in my all Documents Aadhar Card, Pan Card, Domicile certificate
and other. Officials Records as Prem Chand instead of correct name Prem
Paul. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6703
NOTIFICATION
I, Smt. Nirmal Kumari W/o Shri Late Ashok Kumar Sabharwal
R/o Devgole, Tehsil Banihal, District Ramban have declare that my name
has been mentioned as Nirmal Sabharwal against 1000 equity shares of
J&K Bank Ltd whereas my correct name is Nirmal Kumari. It is to inform
that the both names viz. Nirmal Kumari and Nirmal Sabharwal refer to me,
the same person. Therefore. I request that in future I be treated as same
against my Demat A/C No. 10735519 with J&K Bank Depository
Services, Janipur.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Koushalya Devi W/o Karan Singh R/o Badyal Qazian, Tehsil
Suchetgarh, District Jammu (J&K) do hereby declare that I am holding the
ECHS card being mother of ex-serviceman but my name and DoB are
wrongly added in it as Koshle Devi and 01-06-1958 instead of Koushalya
Devi and DoB is 17-06-1955. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6704 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Harjit Kaur W/o Sarabjit Singh R/o Chak Mohd Yar, Tehsil R.S.
Pura. District Jammu do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly
written as Daljit Kour in my Pan Card, Voter Card & Aadhar Card No.
6685 3199 6267 instead of Harjit Kaur in my Aadhar Card.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my ward’s Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 7051
6922 4178 from Fazil Khan to Fazail Khan. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
Mohd Sadiq Khan F/o Fazail Khan
R/o Ramgie Tehsil Uri.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6705
NOTIFICATION
I, Hameed Janjeri S/o Rasheed Janjeri R/o Doban Khurhama, Vernow,
District Kupwara do hereby declare that the name of my daughter has been
wrongly recorded in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5042 2905 3641 as
Nusrata Βano D/o Abdul Hameed Jangrey while as her correct name is
Naziya Bano D/o Ab Hameed Jangrey R/o Khurhama, Tehsil Lal Pora,
District Kupwara. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mansha Begum W/o Mohd Sadiq R/o Village Gundi, Tehsil
Khawas, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185201 do hereby
declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as "Mohd Arif" in his
Aadhaar Card (UID No. 9318 5023 3139) instead of "Mohd Arief". Now,
I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6706 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Aijaz Ahmad Wani S/o Mohammad Ramzan Wani R/o Kangan
Ganderbal do hereby inform the general Public that the name of my
daughter has wrongly been recorded in her Aadhaar Card bearing No 4103
4493 5536 as Aroosha Aijaz while as her correct name is Aroosh Aijaz.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Suriya Ashraf want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 7105 0282 4410 from Suraya Ashraf to Suriya Ashraf. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6707
NOTIFICATION
I, Rukhsana want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
4769 8273 9536 from Iqra Jan to Rukhsana. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Taraq Ahmad Ganie want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 5799 1774 9978 from Tariq Ahmad Ganie to Taraq Ahmad
Ganie. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6708 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my ward’s Aadhaar Card name under No. 9284 0352
4040 from Ziyan Khan to Zayain Khan. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
Mohd Sadiq Khan F/o Zayain Khan
R/o Ramgie Tehsil Uri.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Aayat Manzoor instead of Aayat Jan.
Now I want to apply for its correction.
Manzoor Ah Paul F/o Aayat Jan
R/o Pinjoora Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6709
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Mohd Ashraf instead of Mohmad Ashraf Shah.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohmad Ashraf Shah S/o Abdul Gani Shah
R/o Trenz Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Mehraj Ah Ganai instead of Mehraj u Deen
Ganie. Now I want to apply for its correction.
Mehraj u Deen Ganie S/o Gh Hassan Ganie
R/o Rawalpora Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6710 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
wards name is wrongly written as Mohammad Saad Malik instead of Saad
Hameed. Now I want to apply for its correction.
Abdul Hameed Malik F/o Saad Hameed
R/o Saidpora Bala Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Babu Ram S/o Sh. Bindru R/o Village and PO Nikkian Marchangi,
Tehsil Khour, District Jammu, UT of J&K, PIN: 181203, do hereby
declare that my name has been wrongly recorded as Babu Singh in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9132 8000 2913, official, educational and
service records is Babu Ram.That Babu Ram and Babu Singh is one and
the same person
Babu Ram S/o Sh. Bindru
R/o Nikkian Marchangi, Tehsil Khour, District Jammu
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6711
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 949849363699. Now
I want to change my name from Jaswant Kour (Old Name) to Jaswant Kaur
(New Name). In this regard, if anyone has any objection, he or she may
approach the concerned authorities within a period of seven days. After
that, no objection shall be entertained.
Jaswant Kaur W/o Deedar Singh,
R/o Overigund, Lal Pora Kehlil Pulwama J and K-192123
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Arfaz Ahmed S/o Ab Ganie Malik R/o Koti Tehsil & District Doda
J&K do hereby declare that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4152 5011
3867 my name has been wrongly written as Ifraz Ahmed Malik instead of
Arfaz Ahmed. That Ifraz Ahmed Malik and Arfaz Ahmed are one and the
same person.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6712 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Kallu Ram S/o Jheenga Kori R/o Ward No. 1, Khajuwa, Rajanagar,
Khajwa, Chhatarpur, Khajuwa, Madhya Pradesh P/A Village Kamala
Morh Tehsil Ramgarh District Samba do hereby declare that my name has
been wrongly written as Kallu Kori instead of Kallu Ram. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my PAN Card name bearing PAN No.
GEZPB5551J from Sumiya Begum to Masooma Bano. Now I am applying
for its correction.
Masooma Bano W/o Javid Ahmad Najar
R/o Nowgam Kandi Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6713
NOTIFICATION
My particulars have been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card No.
5468 7723 7680 as Inyat Rasool Sofi S/o Gh Rasool Sofi R/o Saloora
Ganderbal While as my correct particulars as per Domicile certificate are
Anayat Rasool Sofi S/o Gh Rasool Sofi R/o Saloora Ganderbal. Now I
want its correction.
Anayat Rasool Sofi S/o Gh Rasool Sofi
R/o Saloora Ganderbal
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Birendra Kumar Tiwari S/o Sh. Ashok Prasad Tiwari R/o Gram-
Lakhna Post-Bamangama, Thana-Sarath, Lakhna, Deoghar, Jharkhand,
815353 serving in HQ 195 Bn BSF, Akhnoor District Jammu do hereby
declare that my ward’s DoB and Parentage has been wrongly been entered
as 13-10-2010 father’s name Birendra Kumar Tiwari in his school records
instead of Birender Kumar Tiwari and DoB 13-10-2012. I declare that
Birendra Kumar Tiwari and Birender Kumar Tiwari is one and the same
person.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
_______
6714 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shemeema Bano D/o Ab Ahad Dar R/o Gundi Jahangir, Tehsil
Hajin, District Bandipora, J&K UT do hereby inform the general public
that my correct name is Shemeema Bano and my correct Date of Birth is
01/02/1990, as per my educational records. However, due to an inadvertent
clerical/typographical error, my name and DoB have been incorrectly
recorded in my Aadhaar records as Shahmeem Banoo and 14-07-1990
respectively bearing Aadhaar No. 6161 6861 7719. Henceforth, I shall be
known and identified by my correct name Shemeema Bano with DoB
01/02/1990, for all purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar bearing No. 8810 1402 7255
from Jahan Ara to Jehan Aara as per my documents.
Jehan Aara D/o Mohammad Abdullah Sheikh
R/o H. No. 22, Iqbal Colony, Chanapora, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6715
NOTIFICATION
I, Arifa Jan W/o Mehraj Ud Din Sheikh R/o Namblabal, Tehsil
Pampore, District Pulwama, do hereby inform the general public that the
name shown on my Aadhaar Card vide No. 6135 1491 5083 as Arifa
Banoo while as on Domicile Certificate my name shown as Arifa Jan
which is true and correct. Now, the same is to be corrected.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card vide No. 6351 4220 1132 as
Suhail Ahmad Sheikh instead of Suhail Ahmad Sheikh Gojer. Therefore,
I want to correct his name in Aadhaar.
Suhail Ahmad Sheikh Gojer C/o Ali Jan Sheikh Gojer
R/o Batnoor Jagir, Tral District Pulwama J&K-192123.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6716 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5224 6337 0759. Now I want
to change my name from Sybia (old name) to Sabia (new name).
Sabia W/o Nazir Ahmad Mir
R/o Daga Kadal, Lal Bazar, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190011.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3524 8995 3757. Now, I want
to change my name from Tanveera Jan (old name) to Tanveer Jan (new
name).
Tanveer Jan C/o Shabir Ahmad Ganee
R/o Shaltang, Near T.K Collage Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190012.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6717
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4783 1495 1377. Now, I want
to change my name from Haji Sajida Begum (old name) to Sajdha Banoo
(new name).
Sajdha Banoo
R/o 31, Mirpora, Tujar Pahle Har, District Baramulla, J&K-193201.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Aijaz Nazir Qadri want to change my daughter’s name in her
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4817 2410 0320 from Amarah Binti Aijaz to
Aaeedah Aijaz. Now, I want this to be changed.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6718 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Iqrar Hussain Gojar Turk want to change my daughter’s name in her
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4562 2398 3156 from Rahila Iqrar to Raheela
Iqrar. Now, I want this to be changed.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Omaise Ali wants to change my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 6398 5957 5675 from Omise Ali Anchari to Omaise Ali. Now, I want
this to be changed.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6719
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6549 6880 5382. Now, I want
to change my name from Zareefa Begum (old name) to Zarifa Bano (new
name).
Zarifa Bano
R/o Hayun Kupwara, Hayun Trehgam, Hayan Kupwara J&K-193224.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8762 0381 1553 my name has been
wrongly admitted as Gayas Din Shahh S/o Ghulam Mohmmad Shah R/o
Pathu Kah Muqam whiles my correct name is per Domicile Certificate
Pirzada Gayas U Din Shah S/o Pirzada Gh. Mohmad Shah. Now, I want
to apply its correction.
Pirzada Gayas U din Shah S/o Pirzada Gh Mohmad Shah
R/o Putukhah, Muqam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6720 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card vide No. 4361 4405 9309 as
Liyaqat Yousuf instead of Arfat Yousuf. Therefore, I want to correct his
name in Aadhaar including in all documents.
Arfat Yousuf C/o Mohammad Yousuf Koundo
R/o Manz Mohalla Anchar, Soura, Jammu and Kashmir-190011.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my name and date of birth in my Aadhaar card
bearing Aadhaar no 533962770678 from Zeenat Hassan, DOB 23-10-
2007 to Iqra Hassan, and DOBB 03-10-2008. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
Iqra Hassan D/o Ghulam Hassan Sofi
R/o Jahama, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6721
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar bearing No. 5643 6799 6025 my name has been wrongly
mentioned as Gousi Jan instead of (new name) Gowsar Jan D/o Bashir
Ahmad Malik R/o Ringath, Tehsil DH Pora, District Kulgam. Now, I want
to correct the same.
Gowsar Jan D/o Bashir Ahmad Malik
R/o Ringath, Tehsil DH Pora, District Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that the name in my Aadhaar Card
was wrongly mentioned Mohammad Shafi Reshi S/o Abdul Satar Reshi
R/o Wachi, Tehsil Zainapora, District Shopian instead of Mohd Shafi
Reshi S/o Ab Satar Reshi R/o Wachi, Tehsil Zainapora, District Shopian.
Now, I want to correct the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6722 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that the name in my Aadhaar Card
was wrongly mentioned as Mahajabeena Banoo W/o Fayaz Habib Ullah
Tantray R/o Kojar, Tehsil Frisal, District Shopian instead of Jabeena
Akhter W/o Fayaz Habib Ullah Tantray R/o Kojar, Tehsil Frisal, District
Kulgam. Now, I want to correct the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have wrongly been mentioned my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 8392 7511 9213 as Azizi Begam instead of Azi. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
Azi W/o Ab Aziz Dar
R/o Arwah, Beerwah.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6723
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct the name of my son in his Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 5858 9714 7530 from Mohd Mikaeel Naik to Haider Naik as per his
Birth Certificate. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
Tahir Ahmad Naik F/o Haider Naik
R/o Lalpora Chatlam, Pampore.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Naza Banoo M/o Tawqeer Amin R/o Adijan Devsar, Tehsil and
District Kulgam J&K UT state that the name and DoB of my ward has
been inadvertently recorded as Towker Ahmad Wagay and DoB as
25-06-2007 instead of Tawqeer Amin and DoB as 19-09-2010 on his/her
Aadhaar Card 4881 1045 8430. Now, I want to correct this.
Naza Banoo M/o Tawqeer Amin
R/o Adijan Devsar, Tehsil and District Kulgam J&K UT.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6724 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is information for the general public that in Aadhaar card of my
daughter bearing No. 8060 4285 7389 the name is entered as Mayara while
her actual name is Mahira. Now, I want its correction.
Gulshan Báno M/o Mahira
R/o Braman Rohama, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct the name in my son's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9222
9547 3013 from Zahid Zia to Jamsheed Ul Islam. Now, I am applying for
this correction.
Afrooza Begum M/o Jamsheed Ul Islam
R/o Khaipora, Tehsil Qaziabad Kralgund, District Kupwara-193302.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6725
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar card bearing No. 8726 2236
7985 from Mukthiyar Ahmad Khan Batla to Mukhtar Ahmad Khan Batla.
Now, I am applying for its correction.
Mukhtar Ahmad Khan Batla S/o Jaleel Ahmad Khan Batla
R/o Salamabad, Dachina.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old name) Ghulam Mohi Ud din Joo
to (new name) Gh Mohi Ud Din Joo. In future, I will be known as (new
name) Gh Mohi Ud Din Joo.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6726 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Nazir F/o Habeeb Ur Rehman R/o Near Madrassa Bathindi,
Jammu & Kashmir UT state that my son's name has been wrongly written
as Habib Ur Rehman instead of Habeen Ur Rehman in his Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 8411 5804 8800. Now, I am applying for correction of the
same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shahbaz Khan S/o Alam din R/o Thuddi, Tehsil & District Rajouri
have applied for correction of my son’s name which has been wrongly
written as Rehan Khan instead of correct name Mohd Rehan in his
Aadhaar card bearing No. 72972784 6010. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6727
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Wahid Loan S/o Dina Lone R/o Amrit Garh, Tehsil & District
Doda have applied for correction of my daughter’s name which has been
wrongly written as Sersha Banoo instead of correct name Mehrisha Banoo
as per Marksheet. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Leyaqat hussain S/o Abdul Rashid R/o Halla Tehsil & District
Ramban have applied for correction of my name which has been wrongly
written as Layqat Hussain instead of correct name Leyaqat Hussain in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2701 1104 3737. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6728 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Javed Ahmed S/o Wali Mohammad R/o Karol Kundi, Tehsil and
District Ramban have applied for necessary corrections in the name of my
son which has been wrongly written in his Aadhaar Card bearing No 7553
9714 4825 as Jonaid Javed instead of his correct name Junaid Javed. Now,
it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Ab Waheed Naik S/o Mohd Sulaman Naik R/o Pernote, Tehsil and
District Ramban have applied for necessary corrections in my and my
father's name which have been wrongly entered in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 7905 8209 5568 as Abdul Waheed Naik S/o Mohd Suliaman
Naik instead of correct names Ab Waheed Naik S/o Mohd Sulaman Naik.
Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6729
NOTIFICATION
I, Shabir Hussain Malik F/o Hasnain Ali Malik R/o Iskanderpora,
Tehsil Beerwah, District Budgam state that in my ward's Aadhaar Card his
name was inadvertently and wrongly recorded as Malik Hassnain instead
of the correct name of my ward as Hasnain Ali Malik. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5460 0004 2325. Now, I want
to change my name from Tawfeeq Mushtaq (Old Name) to Teufieq
Mushtaq (New Name).
Teufieq Mushtaq S/o Peer Mushtaq Ahmad
R/o Dard Khowher, P/S Harwan Brein Srinagar J&K-191123.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6730 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar card vide No. 8034 1937 1007 as Serit
Shabir instead of Seerat Shabir. Therefore, I want to correct his name in
Aadhaar.
Seerat Shabir C/o Shabir Ahmad Mir
R/o Baramulla, Jammu and kashmir-193122.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in her Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 3656 7251
7213. Now, I want to change my name from Aalim Zehra (Old Name) to
Aliya Zehra (New Name).
Aliya Zehra C/o Abdul Qayoom Haji
R/o Hazratbal Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190006.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6731
NOTIFICATION
I, Shameema Begum W/o Sajad Lone R/o Uri, District Baramulla, UT
of J&K, do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly recorded in
Cash Certificate No. 342055 as Shamshad Begum W/o Sajad Ahmad Lone
while as my correct name is Shameema Begum W/o Sajad Lone. Now, the
same is to be corrected.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar recoard bearing No. 8167 3759 8583 my sisters name
recorded as Ruvida Mushtaq instead of Ruyida Mushtaq. Now, it needs
correction.
Sajad Hussain S/o Gh Hassan Rather B/o Ruyida Mushtaq
R/o Chaki Cholend Herman, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6732 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform to the general public that in Aadhaar Card No 9306
6628 8817 the name of my son has been mentioned wrongly mentioned as
Ibrzrul Huq instead of Abrar Ahmad Bijard. Now, I am applying for the
corrections of the same.
Mukhtar Ahmad Bijard F/o Abrar Ahmad Bijard
R/o Surfraw, Tehsil Gund, Ganderbal.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In the Aadhaar Card of my daughter bearing No. 5955 8216 0917, her
name has been enrolled as Ronik Hafeez instead of Ronak Hafeez. Now, I
want to apply for its correction.
Hafeezullah Bhat
R/o Nambalan, Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6733
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform to general public, that my child’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in my Adhar card, bearing Aadhar No. 6072 9603
8932. Now, I want to change his name from Nargis (old name) Tabiya
Fiyaz (new Name) as per school records/ Domicle officially Document.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shukat Akhtar W/o Abdul Rahman Wani R/o Arreh, Tehsil Kulgam
and District Kulgam have wrongly entered name in Aadhaar Card Under
No. 3159 0096 9831, wrongly name is Showkata Akhter Bhat instead as
Shukat Akhtar. Now, I want to apply for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6734 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my name and address in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 8160 6000 3592 from Hafiz Khan R/o Branadab Kamber to
Mohammad Hafeez Khan R/o Kamber Branadab, Rafiabad. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
Mohammad Hafeez Khan S/o Parvaiz Ahmad Khan
R/o Kamber Branadab Rafiabad, Tehsil Rafiabad, District Baramulla.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8498 2320 7290. Now, I want
to change my name from Faizan Kazmi (Old Name) to Fazan Kazmi (New
Name).
Fazan Kazmi S/o Rizwan Hussain Shah
R/o 37, Mohra Bachhal, Punch, Jammu and Kashmir-185121.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6735
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5301 8522 6125. Now, I want
to change my name from Zulfkar Ali (Old Name) to Zulufkar Ali (New
Name).
Zulufkar Ali S/o Bashir Ahmad Dar
R/o SK Bagh, Bagati Kani Pora, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190015.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7340 5174 0926. Now, I want
to change name from Ghulam Nabi Thoker (Old Name) to Gh Nabi Thoker
(New Name).
Gh Nabi Thoker C/o Mohammad Shafi Thoker
R/o Kalantra, District Baramulla, Jammu and Kashmir-193101.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6736 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Ghulam Mohammad S/o Abdul Aziz Kumhar R/o Shangam
Chingam Chatroo, Tehsil Chatroo, District Kishtwar stayed that my
daughter’s name has been wrongly written as Sumeera Banoo in Aadhaar
Card No. 9292 6107 6593 instead of Humera Banoo. Now, I have applied
for correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Sidrat Hussain D/o Aashiq Hussain War R/o Yehama, Tehsil
Qalamabad & District Kupwara J&K, state that my name is mistakenly
entered in Aadhaar records vide No. 4874-1976-4026 as Saudrat Hussain
instead of Sidrat Hussain. My Correct and Actual name is Sidrat Hussain
and the same may be entered in Aadhaar Records as per Domicile
Certificate, Birth Certificate, School Record etc.
Sidrat Hussain D/o Aashiq Hussain war
R/o Yehama Tehsil Qalamabad & District Kupwara-J&K.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6737
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Shobeena Akhter instead of Shuby. Now, I
want to apply for its correction.
Shuby W/o Irshad Ahmad Mir
R/o Wangam Shangus, Anantnag.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Koshliya Devi W/o Shri Baqil Singh R/o Village Roun, Tehsil &
District Udhampur (J&K) -182126. My correct name is Koshliya Devi and
correct Date of Birth is 20-03-1953. But in my Aadhaar Card No. 8627
0901 3532, my name has been wrongly written as Koushalya Devi and
DoB as 07-09-1959. Hence, my correct name and DoB should be read and
recorded as Koshliya Devi, DoB 20-03-1953.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6738 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
It informed the general public that I want to correct my ward's name
in her Aadhaar beaing No. 3897 5926 6491 from Chachat Sharma to
Chahat Sharma, as per DOB. Now, correction is needed.
Darbari Lal F/o Chahat Sharma
R/o Sodam, Samba-184121.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
The name of my daughter in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3813 0935
2170 has been mentioned as Ammaarah Isa whileas her actual & correct
name is Afaaf Binti Mehraj which needs to be rectified in her Aadhaar
records.
Mehraj Ahmad Tanki F/o Afaaf Binti Mehraj
R/o Hill View Colony Sector 2 Wanbal Rawalpora, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6739
NOTIFICATION
I, Imran Nawaz S/o Abdul Qayoom R/o Village Alal of Thannamandi,
Tehsil Thannamandi, District Rajouri, notify that by mistake my name has
been mentioned as Amran Nawaz instead of Imran Nawaz in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 6098 8918 0006 and DoB actual is 02-01-2008. Now, I
want to make correction in my name as per School/Board record bearing
Roll No. 185025028 and Regd No. 2285002000710035 as Imran Nawaz.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Nehya Yousuf instead of Neyha
Yousuf. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Yousuf Naικοο F/o Neyha Yousuf
R/o Khullchohar Shangus, Anantnag.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6740 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shahab din S/o Mussa R/o Sundla, Tehsil and District Udhampur
have applied for correction of my name which has been wrongly written
as Shaib Din instead of correct name is Shahab Din in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 5479 9291 6338. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Qashif Ali s/o Ghulam Ali R/o Haji Mustafa Colony, Near Sanik
Colony Sec. C, Jammu have applied for correction of my mother’s name
which has been wrongly written as Shamshad Akhter instead of correct
name is Shamshad Begum in my 10th Class under Roll No. 13126840
CBSE session 2025 Registration No. C125/23569/0062. Now, it needs
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6741
NOTIFICATION
I O N Sharma S/o Lt. Girdhari Lal R/o H.No. 112/1, Sanjay Nagar,
Chak Ratnu, Kaluchak, Jammu, Jammu & Kashmir 180010 have corrected
my name from O N Sharma to Onkar Nath Sharma S/o Lt. Girdhari Lal
Vide affidavit dated 19/8/2026 sworn before First class Executive
Magistrate. This shall be used for correction in my Aadhaar Card.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Geeta Devi W/o Sanjay Kumar R/o Lehar, Tehsil Poni, District
Reasi (J&K) state that my name has been recorded in all documents as
Geeta Devi W/o Sanjay Kumar but in my in laws family documents it is
recorded as Geeta Rani. My Aadhaar Card No. is 8888 8678 8067. Now,
I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6742 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Bodh Raj S/o Sh. Om Parkash R/o Ward No. 3, Vill. Akalpur, Tehsil
Marh, District Jammu, do hereby declare that my name was wrongly
written as Bodh Raj Bhagat in the 10th class Marksheet bearing Roll No.
13124345 of my son, namely Nikhil Kumar instead of my correct name i.e
Bodh Raj as per my Aadhaar Card. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Sahil Kumar Dogra S/o Balbir Kumar R/o Village Rajinderpura
Baguna, Tehsil Vijaypur, District Samba, hereby declare that I am
applying for correction/change of my name in my official records and
documents. I intend to change my name from Sahil Kumar Dogra to Sahil
Singh. Henceforth, I shall be known and recognized as Sahil Singh for all
purposes and in all my official and personal documents including
educational documents.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6743
NOTIFICATION
I, Ashfaq Hassan S/o Ghulam Hassan Kumhar R/o Neel Batoo, Tehsil
Ramsoo, District Ramban, J&K (U.T.) applying for correction of my
name, parentage and date of birth which are wrongly written as Ishfaq
Hassan Kumhar S/o Ghulam Hassan & DoB 01-08-2006 instead of correct
Ashfaq Hassan S/o Ghulam Hassan Kumhar & DoB 06-11-2006 in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7554-1473-1861. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Suhagwati W/o Gain Chand R/o Chatyar, Tehsil & District Rajouri
applying for correction of my name & DoB which is wrongly written as
Sahag Wanti DoB 12-12-1948 instead of correct of Suhagwati DoB
09-04-1942 in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2226 7369 9734. Now, I
want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6744 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Shaid F/o Uzma Saiba R/o Bathuni, Tehsil & District Rajouri
applying for correction of my daughter’s name & DoB which is wrongly
written as Uazam Siba DoB 08-09-2020 instead of correct Uzma Saiba
DoB 09-08-2020 in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4070 0300 9803. Now,
I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Sabha Kosser D/o Azar Mirza R/o Badhoon, Tehsil & District
Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as
Sabia Kosser instead of correct Sabha Kosser in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 9420 7811 7829. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6745
NOTIFICATION
I, Farooq Ahmed Lone F/o Rafia Kouser R/o Charalla, Bhaderwah
Chalri, Tehsil & District Doda applying for correction of my daughter’s
name & DoB which is wrongly written as Rafiya Bano DoB 11-04-2011
instead of correct Rafia Kouser DoB 03-05-2014 in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 2713 1579 3444. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohammed Faizan S/o Mohammed Javid R/o Katarmal, Tehsil
Manjakote, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name and my
father’s name which is wrongly written as Mohammad Fazan S/o Mohd
Javid instead of correct Mohammed Faizan S/o Mohammed Javid in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6107 6837 3995. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6746 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Raqia Begum W/o Manzoor Ahmed R/o Hayatpura, Tehsil
Manjakote, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Rakiya Begum instead of correct Raqia Begum in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6163 6510 3041. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Imtiaz Khan S/o Talib Hussain R/o Chatyar, Tehsil & District
Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as
Imatuaz Khan instead of correct Imtiaz Khan in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 4774 2379 9204. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6747
NOTIFICATION
I, Gultaj Akhter M/o Umer Raza R/o Hari Chumb, Tehsil Kalakote,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name which is
wrongly written as Umbar Khan instead of correct Umer Raza in his
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3119 5823 6765. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Humraz Hussain F/o Faizan Hussain R/o Pathan Mohra, Tehsil &
District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name which is
wrongly written as Faizan Ahmed instead of correct Faizan Hussain in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2276 4997 9593. Now, I am applying for its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6748 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Ferdouse Akhter W/o Shamsheer Ahmed R/o Fazalabad, Tehsil
Surankote, District Poonch applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Frdose Akhter instead of my name Ferdouse Akhter in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9698-7673-7772. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Rasik Javeed Katoch S/o Javeed Iqbal Katoch R/o Masjid Pora
Panchal, Tehsil Pogal Paristan Ukhral and District Ramban. In Aadhaar
Card my name was wrongly written as Rashik Javeed Katoch S/o Javeed
Iqbal Katoch instead of Rasik Javeed Katoch S/o Javeed Iqbal Katoch as
per Domicile record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6749
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Adil S/o Mohd Afzal DoB 07-02-2007 R/o Paristan, Tehsil
Pogal Paristan and District Ramban. In Adahar Card my name and date of
birth was wrongly written as Adil Ahmed S/o Mohd Afzal and 02-03-2007
instead of Mohd Adil S/o Mohd Afzal DoB 07-02-2007 as per School
record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Saif Ud Din Malik S/o Abdul Aziz Malik DoB 07-04-1942 R/o
Dhak Dhanmasta, Tehsil Pogal Paristan Ukhral and District Ramban. In
Aadhaar Card my name and date of birth was wrongly written as Saif
Uddin S/o Abdul Aziz Malik and 07-04-1946 instead of Saif Ud Din Malik
S/o Abdul Aziz Malik DoB 07-04-1942 as per Birth Certificate record.
Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6750 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Gur Dass S/o Sharou R/o Ghari Rajgarh, Tehsil and District
Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly written as Gut Dass
S/o Sharou instead of correct name is Gur Dass S/o Sharou as per voter
list record. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Divya Devi D/o Pritam Singh DoB 01-02-2006 R/o Pernote, Tehsil
and District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name and DoB was wrongly
written as Dibia Devi D/o Pritam Singh DoB is 04-08-2006 instead of
correct name Divya Devi D/o Pritam Singh and DOB is 01-02-2006 as per
school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6751
NOTIFICATION
I, Divya Devi D/o Pritam Singh DoB 01-02-2006 R/o Pernote, Tehsil
and District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name and DoB was wrongly
written as Dibia Devi D/o Pritam Singh DoB is 04-08-2006 instead of
correct name Divya Devi D/o Pritam Singh and DoB is 01-02-2006 as per
school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Kirna Devi D/o Parshotam Singh R/o Sawani, Tehsil and District
Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly written as Kiran
Devi D/o Parshotam Singh instead of correct name is Kirna Devi D/o
Parshotam Singh as per school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6752 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Aakash Singh S/o Awal Singh R/o Kunda Pogal, Tehsil Pogal
Paristan Ukhral, District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name was
wrongly written as Aakesh Singh S/o Awal Singh instead of Aakash Singh
S/o Awal Singh as per school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Aamir Ahmed S/o Nazir Ahmed Lohar R/o Marog, Tehsil and
District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name and father’s name was
wrongly written as Mohd Aamir S/o Nazeer Ahmed instead of correct
name is Aamir Ahmed S/o Nazir Ahmed as per school record. Now, I am
applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6753
NOTIFICATION
I, Usman Ayaz S/o Ayaz Ahmed Sheikh R/o Bradgadi, Tehsil and
District Rambán. In my Aadhaar Card my name has been wrongly
recorded as Ausman Ayaz S/o Naseema Begum instead of correct name is
Usman Ayaz S/o Ayaz Ahmed Sheikh as per domicile certificate. Now, I
am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Simi Banoo D/o Bittu Sheikh R/o Kanthi, Tehsil & District Ramban.
In my Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly written as Simmi Banoo D/o
Bittu Sheikh instead of correct name is Simi Banoo D/o Bittu Sheikh as
per School record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6754 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Hafiz Ul Rehman Naik S/o Bashir Ahmed Naik R/o Neel Baloo,
Tehsil and District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name has been
wrongly recorded as Hafiz Ur Rehman Naik S/o Bashir Ahmed Naik
instead of correct name is Hafiz Ul Rehman Naik S/o Bashir Ahmed Naik
as per school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Navik Singh S/o Hariom Singh R/o Bhangara, Tehsil Pogal Paristan
Ukhral, District Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly
written as Navk Singh S/o Hariom Singh instead of Navik Singh S/o
Hariom Singh as per school record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6755
NOTIFICATION
I, Bachater Lal S/o Shankar Dass R/o Jhatgalli, Tehsil and District
Ramban. In my Aadhaar Card my name has been wrongly recorded as
Bachitter Kal S/o Shankar Dass instead of correct name is Bachater Lal
S/o Shankar Dass as per Chowkidar record. Now, I am applying for
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Khelifa Begum W/o Abdul Rehman R/o Kumate Rajgarh, Tehsil
and District Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name name was wrongly
written as Kharifa W/o Abdul Rehman instead of Khelifa Begum W/o
Abdul Rehman as per domicile record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6756 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mahan Singh S/o Sant Ram R/o Bhajmasta, Ramban, Tehsil and
District Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name name was wrongly written as
Man Singh S/o Sant Ram instead of Mahan Singh S/o Sant Ram as per
election card record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Irzam Banoo D/o Gh Mustafa Bhat R/o Gohalla Maligam, Tehsil
Pogal Paristan Ukhral, District Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name and
my father’s name was wrongly written as Arzan Banoo D/o Ghulam
Mustafa Bhat instead of Irzam Banoo D/o Gh Mustafa Bhat as per school
record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6757
NOTIFICATION
I, Uma Devi W/o Karan Singh R/o Batli, Tehsil and District Ramban.
In Aadhaar Card my name and DoB as well as my father’s name was
wrongly written as Oma Devi W/o Karam Singh and DoB is 15-03-1983
instead of Uma Devi W/o Karan Singh and DoB is 15-06-1984 as per Birth
Certificate. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Maheshwar Singh S/o Vinod Singh R/ơ Kundi Seri, Tehsil and
District Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly written as
Meshwar Singh S/o Vinod Singh instead of Maheshwar Singh S/o Vinod
Singh as per Birth Certificate. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6758 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Umatiya Banoo D/o Mohd Ashraf R/o Sujmatna, Tehsil Ramsoo,
District Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name was wrongly written as
Ummathya Banoo D/o Mohd Ashraf instead of Umatiya Banoo D/o Mohd
Ashraf as per Domicile Record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Tabassum Banoo D/o Mohd Sharief R/o Jagir, Tehsil and District
Ramban. In Aadhaar Card my name and date of birth was wrongly written
as Tabssum Bnoo D/o Mohd Sharief and DoB-is 28-12-2012 instead of
Tabassum Banoo D/o Mohd Sharief and DoB is 28-08-2012 as per school
record. Now, I am applying for correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6759
NOTIFICATION
I, Tanveer Ahmed Lohar Batsool, Tehsil & District Ramban, hereby
state that the following particulars appearing in the Aadhaar records are
incorrect 1. Saibal Ahmed S/o Tanveer Ahmed, DoB 20-08-2015,
2. Rahila Ahmed S/o Tanveer Ahmed, DoB 11-07-2017. The correct
particulars as per Birth Certificates are 1. Sahil Tanveer Lohar S/o Tanveer
Ahmed Lohar, DoB 01-02-2018, 2. Rahil Tanveer Lohar S/o Tanveer
Ahmed Lohar, DoB 24-05-2020. Now, I need its corrections.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the Gernal public that my name wrongly mentioned
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5634 5611 6187 as syed Nazir Hussain
Rizwi. Now, I wanted to correct my name in record/Aadhaar Card as Mr
Syed Nazir Shah instead of Syed Nazir Hussain Rizwi.
Mr syed Nazir shah S/o Syed Hassan shah
R/o Durbal, Bemina, Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6760 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Digvijay Singh S/o Banti Singh, mother’s name Savita Devi R/o
Village Marheen, Tehsil Marheen, District Kathua, Jammu and Kashmir
UT. My name has been wrongly written as Digvijay instead of Digvijay
Singh in my school record class 12th Roll No. 13627161 Registration Nо.
C225/23514/0051 year and session 2025. Now, I am applying for the
correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Rithik Pandit S/o Sh Daleep Kumar, mother’s name Soni Kumari
R/o Block No 33, Flat No 14, Lane No 7, Jagti Colony, Kandoli Nagrota,
District Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir UT. My name and my father’s name
have been wrongly written as Hritik Pandit S/o Sh Dileep Kumar instead
of Rithik Pandit S/o Sh Daleep Kumar in Class 12 enrollment No.
070002233042 Year and session April 2024 (NIOS). Now, I am applying
for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6761
NOTIFICATION
I, Nasib Singh F/o Shivjot R/o Village Jij Thakarakote, District Reasi,
Jammu and Kashmir UT-182313. My son’s name has been wrongly
written as Sihav Jooth instead of Shivjot in my son’s Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 9428 7947 5911. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Rinku Masih F/o Ebonie R/o Rajiv Nagar Narwal Bala, Jammu and
Kashmir UT-180006 state that my name & my daughter's name has been
wrongly written as Abney D/o Rinku instead of Ebonie D/o Rinku Masih
in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 428901309128. Now I am applying for
correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6762 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Aslam Khan S/o Gulab Khan R/o Bhatadhurian, Tehsil
Mendhar, District Poonch applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Md Aslam Khan instead of correct Mohd Aslam Khan
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6542-2788-1460. Now, I want its
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Nazia Banoo D/o Mohd Shafi W/o Muzaffer Hussain R/o Bhagwah,
Tehsil Bhagwah, District Doda, J&K, applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Nazia Begum instead of correct Nazia Banoo
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2045 9794 1534. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6763
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Qayoom S/o Mohd Abbas R/o Bathri, Tehsil Kahara, District
Doda, applying for correction/change of my name from Ab Qayoom S/o
Mohd Abass to Abdul Qayoom S/o Mohd Abbas in my Aadhaar Card
bearing Νο. 2719 7575 7900. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Anam Ul Hassan S/o Mohd Hussain R/o Tipri (Patshalla), Tehsil
Bunjwah, District Kishtwar, applying for correction/change of my name
from Inam Ul Hussain S/o Mohd Hussain to Anam Ul Hassan S/o Mohd
Hussain in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9626 8335 9953. Now, it needs
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6764 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Shabiran Bi W/o Mohd Naseer R/o Bhatidhar, Tehsil Mendhar,
District Poonch, applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Shabira Bi instead of correct Shabiran Bi in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 9460 9467 0448. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Qamar Jan W/o Abdul Manan R/o Bhatidhar, Tehsil Mendhar,
District Poonch, applying for correction of my name which are wrongly
written as Kamar Johan W/o Abdul Rashid instead of correct Qamar Jan
W/o Abdul Manan in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. xxxx 9829
4122. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6765
NOTIFICATION
I, Naseema Begum W/o Saif Din R/o Dugroon Bathri, Tehsil Kahara,
District Doda applying for correction/change of my name from Sushma
Davi to Naseema Begum in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4746 0023
9066. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Jameel S/o Mohd Gazi R/o Dugga, Tehsil Drab Shalla,
District Kishtwar applying for correction/change of my child's name from
Horoon Jameel S/o Mohd Jameel to Haroon Jameel S/o Mohd Jameel in
my child's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2049 6424 7330. Now, I am applying
for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6766 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Parviz Ahmed S/o Sher Mohd R/o Dabbar Potha, Tehsil Nowshera,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Parvez Ahmed instead of correct Parviz Ahmed in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 6481 5228 6948. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Ghulam Ali S/o Ali R/o Shangku Pa, Bogdang, Nubra Bogdang, Leh
applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as
Mohd Younus instead of correct Mohammad Younus in Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 5582-5619-3956. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6767
NOTIFICATION
I, Deepak Sharma S/o Late Sh. Kaka Ram R/o H. No. 207, Sarwal,
Last Morh, Jammu, applying for correction of my daughter's name which
has been wrongly written as Shurti instead of correct Shruti Sharma in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7107-1687-7393. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Puneet Sharma S/o Sushil Sharma R/o Ward No. 08, Mohalla
Khorinar, Poonch, Tehsil Haveli, District Poonch applying for change of
my son's name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7805 0194 3641 from Sukrit
Sharma to Arihant Sharrmma in all documents. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6768 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Zareena W/o Basir R/o Sal Kouri Ber, Tehsil Majalta, District
Udhampur applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written
as Nishada Bibi instead of correct Zareena in Aadhaar Card bearing No.
4861-5836-0033, also applying for correction of my 2 son's names. 1st
son's name was wrongly written as Qayoom Bokda instead of correct
Anzal Hussain in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8181-5247-8982 and 2nd
son's name was wrongly written as Rouf Ahmad Bokda instead of correct
Vaseem in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7420-0217-6764. Now, I am
applying for its corrections.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Rakeeya Bano D/o Abdul Quyam R/o Seripura Thatharka, Tehsil
Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Ruqia Bano instead of correct Rakeeya Bano in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5828 2528 1381 and PAN Card bearing No.
HPAPB7319B. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6769
NOTIFICATION
I, Zenat Mohd S/o Gani R/o Kotla Morh Rathian, Tehsil & District
Udhampur applying for correction of my name and parentage which are
wrongly written as Mohd Janiat S/o Abdul Gani instead of correct Zenat
Mohd S/o Gani in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6656-7144-9121. Now, I
want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Angrez Singh S/o Suram Singh R/o Village Ladda Jangal Gali,
Tehsil Moungri, District Udhampur applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Angraj Singh instead of correct Angrez Singh
in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4826-7684-0647. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6770 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mukhtar Ahmed S/o Mohd Ashraf R/o Village Timbra, Tehsil
Haveli, District Poonch applying for correction of my son's name which is
wrongly written as Tusabir Ahmed instead of correct Tasawar Ahmed in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3606-1594-7621. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Abdul Latief S/o Abdul Majeed R/o Behota, Tehsil Marmat, District
Doda applying for correction of my son’s name and father’s name which
are wrongly written as Mohd Arbqz S/O Abdul Latif instead of correct
Mohd Arbaz S/o Ab Latief in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4223 4240 1184.
Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6771
NOTIFICATION
I, Bahadur Singh S/o Charan Singh R/o Narian, Tehsil Nowshera,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Badhar Singh instead of correct Bahadur Singh in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 6435 6599 8128. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Keemta Devi W/o Banwari Lal R/o Chowki Handan, Tehsil
Nowshera, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Kimta Devi instead of correct Keemta Devi in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9832 0841 0867. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6772 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Koushal Kumar S/o Mani Ram R/o Village Ari, P.O. Ari, Tehsil
District Mendhar, Poonch applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Koshal Kumar Gupta instead of correct Koushal
Kumar in Aadhaar Card bearing No.7311-8924-8573. Now, it needs
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Bhola Ram S/o Mangat Ram R/o Sangpur, Tehsil Nowshera,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Bola Ram Barma instead of correct Bhola Ram in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 9323 7687 7092. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6773
NOTIFICATION
I, Sapna Devi W/o Sh Ranjeet Kumar R/o Village Tarhara, Tehsil
Kathua, District Kathua applying for correction of my son’s name which
is wrongly mentioned as Kasav Kumar instead of Correct name is Keshav
Kumar in his Aadhaar card bearing No. 7017 1632 2042. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shaheen Akhter W/o Mohd Shokit R/o Khabi Nari Jhulass, Tehsil
Haveli, District Poonch applying for correction of my son's name which is
wrongly written as Mohd Rehayan instead of correct Mohd Rehayan in
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2716-4449-4640. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6774 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Farooq F/o inaya Fatima R/o Draba, Tehsil Surankote,
District Poonch applying for correction of my daughter’s name which is
wrongly written as Anaiya Fatima instead of correct inaya Fatima in her
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6352 3826 4079. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Navid Anjum Mir S/o Ghulam Ahmed Mir R/o Rajdhani, Tehsil
Thannamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name
& Date of birth which is wrongly written as Mashawl Navid Mir & Date
of birth 01-06-2011 instead of correct Mashail Navid Mir & DoB is
26-12-2014 in his Aadhaar Card bearing No 7356 1453 4250. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6775
NOTIFICATION
I, Shamim Akhter W/o Mohd Tufail R/o Husplote, Tehsil
Thannamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name
which is wrongly written as Abrar Ahmed instead of correct Bilal Ahmed
in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7952 3827 8187. Now, I am applying for
the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shamim Akhter W/o Fazal Hussain R/o Husplote, Tehsil
Thannamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s &
daughter’s name which is wrongly written as Munsif Ali instead of correct
Munasif Ali in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4187 1913 1707 &
daughter’s name Sehrish Hamida instead of correct Serish Hamid in her
Aadhaar Card No. 7629 2782 1863. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6776 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I want to change my ward’s name from Abbaan Shabir to Mohammad
Abban in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5611 7733 0903. In future, he will be
known as new name Mohammad Abban.
Shabir Ahmad Bazar F/o Mohammad Abban
R/o Aram Masjid, Khanyar, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to change my ward’s name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3296
9207 9454 from Aiman Hilal to Huzaif Hilal. Now, I am applying for
correction.
Hilal Ahmad Bakhroo F/o Huzaif Hilal
R/o Rainawari, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6777
NOTIFICATION
I, Raja W/o Mohammad Yousuf Bhat R/o Koolipora Khanya, Srinagar
have changed my name Raja from Haseena after marriage. I am holding
Aadhaar bearing No. 8970 8439 9175 in which my name is mentioned as
Haseena W/o Mohammad Yosuf Bhat while as my correct/new name is
Raja W/o Mohammad Yousuf Bhat R/o Koolipora Khanyar, Srinagar
which is true and correct. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to change my name from (old name) Yawer Nabi Sofi S/o
Ghulam Nabi Sofi to (new name) Yawar Yameen Mohammad S/o Ghulam
Nabi Sofi. In future, I will be known as (new name) Yawar Yameen
Mohammad.
Yawar Yameen Mohammad S/o Ghulam Nabi Sofi
R/o Bohri Kadal.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6778 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Sageer S/o Mohd Rafiq R/o Khanyal Kote, Tehsil
Thannamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name
which is wrongly written as Rehain Sagheer instead of correct Rehan
Sageer in his Aadhaar Card bearing No 399081212801. Now, it needs
correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Farooq F/o Inaya Fatima R/o Draba, Tehsil Surankote,
District Poonch applying for correction of my daughter’s name & DoB
which is wrongly written as Saniya Fatima & DoB 03-01-2018 instead of
correct Sanaya Fatima & DoB is 03-03-2018 in her Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 5286 9309 3944. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6779
NOTIFICATION
I, Sanjive Kumar S/o Dev Datt R/o Chowki Handan, Tehsil Nowshera,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Sanjeev Kumar instead of correct Sanjive Kumar in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 975 0010 76541. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Vikar Choudhary S/o Mohd Zakhir R/o Potha, Tehsil Nowshera,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Waqar Ahmad instead of correct Vikar Choudhary in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5164 0415 0315. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6780 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Siara Bano D/o Ghullam Rasool Thachu R/o Bhimdassa, Tehsil
Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my name which is
wrongly written as Sayra Bano instead of correct Siara Bano in my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5083 6228 1329. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Tasveer Ahmed S/o Mohd Kabir R/o Husplote, Tehsil
Thannamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my son’s name
which is wrongly written as Mehmmad Mehrab instead of correct Mohd
Mehrab in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8828 2980 2165. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6781
NOTIFICATION
I, Savita Devi W/o Sh Sham Kumar R/o Bhatiari, Udhampur applying
for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Sabita Devi instead
of correct Savita Devi in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3061-6414-6041.
Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Desraj S/o Krapal, R/o Gram Rajpura, Post Ajnar, Маhhoba, Ajnar,
Uttar Pradesh-210423 applying for correction of my son's name and date
of birth which are wrongly written as Brajesh & DoB 12-07-2016 instead
of correct Brijesh Pal & DoB 12-07-2015 in Aadhaar Card 9899-5110-
8032. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6782 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Malvinder Kour W/o Late Amar Singh R/o Railway Patrie Tali
Morh, Makhanpur Gojran, Miran Sahib, R.S. Pura, Jammu, Tehsil R.S.
Pura, District Jammu, applying for correction of my name wrongly written
as Malminder Kour instead of correct Malvinder Kour in Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 4727-0238-4030. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Sanjeev Singh S/o Nasib Singh R/o Thillo, Thuroo, District Reasi,
J&K, applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as
Bittu Singh instead of correct Sanjeev Singh in Aadhaar Card bearing No.
9225-9838-0975. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6783
NOTIFICATION
I, Ratna Kumari W/o Sham Lal R/o Bye Pass Santra Morh, Pouni
Chak, Tehsil Jammu West, District Jammu J&K UT. My name is wrongly
written as Ratna Kumari instead of correct name Ratno Kumari on my
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6213 3037 1035. Now, my correct name is
Ratno Kumari.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Ashrif S/o Gh. Hussain R/o Gugara, Tehsil Thathri, District
Doda, J&K-182203, applying for correction of my name and address
which is wrongly written as Mohd Ashraf Sheikh R/o H. No. 01, Gugara,
Doda, J&K 182203 instead of correct Mohd Ashrif R/o Gugara, Tehsil
Kahara, District Doda, J&K 182203 in Aadhaar Card bearing 4319-1926-
3355. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6784 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Surjeet Kumar S/o Shadi Lal R/o Dassa Dool, Tehsil Kishtwar,
District Kishtwar applying for correction of my daughter's name and DoB
which is wrongly mentioned as Akhiriti Bharti instead of correct name is
Aakriti Bharti DoB which is wrongly mentioned as 29-10-2010 instead of
correct 19-08-2010 in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5339 6646 8248.
Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Musarat Naz D/o Mohd Akram R/o Laroka, Tehsil Qila Darhal,
District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly
written as Masrat Naz instead of correct Musarat Naz in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 6824 1476 3833. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6785
NOTIFICATION
I, Asha Devi W/o Dhul Chandr R/o Naya Khera Bhilwara, Rajasthan,
A/P Patoli Brahmana, Jammu applying or correction of my son's name &
date of birth which are wrongly written as Prinsh & DoB 08-01-2017
instead of correct Prince Jat & DoB 12-05-2015 in his Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 4832-1581-7512. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Guddi Begum W/o Abdul Majed Butt R/o Shamdalain, Tehsil
Kahara, District Doda, applying for correction/change of my name from
Gudie Begum W/o Ab Majed to Guddi Begum W/o Abdul Majed Butt in
my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2223 5476 6446. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6786 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Ifrooza Banoo Malik D/o Shamas Ud Din Malik R/o Tulhal Panchal,
Tehsil Pogal Paristan, District Ramban applying for correction of my name
and DoB which are wrongly written as Afroza Banoo & DoB 02-02-2000
instead of correct Ifrooza Banoo Malik & DoB 10-03-2000 in Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 8876 9115 39155. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohd Yousaf Reshi S/o Muna Reshi R/o Village Chakra Dhandal,
Tehsil Kastigarh, District Doda, J&K applying for correction of my name
which is wrongly written as Mohd Yousaf instead of correct Mohd Yousaf
Reshi in school record. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6787
NOTIFICATION
I, Anka Devi D/o Jai Lal Bali R/o Dudla Balhote, Tehsil & District
Ramban, J&K, UT of Jammu & Kashmir, do hereby inform the general
public that my name, parentage and address have been wrongly recorded
as Anku Devi D/o Jia Lal R/o Dudla, Balhote instead of correct detail
Anka Devi D/o Jai Lal Bali R/o Dudla, Balhote in Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 8765 9434 2114. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my ward's mother's name in School Records bearing
admission No. 192 Class 10th from Irfana Shabir to Irfan. Now, I am
applying for correction.
Shabir Ahmad Handoo F/o Kaleem Abdus Sami Handoo
Mother's Name Irfan.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6788 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old name) Abdul Hamid Walli to (new
name) Abdul Hamid Wali. In future, I will be known as (new name) Abdul
Hamid Wali.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8141 2787 7625. Now, I want
to change my name from Parveen Majeed (old name) to Parveena Majid
(new name).
Parveena Majid W/o Mir Abdul Majid
R/o 190, Dood Ganga Road Balgarden, Srinagar, J&K-190010.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6789
NOTIFICATION
This is an information for General Public that in Aadhaar Card of my
son bearing No. 3914 2947 0010, his name, Parentage and Address has
been mistakenly mentioned as Sahil Hussain Palal S/o Mohammad
Hussain Palal R/o Gojar Patti, Malangam, while as his actual and correct
name, Parentage and Address as per his Domicile certificate is Suhail
Hussain Gojar Palal S/o Mohammad Hussain Gojar Palal R/o Malangam,
Tehsil Aloosa. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Hussain Gojar Palal F/o Suhail Hussain Gojar Palal
R/o Malangam, Tehsil Aloosa, District Bandipora, J&K-193502.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is information for general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4350 962 56735as Nasmat Jan
instead of Nismat Jan D/o Shahnawaz Aziz R/o Sanyardi, D.K Marg
Tehsil D.H. Pora, District Kulgam. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6790 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar recoard bearing No. 6649 1774 18888 my name recorded
as Mahroo Jan instead of Mehru Jan. Now, it needs correction.
Mehru Jan D/o Nazir Ahmad Najar
R/o Punipora, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Khatji Mali while my correct name as per
my documents is Khatajie. Now, I want to update my name in Aadhaar
Card as Khatajie instead of Khatji Mali.
Khatajie W/o Mohmad Pala
R/o Palpora Akura Mattan, Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir-192125.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6791
NOTIFICATION
It is informed to the general public that my ward’s name has been
wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Mukaran Shafi Mir while his
correct name as per documents is Mukaram Shafi Mir. Now, I want to
update his name in Aadhaar Card.
Mohammad Shafi Mir F/o Mukaram Shafi Mir
R/o Sallar Pahalgam, Anantnag, Jammu and Kashmir-192126.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9996 6803 1456. Now, I want
to change my name from Shabnam (old name) to Shabnum Gull (new
name).
Shabnum Gull W/o Ajaz Ahmad Nath,
R/o Friends Colony, Zainakot HMT, Srinagar J&K-190012.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6792 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly
mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3414 1338 7524. Now, I want
to change my name from Zubaida (old name) to Zeeba (new name).
Zeeba W/o Ghulam Rasool Ganaie
R/o 0011, Zewan, Pantha Chowk, Lasjan, Srinagar, J&K-191101.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Hamidullah Mir S/o Rahmat Ullah Mir R/o Khanpora, Yaripora,
Tehsil Yaripora, District Kulgam state that my correct and actual name is
Ab. Hamid Mir due to an inadvertent clerical error, my name was
incorrectly recorded/mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9811
5512 9010, as Hamidullah Mir instead of my correct name, Ab. Hamid
Mir. Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6793
NOTIFICATION
I, Ab Ali Ganai S/o Ab Hayat Ganai R/o Hussanpora Bagh, Tehsil
Bijbehara, District Anantnag, do hereby inform the general public that my
name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Ali Mohd
Ganie whileas my correct and actual name is Ab Ali Ganai. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct my name & parentage in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 2423 2474 1982 from Javaid Ah Ganie S/o Mohammad Ismaeel to
Javid Ahmad Ganaie S/o Mohammad Ismail Ganaie as per my Domicile
Certificate. Now, I want its correction.
Javid Ahmad Ganaie S/o Mohammad Ismail Ganaie
R/o Panthachowk, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6794 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3170
1286 6294 from Jawhara Hakeem to Jwahira Bano as per my School
Certificate. Now, I want its correction.
Jwahira Bano W/o Manzoor Ahmad Hakeem
R/o New Colony Khrew, Pampore.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct the name of my son in his Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 4323 3876 1824 from Adnan Ayoub to Adnan Ahmad Shah as per his
Birth Certificate. Now, I want its correction.
Mohammad Ayoub Shah F/o Adnan Ahmad Shah
R/o Patalbagh, Pampore.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6795
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct my name & parentage in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 9573 1139 8482 from Manzoor Ahmad Hakeem S/o Hakeem Abdul
Gani to Manzoor Ahmad S/o Abdul Gani as per my passport. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
Manzoor Ahmad S/o Abdul Gani
R/o Khrew, Pampore.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Arhan Ali S/o Mehdi Ali R/o Bogdang Nubra, Leh-Ladakh (UT)
state that my name has been wrongly written as Aryan Ali instead of Arhan
Ali in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4871 3436 2887. Now, I am applying
for correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6796 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (Old Name) Azad Hussain to (New
Name) Syed Azad Hussain. In future i will be known as (New Name) Syed
Azad Hussain.
Syed Azad Hussain S/o Syed Mohmad Syed
R/o Gouri Pora, near Temple, Sanat Nagar, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4573 0899 -5760 the name of my ward
is recorded as Muhammad Muizz while as his actual and correct name is
Abdul Muizz Bhat. Now, change/correction is required.
Nawaz Shafi F/o Abdul Muizz Bhat
R/o Khonmoh, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6797
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8327 0512 9314 the name of my ward is
recorded as Mairah Yasir while as her actual and correct name is Siyara
Tun Nissa. Now, change/correction is required.
Yasir Bazaz F/o Siyara Tun Nissa
R/o H 22 Hyderia Colony Baghwanpora, Lal Bazar, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old name) Ishtiyaq Ayoub Wani to
(new name) Ishtiyaq Ayoub. In future, I will be known as Ishtiyaq Ayoub.
lishtiyaq Ayoub S/o Mohd Ayoub Wani
R/o Kiloora Malikgund, Distshopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6798 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Humara Salman instead of Humaira
Salman. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Salman Khan F/o Humaira Salman
R/o Karewa Manloo, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Rozi Jan instead of Rozia Jan. Now, I
want to apply for its correction.
Mohammad Shafi Katari F/o Rozia Jan
R/o Devpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6799
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Jabran Ah Sheikh instead of Jibran
Ahmad Sheikh. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Dawood Ahmad Sheikh F/o Jibran Ahmad Sheikh
R/o Ramnagri, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Kaleemullah instead of Kaleemullah
Malik. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Ataullah Malik F/o Kaleemullah Malik
R/o Reshangri, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6800 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Masnaza Akhter instead of Masooda Naz.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Masooda Naz W/o Bilal Ahmad Rather
R/o Vehil Chatawan, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Irfan Ahmad Awan instead of Irfan
Majeed Awan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Abdul Majeed Awan F/o Irfan Majeed Awan
R/o Zawoora Baderhama, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6801
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Alyaas Imtiyaz instead of Aliyas
Ahmad Baniya. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Imtiyaz Ahmad Baniya F/o Aliyas Ahmad Baniya
R/o Chotipora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Hajira Akhter instead of Hajrah Akhter. Now,
I want to apply for its correction.
Hajrah Akhter W/o Zahoor Ahmad Manhas
R/o Shadab Karewa, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6802 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Barila Jan instead of Bareera Javed.
Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Javed Ahmad Bhat F/o Bareera Javed
R/o Bongam, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Areeba Ahsan Ul Haq Qazi instead of
Areeba Jan. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Ahsan Ul Haq Qazi F/o Areeba Jan
R/o Shadab Karewa, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6803
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
ward’s name is wrongly written as Ainam Majid Bhat instead of Anamta
Majid. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Majid Iqbal Bhat F/o Anamta Majid
R/o Nowpora, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Dawood Ahmad Ganie instead of Dawood
Khursheed. Now, I want to apply for its correction.
Dawood Khursheed S/o Khursheed Ah Ganie
R/o Mandujan, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6804 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Musrat Jan instead of Masarat Begum. Now, I
want to apply for its correction.
Masarat Begum W/o Jahangir Ahmad Bhat
R/o Reshinagri, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my
name is wrongly written as Aliey Jan instead of Aaliya Jan. Now, I want
to apply for its correction.
Aaliya Jan W/o Bilal Ahmad Ganaie
R/o Daygam, Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6805
NOTIFICATION
I, Esma Yousuf D/o Mohammad Yousuf Mir R/o Kanigam, District
Shopian, hereby declare that my correct and actual name is Esma Yousuf,
which is recorded in all my personal and official documents except my
Aadhaar Card. My Aadhaar Card has inadvertently been issued in the
name of Usma Jan under Aadhaar No. 8175 6421 3983, which is incorrect
due to a clerical error. I hereby declare that Esma Yousuf is my true and
correct name.
Esma Yousuf D/o Mohammad Yousuf Mir
R/o Kanigam, District Shopian.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5787 0694
0401 from Musrat Jan to Masrat Jan D/o Ab Kareem Sofi as per my
passport. Now, the same is to be corrected.
Masrat Jan D/o Ab Kareem Sofi
R/o 47 Wanabal Near Masjid Shareef Rawalpora, Srinagar-190005.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6806 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No.5375 3282 3399, my name has been
mentioned as Raja Bano whileas my actual & correct name is Raja Begum
which needs to be rectified in my Aadhaar records.
Raja Begum W/o Mohammad Shafi Banday
R/o Ganderpora Eidgah, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8747 8747 1558 my name has been
mentioned as Firdousa and DoB as 07-05-1965. Whileas my correct name
is Firdous and correct DoB is 07-05-1964 which is mentioned in my
Matriculation Certificate also. Now, I want to apply for the correction of
the same in my Aadhaar card.
Firdous W/O Mohammad Hanief Gadda
R/o Weir Chattabal, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6807
NOTIFICATION
In the Aadhaar Card of my child bearing No. 9898 3389 9794 his name
and parentage have been mentioned as Ehmad Umar S/o Umar Jan
Tantray. Whileas his correct name & parentage is Ahmad Umer Tantry
S/o Umer Jan Tantry which is mentioned in his DoB certificate and
Domocile also. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in his
Aadhar Card.
Umer Jan Tantry F/o Ahmad Umer Tantry
R/o Falchill Krim Shora, Budgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
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misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Wasit Aijaz Zargar S/o Aijaz Ahmad Zargar R/o Drabyar, Habba
Kadal, Srinagar, want to inform the general public that my name has been
incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar records bearing No. 7772-4559-2489
as Wasid Aijaz Zargar whereas, my actual and correct name as per my
Matriculation Marks Sheet issued by JKBOSE is Wasit Aijaz Zargar.
Now, I want its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6808 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been incorrectly
recorded in my Aadhaar Card as Afraza Bano W/o Irshad Ahmad Bhat
whereas my correct and actual name is Afroza Bano W/o Irshad Ahmad
Bhat. Now, I intend to apply for correction of the said error in my Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 2015-2686-1385.
Afroza Bano W/o Irshad Ahmad Bhat
R/o Sozeith Goripora, Beerwah, Budgam-193401, J&K.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar records bearing Aadhar No. 4475 0682 7032 my ward's
name recorded as Reyaan Sirsheed instead of Rehan Sirsheed. Now, it
needs correction.
Sirheed Ahmad Padder F/o Rehan Sirsheed
R/o Mirhama, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6809
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar records bearing No. 9690 2226 1665 my ward’s name was
recorded as Fasil Mashooq instead of Kamran Mashooq. Now, it needs
correction.
Mashooq Ahmad Bhat F/o Kamran Mashooq
R/o Chakpora Bandora, Kulgam.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 2344-2988-1471
from Dilshada Bano to Shaheena Akhter. Now, I am applying for the
correction.
Shaheena Akhter W/o Parvaiz Ahmad Sheikh
R/o Prang, Tehsil Kangan, District Ganderbal.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6810 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Doulat Ram Sharma S/o Sh Devi Ditta R/o H.No. 598, Narwal Pain,
Opp. Airport, Jammu, hereby declare that my name has been wrongly
recorded as Dault Ram in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6497 7832 3332
instead of my correct name Doulat Ram Sharma, as recorded in my other
documents. I now intend to get my name corrected in the said Aadhaar
Card as Doulat Ram Sharma instead of Dault Ram.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Zahid Zahoor want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 8626 4682 7851 from Mohd Zahid to Zahid Zahoor. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6811
NOTIFICATION
1, Manzoor Ahmad Rather want to change my son’s name in his
Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9983 8048 2254 from Mohammad Afhaan
Rather to Rather Afhaan Ali. Now, I am applying for the correction of the
same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Hilal Ahmad wani want to change my son’s name in his Aadhaar
Card bearing No. 2571 9309 3782 from Semran Hilal Wani to Samraan
Hilal Wani. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6812 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct my name and spouse's name in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 3361 2876 8470 from Shareefa Bano W/o Javaid Ahmad Dar
to Nighat W/o Javeed Ahmad Dar, as per my Date of Birth Certificate.
Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
Nighat W/o Javeed Ahmad Dar
R/o Ganderpora Eidgah, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I intend to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4135
4215 5441 from Sheikh Binish to Sheikh Hareem, as per my Date of Birth
Certificate. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.
Sheikh Hareem D/o Ghulam Nabi
R/o Shala Kadal, Habba Kadal, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6813
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old name) Shaukat Ali Sofi to (new
name) Showkat Hussain Sofi. In future, I will be known as (new name)
Showkat Hussain Sofi.
Showkat Hussain Sofi S/o Ghulam Ahmad Sofi
R/o 89-DD Bagh Badamwari, Hawal.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Reyaz Ahmad Naik hereby declare that my name has been wrongly
mentioned as Reyaz Ahmad Naik in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8363
9861 2749, whereas my correct name, as recorded in my official school
documents and office records, is Rayaz Ahmad. Accordingly, I hereby
declare that my correct name shall henceforth be used and recognized as
Rayaz Ahmad for all official and other purposes.
Rayaz Ahmad.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6814 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Anupma W/o Nawal Kishore and D/o Kishori Lal R/o H.No. 33,
Colonel colony Talab Tillo, Bohri Jammu have applied for necessary
corrections in my name and my father's name which have been wrongly
entered in my service records as Anupama Sharma and my father's name
as Kishori Lal Reothia instead of my correct hame and Parentage as
Anupma D/o Kishori Lal. Now, I am applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No 4004
2037 6540 from Abdul Ahad Hajam to Mohmad Amin Hajam. Now, I am
applying for the correction of the same.
Mohmad Amin Hajam S/o Ghulam Hajam
R/o Poshwan Zachal Dara, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir-193221.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6815
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old name) Ruquia to (new name)
Ruquia Khatoon. In future, I will be known as (new name) Ruquia
Khatoon.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Shahnaz Manzoor W/o Lt. Manzoor Ahmad Sofi R/o Nigeen
Hazratbal, Srinagar-190006, want to inform the general public that my
name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.
2280-7327-5980 as Shahnaza Ara. Whileas my actual and correct name as
per my Domicile Certificate issued by office of the Tehsildar Srinagar
(North) is Shahnaz Manzoor. Now, I want my correct name to be updated
in my Aadhaar Card records.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6816 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Rangil Singh F/o Ridhu Manhas R/o Darai Gundhoh, J&K state that
my daughter’s name has been wrongly written as Redu Manhas instead of
Ridhu Manhas in her Aadhar Card bearing No. 4694 5815 5171. Now, I
am applying for correction of the same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that in
the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2570 8322 7519, the name has been
wrongly recorded as Saira Yousuf, whereas my correct and actual name is
Saira Akhter. Now, I am applying for correction of the said name in the
concerned records.
Saira Akhter W/o Umer Bashir Dar
R/o Namblabal, Pampore.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6817
NOTIFICATION
It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that in
the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6321 0590 3020 the name has been wrongly
recorded Fahmeeda Akhter, whereas her correct and actual name is
Fahmeeda Bano. Now, I am applying for correction of the said name in
the concerned records.
Fahmeeda Bano W/o Mohammad Aslam Hanji
R/o Κakapora, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that in
the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4101 6835 3713 the name has been wrongly
recorded as Mastufa Sageer, whereas her correct and actual name is
Mustafa Sageer. Now, I am applying for correction of the said name in the
concerned records.
Mustafa Sageer S/o Sageer Hyder Salam
R/o Malangpora, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6818 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that in
the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9840 5252 1141, the name has been
wrongly recorded as Dilshada Bano, whereas my correct and actual name
is Dilshada Jan. Now, I am applying for correction of the said name in the
concerned records.
Dilshada Jan W/o Bilal Ahmad Lone
R/o Κakapora, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that in
the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2483 3076 0151 the name has been wrongly
recorded as Yasmeena Akhter, whereas my correct and actual name is
Yasmeena Rasool. Now, I am applying for correction of the said name in
the concerned records.
Yasmeena Rasool D/o Ghulam Rasool Bhat
R/o Lelhar, Pulwama.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6819
NOTIFICATION
In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8009 0325 4514 in which my name is
wrongly mentioned as Mohd Surbaland Khan while my correct name is
Mohd Surbland Khan. Here I want to say that both names belong to the
same person. Now, correction required.
Mohd Surbland Khan S/o Kala Khan
R/o Turkmohalla Koyal Mukam, District Bandipora.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
My name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 8135 2841 9158 as Naziran Bibi, whereas my correct and actual name
is Nazira Bibi. Now, I Nazira Bibi W/o Mohd Younsa, R/o Katwalta
Mandal, P/O Purmandal, Tehsil Bari Brahmana, District Samba, declare
that Naziran Bibi and Nazira Bibi refer to one and the same person, i.e.,
myself. My correct name is duly recorded as Nazira Bibi in my Domicile
Certificate and Voter Card. Henceforth, I shall be known and recognized
by the name Nazira Bibi for all official, legal, banking and other purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6820 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
This information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 4689 1496 9919, my name has been wrongly mentioned as Sheikh
Shahnawaz while as my actual name is Shahnawaz Ahmad. Now, I am
applying for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
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Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mohammad Rayyan S/o Saleem Jan R/o Lane No. 7, Gulberg
Colony, Near Bilal Masjid, Hyderpога, Srinagar have changed my name
from Riyanjahan to Mohammad Rayyan. I am holding Passport No.
S1171161, wherein my name is recorded as Riyan Jahan I have applied
for reissue of my passport with my changed name as Mohammad Rayyan
Mohammad Rayyan S/o Saleem Jan
R/o Lane No. 7, Gulberg Colony, Near Bilal Masjid, Hyderpora, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6821
NOTIFICATION
I, Subzar Ahmad Parry S/o Mohmad Yousuf Parry R/o Bilal Colony
Nainal, Anantnag that my name, parentage and DoB has been mentioned
in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3091 9788 4961 as Sabzar Ahmad Parray
S/o Mohammad Yousuf Parray and DoB 16-10-1989 instead of Subzar
Ahmad Parry S/o Mohmad Yousuf Parry DoB 16-10-1987. Now, I want
to apply for its correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I want to correct the name of my daughter in her Aadhaar Card bearing
No. 4913 3184 6627 from Aameinah to Amenah Bhat as per her domicile
certificate. Now, it needs correction.
Gowher Hassan Bhat F/o Amenah Bhat
R/O Gousia Colony, Bagati Kanipora, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6822 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Sukhdev Singh S/o Late Sh Tarsem Singh R/o H.No. 56, Ward No.
10, Arnia, P/O Arnia, Jammu (J&K), declare that my wife's name was
wrongly recorded as Preeti Kohli Saini instead of Preeti Kohli in the
school records of my daughter, Dhanvi Saini, (Class 10th, K.V. No. 1
Gandhi Nagar, Jammu). Preeti Kohli Saini and Preeti Kohli refer to one
and the same person. Now, it needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from Sajeela Bano (old name) to Sajeela
Begum (new name). In future, I will be known as Sajeela Begum (new
name).
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6823
NOTIFICATION
In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5994 0123 0530, my name has been
wrongly admitted as Saliha Mehraj D/o Mehraj Din while as my actual
name is Soliha Mehraj D/o Mehraj Ud Din Mir. Now, I am applying for
its correction.
Soliha Mehraj D/o Mehraj Ud Din Mir
R/o Khawajpora, Nowgam, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Surinder Singh S/o Baldev Singh R/o Village Thuroo Dharmari,
Tehsil Thuroo, District Reasi, J&K, hereby inform that my minor
daughter's name is wrongly recorded in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2426
7503 7917 as Navyanshi Surinder Singh whereas her correct name is
Dhritika Singh Jaije as per her Birth Certificate. Now, the same shall be
treated as her correct name for all official purposes.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6824 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I want to change the name of my son in his Aadhaar Card bearing No.
7450 3562 9973 from Mursaleen Muzafar to Karamat Ali. Now, the same
is to be corrected.
Muzafar Ahmad Bhat F/o Karamat Ali
R/o Shaheed Gunj, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
This is to inform the general public that my name has been
inadvertently recorded as Intikhab Alam Wani in my Aadhaar Card,
whereas my correct name is Intikhabi Alam Wani. Further, my father's
name has been recorded as Ghulam Hassan Wani, whereas the correct
name is Gh. Hassan Wani. I intend to have the said discrepancies corrected
accordingly.
Intikhabi Alam Wani Father's Name: Gh. Hassan Wani
R/o Khonmoh, Srinagar.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
No. 26] The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. 6825
NOTIFICATION
I, Prabh Dayal S/o Shello Ram R/o Village Panjore, Khana Chak,
Jammu applying for correction of my name & address which are wrongly
written as Prabhu Dayal S/o Shelo Ram R/o Pangore, Kanachak, Jammu
instead of correct Prabh Dayal S/o Shello Ram R/o Village Panjore, Khana
Chak, Jammu in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.7049-9260-3104. Now, it
needs correction.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I, Mona (old name) W/o Pallay Khan R/o H.No. 181 W.No. 01,
Narwal Pain Satwari, Jammu has changed my name from Mona (old
name) to Nadia (new name). I do hereby assume from this date the
name/surname Nadia (new name).
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
6826 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th Sept., 2026/2nd Asv., 1948. [No. 26
NOTIFICATION
I, Kiran Kumari W/o Raghunath Singh Jamwal R/o Village Pakhian,
Kangarail, Jammu J&K UT 181206 state that my name has wrongly been
written as Kiran Jamwal instead of Kiran Kumari in my Aadhaar Card
bearing No. 2841 7169 0904. Now, I am applying for correction of the
same.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
————
NOTIFICATION
I have changed my name from (old Name) Abdul Gaffar Malik to (new
name) Ab Gaffar Malik. In future, I will be known as (new name) Ab
Gaffar Malik.
It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this
connection.
Disclaimer
No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT
of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall
remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
misrepresentation etc.
By order.
General Manager,
Government Press, Srinagar.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 6th Aug., 2026/15th Srav., 1948. [No. 19-g
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART I—B
Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT,
J&K.
Notification
Srinagar, the 6th of August, 2026.
S.O. 218.–Whereas, on 10.01.2024, the Police Station, Awantipora,
received an information to the effect that despite declaring Tehreek-e-
Hurriyat, Jammu and Kashmir, (TeH), an unlawful association, by the
Central Government vide Notification S.O. 5532 (E) dated 31.12.2023,
the members of the association are still engaging in anti national
activities in the area and spreading hatred and promoting secessionist
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 6th Aug., 2026/15th Srav., 1948.
[No. 19-g
idea among the general public which poses threat to sovereignty and
integrity of India ; and
Whereas, based on the above, a Case FIR No. 03/2024 U/S 10,13 of
ULA (P) Act, came to be registered in the Police Station, Awantipora,
and the investigation, of the case was taken up; and
Whereas, during the investigation, the role involvement of a person
identified as Assadullah Bhat @ Shaheen S/o Nabir Bhat R/o Dadsara,
Awantipora, District Pulwama, came to fore in the commission of crime.
However, the arrest of the accused has been effected due to advanced
age, failing health & Prostate disease and during the investigation, some
incriminatory material was seized at his instance; and
Whereas, during the investigation, the site plan of the place of
occurrence and the seizure memos were prepared and the statements of
witnesses acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case were
recorded under the relevant provisions of law; and
Whereas, the investigation, conducted by the Investigating, Officer
has prima facie established that the accused viz. Assadullah Bhat @
Shaheen, was member of Tehreek-e-Hurriyat, Jammu and Kashmir
(TeH), an unlawful association, and was involved in reviving the
secessionist ideology of the said faction in the area despite declaring the
said association as unlawful by the Central Government, thereby
threatened the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India; and
Whereas, on the basis of the investigation, the statement of
witnesses recorded and other evidence collected, the Investigating
Officer, has established a prima facie involvement of the below
mentioned accused for the commission of offences punishable under
Sections of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 as shown
against his name :—
S. No.
Name of the accused person
Offences
1.
Assadullah Bhat @ Shaheen S/o Nabir
Bhat R/o Dadsara, Awantipora, District
Pulwama.
10,13
ULA (P) Act
Whereas, the Authority appointed by the Government under sub-
section (2) of Section 45 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act,
1967, has independently examined the Case Diary file and all the other
relevant documents relating to the case and has come to the conclusion
that prima facie case is made out against the above accused; and
No. 19-g] The J&K Official Gazette, the 6th Aug., 2026/15th Srav., 1948.
3
Whereas, after perusing the Case Diary file, the relevant documents
and also taking into consideration the views of the Authority appointed
under sub-section (2) of Section 45 of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967, the Government is of the view that there is
sufficient material and evidence available against the above mentioned
accused for his prosecution under the provisions of law.
Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by
Sub-section (2) of Section 45 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967, the Government hereby accord sanction for launching
prosecution against the accused viz. Assadullah Bhat @ Shaheen, for the
commission of offences punishable under Section 10 & 13 of ULA (P)
Act, arising out of FIR No. 03/2024 of Police Station, Awantipora.
By order of the Lieutenant Governor.
Sd/-
CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS,
Principal Secretary to the Government.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Wed., the 19th Aug., 2026/28th Srav., 1948. [No. 21-c
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART I—B
Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—DEPARTMENT OF LAW JUSTICE AND
PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS SRINAGAR/JAMMU.
(Power Section)
Notification
Srinagar, the 19th of August, 2026.
S.O. 230.–In exercise of the powers conferred under sub-section (1)
of Section 14 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the
Government hereby appoints the below mentioned officers to be the
Executive Magistrate(s), who shall exercise all the powers of an
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 19th Aug., 2026/28th Srav., 1948. [No. 21-c
Executive Magistrate within their territorial jurisdiction of District
Jammu.
S.
No.
Name
Designation
Jurisdiction/Office
1
Ms. Swati Gupta
Tehsildar
Relief
Organization
(M) J&K
2
Sh. Satish Pandita
Zonal Officer
By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.
Sd/-
ACHAL SETHI,
Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Mon., the 31st Aug., 2026/9th Bhad., 1948. [No. 23-b
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART III
Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—FINANCE DEPARTMENT,
(CODES DIVISION) SRINAGAR/JAMMU.
Notification
Srinagar, the 31st of August, 2026.
S.O. 231.—In exercise of the powers conferred under Section 67 of
the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019, the Lieutenant
Governor, Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is pleased to direct
that the following amendments shall be made in the Delegation of
Financial powers to accord Administrative Approval, in favour of
officers of Rural Development Department, issued vide Notification
No. S.O.-375 dated 02-11-2021, namely :—
(i) in the table, against S. No. 1, in columns under the heading “To
whom Delegated and Extent”, after the entry "Assistant
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 31st Aug., 2026/9th Bhad., 1948. [No. 23-b
Commissioner Development” the following entry shall be
inserted.
Assistant Commissioner Panchayat
Up to ₹10.00 lakh
(ii) in the table, against S. No. 1, in column under the heading
"Remarks", the following shall be added as second para:
“The powers delegated to Assistant Commissioner Panchayat
shall be subject to the following conditions :
(a) The delegation to Assistant Commissioner Panchayats
shall be confined to works implemented under the
schemes
assigned
to
Assistant
Commissioners,
Panchayats.
(b) The delegation shall not, by itself, entail any additional
financial liability on the Government or be construed as
authorization for creation of posts or sanction of funds
beyond the approved budgetary allocations.
(c) Administrative Approvals shall be accorded strictly within
the approved scheme guidelines, delegated financial
powers, and availability of budget.
(d) All other provisions governing technical sanction,
financial sanction, tendering, procurement, execution of
works, and financial discipline shall continue to apply.”
By order of the Hon’ble Lieutenant Governor.
Sd/-
SHAILENDRA KUMAR, IAS,
Financial Commissioner (ACS),
Finance Department.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Mon., the 7th Sept., 2026/16th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-d
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART III
Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT,
SRINAGAR/JAMMU.
Notification
Srinagar, the 7th of September, 2026.
S.O. 237.—In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of
section 43 of the Police Act, Samwat, 1983, the Lieutenant Governor
hereby makes the following amendments in the Jammu and Kashmir
Police Rules, 1960 which shall have effect notwithstanding anything
inconsistent in the Jammu and Kashmir Police Rules, 1960 ; namely :—
After rule 174, the following rule shall be inserted ; namely :—
“174-A, Appointment of Constables.—Recruitment to the rank of
Constables shall be made as under :
(i)
80% by direct recruitment.
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 7th Sept., 2026/16th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-d
(ii)
15% by absorption from SPOs with minimum three years
of engagement, with requisite qualification and Physical
Standards, provided that they shall pass the PST Test, as
per rules in vogue, and subject to the condition that the
SPOs have given excellent performance in CI Operations
duly approved by the Competent Authority.
(iii) 5% by promotion of In-Service Followers having 05
years of service with requisite qualification and Physical
Standards, provided that they shall pass the PST Test, as
per rules in vogue.”
By order of the Hon’ble Lieutenant Governor.
Sd/-
CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS,
Principal Secretary to the Government.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Wed., the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-b
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART I—B
Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—GENERAL ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT (PSGA) SRINAGAR.
Notification
Srinagar, the 9th of September, 2026.
S.O. 238.—In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 4
read with Section 8 of the Jammu and Kashmir Public Services
Guarantee Act, 2011 (Act No. IX of 2011), the Government hereby
notifies the following timelines and Designated Officer/Appellate
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-b
Authorities for the following Service of Department of Food, Civil
Supplies and Consumer Affairs :—
Name
of the
service
Stipulated time
frame
for
providing
service
Designated
Officer
First
Appellate
Authority
Second
Appellate
Authority
NOC
for
issuing
solvent
order
license
30 days
Director
concerned
of
Department
of
Food
Civil
Supplies
and
Consumer
Affairs
Special
Secretary
to the Government,
Department
of
Food
Civil
Supplies
and
Consumer Affairs
Administrative
Secretary,
Department of
Food
Civil
Supplies
and
Consumer
Affairs
By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.
Sd/-
M. RAJU, IAS,
Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.
EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33
—————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Wed., the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed
as a separate compilation.
PART III
Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.
———
GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT
SRINAGAR/JAMMU
Notification
Srinagar, the 9th of September, 2026.
S.O. 240.—In exercise of the powers conferred by the proviso to
Article 309 of the Constitution of India, the Lieutenant Governor, Union
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir hereby makes the following rules,
namely :—
1. Short Title, Commencement and Application.—(1) These rules
may be called Jammu and Kashmir Prisons (Subordinate) Service
Recruitment Rules, 2026.
(2) These rules shall come into force from the date of their
publication in the Official Gazette.
2
The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
2. Definitions.—(1) In these rules, unless the context otherwise
requires,—
(a)
“Administrative Department” means the Home Department
of the Government in the Civil Secretariat ;
(b)
"Cadre" means the cadre of the Service;
(c)
"Board" means the Jammu & Kashmir Services Selection
Board;
(d)
"Government" means the Government of Union Territory of
Jammu and Kashmir;
(e)
"Head of Department" means the Major Head of
Department holding the administrative charge of the
department;
(f)
"Member of the Service" means a person appointed to a
post in the Service under the provisions of these rules or the
rules superseded by these rules;
(g)
"Post" means a permanent post in the pay level sanctioned
by the competent authority;
(h)
"Rules"
means
the
Jammu
and
Kashmir
Prisons
(Subordinate) Service Recruitment Rules;
(i)
"Schedule" means the schedule(s) annexed to these rules;
(j)
"Service" means the Jammu and Kashmir Prisons
(Subordinate) Service; and
(k)
"Union Territory" means Union Territory of Jammu &
Kashmir; and
(2) Words and expressions used in these rules but not defined shall
have the same meaning as are assigned to them in the Jammu and
Kashmir Civil Service (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1956
and the Jammu and Kashmir Civil Service Regulations, 1956.
3. Constitution of Service.—(1) From the date of commencement
of these rules, there shall be constituted the "Jammu and Kashmir Prisons
(Subordinate) Service".
(2) The Government may, at the commencement of these rules,
appoint to the service any person who at the commencement of these
rules, is holding in substantive capacity any post included in the cadre of
this Service :
Provided that for the purpose of the initial constitution of the
Service, a person holding any post included in the cadre of the
Service in its sanctioned scale of pay, in substantive capacity to
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
3
which he was appointed by the competent authority under rules,
either by direct recruitment or by promotion shall be deemed to
have been appointed to the Service under these rules, if he is fully
qualified to hold the post under these rules.
Explanation.—The word 'holding' means a person holding a post
included in the cadre of the Jammu and Kashmir Prisons
(Subordinate) Service in its sanctioned scale of pay on regular basis
under orders of the competent authority and will not include the
persons holding a post on ex-cadre/deputation basis or on adhoc
basis or in a stop-gap arrangement.
4. Strength and Composition of the Service.— (1) The authorised
permanent and temporary strength of the cadre and the nature of the
posts included therein shall be determined by the Government from
time to time and shall, at the initial constitution of the Service
under these rules, be such as specified in the Schedule-I annexed to these
rules :
Provided that the Government may create temporary posts in
the cadre of the Service for specified period as may be considered
necessary from time to time.
(2) 25% of the total number of posts as indicated at IV-A and B of
Schedule-II shall be in the Selection Grade.
(3) The Government shall, after the interval of every five years or at
such other intervals, as may be necessary, re-examine the strength and
composition of cadre of the Service and make such alterations therein as
it deems fit.
5. Qualification and Method of Recruitment.—(1) No person
shall be eligible for appointment or promotion to any post in any class,
category or grade in the Service unless he/she possesses the qualification
as laid down in Schedule-II and fulfils other requirements. of recruitment
as provided in the rules and orders for the time being in force.
(2) Appointment to the Service shall be made—
(a) By direct recruitment ; or
(b) By promotion ; or
(c) By deputation ; or
4
The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
(d) Partly by (a), and partly by (b), in the ratio, and
in the manner, as mentioned against each post in
Schedule-II :
Provided that all the posts under direct recruitment shall be
filled through the Board as per the rules/orders of the
Government issued for the purpose ;
Provided further, that all posts to be filled by promotion
shall be filled up through Departmental Promotion Committee
(DPC) ;
Provided that in case of High Security Prison(s), the posts
shall be filled by deputation from CISF.
(3) The department shall refer vacancies in the direct/promotion
quota to the Board and Departmental Promotion Committee, as the case
may be, in terms of SRO 166 dated 14.06.2005.
6. Probation.—(1) Persons appointed to the Service through direct
recruitment shall be regulated in terms of the Jammu and Kashmir Civil
Services (Classification, Control and Appeal Rules), 1956 and other rules
in force.
(2) The pay of a person appointed to the Service through direct
recruitment shall be regulated under the Provisions of Jammu and
Kashmir Civil Services Regulations or General Rules as notified from
time to time.
7. Reservation in appointments.—While making appointments
either by direct recruitment or by promotion, reservation shall be
provided to the eligible categories in accordance with the provisions of
Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Act, 2004 and the rules and orders, as
in force.
8. Training and Departmental Examination.—Persons appointed
to the service shall be required to undergo such training from time to
time during the course of probation and to pass such departmental
examination(s) as the Government may prescribe :
Provided that the Government may exempt, either wholly or
partly, from such training or departmental examination(s), persons
who have passed a departmental examination or undergone training
declared by Government to be equivalent to a Departmental
examination or training prescribed under these rules.
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
5
9. Eligibility of Government servants for direct recruitment.—A
person already in the Government service may apply through proper
channel for direct recruitment against a vacant post in any particular
class or category in the service, if he/she possesses the educational and
other qualifications prescribed for recruitment to such class or category
of posts. The upper age limit of such Government servants shall be as
provided in the general rules :
Provided that in respect of post(s) which require a higher
degree of specialization and/or experience, the Government may
prescribe higher upper age limit.
10. Maintenance of seniority lists.—Seniority of the Members of
the Service shall be regulated under the Jammu and Kashmir Civil
Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1956. The Head of
the Department shall maintain an up-to-date and final seniority list of the
Service.
11. Residuary matters.—In regard to matters not specifically
covered by these rules, the members of the Service shall be governed by
the rules, regulations and orders applicable to the Civil Service of Union
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir in general.
12. Interpretation.—If any question arises relating to the
interpretation of these rules, the matter shall be referred to the
Administrative Department whose decision shall be final and binding.
13. Repeal and Savings.—(1) All rules corresponding to these rules
namely, the Jammu and Kashmir Prisons (Subordinate) Service
Recruitment Rules notified vide S.O.-140 dated 20th April, 2021 and in
force immediately before the commencement of these rules are hereby
repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, any appointment or order made or
action taken under the provisions of the rules so repealed shall be
deemed to have been made or taken under the corresponding provisions
of these rules.
By order of the Hon’ble Lieutenant Governor.
Sd/-
CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS,
Principal Secretary to the Government.
———
6
The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
J&K Prisons (Subordinate) Service Recruitment Rules
SCHEDULE-I
S.
No.
Designation/Post Name
Pay-Level
Posts
of
other
Jails
Posts of
HSP
Mahanpur,
Kathua
Total
Sanctioned
strength
(including
posts of
HSP)
Executive Staff
01
Deputy Superintendent Jails (Level - 6E)
35900-113500
09
01
10
02
Assistant Superintendent
Jails
(Level-6C)
35700-113100
27
03
30
03
Head Warders
(Level-3B)
25400-81000
110
48
158
04
Head Warder (Drivers)
(Level-3B)
25400-81000
13
02
15
05
Warders
(Level-2)
19900-63200
781
243
1024
06
Warder Drivers
(Level-2)
19900-63200
18
-
18
Ministerial Staff
7
Section Officer
(Level-7)
44900-142400
04
-
04
8
Assistant Accounts Officer
(Level-7)
44900-142400
05
01
06
9
Statistical Officer
(Level-7)
44900-142400
01
-
01
10
Social Welfare Officer
(Level-6E)
35900-113500
02
-
02
11
Head Assistant
(Level-6B)
35600-112800
05
-
05
12
Junior Scale Stenographer
(Level-6B)
35600-112800
01
-
01
13
Accountants
(Level-6B)
35600-112800
08
-
08
14
Statistical Assistant
(Level-6B)
35600-112800
01
-
01
15
Senior Assistants
(Level-5)
29200-92300
21
01
22
16
Steno Typist
(Level-5)
29200-92300
01
-
01
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
7
17
Accounts Assistant
(Level-5)
29200-92300
16
01
17
18
Computer Assistant
(Level-4)
25500-81100
10
01
11
19
Junior Assistant
(Level-4)
25500-81100
35
03
38
20
Senior Multitasking Staff
(Senior MTS)
(SL-2) 15900-
50400
01
-
01
21
Multitasking Staff (MTS)
(SL-1) 14800-
47100
17
03
20
22
Sanitation Work
(SL-1) 14800-
47100
69
05
74
Medical Subordinate Staff
23
Senior Pharmacist
(Level-6)
35400-112400
03
01
04
24
Pharmacist Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
21
02
23
25
Pharmacist Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
04
–
04
26
Nurse
(Level-2)
19900-63200
07
02
09
27
Sr. Lab. Technician
(Level-6)
35400-112400
02
-
02
28
Lab. Assistant
(Level-2)
19900-63200
03
01
04
29
Lab. Technician
(Level-4)
25500-81100
03
01
04
30
X-Ray Technician
(Level-6)
35400-112400
01
-
01
31
Dental Technician
(Level-2)
19900-63200
02
-
02
32
Lab. Boy
(SL-2)
15900-50400
02
03
05
Technical Staff
33
Black Smith Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
02
02
34
Black Smith Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
02
02
35
Dyers Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
02
02
8
The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
36
Dyers Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
02
-
02
37
Instructor/Durri Maker
(Level-4)
25500-81100
02
-
02
38
Weaver
(Level-4)
25500-81100
02
-
02
39
Mechanic
(Level-2)
19900-63200
02
-
02
40
Mistry
(Level-2)
19900-63200
01
-
01
41
Tailors
(Level-2)
19900-63200
09
01
10
42
Carpenters Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
04
-
04
43
Carpenters Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
-
01
01
44
Electrician Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
05
-
05
45
Electrician Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
09
02
11
46
Teacher
(Level-4)
25500-81100
04
-
04
47
Plumber Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
05
-
05
48
Plumber Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
01
02
03
49
Barber Grade-I
(Level-4)
25500-81100
03
-
03
50
Barber Grade-II
(Level-2)
19900-63200
02
-
02
51
Barber Grade-III
(SL - 2)
15900 - 50400
18
02
20
52
Dhobies/Washermen Grade-
I
(Level-2)
19900-63200
03
-
03
53
Dhobies/Washermen Grade-
II
(SL - 2)
15900 - 50400
07
01
08
54
Drivers Grade-II
(SL - 2)
15900 - 50400
04
-
04
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
9
55
Cook
(SL - 2)
15900 - 50400
26
02
28
56
Nursing Orderlies Grade-I
(SL - 2)
15900 - 50400
38
-
38
57
Follower
(SL - 1)
14800 - 47100
04
-
04
58
Nursing Orderlies Grade-II
(SL - 1)
14800 - 47100
04
04
08
Total
1364
337
1701
———
10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
J&K Prisons (Subordinate) Services Recruitment Rules
SCHEDULE-II
Class
Cate-
gory
Designation
Pay-Level
Minimum
Qualification for
Direct Recruitment
Method of Recruitment
I
Deputy
Superintendent
Jail
Level-6 E
35900-
113500
100% by promotion from
Class-II having at least five
(05) years Substantive service
in that class.
II
Assistant
Superintendent
Jail
Level6-C
35700-
113100
i) Graduation from a
recognized University
and
post
graduate
degree
or
diploma
in
Social
work,
Sociology,
Psychology,
Criminology
ii) Physical Standard :
Male
Minimum Height 5' -
6"
Minimum Chest 32"
– 33 ½
Female
Minimum Height 5' -
2"
Physically Fit.
(i) 33%
by
Direct
Recruitment.
(ii) ii) 67% by Promotion
from
Class-III,
Category-A,
having
minimum qualification
as
Matriculate
and
above with at least five
(05) years substantive
service in that category.
III
A
Head Warders
Level 3-B
25400-
81000
…
100% by promotion from
S.G. Warders having at least
three (03) years substantive
service in that category.
B
Head Warder
(Drivers)
Level 3-B
25400-
81000
…
100% by promotion from
S.G. Warders (Driver) having
at least three (03) years
substantive services in that
category.
IV
A
Warders
Level-2
19900-
63200
i) Minimum Matric
from
a
recognized
Board
of
School
Education/Institution.
ii) Physical Standard
Males Height 5'-6"
Chest : 32-33.5"
Females : 5' -2"
Physically fit.
The
following
Physical
Endurance
Test (PET) will be
100% by Direct Recruitment.
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
11
mandatory
to
determine
the
physical fitness of a
candidate :
Physical
Endurance
Test (PET)
Long
Race for
Males
1600 meters
in
6½
minute (six
minutes
thirty
seconds)
Long
Race for
Females
1000 meters
in
6½
minute (six
minutes
thirty
seconds)
Pushups
(Male
candi-
dates
only)
20
(one
cycle of up
and down to
be counted
as one)
Shot put
(Female
candi-
dates
only)
(04
Kgs)
14½ feet in
three
attempts
Physical
Endurance
Test (PET) shall be
only of qualifying
nature for which no
marks
will
be
allotted.
B
Warder-
(Drivers)
Level-2
19900-
63200
i) Minimum Matric
Maximum 10 +2
having valid
HGV/PSV/Trans
driving license.
ii) Physical
Standards : -
Male
Minimum
Height
5'-6"
Minimum Chest 32"
– 33 ½ "
95% by direct recruitment.
5%
by
promotion
from
Driver (Grade-II) having at
least
three
(03)
years
substantive service in that
category.
12 The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
Paramedical Staff
I
A
Senior
Pharmacist
Level-6
35400-
112400
…
By promotion from Class-II
Category-A having at least
three (03) years substantive
service in that category.
In case of non-availability of
eligible candidates, the posts
shall
be
filled
up
by
deputation from J&K Health
(Subordinate) Services.
B
Senior Lab.
Technician
Level-6
35400-
112400
…
By promotion from Class-II
Category-B (having at least
three (03) years substantive
service in that category.
In case of non-availability of
eligible candidates, the posts
can also be filled up by
deputation from J&K Health
(Subordinate) Services.
C
X-Ray
Technician
Level-6
35400-
112400
…
By deputation from J&K
Health
(Subordinate)
services.
II
A
Pharmacist G-I Level-4
25500-
81100
…
By promotion from Class- III,
category-A having at least
(03) three years substantive
service in that category.
In case of non-availability of
eligible candidates, the posts
shall
be
filled
up
by
deputation from J&K Health
(Subordinate) Services.
B
Lab. Technician Level-4
25500-
81100
…
By promotion from Class III,
Category-C having at least
(03) three years substantive
service in that category.
In case of non-availability of
eligible candidates, the posts
shall
be
filled
up
by
deputation from J&K Health
(Subordinate) Services.
III
A
Pharmacist G-II Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By promotion from Class-IV,
Category-A
from
such
Nursing orderlies having at
least
three
(03)
years
substantive service in that
category
with
Matric
&
above academic qualification
having Diploma in Medical
Assistant's/
Pharmacist's
course from a recognized
Institute.
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
13
Or
By deputation from J&K
Health
(Subordinate)
Services.
B
Dental
Technician
Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By deputation from J&K
Health
(Subordinate)
Services.
C
Lab. Assistant
Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By promotion from class-IV,
Category-B having at least
three (03) years substantive
service in that category with
Matric & above academic
qualification having Diploma
in Lab. Assistant's Training
Course from a recognized
Institute.
Or
By deputation from J&K
Health
(Subordinate)
Services.
D
Nurse
Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By deputation from J&K
Health
(Subordinate)
Services.
IV
A
Nursing
Orderly
(Grade-I)
SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2
90% by Direct recruitment.
10% by promotion from
Class V having at least three
years substantive service in
that class.
B
Lab. Boy
SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2
100% by Direct Recruitment.
V
A
Nursing
Orderly
(Grade-II)
SL-1
14800-
47100
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2
100% by Direct Recruitment.
Technical Staff
I
A
Electrician
Grade-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
…
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-A having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
B
Plumber G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
…
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-B having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
C
Black Smith
G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
…
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-C having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
14 The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
D
Dyer G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
…
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-D having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
E
Durri Maker
G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
recognized
Board/
Institution
with
experience in Durri
making.
Those
trained
in
the
vocational
course
from
ITI
or
any
recognized Institute/
Government
Department would be
preferred.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
F
Weaver
Level-4
25500-
81100
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
recognized
Board/
Institution
with
experience
of
Weaving craft from
ITI or any recognized
Institute/Government
Department would be
preferred.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
G
Barber G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
….
By promotion from Class-II,
Category-I
(Barber
G-II)
having at least (03) three
years substantive service in
that category.
H
Carpenter G-I
Level-4
25500-
81100
….
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-E, having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
II
A
Electrician-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board of
School
Education/
Institution
with
Diploma/Certificate
in
the
Electrician
trade
from
ITI/
Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
15
B
Plumber G-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board of
School
Education/
Institution
with
Diploma/Certificate
in the Plumbing trade
from ITI/Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
C
Black Smith
G-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 with
Diploma
in
the
relevant trade from
ITI/Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
D
Dyer G-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 with
Diploma
in
the
relevant trade from
ITI/Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
E
Carpenter G-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board of
School
Education/
Institution
with
Diploma/Certificate
in the Carpenter trade
from ITI/Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
F
Tailor
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board of
School
Education/
Institution
with
Certificate/Diploma
Course
in
Sewing
Technology or Dress
Making or Fashion
Design
&
Technology from ITI/
Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
G
Mistry (Mason)
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board of
SchoolEducation/
Institution
Diploma/Certificate
with in the Mason/
Mistry Trade from
ITI/Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
H
Mechanic
Level-2
19900-
63200
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board
of School Education/
Institution
with
Diploma/Certificate
in Electrician Trade
from
ITI/
Government
recognized Institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
I
Barber G-II
Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By Promotion from Class-III,
Category-B having at least
three (03) years substantive
Service in that category.
J
Dhobi
Level-2
19900-
63200
…
By Promotion from Class-III,
Category-C having at least
three (03) years substantive
Service in that category.
III
A
Cook
SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board/
Institute with having
proficiency
and
experience as a cook
from
a
recognized
institute.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
B
Barber G-III
SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board/
Institute with having
proficiency
and
experience
of
the
Barber trade.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
C
Dhobi G-II
SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board/
Institute with having
proficiency
and
experience
of
Washerman trade.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
D
Driver Grade-II SL-2
15900-
50400
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board/
Institute having valid
HGV/PSV/TRANS
driving license.
100% by Direct Recruitment.
E
Sanitation
Worker
SL-1
14800-
47100
Minimum 8th pass &
Maximum 10+2
100% by Direct Recruitment.
IV
A
Follower
SL-1
14800-
47100
Minimum Matric &
Maximum 10+2
100% by Direct Recruitment.
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
17
Ministerial Cadre
I
A
Section Officer
Level-7
44900-
142400
…
100% by promotion from
Class-II, Category-A having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category.
B
Assistant
Accounts
Officer
Level-7
44900-
142400
…
100% by deputation from
J&K Accounts (Subordinate)
Services.
C
Statistical
Officer
Level-7
44900-
142400
…
100% by deputation from
J&K
Economic
and
Statistical
(Subordinate)
Services.
D
Social Welfare
Officer
Level-6-E
35900-
113500
…
100% by deputation from
J&K
Social
Welfare
(Subordinate) Services.
II
A
Head Assistant
Level-6-B
35600-
112400
…
(i) 100% by promotion from
Class-IV category "A" having
at least three (03) years'
service in that category and
having
passed
secretariat
Assistants Examinations :
Provided that 25% of posts to
be filled up in a Calendar
year shall be earmarked for
promotion of those Senior
Assistants who have not
qualified
the
secretariat
assistant
examination
but
have crossed the age of 50
years as on 1st January of the
year in which such promotion
are being considered :
Provided further that a Senior
Assistant who has qualified
the
Secretariat
Assistants
examination
during
the
period of Probation as Junior
Assistant
shall
not
be
required to qualify the said
examination again.
B
Junior
Scale
Stenographer
Level-6-B
35600-
112800
…
100% by Promotion from
Class-IV Category-B having
knowledge of Shorthand &
having at least seven (07)
years of substantive service
in that category.
Or
By Deputation from GAD.
18 The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24-c
C
Accountant
Level-6-B
35600-
112800
…
100% by deputation from
J&K Accounts (Subordinate)
Services.
D
Statistical
Assistant
Level-6-B
35600-
112800
…
100% by deputation from
J&K
Economic
and
Statistical
(Subordinate)
Services
III
A
Accounts
Assistant
Level-5
29200-
92300
…
100% by deputation from
J&K Accounts (Subordinate)
Services.
IV
A
Senior
Assistant
Level-5
29200-
92300
…
100% by promotion from
Class-V, Category (C) having
at least three (03) years
substantive service in that
category :
Provided that a person shall
undergo
and
qualify
the
Secretariat Assistants Training
Course/Examination,
during
his probation period at the
level of Junior Assistant.
B
Steno-Typist
Level-5
29200-
92300
Graduate from any
recognized university
having
minimum
speed of 65 & 35
words in shorthand &
Typewriting
per
minute respectively.
100% by direct Recruitment.
V
A
Teacher
Level-4
25500-
81100
…
100% by deputation from
School
Education
(Subordinate) Services.
B
Computer
Assistant
Level-4
25500-
81100
Graduation with one
year
Diploma
in
Computer
Software
Applications
or
B.
Sc.IT/BCA
or
three years Diploma
in
Computer
Applications/
Software Application
from
an
AICTE
Recognized
institution.
100% by direct Recruitment.
C
Junior Assistant Level-4
25500-
81100
Graduate from any
recognized university
with knowledge of
type writing having
not
less
than
35
words
speed
per
i) 75% by direct recruitment.
ii) 25% by promotion from
Class-VI and VII possessing
Matric
qualification
and
having at least three (03) years
substantive service as such
No. 24-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 9th Sept., 2026/18th Bhad., 1948.
19
minute in typewriting
on keyboard.
who qualify computer type
test requiring a minimum
speed of 25 words per minute:
Provided
that
a
person
appointed
by
the
direct
recruitment or by promotion
shall undergo and qualify
the
Secretariat
Assistants
Examination/Training during
the period of probation.
VI
A
Senior
Multitasking
Staff
(Senior
MTS)
SL-2
15900-
50400
…
100% By promotion from
Class-VII, Category-A, having
at least three (03) years
Substantive services in that
class.
VII
A
Multitasking
Staff (MTS)
SL-1
14800-
47100
Minimum Matric and
Maximum 10+2 from
a recognized Board/
institute.
100% by direct Recruitment.
THE APPROPRIATION (No. 4) ACT, 2023
NO. 41 OF 2023
[24th December, 2023.]
An Act to provide for the authorisation of appropriation of moneys out of the
Consolidated Fund of India to meet the amounts spent on certain services
during the financial year ended on the 31st day of March, 2021, in excess of
the amounts granted for those services and for that year.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:––
1. This Act may be called the Appropriation (No. 4) Act, 2023.
2. From and out of the Consolidated Fund of India, the sums specified in column 3 of
the Schedule, amounting in the aggregate to the sum of one lakh eighteen thousand six
hundred and fifty-one crore three lakh sixty-four thousand six hundred and forty-five rupees
shall be deemed to have been authorised to be paid and applied to meet the amounts spent
for defraying the charges in respect of the services specified in column 2 of the Schedule
during the financial year ended on the 31st day of March, 2021, in excess of the amounts
granted for those services and for that year.
3. The sums deemed to have been authorised to be paid and applied from and out of
the Consolidated Fund of India under this Act shall be deemed to have been appropriated
for the services and purposes expressed in the Schedule in relation to the financial year
ended on the 31st day of March, 2021.
Short title.
Issue of Rs.
118651,03,64,645
out of the
Consolidated
Fund of India to
meet certain
excess
expenditure for
the year ended
on the 31st day
of March, 2021.
Appropriation.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 24th December, 2023/Pausha 3, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
24th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-91
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
_____
THE SCHEDULE
(See sections 2 and 3)
1
2
3
Excess
Services and purposes
Voted
Charged
portion
portion
Total
Rs.
Rs.
Rs.
15
Department of Food and Public Distribution .................. Revenue
118648,59,80,000
...
118648,59,80,000
18
Ministry of Defence (Civil) ................................................. Capital
1,91,62,184
...
1,91,62,184
21
Defence Pensions ............................................................... Revenue
...
52,22,461
52,22,461
TOTAL:
118650,51,42,184
52,22,461
118651,03,64,645
No.
of
Vote
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-91
Sd/-
THE NATIONAL CAPITAL TERRITORY OF DELHI LAWS (SPECIAL
PROVISIONS) SECOND (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023
NO. 42 OF 2023
[24th December, 2023.]
An Act further to amend the National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special
Provisions) Second Act, 2011.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
1. This Act may be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special
Provisions) Second (Amendment) Act, 2023.
2. In the National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special Provisions) Second
Act, 2011 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Act), in the long title, for the figures "2023",
the figures "2026" shall be substituted.
Short title.
Amendment
of long title.
20 of 2011.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 24th December, 2023/Pausha 3, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
24th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-92
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
_____
3. In the principal Act, in the Preamble,—
(a) for seventh paragraph, the following paragraphs shall be substituted,
namely:—
"AND WHEREAS the Development Control Norms for unauthorised colonies
as provided in the National Capital Territory of Delhi (Recognition of Property
Rights of Residents in Unauthorised Colonies) Regulations, 2019, have been
notified on the 8th day of March, 2022;
AND WHEREAS the process of conferring the ownership rights to the
residents of unauthorised colonies and action as per the Development Control
Norms for unauthorised colonies is under progress and will take time;";
(b) seventeenth paragraph shall be omitted;
(c) in the last paragraph, for the figures "2023", the figures "2026" shall be
substituted.
4. In section 1 of the principal Act, in sub-section (4), for the figures "2023", the
figures "2026" shall be substituted.
5. In section 3 of the principal Act,—
(a) in sub-section (3), for the figures "2023", the figures "2026" shall be
substituted;
(b) in sub-section (4), for the figures "2023", the figures "2026" shall be
substituted.
Amendment
of Preamble.
Amendment
of section 1.
Amendment
of section 3.
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
Sd/-
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-92
THE POST OFFICE ACT, 2023
NO. 43 OF 2023
[24th December, 2023.]
An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to Post Office in India and
to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:––
1. (1) This Act may be called the Post Office Act, 2023.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification
in the Official Gazette, appoint.
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) "Director General" means the Director General of Postal Services appointed
by the Central Government and includes any officer authorised by the Central
Government to perform the duties of the Director General;
Short title and
commencement.
Definitions.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 24th December, 2023/Pausha 3, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
24th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-93
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
_____
2
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(b) "item" means an indivisible article which the Post Office accepts for providing
a service;
(c) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette;
(d) "Post Office" means the Department of Posts and includes every house,
building, room, place or any other asset used by the Post Office for providing any
service;
(e) "prescribe" means prescribe by rules made under this Act and the expression
"prescribed" shall be construed accordingly;
(f) "regulations" means the regulations made under this Act.
3. (1) The Post Office shall provide such services as the Central Government may
prescribe.
(2) The Director General may make regulations—
(a) in respect of activities necessary to provide services referred to in
sub-section (1); and
(b) to fix charges for, and the terms and conditions in respect of, services
referred to in sub-section (1).
(3) Any service provided by the Post Office shall be subject to any other law for the
time being in force.
4. (1) The Post Office shall have the exclusive privilege of issuing postage stamps.
(2) The Director General may make regulations relating to the supply and sale of
postage stamps and postal stationery.
(3) In this section, the expressions—
(a) "postage stamp" means any stamp provided by the Central Government, in
any form, physical or digital, for denoting sums payable in respect of such service
provided by the Post Office, as may be prescribed and includes stamps affixed, printed,
embossed, embedded, impressed, or otherwise indicated on an item;
(b) "postal stationery" means stationery, issued by the Post Office such as
envelopes, letter cards, postcards, bearing imprinted stamps or inscriptions indicating
that sum payable in respect of a service provided by the Post Office has been prepaid.
5. (1) The Central Government may prescribe standards for addressing on the items,
address identifiers and usage of postcodes.
(2) In this section, "postcode" means a series of digits, letters or digital code or a
combination of digits, letters or digital code used to identify a geographic area or location,
and ease the process of sorting and delivery of items and for other purposes.
6. The Central Government may make rules to give effect to arrangements made with
any foreign country or territory for services provided by the Post Office between India and
the said foreign country or territory.
7. (1) Every person who avails a service provided by the Post Office shall be liable to
pay the charges in respect of such service.
(2) If any person refuses or neglects to pay the charges referred to in sub-section (1),
such amount shall be recoverable as if it were an arrear of land revenue due from him.
Services to be
provided by
Post Office.
Exclusive
privilege in
respect of
postage
stamps.
Addresses and
postcodes.
Power to give
effect to
arrangements
with other
countries.
Recovery of
sums due in
respect of
services
provided by
Post Office.
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-93
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
3
8. The Central Government may prescribe the conditions for denoting the official
marks on items to be used as prima facie evidence of the facts so denoted.
9. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, empower any officer to cause any
item in course of transmission by the Post Office to be intercepted, opened or detained in
the interest of the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign states, public order,
emergency, or public safety or upon the occurrence of any contravention of any of the
provisions of this Act or any other law for the time being in force.
(2) The Central Government may cause any item referred to in sub-section (1) to be
disposed of in such manner as it deems appropriate.
(3) The Central Government may, by notification, empower any officer of the Post
Office to deliver an item, received from within or beyond the limits of India and reckoned to
contain anything liable to duty or which is suspected to contain any prohibited item to such
customs authority or any other authority as may be specified in the said notification, and
such customs authority or any other authority shall deal with such item in accordance with
the provisions of any law for the time being in force.
10. (1) Notwithstanding anything in any other law for the time being in force, the Post
Office shall not incur any liability except such liability as may be prescribed with regard to
a service provided by the Post Office.
(2) No officer of the Post Office shall incur any liability with regard to a service
provided by the Post Office, unless the officer has acted fraudulently or wilfully caused
loss, delay or mis-delivery of service.
11. The Central Government may, by notification, authorise, either absolutely or subject
to conditions, the Director General to exercise any of the powers conferred upon the Central
Government by this Act, other than the power to make rules.
12. The Central Government may, by notification, make rules for carrying out the
purposes of this Act.
13. The Director General may, with the prior approval of the Central Government, by
notification, make regulations for carrying out the provisions of this Act.
14. Every rule or regulation made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after
it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty
days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if,
before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions
aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or regulation or both
Houses agree that the rule or regulation should not be made, the rule or regulation shall
thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so,
however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity
of anything previously done under that rule or regulation.
15. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central
Government may, by order in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent
with the provisions of this Act as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for removing the
difficulty:
Provided that no order shall be made under this section after the expiry of two years
from the date of commencement of this Act.
(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is
made, before each House of Parliament.
Power to
make rules.
Power to
make
regulations.
Laying of
rules and
regulations in
Parliament.
Power to
remove
difficulties.
Power to
intercept,
open or detain
any item or
deliver item to
customs
authority.
Exemption
from liability.
Delegation of
power, other
than rulemaking
powers to
Director General.
Official mark
to be evidence
of certain
facts denoted.
No. 11-93] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3
Repeal and
savings.
6 of 1898.
6 of 1898.
16. (1) The Indian Post Office Act, 1898 is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Act by sub-section (1), all rules,
notifications and orders, made or purported to have been made under the Indian Post Office
Act, 1898, shall, in so far as they relate to matters for which provision is made in this Act and
are not inconsistent therewith, be deemed to have been made under this Act and shall
continue in force unless and until they are superseded by any rules or notification or order
made under this Act.
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
4
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II— SEC. 1]
Sd/-
4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-93
THE TELECOMMUNICATIONS ACT, 2023
NO. 44 OF 2023
[24th December, 2023.]
An Act to amend and consolidate the law relating to development, expansion and
operation of telecommunication services and telecommunication networks;
assignment of spectrum; and for matters connected therewith or incidental
thereto.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
(2) It extends to,—
(i) the whole of India; and
(ii) to any offence committed or contravention made outside India by any
person, as provided in this Act.
(3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by
notification in the Official Gazette, appoint and different dates may be appointed for
different provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the
commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the commencement of
that provision.
Short title,
extent and
commencement.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 24th December, 2023/Pausha 3, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
24th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
2
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) "appointed day" means such date as the Central Government may, by
notification appoint under sub-section (3) of section 1;
(b) "assignment" of a radio frequency or radio frequency channel means the
permission for a radio station to use a radio frequency or radio frequency channel
under specified conditions;
(c) "assignee" means a person holding an assignment of a radio frequency
or radio frequency channel under section 4;
(d) "authorisation" means a permission, by whatever name called, granted
under this Act for—
(i) providing telecommunication services;
(ii) establishing, operating, maintaining or expanding telecommunication
networks; or
(iii) possessing radio equipment;
(e) "authorised entity" means a person holding an authorisation under
section 3;
(f) "critical telecommunication infrastructure" means telecommunication
networks notified under sub-section (3) of section 22;
(g) "message" means any sign, signal, writing, text, image, sound, video,
data stream, intelligence or information sent through telecommunication;
(h) "National Frequency Allocation Plan" means guidelines issued from
time to time by the Central Government for the use of the spectrum;
(i) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette and
the expression "notified" shall be construed accordingly;
(j) "person" shall include an individual, any company or association or
body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, by whatsoever name called or
referred to;
(k) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;
(l) "radio equipment" means telecommunication equipment used or capable
of use for telecommunication by means of Hertzian or radio waves;
(m) "radio waves" means electromagnetic waves of frequencies propagated
in space without any artificial guide;
(n) "Schedule" means a schedule to this Act;
(o) "spectrum" means the range of frequencies of Hertzian or radio waves;
(p) "telecommunication" means transmission, emission or reception of any
messages, by wire, radio, optical or other electro-magnetic systems, whether or
not such messages have been subjected to rearrangement, computation or other
processes by any means in the course of their transmission, emission or reception;
(q) "telecommunication equipment" means any equipment, appliance,
instrument, device, radio station, radio equipment, material, apparatus, or user
equipment, that may be or is being used for telecommunication, including software
and intelligence integral to such telecommunication equipment; and excludes
such equipment as may be notified by the Central Government;
(r) "telecommunication identifier" means a series of digits, characters and
symbols, or a combination thereof, used to identify uniquely a user, a
Definitions.
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
3
telecommunication service, a telecommunication network, elements of a
telecommunication network, telecommunication equipment, or an authorised entity;
(s) "telecommunication network" means a system or series of systems of
telecommunication equipment or infrastructure, including terrestrial or satellite
networks or submarine networks, or a combination of such networks, used or
intended to be used for providing telecommunication services, but does not include
such telecommunication equipment as notified by the Central Government;
(t) "telecommunication service" means any service for telecommunication;
(u) "user" means a natural or legal person using or requesting a
telecommunication service, but does not include person providing such
telecommunication service or telecommunication network.
CHAPTER II
POWERS OF AUTHORISATION AND ASSIGNMENT
3. (1) Any person intending to—
(a) provide telecommunication services;
(b) establish, operate, maintain or expand telecommunication network; or
(c) possess radio equipment,
shall obtain an authorisation from the Central Government, subject to such terms and
conditions, including fees or charges, as may be prescribed.
(2) The Central Government may while making rules under sub-section (1) provide
for different terms and conditions of authorisation for different types of
telecommunication services, telecommunication network or radio equipment.
(3) The Central Government, if it determines that it is necessary in the public
interest so to do, may provide exemption from the requirement of authorisation under
sub-section (1), in such manner as may be prescribed.
(4) Any exemption granted prior to the appointed day under the Indian Telegraph
Act, 1885 or the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933 shall continue under this Act,
unless otherwise notified by the Central Government.
(5) Any authorised entity may undertake any merger, demerger or acquisition, or
other forms of restructuring, subject to any law for the time being in force and any
authorised entity that emerges pursuant to such process, shall comply with the terms
and conditions, including fees and charges, applicable to the original authorised entity,
and such other terms and conditions, as may be prescribed.
(6) A licence, registration, permission, by whatever name called, granted prior to
the appointed day under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 or the Indian Wireless Telegraphy
Act, 1933, in respect of provision of telecommunication services or telecommunication
network—
(a) where a definite validity period is given, shall be entitled to continue to
operate under the terms and conditions and for the duration as specified under
such licence or registration or permission, or to migrate to such terms and
conditions of the relevant authorisation, as may be prescribed; or
(b) where a definite validity period is not given, shall be entitled to continue
to operate on the terms and conditions of such licence or registration or permission
for a period of five years from the appointed day, or to migrate to such terms and
conditions of the relevant authorisation, as may be prescribed.
Authorisation.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3
4
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(7) Any authorised entity which provides such telecommunication services as
may be notified by the Central Government, shall identify the person to whom it provides
telecommunication services through use of any verifiable biometric based identification
as may be prescribed.
(8) The Central Government may, subject to such terms and conditions, including
fees or charges as may be prescribed, allot telecommunication identifiers for use by
authorised entities.
(9) The Central Government may allow use of telecommunication identifiers allotted
by international bodies which are recognised by the Central Government from time to
time.
4. (1) The Central Government, being the owner of the spectrum on behalf of the
people, shall assign the spectrum in accordance with this Act, and may notify a National
Frequency Allocation Plan from time to time.
(2) Any person intending to use spectrum shall require an assignment from the
Central Government.
(3) The Central Government may prescribe such terms and conditions as may be
applicable, for such assignment of spectrum, including the frequency range,
methodology for pricing, price, fees and charges, payment mechanism, duration and
procedure for the same.
(4) The Central Government shall assign spectrum for telecommunication through
auction except for entries listed in the First Schedule for which assignment shall be
done by administrative process.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—
(a) "administrative process" means assignment of spectrum without holding
an auction;
(b) "auction" means a bid process for assignment of spectrum.
(5) (a) The Central Government may, by notification, amend the First Schedule for
assignment of spectrum—
(i) in order to serve public interest; or
(ii) in order to perform government function; or
(iii) in cases where auction of spectrum is not the preferred mode of
assignment due to technical or economic reasons.
(b) The notification referred to in clause (a) shall be laid before each House of
Parliament.
(6) The Central Government, if it determines that it is necessary in the public
interest so to do, may exempt,—
(a) from the requirement of assignment under sub-section (2), in such manner
as may be prescribed; and
(b) by notification, specific usages within specified frequencies and
parameters, from the requirements of sub-section (2).
(7) Any exemption with respect to use of spectrum granted under the Indian
Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933 prior to the appointed
day, shall continue under this Act, unless otherwise notified by the Central Government.
(8) Any spectrum assigned through the administrative process prior to the
appointed day, shall continue to be valid on the terms and conditions on which it had
been assigned, for a period of five years from the appointed day, or the date of expiry of
such assignment, whichever is earlier.
Assignment
of spectrum.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
5
(9) Any spectrum assigned through auction prior to the appointed day, shall
continue to be valid on the terms and conditions on which it had been assigned.
5. The Central Government may, to enable more efficient use of spectrum, re-farm
or harmonise any frequency range assigned under section 4, subject to such terms and
conditions, as may be prescribed.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section,—
(a) "harmonisation" means rearrangement of a frequency range;
(b) "re-farming" means repurposing of a frequency range for a different use,
other than that for which it is used by an existing assignee.
6. The Central Government may enable the utilisation of the spectrum in a flexible,
liberalised and technologically neutral manner, subject to such terms and conditions,
including applicable fees and charges, as may be prescribed.
7. (1) The Central Government may, to promote optimal use of the available
spectrum, assign a particular part of a spectrum that has already been assigned to an
entity, known as the primary assignee, to one or more additional entities, known as the
secondary assignees, where such secondary assignment does not cause harmful
interference in the use of the relevant part of the spectrum by the primary assignee,
subject to such terms and conditions as may be prescribed.
(2) The Central Government may, notwithstanding anything contained in any
other law for the time being in force, after providing a reasonable opportunity of being
heard to the assignee concerned, determines that any assigned spectrum has remained
unutilised for insufficient reasons for such period as may be prescribed, terminate such
assignment, or a part of such assignment, or prescribe further terms and conditions
relating to spectrum utilisation.
8. (1) The Central Government may establish by notification, such monitoring and
enforcement mechanism as it may deem fit to ensure adherence to terms and conditions
of spectrum utilisation and enable interference-free use of the assigned spectrum.
(2) The Central Government may permit the sharing, trading, leasing and surrender
of assigned spectrum, subject to the terms and conditions, including applicable fees or
charges, as may be prescribed.
9. No person shall be entitled to the refund of any fees or charges paid in respect
of or under an authorisation or assignment granted under this Act, if such authorisation
or assignment is suspended, curtailed, revoked or varied.
CHAPTER III
RIGHT OF WAY FOR TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORK
10. For the purpose of this Chapter,—
(a) "facility provider" means the Central Government or any authorised
entity, including any contractor or sub-contractor or agent working for the Central
Government or authorised entity, and shall include their successor or assignee;
(b) "public entity" means,—
(i) the Central Government;
(ii) the State Government;
(iii) local authority;
(iv) any authority, body, company or institution incorporated or
established by the Central Government or the State Government, or under
any statute; or
Re-farming
and
harmonisation.
Technologically
neutral use of
spectrum.
Optimal
utilisation of
spectrum.
Establishment
of monitoring
and
enforcement
mechanism.
No refund of
fees.
Definition of
terms used in
this Chapter.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5
6
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(v) any non-government entity vested with the ownership, control or
management of any public facility or class of public facilities, as may be
notified by the Central Government;
(c) "public property" means any property, whether movable or immovable
including any machinery, which is owned by, or in the possession of, or under the
control or management of any public entity.
11. (1) Any facility provider may submit an application to a public entity under
whose ownership, control or management, the public property is vested, to seek
permissions for right of way for telecommunication network under, over, along, across,
in or upon such public property.
(2) On receipt of an application from a facility provider under sub-section (1), the
public entity shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (4), grant permission for all
or any of the following acts, namely:—
(a) survey such property for the purpose of assessing the feasibility for
establishing telecommunication network; or
(b) enter the property from time to time to establish, operate, maintain, repair,
replace, augment, remove or relocate any telecommunication network.
(3) The public entity shall grant permission under sub-section (2) in an expeditious
manner and within such timelines as may be prescribed, and subject to such
administrative expenses and compensation for right of way, which shall not exceed
such amount as may be prescribed.
(4) Any rejection of an application under sub-section (1) shall be based on
reasonable grounds to be recorded in writing.
(5) The facility provider shall do as little damage as possible to the public property,
and ensure that the functionality and continuity of operations over such public property
is not adversely affected, while undertaking any of the activities for which permission
has been granted under sub-section (2).
(6) If any damage is caused to the property, the facility provider shall, at the
option of the public entity, either,—
(a) restore such property to its state as existed prior to the undertaking of
such activities; or
(b) pay compensation for such damage as may be mutually agreed.
(7) The provisions of this section shall be applicable to any public property
vested for such projects or class of projects as notified by the Central Government, in
respect of which, applications under sub-section (1) shall be made to the public entity
granting the concession, contract or permission for such projects.
12. (1) Any facility provider may submit an application to the person under whose
ownership, control or management of property not covered under section 11 is vested,
to seek right of way for telecommunication network under, over, along, across, in or
upon such property.
(2) On receipt of an application from a facility provider, the person receiving the
application may enter into an agreement, specifying consideration as mutually agreed,
for—
(a) undertaking surveys as may be required by the facility provider for the
purpose of assessing the feasibility for establishing telecommunication
network; or
(b) establishing, operating, maintaining, repairing, replacing, augmenting,
removing or relocating any telecommunication network by the facility provider.
Right of way
for
telecommunication
network in
public property.
Right of way
for
telecommunication
network on
property not
covered under
section 11.
6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
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(3) The facility provider shall do as little damage as possible to the property when
undertaking any of the activities for which permission has been granted under
sub-section (2).
(4) In case of any damage to the property, the facility provider shall restore such
property to its state as existed prior to the undertaking of such activities, failing which
the person granting permission under sub-section (2), shall be entitled to compensation
as may be mutually agreed, for any such damage.
(5) The Central Government may by rules provide for the procedure to be followed
by a facility provider to enter, survey, establish, operate, maintain, repair, replace or
relocate the telecommunication network, including the notice period, the manner of
issuance of notice, the framework governing objections by owner or occupier of the
property, the manner in which such objections would be resolved, and matters relating
to the compensation payable for any damage.
(6) If the person under sub-section (2) fails to provide the right of way requested,
and the Central Government determines that it is necessary so to do in the public
interest, it may, either by itself or through any other authority designated by the Central
Government for this purpose, determine that such facility provider shall be permitted
the right of way to establish, operate, maintain such telecommunication network, subject
to such terms and conditions, including charges for the right of way, and compensation
for damage to the property, if any, to be payable to such person as may be prescribed.
13. Any person providing right of way under section 11 or section 12, shall
ensure grant of right of way to the facility providers in a non-discriminatory manner
and, as far as practicable, on a non-exclusive basis.
14. (1) A facility provider shall not have any right, title or interest in the property
on which telecommunication network is established, except the right to use the property
as provided under section 11 or section 12.
(2) The telecommunication network installed on any property, shall not be subject
to any claims, encumbrances, liquidation or the like, relating to such property.
(3) The telecommunication network installed on any property, shall not be
considered as part of such property, including for the purposes of any transaction
related to that property, or any property tax, levy, cess, fees or duties as may be applicable
on that property.
(4) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in
force, no public entity, except with the permission of an officer authorised by the
Central Government for this purpose, shall have the authority to take any coercive
action, such as sealing, preventing access, or forcible shutdown of the
telecommunication network established by an authorised entity, except where such
actions may be necessary to deal with any natural disaster or public emergency.
15. (1) The Central Government may notify infrastructure projects or class of
infrastructure projects, whether being developed by a public entity by itself, through a
public private partnership or by any other person, that may require establishment of
common ducts or conduits or cable corridors, for installation of telecommunication
network.
(2) The telecommunication network referred to in sub-section (1) shall be made
available on open access basis to facility providers, subject to such terms and conditions,
including fees and charges, as may be prescribed.
Non-
discriminatory
and non-
exclusive grant
of right of way.
Telecommunication
network distinct
from property
on which it is
installed.
Power of
Central
Government to
establish
common ducts
and cable
corridors.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7
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16. (1) Where, under section 11 or section 12, telecommunication network has
been placed by the facility provider, under, over, along, across, in or upon any property,
and any person entitled to do so desires to deal with that property in such a manner so
as to render it necessary or convenient that the telecommunication network should be
removed or relocated to another part thereof or to a higher or lower level or altered in
form, he may require the facility provider to remove, relocate or alter the
telecommunication network accordingly.
(2) If compensation has been paid under sub-section (6) of section 11, or
sub-section (4) of section 12, such person shall, when making the requisition under
sub-section (1), tender to the facility provider the amount requisite to defray the expense
of the removal, relocation or alteration on such terms as may be mutually agreed.
(3) If any dispute arises under this Chapter, the matter shall be determined by the
authority referred to in sub-section (2) of section 18.
(4) If the facility provider omits to comply with the requisition, the person making
such requisition, may apply to the District Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the
property is situated, to order the relocation or alteration.
(5) The District Magistrate receiving the application may, at its discretion and for
reasons to be recorded in writing, approve or reject such relocation or alteration, subject
to such conditions as it determines fit, including the relocation of the telecommunication
network to any other part of the property or to a higher or lower level or for the alteration
of its form, and the order so made shall be final.
17. (1) Any person desiring to exercise his right to deal with his property in such
a manner as is likely to cause damage or to interrupt or interfere with the
telecommunication network established under the provisions of this Act, or to interrupt
or interfere with telecommunication services, shall give prior notice of such duration
and in such manner, as may be prescribed, to the facility provider, the Central Government
or to any authority that may be notified by the Central Government.
(2) The facility provider shall respond to such notice with details of such
telecommunication network and precautionary measures to be undertaken, within such
timelines as may be prescribed.
(3) Where a person referred to in sub-section (1) gives a notice of his exercise of
the right relating to his property with the bona fide intention of averting imminent
danger of personal injury to himself or any other person, such person shall be deemed
to have complied with the provisions of the said sub-section.
(4) Any person who fails to comply with the provisions of sub-section (1), or
deals with any property in such a manner as is likely to cause, or causes, damage to any
telecommunication network, or is likely to interrupt or interfere, or interrupts or interferes
with telecommunication services, a District Magistrate may, on the application of the
facility provider, order such person to abstain from dealing with such property in such
manner for a period not exceeding one month from the date of his order and forthwith to
take such action with regard to such property as may be in the opinion of the District
Magistrate necessary to remedy or prevent such damage, interruption or interference
during such period.
(5) If any dispute arises relating to damages, the matter shall be determined by the
authority referred to under sub-section (2) of section 18.
18. (1) The District Magistrate, or any other authority as notified by the Central
Government, within whose jurisdiction the property is situated, shall have the exclusive
powers to resolve any disputes under this Chapter, except for disputes referred to
under sub-section (2) of this section.
Removal,
relocation or
alteration of
telecommunication
network.
Notice to
facility
provider.
Dispute
resolution
relating to this
Chapter.
8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
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(2) If any dispute arises relating to compensation under sub-section (6) of
section 11, sub-section (2) and sub-section (4) of section 12, and sub-section (5) of
section 17, it shall, on an application made for that purpose by either of the disputing
parties to the District Judge within whose jurisdiction the property is situated, be
determined by him.
(3) Every determination of a dispute by a District Magistrate or District Judge
under this section, shall be final.
(4) Nothing in sub-section (3) shall affect the right of any person to recover by
suit the whole or any part of any compensation paid by the facility provider, from the
person who has received the same.
CHAPTER IV
STANDARDS, PUBLIC SAFETY, NATIONAL SECURITY AND PROTECTION OF TELECOMMUNICATION
NETWORKS
19. The Central Government may notify standards and conformity assessment
measures in respect of—
(a) telecommunication equipment, telecommunication identifiers and
telecommunication network;
(b) telecommunication services, in consonance with any regulations notified
by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India from time to time;
(c) manufacture, import, distribution and sale of telecommunication
equipment;
(d) telecommunication security, including identification, analysis and
prevention of intrusion in telecommunication services and telecommunication
networks;
(e) cyber security for telecommunication services and telecommunication
networks; and
(f) encryption and data processing in telecommunication.
20. (1) On the occurrence of any public emergency, including disaster management,
or in the interest of public safety, the Central Government or a State Government or any
officer specially authorised in this behalf by the Central Government or a State Government,
if satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so to do, by notification—
(a) take temporary possession of any telecommunication service or
telecommunication network from an authorised entity; or
(b) provide for appropriate mechanism to ensure that messages of a user or
group of users authorised for response and recovery during public emergency
are routed on priority.
(2) On the occurrence of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety,
the Central Government or a State Government or any officer specially authorised in
this behalf by the Central Government or a State Government, may, if satisfied that it is
necessary or expedient so to do, in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of
India, defence and security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public
order, or for preventing incitement to the commission of any offence, subject to such
procedure and safeguards as may be prescribed, and for reasons to be recorded in
writing, by order—
(a) direct that any message or class of messages, to or from any person or
class of persons, to or from any telecommunication equipment or class of
telecommunication equipment, or relating to any particular subject, brought for
Power to
notify
standards.
Provisions for
public
emergency or
public safety.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9
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[PART II—
transmission by, or transmitted or received by any telecommunication service or
telecommunication network, shall not be transmitted, or shall be intercepted or
detained, or shall be disclosed in intelligible format to the officer mentioned in
such order; or
(b) direct that any telecommunication service or class of telecommunication
services to or from any person or class of persons, to or from any
telecommunication equipment or class of telecommunication equipment, or relating
to any particular subject, transmitted or received by any telecommunication service
or telecommunication network, shall be suspended.
(3) The press messages, intended to be published in India, of correspondents
accredited to the Central Government or a State Government shall not be intercepted
or detained, unless their transmission has been prohibited under clause (a) of
sub-section (2).
(4) The action specified under sub-section (1), sub-section (2) and
sub-section (3) shall be for such duration and in such manner as may be prescribed.
21. The Central Government may, if satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so
to do, in the interest of national security, friendly relations with foreign States, or in the
event of war, by notification take such measures as are necessary in the circumstances
of the case, including issuing directions in respect of the following, namely:—
(a) use of telecommunication equipment, telecommunication services,
telecommunication network and telecommunication identifiers;
(b) standards applicable to manufacture, import and distribution of
telecommunication equipment;
(c) standards to be adopted by authorised entities or assignees;
(d) procurement of telecommunication equipment and telecommunication
services only from trusted sources;
(e) suspension, removal or prohibition of the use of specified
telecommunication equipment and telecommunication services from countries or
person as may be notified; or
(f) taking over the control and management of, or suspending the operation
of, or entrusting any authority of the Central Government to manage any or all of
any telecommunication services, or any telecommunication network or part thereof,
connected with such telecommunication services.
22. (1) The Central Government may by rules provide for the measures to protect
and ensure cyber security of telecommunication networks and telecommunication
services.
(2) The measures may include collection, analysis and dissemination of traffic
data that is generated, transmitted, received or stored in telecommunication networks.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, the expression "traffic data"
means any data generated, transmitted, received or stored in telecommunication networks
including data relating to the type, routing, duration or time of a telecommunication.
(3) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare
any telecommunication network, or part thereof, as Critical Telecommunication
Infrastructure, disruption of which shall have debilitating impact on national security,
economy, public health or safety.
(4) The Central Government may by rules provide for the standards, security
practices, upgradation requirements and procedures to be implemented for such Critical
Telecommunication Infrastructure.
Measures for
national
security, etc.
Protection of
telecommunication
network and
telecommunication
services.
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SEC. 1]
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23. If it appears necessary or expedient so to do in the public interest, the Central
Government may direct any authorised entity to transmit in its telecommunication
services or telecommunication network, specific messages, in such manner as may be
specified.
CHAPTER V
DIGITAL BHARAT NIDHI
24. (1) The Universal Service Obligation Fund created under the Indian Telegraph
Act, 1885, shall, from the appointed day, be the "Digital Bharat Nidhi", under the
control of the Central Government, and shall be used to discharge functions as set forth
in this Act.
(2) Any sums of money attributable to the Digital Bharat Nidhi that is paid
pursuant to an authorisation under section 3, shall be credited to the Digital Bharat Nidhi.
(3) The balance to the credit of the Digital Bharat Nidhi shall not lapse at the end
of the financial year.
(4) All amounts payable under licences granted prior to the appointed day
towards the Universal Service Obligation, shall be deemed to be the amounts payable
towards the Digital Bharat Nidhi.
25. The sums of money received towards the Digital Bharat Nidhi under
section 24, shall first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, and the Central
Government may, if Parliament by appropriation made by law in this behalf so provides,
credit such proceeds to the Digital Bharat Nidhi from time to time for being utilised
exclusively to meet any or all of the following objectives, namely:—
(a) support universal service through promoting access to and delivery of
telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote and urban areas;
(b) support research and development of telecommunication services,
technologies, and products;
(c) support pilot projects, consultancy assistance and advisory support
towards provision of service under clause (a) of this section;
(d) support introduction of telecommunication services, technologies, and
products.
26. The Digital Bharat Nidhi shall be administered in a manner, as may be
prescribed.
CHAPTER VI
INNOVATION AND TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT
27. The Central Government may, for the purposes of encouraging and facilitating
innovation and technological development in telecommunication, create one or more
regulatory sandboxes, in such manner, and for such duration, as may be prescribed.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expression "regulatory
sandbox" refers to a live testing environment where new products, services, processes
and business models which may be deployed, on a limited set of users, for a specified
period of time, with certain relaxations from the provisions of this Act.
Power to give
directions.
Establishment
of Digital
Bharat Nidhi.
13 of 1885.
Crediting of
sum to
Consolidated
Fund of India.
Administration
of Digital
Bharat Nidhi.
Regulatory
sandbox.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 11
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CHAPTER VII
PROTECTION OF USERS
28. (1) For the purposes of this section, "specified message" means any message
offering, advertising or promoting goods, services, interest in property, business
opportunity, employment opportunity or investment opportunity, whether or not—
(a) the goods, services, interest, or opportunity are real; or
(b) it is lawful to acquire such goods, services, property, interest or take up
the opportunity.
(2) The Central Government may by rules provide for measures for protection of
users, in consonance with any regulations notified by the Telecom Regulatory Authority
of India from time to time, including measures such as—
(a) the prior consent of users for receiving certain specified messages or
class of specified messages;
(b) the preparation and maintenance of one or more registers, to be called as
"Do Not Disturb" register, to ensure that users do not receive specified messages
or class of specified messages without prior consent; or
(c) the mechanism to enable users to report any malware or specified
messages received in contravention of this section.
(3) An authorised entity providing telecommunication services shall establish an
online mechanism to enable users to register any grievance pertaining to the
telecommunication service, and redressal of such grievances, in such manner as may be
prescribed.
29. No user shall—
(a) furnish any false particulars, suppress any material information, or
impersonate another person, while establishing his identity for availing of
telecommunication services; or
(b) fail to share information as required under this Act.
30. (1) The Central Government may establish or approve one or more online
dispute resolution mechanisms for the resolution of disputes between users and
authorised entities providing telecommunication services.
(2) Every authorised entity providing telecommunication services shall participate
in the dispute resolution mechanism established under sub-section (1), and shall comply
with such terms and conditions of participation in such mechanism as may be prescribed.
(3) This section shall not affect the rights of consumers under the Consumer
Protection Act, 2019.
CHAPTER VIII
ADJUDICATION OF CERTAIN CONTRAVENTIONS
31. For the purposes of this Chapter,—
(a) "Adjudicating Officer" means an officer appointed under section 35;
and
(b) "Designated Appeals Committee" means the committee appointed under
section 36.
32. (1) In case of breach of any of the terms and conditions of authorisation or
assignment granted under this Act, the Adjudicating Officer shall, pursuant to an inquiry
under the provisions of this Chapter—
(a) pass an order in writing in respect of one or both of the following,
namely:—
Measures for
protection of
users.
Duty of users.
Dispute
resolution
mechanism to
redress user
grievances.
35 of 2019.
Definitions of
terms used in
this Chapter.
Breach of
terms and
conditions of
authorisation
or assignment.
12 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
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(i) direct such authorised entity, or assignee to do or abstain from
doing any act or thing to prevent such breach or for such compliance;
(ii) impose civil penalties as specified in the Second Schedule; and
(b) make recommendations for the consideration of the Central Government
regarding suspension, revocation, or curtailment of the duration of the
authorisation or assignment.
(2) The Central Government may, after due consideration of the recommendations
of the Adjudicating Officer under clause (b) of sub-section (1), suspend, curtail or
revoke the authorisation or assignment, as the case may be, which may be reversed if
the substantial violation is remedied to the satisfaction of the Central Government.
(3) While imposing penalties specified in the Second Schedule under this
section and section 33, the Adjudicating Officer shall have due regard to the following
factors, namely:—
(a) nature, gravity and duration of the contravention, taking into account
the scope of the contravention;
(b) number of persons affected by such contravention, and the level of harm
suffered by them;
(c) intentional or negligent character of the contravention;
(d) repetitive nature of the contravention;
(e) action taken by the concerned person to mitigate the contravention,
including by providing a voluntary undertaking under sub-section (1) or
sub-section (2) of section 34;
(f) revenue loss caused to the Central Government;
(g) any aggravating factors relevant to the circumstances of the case, such
as the amount of disproportionate gain or unfair advantage, wherever quantifiable,
made as a result of the contravention; and
(h) any mitigating factors relevant to the circumstances of the case, such as
the timely rectification of the contravention, or steps taken for the avoidance of
loss as a result of the contravention.
33. (1) The Adjudicating Officer shall, upon receipt of a complaint in such form,
manner and accompanied by such fees as may be prescribed, relating to contravention
of this Act as specified in the Third Schedule, or suo motu, conduct an inquiry under
the provisions of this Chapter, pass an order in writing specifying the civil penalty up
to an amount as specified in the Third Schedule, payable by the person committing
such contravention.
(2) The provisions of the Third Schedule shall apply to the abetment of, or
attempt to commit, or conspiracy to commit such contravention, as they apply to such
contravention.
34. (1) Any authorised entity or assignee committing the contravention as
provided under section 32 or under serial No. 4 of the Third Schedule may, prior to any
notice or initiation of process of determination of such contravention, submit a voluntary
undertaking to the Adjudicating Officer, disclosing such contravention and measures
taken or to be taken to mitigate such contravention.
(2) The acceptance of voluntary undertaking given under sub-section (1), subject
to the provisions of sub-section (6), shall constitute a bar on proceedings under this
Chapter.
Contraventions
of Act.
Voluntary
undertaking
for
contraventions.
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(3) Where the Adjudicating Officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a
contravention as provided under section 32 or under serial No. 4 of the Third Schedule
may have occurred, then it shall serve a notice to the authorised entity or assignee
concerned under the relevant section.
(4) At any time during the process of hearing under sub-section (3), the authorised
entity or assignee, may, submit a voluntary undertaking specifying the mitigation
measures it proposes to take in respect of such contravention.
(5) The acceptance of the voluntary undertaking submitted under sub-section (4),
subject to the provisions of sub-section (6), shall be construed as a mitigation measure
and shall be duly considered for the purpose of determination of civil penalties under
clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 32, or under serial No. 4 of the Third
Schedule.
(6) The voluntary undertaking under sub-section (1) or sub-section (4) of this
section, may include an undertaking to take a specified action within a specified time;
an undertaking to refrain from taking a specified action; and an undertaking to publicise
the voluntary undertaking.
(7) The Adjudicating Officer may accept the voluntary undertaking under
sub-section (1) or sub-section (4), or with the agreement of the authorised entity or
assignee providing the voluntary undertaking, vary the terms included in such voluntary
undertaking.
(8) When the authorised entity or assignee providing a voluntary undertaking
fails to comply with any terms of such undertaking, the Adjudicating Officer may, after
giving such authorised entity or assignee a reasonable opportunity of being heard,
proceed with imposition of civil penalties specified under the Second Schedule or the
Third Schedule, as applicable.
35. (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, the Central Government shall, by an
order published in the Official Gazette, appoint any officer of the Central Government
not below the rank of Joint Secretary as one or more Adjudicating Officers for holding
an inquiry in such manner as may be prescribed.
(2) The Adjudicating Officer may, upon the holding of such inquiry, pass such
order as he deems fit in accordance with the provisions of section 32 or section 33.
36. (1) The Central Government may, by an order published in the Official Gazette,
appoint officers of the Central Government not below the rank of Additional Secretary,
as members of one or more Designated Appeals Committee to which any person aggrieved
by an order made by the Adjudicating Officer under sub-section (1) of section 32 or
under section 33, may prefer an appeal.
(2) Every appeal under sub-section (1) shall be filed within a period of thirty days
from the date on which the copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Officer is
received by the aggrieved person, and shall be in such form, manner and be accompanied
by such fees as may be prescribed.
37. (1) The functioning of the Adjudicating Officer and the Designated Appeals
Committee shall, as far as possible, be digital by design and they shall function as
digital offices and deploy such techno-legal measures as may be prescribed, to enable
online process for their functioning.
(2) The Adjudicating Officer and Designated Appeals Committee shall have the
same powers as a civil court, and all proceedings before it shall be deemed to be judicial
proceedings within the meaning of sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.
38. Any order made by the Adjudicating Officer or the Designated Appeals
Committee shall be executable in the same manner as if it were a decree of civil court;
and such orders shall be deemed to be final decrees under this section on the expiry of
the period allowed for preferring an appeal against such orders as provided in section 36
and section 39.
Adjudicating
Officer.
Designated
Appeals
Committee.
Process to be
followed by
Adjudicating
Officer and
Designated
Appeals
Committee.
Enforcement.
45 of 1860.
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39. Any person aggrieved by an order of the Designated Appeals Committee
under section 36, in so far as it pertains to matters under sub-section (1) of section 32,
or an order of the Central Government under sub-section (2) of section 32, may prefer
an appeal to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal constituted under
section 14 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, within a period of
thirty days from the date on which a copy of the order is received by such authorised
entity or assignee.
40. Any person aggrieved by an order of the Designated Appeals Committee
under section 36, in so far as it pertains to matters under section 33, may prefer an
appeal to any civil court having jurisdiction over the matter.
41. No civil court shall have jurisdiction in respect of any matter which the
Adjudicating Officer, the Designated Appeals Committee, the Central Government or
the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal are empowered by or under
this Chapter to determine.
CHAPTER IX
OFFENCES
42. (1) Whoever provides telecommunication services or establishes
telecommunication network without authorisation under sub-section (1) of section 3,
or causes damage to critical telecommunication infrastructure shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend
up to two crore rupees, or with both.
(2) Whoever directly or indirectly or through personation—
(a) gains or attempts to gain unauthorised access to a telecommunication
network or to data of an authorised entity or transfers data of an authorised
entity; or
(b) intercepts a message unlawfully,
shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or
with fine which may extend up to two crore rupees, or with both.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—
(i) the expression "personation" shall have the same meaning as assigned
to it under section 416 of the Indian Penal Code;
(ii) data of an authorised entity includes call data records, internet protocol
data records, traffic data, subscriber data records and the like.
(3) Whoever,—
(a) possesses or uses without an authorisation, any equipment that blocks
telecommunication;
(b) uses telecommunication identifiers not allotted or permitted in accordance
with sub-sections (8) and (9) of section 3;
(c) tampers with telecommunication identifiers;
(d) possesses radio equipment without an authorisation or an exemption
that can accommodate more than specified number of subscriber identity modules;
(e) obtains subscriber identity modules or other telecommunication
identifiers through fraud, cheating or personation;
(f) wilfully possesses radio equipment knowing that it uses unauthorised or
tampered telecommunication identifiers,
Appeals on
matters
relating to
section 32.
Appeals on
matters
relating to
section 33.
Jurisdiction of
civil court
barred.
General
provisions
relating to
offences.
24 of 1997.
45 of 1860.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 15
16
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or
with fine which may extend up to fifty lakh rupees, or with both.
(4) Whoever wilfully contravenes any measures specified in the notification on
national security under section 21 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend up to two crore rupees,
or with both and the Central Government may, if it deems fit, also suspend or terminate
the telecommunication service of such person.
(5) Whoever causes damage to telecommunication network, other than critical
telecommunication infrastructure shall be liable for compensation for the damage caused
and fine which may extend up to fifty lakh rupees.
(6) Whoever abets any offence, or attempts to commit, or conspires to commit an
offence under this Act, shall if the act abetted or conspired is committed in consequence
of such abetment or conspiracy, be punished with the punishment provided for the
offence.
(7) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
all offences specified under this section shall be cognizable and non-bailable.
(8) No court inferior to that of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or a Chief Judicial
Magistrate of first class shall try any offence punishable under this Act.
43. Any officer authorised by the Central Government in this behalf, may search
any building, vehicle, vessel, aircraft or place in which he has reason to believe that any
unauthorised telecommunication network or telecommunication equipment or radio
equipment in respect of which an offence punishable under section 42 has been
committed, is kept or concealed and take possession thereof.
44. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the time being in force,
where the Central Government is satisfied that any information, document or record in
possession or control of any authorised entity or assignee relating to any
telecommunication service, telecommunication network or use of spectrum, availed by
any entity or consumer or subscriber is necessary to be furnished in relation to any
pending or apprehended civil or criminal proceedings, an officer, specially authorised
in writing by the Central Government in this behalf, shall direct such authorised entity
or assignee to furnish such information, document or record to him and the authorised
entity or assignee shall comply with the direction of such officer.
CHAPTER X
MISCELLANEOUS
45. The Central Government may provide for such security interest which an
authorised entity may provide to lenders financing such entities on such terms and
conditions of such security interest as may be prescribed.
46. The Central Government may grant certification to any person to operate a
radio equipment on such class of vessels registered under the Merchant Shipping
Act, 1958, aircrafts registered under the Aircraft Act, 1934 and any other category of
vessels or vehicles as may be notified by the Central Government, in accordance with
such terms and conditions, including applicable fees and charges, as may be prescribed.
47. The Central Government may by rules provide for the manner of certification
of person to install and operate an amateur station and such rules may specify the
qualifications and terms and conditions subject to which, a certification for operating
an amateur station may be granted, including through conduct of examinations for
granting such certification, the fees and charges to be paid thereof, and other connected
matters.
2 of 1974.
Power to
search.
Supply of
information
to authorised
officers.
Creation of
security
interests.
Certification
of person for
operation of
radio
equipment on
a vessel or
aircraft.
Certification
for amateur
station
operator.
44 of 1958.
22 of 1934.
16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
17
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section,—
(a) "amateur services" means radio communication services for the
purpose of self-training, intercommunication and technical investigations
carried out by amateurs, that is, by duly authorised person interested in
radio technique solely with a personal aim and without any pecuniary
interest;
(b) "amateur station" means a radio station operated by an amateur
for amateur services.
48. No person shall possess or use any equipment that blocks telecommunication
unless permitted by the Central Government, or any authority authorised for specific
purpose by the Central Government.
49. (1) The penalties imposed pursuant to the provisions of Chapter VIII or
Chapter IX, shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, any liability in respect of
payment of compensation or payment of any fees or charges due by an authorised
entity or assignee.
(2) The provisions of this Act are in addition to and without prejudice to any
other liability which a person may have incurred under any other law for the time being
in force.
50. This Act shall apply to any offence committed or contravention made outside
India by any person if the act or conduct constituting such offence or contravention
involves a telecommunication service provided in India, or telecommunication equipment
or telecommunication network located in India.
51. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Central
Government, the State Government, or any other authority under this Act or any person
acting on their behalf, as the case may be, for anything which is done in good faith, or
intended to be done in pursuance of this Act or any rule, regulation or order made thereunder.
52. (1) The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to, and not be construed in
derogation of the provisions of any other law, and shall be construed as consistent
with such law, for the time being in force.
(2) If any conflict arises between a provision of this Act and a provision of any
other law for the time being in force in the whole of India or restricted to the application
within the territory of any State, the provision of this Act shall prevail to the extent of
such conflict.
53. The implementation of the Act shall be digital by design and the Central
Government shall take any such measures as necessary to enable the digital
implementation of the Act.
54. No employee of an authorised entity shall, in any legal proceeding to which
such authorised entity is not a party, be compelled to appear as a witness to prove the
information contained in any electronic records submitted under sub-section (4) of
section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, except as required by order of the Court
or a Judge made for special cause.
55. The privilege of the Central Government to grant authorisations or assignment
under this Act in the Continental Shelf and the Exclusive Economic Zone of India and
the rights of an authorised entity or assignee, as the case may be, shall be subject to the
Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime
Zones Act, 1976, and applicable international laws as accepted and ratified by India.
56. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, and subject to the condition
of previous publication, make rules not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, to
carry out the purposes of this Act.
Prohibition of
use of
equipment
which blocks
telecommuni-
cation.
Penalties not
to affect other
liabilities.
Act to apply
for offence or
contravention
committed
outside India.
Protection of
action taken
in good faith.
Consistency
with other
laws.
Implementation
of Act.
Employee of
authorised
entity not to
be compelled
to appear as
witness.
Rights in
Continental
Shelf and
Exclusive
Economic
Zone.
Power of
Central
Government
to make rules.
80 of 1976.
1 of 1872.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 17
18
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power,
such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—
(a) the terms and conditions, including fees or charges for obtaining
authorisation under sub-section (1) of section 3;
(b) the manner of exemption for providing authorisation under sub-section (3)
of section 3;
(c) the terms and conditions, including fees and charges, applicable to the
original authorised entity that emerges pursuant to any merger, demerger,
acquisition, or other forms of restructuring, under sub-section (5) of section 3;
(d) the terms and conditions for migration under sub-section (6) of
section 3;
(e) the verifiable biometric based identification to be used by an authorised
entity of telecommunication services under sub-section (7) of section 3;
(f) the terms and conditions, including fees or charges for allotment of
telecommunication identifiers for use by authorised entities under
sub-section (8) of section 3;
(g) the terms and conditions for the assignment of spectrum, including the
frequency range, methodology for pricing, price, fees and charges, payment
mechanism, duration and procedure under sub-section (3) of section 4;
(h) the manner of exemptions for assignment of spectrum under
sub-section (7) of section 4;
(i) the terms and conditions for re-farming and harmonisation under section 5;
(j) the terms and conditions, including applicable fees and charges, and any
other relevant condition subject to which the utilisation of the spectrum in a
flexible, liberalised and technologically neutral manner under section 6;
(k) the terms and conditions for optimal utilisation of spectrum under
sub-section (1) of section 7;
(l) the period of unutilised spectrum for insufficient reasons and further
terms and conditions relating to spectrum utilisation under sub-section (2) of
section 7;
(m) the terms and conditions, including applicable fees or charges for sharing,
trading, leasing and surrender of assigned spectrum, under sub-section (2) of
section 8;
(n) the timeline for granting permission for right of way for
telecommunication network in public property; and the amount for administrative
expenses and compensation for right of way under sub-section (3) of section 11;
(o) the procedure to be followed by a facility provider to enter, survey,
establish, operate, maintain, repair, replace or relocate the telecommunication
network, including the notice period, the manner of issuance of notice, the
framework governing objections by owner or occupier of the property, the manner
in which such objections would be resolved, and matters relating to the
compensation payable for any damage under sub-section (5) of section 12;
(p) the terms and conditions, including charges for right of way, and
compensation for damage to the property, under sub-section (6) of section 12;
18 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
19
(q) the terms and conditions, including fees and charges subject to which
the telecommunication network to be made available on open access basis to
facility providers under sub-section (2) of section 15;
(r) the procedure and manner for giving prior notice under sub-section (1)
of section 17;
(s) the timeline for responding the notice with details of telecommunication
network and precautionary measures to be undertaken by the facility provider
under sub-section (2) of section 17;
(t) the procedure and safeguards for public emergency or public safety
under sub-section (2) of section 20;
(u) the duration and manner of taking action for public emergency or public
safety under sub-section (4) of section 20;
(v) the measures to protect and ensure cyber security of, telecommunication
networks and telecommunication services under sub-section (1) of section 22;
(w) the standards, security practices, upgradation requirements and
procedures to be implemented for the Critical Telecommunication Infrastructure
under sub-section (4) of section 22;
(x) the manner for administration of Digital Bharat Nidhi under section 26;
(y) the manner and duration for creating Regulatory Sandbox under
section 27;
(z) the measures for protection of users under sub-section (2) of
section 28;
(za) the manner for registration of any grievance and redressal of such
grievances pertaining to the telecommunication service under sub-section (3) of
section 28;
(zb) the terms and conditions for participating in the dispute resolution
mechanism under sub-section (2) of section 30;
(zc) the form, manner and fees to be accompanied with the complaint under
sub-section (1) of section 33;
(zd) the manner for holding inquiry by the Adjudicating Officer under
sub-section (1) of section 35;
(ze) the form, manner and fees for filing an appeal before the Designated
Appeals Committee under sub-section (2) of section 36;
(zf) the techno-legal measures for functioning of the Adjudicating Officer
and the Designated Appeals Committee under sub-section (1) of section 37;
(zg) the terms and conditions of security interest under section 45;
(zh) the terms and conditions, including applicable fees and charges for
granting certificates under section 46;
(zi) the manner of certification, qualification, and terms and conditions,
including fees and charges for the examination for amateur station operator under
section 47;
(zj) any other matter which is to be, or may be, prescribed, or in respect of
which provision is to be made by rules.
(3) Every rule made under this Act and amendment to the Schedule made under
section 57 shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of
Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised
in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the
session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 19
20
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or amendment to the Schedule or
both Houses agree that the rule or amendment to the Schedule should not be made, the
rule or amendment to the Schedule shall thereafter have effect only in such modified
form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, any such modification or
annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under
that rule or amendment to the Schedule.
57. (1) Subject to the provisions of this section, the Central Government may, by
notification,—
(a) amend the First Schedule;
(b) amend the Second Schedule or the Third Schedule:
Provided that penalty or civil penalty specified in such Schedules shall be not
exceeding ten crore rupees.
(2) Any amendment made under sub-section (1) shall have effect as if enacted in
this Act and shall come into force on the date of the notification, unless the notification
otherwise directs.
58. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the
Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such
provisions, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may be necessary or
expedient, for removing the difficulty:
Provided that no order shall be made under this section after the expiration of
three years from the date of commencement of this Act.
(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is
made, before each House of Parliament.
59. In the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997,—
(a) in section 2,—
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(A) for clause (e), the following clause shall be substituted,
namely:—
'(e) "licensee" means an authorised entity providing
telecommunication services under the Telecommunications
Act, 2023, or registered for providing cable television network
under the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995 or
any other Act for the time being in force;';
(B) for clause (ea), the following clause shall be substituted,
namely:—
'(ea) "licensor" means the Central Government which
grants an authorisation for telecommunication services under
the Telecommunications Act, 2023, or registration under the
Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995 or any other
Act for the time being in force;';
(C) after clause (j), the following clause shall be inserted,
namely:—
'(ja) "telecommunication" shall have the meaning as
assigned to it in the Telecommunications Act, 2023;';
(D) for clause (k), the following clause shall be substituted,
namely:—
'(k) "telecommunication services" means any service for
telecommunication;';
Power of
Central
Government
to amend
Schedules.
Power to
remove
difficulties.
Amendment
to Act 24 of
1997.
7 of 1995.
7 of 1995.
20 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
21
(ii) in sub-section (2), for the words and figures "the Indian Telegraph
Act, 1885 or the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933", the words, figures
and brackets "the Telecommunications Act, 2023 or the Cable Television
Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995" shall be substituted;
(b) in section 4, for the proviso, the following provisos shall be substituted,
namely:—
"Provided that a person who is, or has been, in the service of
Government shall not be appointed—
(a) as a Chairperson unless such person has held the post of
Secretary to the Government of India or any equivalent post in the
Central Government or the State Government; or
(b) as a member unless such person has held the post of
Additional Secretary to the Government of India or any equivalent
post in the Central Government or the State Government:
Provided further that a person who is, or has been, in a service other
than that of Government, shall be appointed—
(a) as a Chairperson if such person has at least thirty years of
professional experience and has served as a member of the board of
directors or a chief executive of a company in the areas as specified in
this section; or
(b) as a Member if such person has at least twenty-five years of
professional experience and has served as a member of the board of
directors or chief executive of a company in the areas as specified in
this section.";
(c) in section 11,—
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(A) for the words and figures "Indian Telegraph Act, 1885", the
words, figures and brackets "Telecommunications Act, 2023 or the
Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995" shall be
substituted;
(B) in the fifth proviso, for the portion beginning with the words
"may, within fifteen days from the date of receipt" and ending with the
words "take a final decision", the following shall be substituted,
namely:—
"shall, within thirty days from the date of receipt of such
reference communicate to the Central Government any further
recommendations that it may have, after considering the
reference made by the Central Government and after receipt of
further recommendation if any, the Central Government shall
take a final decision.";
(ii) in sub-section (2),—
(A) for the words and figures "Indian Telegraph Act, 1885", the
words, figures and brackets "Telecommunications Act, 2023 or the
Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995" shall be
substituted;
13 of 1885.
7 of 1995.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
7 of 1995.
13 of 1885.
7 of 1995.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 21
22
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(B) after the proviso, the following proviso shall be inserted,
namely:—
"Provided further that the Authority may direct an
authorised entity or class of authorised entities providing
telecommunication services, to abstain from predatory pricing
that is harmful to competition, long term development and the
overall health of the telecommunication sector.";
(d) in section 14, in clause (a),—
(i) sub-clause (i) shall be omitted;
(ii) for paragraph (C), the following shall be substituted, namely:—
"(C) any disputes to be adjudicated by the Adjudicating
Officer or the Designated Appeals Committee under the
Telecommunications Act, 2023;
(iii) after clause (c), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
"(d) hear and dispose of appeals under section 39 of the
Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Any action instituted under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
Act, 1997 and pending immediately before the appointed day in the Telecom
Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal, shall continue to be heard and
disposed of by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal as
if this Act had not been passed;";
(e) for section 38, the following section shall be substituted, namely:—
"38. The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to the provisions
of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 and, in particular, nothing in this Act
shall affect any jurisdiction, powers and functions required to be exercised
or performed by the appropriate authority in relation to any area falling
within the jurisdiction of such authority.".
CHAPTER XI
REPEAL AND SAVINGS
60. (1) Subject to the other provisions of this section, the enactments namely, the
Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933, are hereby
repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the provisions aforesaid, anything done or
any action taken including any grant of license, registration or assignment, any order,
or proceeding, pending or ongoing, under the repealed provisions shall be deemed to
have been done or taken under this Act, and the provisions of this Act shall have effect
in relation thereto.
(3) The provisions of Part-III of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 shall continue to
apply to all cases pertaining to laying down of transmission lines under section 164 of
the Electricity Act, 2003 as if the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 has not been repealed, and
the provisions of Part-III of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 shall continue in force with
reference to section 164 of the Electricity Act, 2003 till such time as section 164 of the
Electricity Act, 2003 is amended.
Repeal of
certain Acts
and savings.
36 of 2003.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
24 of 1997.
13 of 1885.
Application of
certain laws.
22 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
23
61. All rules, orders, made or purported to have been made under the Indian
Telegraph Act, 1885 or under the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933, shall, in so far
as they relate to matters for which provision is made in this Act and are not inconsistent
therewith, be deemed to have been made under this Act as if this Act had been in force
on the date on which such rules, orders were made, and shall continue in force unless
and until they are superseded by any rules made under this Act.
62. All acts of executive actions done, decisions taken, actions done, proceedings
taken and orders passed, prior to the appointed day, by the Central Government, by any
officer of the Central Government, or by any other authority, with respect to assignment
of spectrum or provision of telecommunication services, or telecommunication network
or establishment of telecommunication infrastructure, in the belief or purported belief
that the acts done, decisions taken, actions done, and proceedings taken, were being
done, taken or passed under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, or the Indian Wireless
Telegraphy Act, 1933, shall be as valid and operative as if they had been done, taken or
passed in accordance with law; and no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintained
or continued against any person whatsoever, on the ground that any such acts, decisions,
proceedings taken were not done or taken in accordance with law.
Validation of
certain acts
and indemnity.
Existing rules
to continue.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
13 of 1885.
17 of 1933.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 23
24
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
THE FIRST SCHEDULE
[See sections 4 (4), (5) and 57(1)]
ASSIGNMENT OF SPECTRUM THROUGH ADMINISTRATIVE PROCESS
1. National security and defence.
2. Law enforcement and crime prevention.
3. Public broadcasting services.
4. Disaster management, safeguarding life and property.
5. Promoting scientific research, resource development, and exploration.
6. Safety and operation of roads, railways, metro, regional rail, inland waterways, airports,
ports, pipelines, shipping, and other transport systems.
7. Conservation of natural resources and wildlife.
8. Meteorological department and weather forecasting.
9. Internationally recognised dedicated bands for amateur stations, navigation, telemetry,
and other like usages.
10. Use by Central Government, State Governments, or their entities or other authorised
entities for safety and operations of mines, ports and oil exploration and such other
activities where the use of spectrum is primarily for supporting the safety and operations.
11. Public Mobile Radio Trunking Services.
12. Radio backhaul for telecommunication services.
Explanation.—The term "radio backhaul" shall mean the use of radio frequency only
to interconnect telecommunication equipment, other than the customer equipment in
telecommunication networks.
13. Community Radio Stations.
14. In-flight and maritime connectivity.
15. Space research and application, launch vehicle operations and ground station for satellite
control.
16. Certain satellite-based services such as: Teleports, Television channels, Direct To Home,
Headend In The Sky, Digital Satellite News Gathering, Very Small Aperture Terminal,
Global Mobile Personal Communication by Satellites, National Long Distance,
International Long Distance, Mobile Satellite Service in L and S bands.
17. Use by Central Government, State Governments or their authorised agencies for
telecommunication services.
18. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) and Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
(MTNL).
19. Testing, trial, experimental, demonstration purposes for enabling implementation of new
technologies, including for creation of one or more Regulatory Sandboxes.
24 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
25
THE SECOND SCHEDULE
[See sections 32(1) (a) and 34 (8)]
CIVIL PENALTIES FOR BREACH OF TERMS AND CONDITIONS UNDER SECTIONS 32 AND 34.
Categorisation
Civil Penalty
Severe
Up to Rs. 5 Crore
Major
Up to Rs. 1 Crore
Moderate
Up to Rs. 10 lakh
Minor
Up to Rs. 1 lakh
Non-severe
Written warning.
No. 11-94] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 25
THE THIRD SCHEDULE
[See sections 33(1), (2), 34(1), (3), (5) and 34(8)]
CIVIL PENALTIES FOR CERTAIN CONTRAVENTIONS
Sl. No.
Contravention under the Act
Civil Penalty
1. (a) Possessing radio equipment without
an authorisation or an exemption, except
for the offence under clauses (d) and (f) of
sub-section (3) of section 42;
(b) Use of subscriber identity modules in
excess of number notified.
2. Use by any person or entity of a
telecommunication
service
or
telecommunication network knowing or
having reason to believe that such
telecommunication
service
or
telecommunication network does not have
the required authorisation under this Act.
3. Contravention of the provisions of
section 28 (Measures for protection of
users).
4. Contravention of any provision of this Act
or rules, or any terms or conditions of an
assignment or authorisation in relation to
any matter under this Act, for which no
penalty or punishment is provided
elsewhere in this Act.
First Offence: Civil penalty up to fifty
thousand rupees.
Each subsequent offence: Civil penalty up
to two lakh rupees for each such instance.
Civil penalty up to ten lakh rupees.
First Offence: Civil penalty up to fifty
thousand rupees.
Each subsequent offence: Civil penalty up
to two lakh rupees for each such instance, or
suspension of telecommunication service, or
a combination thereof.
First Offence: Civil penalty up to twenty-five
thousand rupees.
Second or subsequent offence: Further Civil
penalty up to fifty thousand rupees for every
day after the first during which the
contravention continues.
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
26
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II— SEC. 1]
26 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-94
Sd/-
THE BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA, 2023
NO. 45 OF 2023
[25th December, 2023.]
An Act to consolidate and amend the provisions relating to offences and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:––
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification
in the Official Gazette, appoint, and different dates may be appointed for different provisions
of this Sanhita.
Short title,
commencement
and
application.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 25th December, 2023/Pausha 4, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
25th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-95
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
(3) Every person shall be liable to punishment under this Sanhita and not otherwise for
every act or omission contrary to the provisions thereof, of which he shall be guilty within
India.
(4) Any person liable, by any law for the time being in force in India, to be tried for an
offence committed beyond India shall be dealt with according to the provisions of this
Sanhita for any act committed beyond India in the same manner as if such act had been
committed within India.
(5) The provisions of this Sanhita shall also apply to any offence committed by—
(a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
(b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be;
(c) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting
a computer resource located in India.
Explanation.—In this section, the word “offence” includes every act committed outside
India which, if committed in India, would be punishable under this Sanhita.
Illustration.
A, who is a citizen of India, commits a murder in any place without and beyond India.
He can be tried and convicted of murder in any place in India in which he may be found.
(6) Nothing in this Sanhita shall affect the provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny
and desertion of officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the service of the Government of India
or the provisions of any special or local law.
2. In this Sanhita, unless the context otherwise requires,––
(1) “act” denotes as well a series of acts as a single act;
(2) “animal” means any living creature, other than a human being;
(3) “child” means any person below the age of eighteen years;
(4) “counterfeit”.––A person is said to “counterfeit” who causes one thing to
resemble another thing, intending by means of that resemblance to practise deception,
or knowing it to be likely that deception will thereby be practised.
Explanation 1.—It is not essential to counterfeiting that the imitation should be
exact.
Explanation 2.—When a person causes one thing to resemble another thing,
and the resemblance is such that a person might be deceived thereby, it shall be
presumed, until the contrary is proved, that the person so causing the one thing to
resemble the other thing intended by means of that resemblance to practise deception
or knew it to be likely that deception would thereby be practised;
(5) “Court” means a Judge who is empowered by law to act judicially alone, or a
body of Judges which is empowered by law to act judicially as a body, when such
Judge or body of Judges is acting judicially;
(6)“death” means the death of a human being unless the contrary appears from
the context;
(7) “dishonestly” means doing anything with the intention of causing wrongful
gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person;
(8)“document” means any matter expressed or described upon any substance
by means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means, and includes
electronic and digital record, intended to be used, or which may be used, as evidence
of that matter.
Explanation 1.—It is immaterial by what means or upon what substance the
letters, figures or marks are formed, or whether the evidence is intended for, or may be
used in a Court or not.
Definitions.
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Illustrations.
(a) A writing expressing the terms of a contract, which may be used as evidence
of the contract, is a document.
(b) A cheque upon a banker is a document.
(c) A power-of-attorney is a document.
(d) A map or plan which is intended to be used or which may be used as evidence,
is a document.
(e) A writing containing directions or instructions is a document.
Explanation 2.—Whatever is expressed by means of letters, figures or marks as
explained by mercantile or other usage, shall be deemed to be expressed by such
letters, figures or marks within the meaning of this section, although the same may not
be actually expressed.
Illustration.
A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange payable to his order. The
meaning of the endorsement, as explained by mercantile usage, is that the bill is to be
paid to the holder. The endorsement is a document, and shall be construed in the same
manner as if the words “pay to the holder” or words to that effect had been written
over the signature;
(9) “fraudulently” means doing anything with the intention to defraud but not
otherwise;
(10) “gender”.—The pronoun “he” and its derivatives are used of any person,
whether male, female or transgender.
Explanation.–– “transgender” shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (k)
of section 2 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019;
(11) “good faith”.—Nothing is said to be done or believed in “good faith” which
is done or believed without due care and attention;
(12) “Government” means the Central Government or a State Government;
(13) “harbour” includes supplying a person with shelter, food, drink, money,
clothes, arms, ammunition or means of conveyance, or the assisting a person by any
means, whether of the same kind as those enumerated in this clause or not, to evade
apprehension;
(14) “injury” means any harm whatever illegally caused to any person, in body,
mind, reputation or property;
(15) “illegal” and “legally bound to do”.—The word “illegal” is applicable to
everything which is an offence or which is prohibited by law, or which furnishes
ground for a civil action; and a person is said to be “legally bound to do” whatever it
is illegal in him to omit;
(16) “Judge” means a person who is officially designated as a Judge and includes
a person,––
(i) who is empowered by law to give, in any legal proceeding, civil or
criminal, a definitive judgment, or a judgment which, if not appealed against,
would be definitive, or a judgment which, if confirmed by some other authority,
would be definitive; or
(ii) who is one of a body or persons, which body of persons is empowered
by law to give such a judgment.
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Illustration.
A Magistrate exercising jurisdiction in respect of a charge on which he has
power to sentence to fine or imprisonment, with or without appeal, is a Judge;
(17) “life” means the life of a human being, unless the contrary appears from the
context;
(18) “local law” means a law applicable only to a particular part of India;
(19) “man” means male human being of any age;
(20) “month” and “year”.––Wherever the word “month” or the word “year” is
used, it is to be understood that the month or the year is to be reckoned according to
the Gregorian calendar;
(21) “movable property” includes property of every description, except land
and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything which is attached
to the earth;
(22) “number”.—Unless the contrary appears from the context, words importing
the singular number include the plural number, and words importing the plural number
include the singular number;
(23) “oath” includes a solemn affirmation substituted by law for an oath, and
any declaration required or authorised by law to be made before a public servant or to
be used for the purpose of proof, whether in a Court or not;
(24) “offence”.—Except in the Chapters and sections mentioned in
sub-clauses (a) and (b), the word “offence” means a thing made punishable by this
Sanhita, but––
(a) in Chapter III and in the following sections, namely, sub-sections (2),
(3), (4) and (5) of section 8, sections 9, 49, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61, 119,
120, 123, sub-sections (7) and (8) of section 127, 222, 230, 231, 240, 248, 250,
251, 259, 260, 261, 262, 263, sub-sections (6) and (7) of section 308 and
sub-section (2) of section 330, the word “offence” means a thing punishable
under this Sanhita, or under any special law or local law; and
(b) in sub-section (1) of section 189, sections 211, 212, 238, 239, 249, 253
and sub-section (1) of section 329, the word “offence” shall have the same
meaning when the act punishable under the special law or local law is punishable
under such law with imprisonment for a term of six months or more, whether
with or without fine;
(25) “omission” denotes as well as a series of omissions as a single omission;
(26) “person” includes any company or association or body of persons, whether
incorporated or not;
(27) “public” includes any class of the public or any community;
(28) “public servant” means a person falling under any of the descriptions,
namely:—
(a) every commissioned officer in the Army, Navy or Air Force;
(b) every Judge including any person empowered by law to discharge,
whether by himself or as a member of any body of persons, any adjudicatory
functions;
(c) every officer of a Court including a liquidator, receiver or commissioner
whose duty it is, as such officer, to investigate or report on any matter of law or
fact, or to make, authenticate, or keep any document, or to take charge or dispose
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of any property, or to execute any judicial process, or to administer any oath, or
to interpret, or to preserve order in the Court, and every person specially
authorised by a Court to perform any of such duties;
(d) every assessor or member of a panchayat assisting a Court or public
servant;
(e) every arbitrator or other person to whom any cause or matter has been
referred for decision or report by any Court, or by any other competent public
authority;
(f) every person who holds any office by virtue of which he is empowered
to place or keep any person in confinement;
(g) every officer of the Government whose duty it is, as such officer, to
prevent offences, to give information of offences, to bring offenders to justice,
or to protect the public health, safety or convenience;
(h) every officer whose duty it is, as such officer, to take, receive, keep or
expend any property on behalf of the Government, or to make any survey,
assessment or contract on behalf of the Government, or to execute any
revenue-process, or to investigate, or to report, on any matter affecting the
pecuniary interests of the Government, or to make, authenticate or keep any
document relating to the pecuniary interests of the Government, or to prevent
the infraction of any law for the protection of the pecuniary interests of the
Government;
(i) every officer whose duty it is, as such officer, to take, receive, keep or
expend any property, to make any survey or assessment or to levy any rate or tax
for any secular common purpose of any village, town or district, or to make,
authenticate or keep any document for the ascertaining of the rights of the
people of any village, town or district;
(j) every person who holds any office by virtue of which he is empowered
to prepare, publish, maintain or revise an electoral roll or to conduct an election
or part of an election;
(k) every person—
(i) in the service or pay of the Government or remunerated by fees or
commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government;
(ii) in the service or pay of a local authority as defined in clause (31)
of section 3 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, a corporation established by
or under a Central or State Act or a Government company as defined in
clause (45) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Explanation.—
(a) persons falling under any of the descriptions made in this clause are
public servants, whether appointed by the Government or not;
(b) every person who is in actual possession of the situation of a public
servant, whatever legal defect there may be in his right to hold that situation is
a public servant;
(c) “election” means an election for the purpose of selecting members of
any legislative, municipal or other public authority, of whatever character, the
method of selection to which is by, or under any law for the time being in force.
Illustration.
A Municipal Commissioner is a public servant;
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(29) “reason to believe”.—A person is said to have “reason to believe” a thing,
if he has sufficient cause to believe that thing but not otherwise;
(30) “special law” means a law applicable to a particular subject;
(31) “valuable security” means a document which is, or purports to be, a
document whereby any legal right is created, extended, transferred, restricted,
extinguished or released, or whereby any person acknowledges that he lies under legal
liability, or has not a certain legal right.
Illustration.
A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange. As the effect of this
endorsement is to transfer the right to the bill to any person who may become the
lawful holder of it, the endorsement is a “valuable security”;
(32) “vessel” means anything made for the conveyance by water of human
beings or of property;
(33) “voluntarily”.—A person is said to cause an effect “voluntarily” when he
causes it by means whereby he intended to cause it, or by means which, at the time of
employing those means, he knew or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it.
Illustration.
A sets fire, by night, to an inhabited house in a large town, for the purpose of
facilitating a robbery and thus causes the death of a person. Here, A may not have
intended to cause death; and may even be sorry that death has been caused by his act;
yet, if he knew that he was likely to cause death, he has caused death voluntarily;
(34) “will” means any testamentary document;
(35) “woman” means a female human being of any age;
(36) “wrongful gain” means gain by unlawful means of property to which the
person gaining is not legally entitled;
(37) “wrongful loss” means the loss by unlawful means of property to which the
person losing it is legally entitled;
(38) “gaining wrongfully” and “losing wrongfully”.—A person is said to gain
wrongfully when such person retains wrongfully, as well as when such person acquires
wrongfully. A person is said to lose wrongfully when such person is wrongfully kept out
of any property, as well as when such person is wrongfully deprived of property; and
(39) words and expressions used but not defined in this Sanhita but defined in
the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in that Act and Sanhita.
3. (1) Throughout this Sanhita every definition of an offence, every penal provision,
and every Illustration of every such definition or penal provision, shall be understood
subject to the exceptions contained in the Chapter entitled “General Exceptions”, though
those exceptions are not repeated in such definition, penal provision, or Illustration.
Illustrations.
(a) The sections in this Sanhita, which contain definitions of offences, do not express
that a child under seven years of age cannot commit such offences; but the definitions are to
be understood subject to the general exception which provides that nothing shall be an
offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
(b) A, a police officer, without warrant, apprehends Z, who has committed murder. Here
A is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement; for he was bound by law to apprehend
Z, and therefore the case falls within the general exception which provides that “nothing is
an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it”.
General
explanations.
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(2) Every expression which is explained in any Part of this Sanhita, is used in every Part
of this Sanhita in conformity with the explanation.
(3) When property is in the possession of a person’s spouse, clerk or servant, on
account of that person, it is in that person’s possession within the meaning of this Sanhita.
Explanation.—A person employed temporarily or on a particular occasion in the capacity
of a clerk or servant, is a clerk or servant within the meaning of this sub-section.
(4) In every Part of this Sanhita, except where a contrary intention appears from the
context, words which refer to acts done extend also to illegal omissions.
(5) When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common
intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done
by him alone.
(6) Whenever an act, which is criminal only by reason of its being done with a criminal
knowledge or intention, is done by several persons, each of such persons who joins in the
act with such knowledge or intention is liable for the act in the same manner as if the act were
done by him alone with that knowledge or intention.
(7) Wherever the causing of a certain effect, or an attempt to cause that effect, by an
act or by an omission, is an offence, it is to be understood that the causing of that effect
partly by an act and partly by an omission is the same offence.
Illustration.
A intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and partly
by beating Z. A has committed murder.
(8) When an offence is committed by means of several acts, whoever intentionally
cooperates in the commission of that offence by doing any one of those acts, either singly or
jointly with any other person, commits that offence.
Illustrations.
(a) A and B agree to murder Z by severally and at different times giving him small doses
of poison. A and B administer the poison according to the agreement with intent to murder Z.
Z dies from the effects the several doses of poison so administered to him. Here A and B
intentionally cooperate in the commission of murder and as each of them does an act by
which the death is caused, they are both guilty of the offence though their acts are separate.
(b) A and B are joint jailors, and as such have the charge of Z, a prisoner, alternatively
for six hours at a time. A and B, intending to cause Z’s death, knowingly cooperate in causing
that effect by illegally omitting, each during the time of his attendance, to furnish Z with food
supplied to them for that purpose. Z dies of hunger. Both A and B are guilty of the murder
of Z.
(c) A, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a prisoner. A, intending to cause Z’s death, illegally
omits to supply Z with food; in consequence of which Z is much reduced in strength, but the
starvation is not sufficient to cause his death. A is dismissed from his office, and B succeeds
him. B, without collusion or cooperation with A, illegally omits to supply Z with food,
knowing that he is likely thereby to cause Z’s death. Z dies of hunger. B is guilty of murder,
but, as A did not cooperate with B. A is guilty only of an attempt to commit murder.
(9) Where several persons are engaged or concerned in the commission of a criminal
act, they may be guilty of different offences by means of that act.
Illustration.
A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z would
be only culpable homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z and intending
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to kill him, and not having been subject to the provocation, assists A in killing Z. Here,
though A and B are both engaged in causing Z’s death, B is guilty of murder, and A is guilty
only of culpable homicide.
CHAPTER II
OF PUNISHMENTS
4. The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provisions of this Sanhita
are—
(a) Death;
(b) Imprisonment for life;
(c) Imprisonment, which is of two descriptions, namely:—
(1) Rigorous, that is, with hard labour;
(2) Simple;
(d) Forfeiture of property;
(e) Fine;
(f) Community Service.
5. The appropriate Government may, without the consent of the offender, commute
any punishment under this Sanhita to any other punishment in accordance with section 474
of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Explanation.––For the purposes of this section the expression “appropriate
Government” means,––
(a) in cases where the sentence is a sentence of death or is for an offence
against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends,
the Central Government; and
(b) in cases where the sentence (whether of death or not) is for an offence
against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends,
the Government of the State within which the offender is sentenced.
6. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be
reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for twenty years unless otherwise provided.
7. In every case in which an offender is punishable with imprisonment which may be
of either description, it shall be competent to the Court which sentences such offender to
direct in the sentence that such imprisonment shall be wholly rigorous, or that such
imprisonment shall be wholly simple, or that any part of such imprisonment shall be rigorous
and the rest simple.
8. (1) Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to
which the offender is liable is unlimited, but shall not be excessive.
(2) In every case of an offence––
(a) punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, in which the offender is
sentenced to a fine, whether with or without imprisonment;
(b) punishable with imprisonment or fine, or with fine only, in which the offender
is sentenced to a fine,
it shall be competent to the Court which sentences such offender to direct by the sentence
that, in default of payment of the fine, the offender shall suffer imprisonment for a certain
term, in which imprisonment shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which he may
have been sentenced or to which he may be liable under a commutation of a sentence.
Punishments.
Commutation
of sentence.
Fractions of
terms of
punishment.
Sentence may
be (in certain
cases of
imprisonment)
wholly or
partly rigorous
or simple.
Amount of
fine, liability
in default of
payment of
fine, etc.
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(3) The term for which the Court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of
payment of a fine shall not exceed one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the
maximum fixed for the offence, if the offence be punishable with imprisonment as well as fine.
(4) The imprisonment which the Court imposes in default of payment of a fine or in
default of community service may be of any description to which the offender might have
been sentenced for the offence.
(5) If the offence is punishable with fine or community service, the imprisonment
which the Court imposes in default of payment of the fine or in default of community service
shall be simple, and the term for which the Court directs the offender to be imprisoned, in
default of payment of fine or in default of community service, shall not exceed,—
(a) two months when the amount of the fine does not exceed five thousand
rupees;
(b) four months when the amount of the fine does not exceed ten thousand
rupees; and
(c) one year in any other case.
(6) (a) The imprisonment which is imposed in default of payment of a fine shall
terminate whenever that fine is either paid or levied by process of law;
(b) If, before the expiration of the term of imprisonment fixed in default of payment,
such a proportion of the fine be paid or levied that the term of imprisonment suffered in
default of payment is not less than proportional to the part of the fine still unpaid, the
imprisonment shall terminate.
Illustration.
A is sentenced to a fine of one thousand rupees and to four months’ imprisonment in
default of payment. Here, if seven hundred and fifty rupees of the fine be paid or levied
before the expiration of one month of the imprisonment, A will be discharged as soon as the
first month has expired. If seven hundred and fifty rupees be paid or levied at the time of the
expiration of the first month, or at any later time while A continues in imprisonment, A will be
immediately discharged. If five hundred rupees of the fine be paid or levied before the
expiration of two months of the imprisonment, A will be discharged as soon as the two
months are completed. If five hundred rupees be paid or levied at the time of the expiration of
those two months, or at any later time while A continues in imprisonment, A will be immediately
discharged.
(7) The fine, or any part thereof which remains unpaid, may be levied at any time within
six years after the passing of the sentence, and if, under the sentence, the offender be liable
to imprisonment for a longer period than six years, then at any time previous to the expiration
of that period; and the death of the offender does not discharge from the liability any
property which would, after his death, be legally liable for his debts.
9. (1) Where anything which is an offence is made up of parts, any of which parts is
itself an offence, the offender shall not be punished with the punishment of more than one of
such his offences, unless it be so expressly provided.
(2) Where—
(a) anything is an offence falling within two or more separate definitions of any
law in force for the time being by which offences are defined or punished; or
Limit of
punishment of
offence made
up of several
offences.
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(b) several acts, of which one or more than one would by itself or themselves
constitute an offence, constitute, when combined, a different offence,
the offender shall not be punished with a more severe punishment than the Court which tries
him could award for any one of such offences.
Illustrations.
(a) A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A may have committed the offence of
voluntarily causing hurt to Z by the whole beating, and also by each of the blows which
make up the whole beating. If A were liable to punishment for every blow, he might be
imprisoned for fifty years, one for each blow. But he is liable only to one punishment for the
whole beating.
(b) But, if, while A is beating Z, Y interferes, and A intentionally strikes Y, here, as the
blow given to Y is no part of the act whereby A voluntarily causes hurt to Z, A is liable to one
punishment for voluntarily causing hurt to Z, and to another for the blow given to Y.
10. In all cases in which judgment is given that a person is guilty of one of several
offences specified in the judgment, but that it is doubtful of which of these offences he is
guilty, the offender shall be punished for the offence for which the lowest punishment is
provided if the same punishment is not provided for all.
11. Whenever any person is convicted of an offence for which under this Sanhita the
Court has power to sentence him to rigorous imprisonment, the Court may, by its sentence,
order that the offender shall be kept in solitary confinement for any portion or portions of the
imprisonment to which he is sentenced, not exceeding three months in the whole, according
to the following scale, namely:—
(a) a time not exceeding one month if the term of imprisonment shall not exceed
six months;
(b) a time not exceeding two months if the term of imprisonment shall exceed six
months and shall not exceed one year;
(c) a time not exceeding three months if the term of imprisonment shall exceed
one year.
12. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement, such confinement shall in no case
exceed fourteen days at a time, with intervals between the periods of solitary confinement of
not less duration than such periods; and when the imprisonment awarded shall exceed three
months, the solitary confinement shall not exceed seven days in any one month of the whole
imprisonment awarded, with intervals between the periods of solitary confinement of not
less duration than such periods.
13. Whoever, having been convicted by a Court in India, of an offence punishable
under Chapter X or Chapter XVII of this Sanhita with imprisonment of either description for
a term of three years or upwards, shall be guilty of any offence punishable under either of
those Chapters with like imprisonment for the like term, shall be subject for every such
subsequent offence to imprisonment for life, or to imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to ten years.
CHAPTER III
GENERAL EXCEPTIONS
14. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a
mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be,
bound by law to do it.
Illustrations.
(a) A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the
commands of the law. A has committed no offence.
Punishment of
person guilty
of one of
several
offences,
judgment
stating that it
is doubtful of
which.
Limit of
solitary
confinement.
Enhanced
punishment
for certain
offences after
previous
conviction.
Act done by a
person bound,
or by mistake
of fact
believing
himself bound,
by law.
Solitary
confinement.
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(b) A, an officer of a Court, being ordered by that Court to arrest Y, and, after due
enquiry, believing Z to be Y, arrests Z. A has committed no offence.
15. Nothing is an offence which is done by a Judge when acting judicially in the
exercise of any power which is, or which in good faith he believes to be, given to him by law.
16. Nothing which is done in pursuance of, or which is warranted by the judgment or
order of, a Court; if done whilst such judgment or order remains in force, is an offence,
notwithstanding the Court may have had no jurisdiction to pass such judgment or order,
provided the person doing the act in good faith believes that the Court had such jurisdiction.
17. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who
by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith, believes
himself to be justified by law, in doing it.
Illustration.
A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in the exercise, to the best of his
judgment exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending
murderers in the fact, seizes Z, in order to bring Z before the proper authorities. A has
committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence.
18. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, and without any
criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful
means and with proper care and caution.
Illustration.
A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here,
if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an
offence.
19. Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that
it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in
good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.
Explanation.—It is a question of fact in such a case whether the harm to be prevented
or avoided was of such a nature and so imminent as to justify or excuse the risk of doing the
act with the knowledge that it was likely to cause harm.
Illustrations.
(a) A, the captain of a vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his
part, finds himself in such a position that, before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably
run down a boat B, with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course
of his vessel, and that, by changing his course, he must incur risk of running down a boat C
with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Here, if A alters his course
without any intention to run down the boat C and in good faith for the purpose of avoiding
the danger to the passengers in the boat B, he is not guilty of an offence, though he may run
down the boat C by doing an act which he knew was likely to cause that effect, if it be found
as a matter of fact that the danger which he intended to avoid was such as to excuse him in
incurring the risk of running down the boat C.
(b) A, in a great fire, pulls down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from
spreading. He does this with the intention in good faith of saving human life or property.
Here, if it be found that the harm to be prevented was of such a nature and so imminent as to
excuse A’s act, A is not guilty of the offence.
Act of Judge
when acting
judicially.
Act done
pursuant to
judgment or
order of
Court.
Act done by a
person justified,
or by mistake of
fact believing
himself justified,
by law.
Accident in
doing a lawful
act.
Act likely to
cause harm,
but done
without
criminal
intent, and to
prevent other
harm.
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20. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
21. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under
twelve years of age, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of
the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.
22. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by
reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is
doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
23. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by
reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is
either wrong, or contrary to law; provided that the thing which intoxicated him was
administered to him without his knowledge or against his will.
24. In cases where an act done is not an offence unless done with a particular knowledge
or intent, a person who does the act in a state of intoxication shall be liable to be dealt with
as if he had the same knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated, unless
the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against
his will.
25. Nothing which is not intended to cause death, or grievous hurt, and which is not
known by the doer to be likely to cause death or grievous hurt, is an offence by reason of any
harm which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause, to any person, above eighteen
years of age, who has given consent, whether express or implied, to suffer that harm; or by
reason of any harm which it may be known by the doer to be likely to cause to any such
person who has consented to take the risk of that harm.
Illustration.
A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the
consent of each to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused
without foul play; and if A, while playing fairly, hurts Z, A commits no offence.
26. Nothing, which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by reason of any harm
which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause, or be known by the doer to be likely
to cause, to any person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, and who has given a
consent, whether express or implied, to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.
Illustration.
A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of Z, who
suffers under the painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, and intending, in
good faith, Z’s benefit, performs that operation on Z, with Z’s consent. A has committed no
offence.
27. Nothing which is done in good faith for the benefit of a person under twelve years
of age, or person of unsound mind, by, or by consent, either express or implied, of the
guardian or other person having lawful charge of that person, is an offence by reason of any
harm which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause or be known by the doer to be
likely to cause to that person:
Provided that this exception shall not extend to––
(a) the intentional causing of death, or to the attempting to cause death;
(b) the doing of anything which the person doing it knows to be likely to cause
Act of a child
above seven
and under
twelve years
of age of
immature
understanding.
Act of a
person of
unsound mind.
Act of a person
incapable of
judgment by
reason of
intoxication
caused against
his will.
Offence
requiring a
particular
intent or
knowledge
committed by
one who is
intoxicated.
Act not
intended and
not known to
be likely to
cause death or
grievous hurt,
done by
consent.
Act not
intended to
cause death,
done by
consent in
good faith for
person's
benefit.
Act done in
good faith for
benefit of
child or
person of
unsound mind,
by, or by
consent of
guardian.
Act of a child
under seven
years of age.
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death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the
curing of any grievous disease or infirmity;
(c) the voluntary causing of grievous hurt, or to the attempting to cause grievous
hurt, unless it be for the purpose of preventing death or grievous hurt, or the curing of
any grievous disease or infirmity;
(d) the abetment of any offence, to the committing of which offence it would not
extend.
Illustration.
A, in good faith, for his child’s benefit without his child’s consent, has his child cut for
the stone by a surgeon knowing it to be likely that the operation will cause the child’s death,
but not intending to cause the child’s death. A is within the exception, in as much as his
object was the cure of the child.
28. A consent is not such a consent as is intended by any section of this Sanhita,––
(a) if the consent is given by a person under fear of injury, or under a misconception
of fact, and if the person doing the act knows, or has reason to believe, that the
consent was given in consequence of such fear or misconception; or
(b) if the consent is given by a person who, from unsoundness of mind, or
intoxication, is unable to understand the nature and consequence of that to which he
gives his consent; or
(c) unless the contrary appears from the context, if the consent is given by a
person who is under twelve years of age.
29. The exceptions in sections 25, 26 and 27 do not extend to acts which are offences
independently of any harm which they may cause, or be intended to cause, or be known to
be likely to cause, to the person giving the consent, or on whose behalf the consent is given.
Illustration.
Causing miscarriage (unless caused in good faith for the purpose of saving the life of the
woman) is an offence independently of any harm which it may cause or be intended to cause to
the woman. Therefore, it is not an offence “by reason of such harm”; and the consent of the
woman or of her guardian to the causing of such miscarriage does not justify the act.
30. Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for
whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person’s consent, if the circumstances
are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent, or if that person is incapable
of giving consent, and has no guardian or other person in lawful charge of him from whom it
is possible to obtain consent in time for the thing to be done with benefit:
Provided that this exception shall not extend to––
(a) the intentional causing of death, or the attempting to cause death;
(b) the doing of anything which the person doing it knows to be likely to cause
death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the
curing of any grievous disease or infirmity;
(c) the voluntary causing of hurt, or to the attempting to cause hurt, for any
purpose other than the preventing of death or hurt;
(d) the abetment of any offence, to the committing of which offence it would not
extend.
Illustrations.
(1) Z is thrown from his horse, and is insensible. A, a surgeon, finds that Z requires to
Consent
known to be
given under
fear or
misconception.
Exclusion of
acts which are
offences
independently
of harm
caused.
Act done in
good faith for
benefit of a
person
without
consent.
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be trepanned. A, not intending Z’s death, but in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the
trepan before Z recovers his power of judging for himself. A has committed no offence.
(2) Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may
kill Z, but not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a
mortal wound. A has committed no offence.
(3) A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident which is likely to prove fatal unless an
operation be immediately performed. There is no time to apply to the child’s guardian. A
performs the operation in spite of the entreaties of the child, intending, in good faith, the
child’s benefit. A has committed no offence.
(4) A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A
drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child, but
not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, the child’s benefit. Here, even if
the child is killed by the fall, A has committed no offence.
Explanation.—Mere pecuniary benefit is not benefit within the meaning of
sections 26, 27 and this section.
31. No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the
person to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.
Illustration.
A, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live.
The patient dies in consequence of the shock. A has committed no offence, though he knew
it to be likely that the communication might cause the patient’s death.
32. Except murder, and offences against the State punishable with death, nothing is an
offence which is done by a person who is compelled to do it by threats, which, at the time of
doing it, reasonably cause the apprehension that instant death to that person will otherwise
be the consequence:
Provided that the person doing the act did not of his own accord, or from a reasonable
apprehension of harm to himself short of instant death, place himself in the situation by
which he became subject to such constraint.
Explanation 1.—A person who, of his own accord, or by reason of a threat of being
beaten, joins a gang of dacoits, knowing their character, is not entitled to the benefit of this
exception, on the ground of his having been compelled by his associates to do anything that
is an offence by law.
Explanation 2.—A person seized by a gang of dacoits, and forced, by threat of instant
death, to do a thing which is an offence by law; for example, a smith compelled to take his
tools and to force the door of a house for the dacoits to enter and plunder it, is entitled to the
benefit of this exception.
33. Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or
that it is known to be likely to cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of
ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm.
Of right of private defence
34. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
35. Every person has a right, subject to the restrictions contained in section 37, to
defend—
(a) his own body, and the body of any other person, against any offence affecting
the human body;
(b) the property, whether movable or immovable, of himself or of any other
Communication
made in good
faith.
Act to which a
person is
compelled by
threats.
Act causing
slight harm.
Things done
in private
defence.
Right of
private
defence of
body and of
property.
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person, against any act which is an offence falling under the definition of theft, robbery,
mischief or criminal trespass, or which is an attempt to commit theft, robbery, mischief
or criminal trespass.
36. When an act, which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by
reason of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the
intoxication of the person doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of
that person, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he
would have if the act were that offence.
Illustrations.
(a) Z, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill A; Z is guilty of no offence. But A has
the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane.
(b) A enters by night a house which he is legally entitled to enter. Z, in good faith,
taking A for a house-breaker, attacks A. Here Z, by attacking A under this misconception,
commits no offence. But A has the same right of private defence against Z, which he would
have if Z were not acting under that misconception.
37. (1) There is no right of private defence,––
(a) against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death
or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by a public servant acting in good
faith under colour of his office, though that act, may not be strictly justifiable by law;
(b) against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death
or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by the direction of a public
servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though that direction may not
be strictly justifiable by law;
(c) in cases in which there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public
authorities.
(2) The right of private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm than
it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence.
Explanation 1.—A person is not deprived of the right of private defence against an act
done, or attempted to be done, by a public servant, as such, unless he knows or has reason
to believe, that the person doing the act is such public servant.
Explanation 2.—A person is not deprived of the right of private defence against an act
done, or attempted to be done, by the direction of a public servant, unless he knows, or has
reason to believe, that the person doing the act is acting by such direction, or unless such
person states the authority under which he acts, or if he has authority in writing, unless he
produces such authority, if demanded.
38. The right of private defence of the body extends, under the restrictions specified in
section 37, to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assailant, if the
offence which occasions the exercise of the right be of any of the descriptions hereinafter
enumerated, namely:—
(a) such an assault as may reasonably cause the apprehension that death will
otherwise be the consequence of such assault;
(b) such an assault as may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous
hurt will otherwise be the consequence of such assault;
(c) an assault with the intention of committing rape;
(d) an assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust;
(e) an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting;
Right of
private
defence
against act of
a person of
unsound mind,
etc.
Acts against
which there is
no right of
private
defence.
When right of
private
defence of
body extends
to causing
death.
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(f) an assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person, under
circumstances which may reasonably cause him to apprehend that he will be unable to
have recourse to the public authorities for his release;
(g) an act of throwing or administering acid or an attempt to throw or administer
acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise
be the consequence of such act.
39. If the offence be not of any of the descriptions specified in section 38, the right of
private defence of the body does not extend to the voluntary causing of death to the
assailant, but does extend, under the restrictions specified in section 37, to the voluntary
causing to the assailant of any harm other than death.
40. The right of private defence of the body commences as soon as a reasonable
apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence
though the offence may not have been committed; and it continues as long as such
apprehension of danger to the body continues.
41. The right of private defence of property extends, under the restrictions specified in
section 37, to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer, if the
offence, the committing of which, or the attempting to commit which, occasions the exercise
of the right, be an offence of any of the descriptions hereinafter enumerated, namely:—
(a) robbery;
(b) house-breaking after sunset and before sunrise;
(c) mischief by fire or any explosive substance committed on any building, tent
or vessel, which building, tent or vessel is used as a human dwelling, or as a place for
the custody of property;
(d) theft, mischief, or house-trespass, under such circumstances as may
reasonably cause apprehension that death or grievous hurt will be the consequence,
if such right of private defence is not exercised.
42. If the offence, the committing of which, or the attempting to commit which occasions
the exercise of the right of private defence, be theft, mischief, or criminal trespass, not of any
of the descriptions specified in section 41, that right does not extend to the voluntary
causing of death, but does extend, subject to the restrictions specified in section 37, to the
voluntary causing to the wrong-doer of any harm other than death.
43. The right of private defence of property,––
(a) commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property
commences;
(b) against theft continues till the offender has effected his retreat with the
property or either the assistance of the public authorities is obtained, or the property
has been recovered;
(c) against robbery continues as long as the offender causes or attempts to
cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint or as long as the fear of instant
death or of instant hurt or of instant personal restraint continues;
(d) against criminal trespass or mischief continues as long as the offender
continues in the commission of criminal trespass or mischief;
(e) against house-breaking after sunset and before sunrise continues as long as
the house-trespass which has been begun by such house-breaking continues.
44. If in the exercise of the right of private defence against an assault which reasonably
causes the apprehension of death, the defender be so situated that he cannot effectually
When such
right extends
to causing any
harm other
than death.
Commencement
and
continuance of
right of private
defence of
body.
When right of
private
defence of
property
extends to
causing death.
When such
right extends
to causing any
harm other
than death.
Commencement
and
continuance
of right of
private
defence of
property.
Right of private
defence against
deadly assault
when there is
risk of harm to
innocent person.
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exercise that right without risk of harm to an innocent person, his right of private defence
extends to the running of that risk.
Illustration.
A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his
right of private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming
young children who are mingled with the mob. A commits no offence if by so firing he harms
any of the children.
CHAPTER IV
OF ABETMENT, CRIMINAL CONSPIRACY AND ATTEMPT
of abetment
45. A person abets the doing of a thing, who—
(a) instigates any person to do that thing; or
(b) engages with one or more other person or persons in any conspiracy for the
doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that
conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing; or
(c) intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.
Explanation 1.—A person who, by wilful misrepresentation, or by wilful concealment
of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts
to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing.
Illustration.
A, a public officer, is authorised by a warrant from a Court to apprehend Z. B, knowing
that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A that C is Z, and thereby intentionally
causes A to apprehend C. Here B abets by instigation the apprehension of C.
Explanation 2.—Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act,
does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the
commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.
46. A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the
commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of
committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
Explanation 1.—The abetment of the illegal omission of an act may amount to an
offence although the abettor may not himself be bound to do that act.
Explanation 2.—To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act
abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be
caused.
Illustrations.
(a) A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of abetting B to commit
murder.
(b) A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers
from the wound. A is guilty of instigating B to commit murder.
Explanation 3.—It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law
of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as
that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge.
Abetment of a
thing.
Abettor.
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Illustrations.
(a) A, with a guilty intention, abets a child or a person of unsound mind to commit an
act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an
offence, and having the same intention as A. Here A, whether the act be committed or not, is
guilty of abetting an offence.
(b) A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B, a child under seven years of age,
to do an act which causes Z’s death. B, in consequence of the abetment, does the act in the
absence of A and thereby causes Z’s death. Here, though B was not capable by law of
committing an offence, A is liable to be punished in the same manner as if B had been capable
by law of committing an offence, and had committed murder, and he is therefore subject to
the punishment of death.
(c) A instigates B to set fire to a dwelling-house. B, in consequence of his unsoundness
of mind, being incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is wrong
or contrary to law, sets fire to the house in consequence of A’s instigation. B has committed
no offence, but A is guilty of abetting the offence of setting fire to a dwelling-house, and is
liable to the punishment provided for that offence.
(d) A, intending to cause a theft to be committed, instigates B to take property belonging
to Z out of Z’s possession. A induces B to believe that the property belongs to A. B takes the
property out of Z’s possession, in good faith, believing it to be A’s property. B, acting under
this misconception, does not take dishonestly, and therefore does not commit theft. But A is
guilty of abetting theft, and is liable to the same punishment as if B had committed theft.
Explanation 4.—The abetment of an offence being an offence, the abetment of such
an abetment is also an offence.
Illustration.
A instigates B to instigate C to murder Z. B accordingly instigates C to murder Z, and
C commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation. B is liable to be punished for his
offence with the punishment for murder; and, as A instigated B to commit the offence, A is
also liable to the same punishment.
Explanation 5.—It is not necessary to the commission of the offence of abetment by
conspiracy that the abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it. It is
sufficient if he engages in the conspiracy in pursuance of which the offence is committed.
Illustration.
A concerts with B a plan for poisoning Z. It is agreed that A shall administer the poison.
B then explains the plan to C mentioning that a third person is to administer the poison, but
without mentioning A’s name. C agrees to procure the poison, and procures and delivers it to
B for the purpose of its being used in the manner explained. A administers the poison; Z dies
in consequence. Here, though A and C have not conspired together, yet C has been engaged
in the conspiracy in pursuance of which Z has been murdered. C has therefore committed the
offence defined in this section and is liable to the punishment for murder.
47. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Sanhita who, in India, abets
the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if
committed in India.
Illustration.
A, in India, instigates B, a foreigner in country X, to commit a murder in that country,
A is guilty of abetting murder.
48. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Sanhita who, without and
beyond India, abets the commission of any act in India which would constitute an offence if
committed in India.
Abetment in
India of
offences
outside India.
Abetment
outside India
for offence in
India.
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Illustration.
A, in country X, instigates B, to commit a murder in India, A is guilty of abetting murder.
49. Whoever abets any offence shall, if the act abetted is committed in consequence of
the abetment, and no express provision is made by this Sanhita for the punishment of such
abetment, be punished with the punishment provided for the offence.
Explanation.—An act or offence is said to be committed in consequence of abetment,
when it is committed in consequence of the instigation, or in pursuance of the conspiracy, or
with the aid which constitutes the abetment.
Illustrations.
(a) A instigates B to give false evidence. B, in consequence of the instigation, commits
that offence. A is guilty of abetting that offence, and is liable to the same punishment as B.
(b) A and B conspire to poison Z. A, in pursuance of the conspiracy, procures the
poison and delivers it to B in order that he may administer it to Z. B, in pursuance of the
conspiracy, administers the poison to Z in A’s absence and thereby causes Z’s death. Here
B is guilty of murder. A is guilty of abetting that offence by conspiracy, and is liable to the
punishment for murder.
50. Whoever abets the commission of an offence shall, if the person abetted does the
act with a different intention or knowledge from that of the abettor, be punished with the
punishment provided for the offence which would have been committed if the act had been
done with the intention or knowledge of the abettor and with no other.
51. When an act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act
done, in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had directly abetted it:
Provided that the act done was a probable consequence of the abetment, and was
committed under the influence of the instigation, or with the aid or in pursuance of the
conspiracy which constituted the abetment.
Illustrations.
(a) A instigates a child to put poison into the food of Z, and gives him poison for that
purpose. The child, in consequence of the instigation, by mistake puts the poison into the
food of Y, which is by the side of that of Z. Here, if the child was acting under the influence
of A’s instigation, and the act done was under the circumstances a probable consequence of
the abetment, A is liable in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had instigated the
child to put the poison into the food of Y.
(b) A instigates B to burn Z’s house, B sets fire to the house and at the same time
commits theft of property there. A, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not
guilty of abetting the theft; for the theft was a distinct act, and not a probable consequence
of the burning.
(c) A instigates B and C to break into an inhabited house at midnight for the purpose of
robbery, and provides them with arms for that purpose. B and C break into the house, and
being resisted by Z, one of the inmates, murder Z. Here, if that murder was the probable
consequence of the abetment, A is liable to the punishment provided for murder.
52. If the act for which the abettor is liable under section 51 is committed in addition to
the act abetted, and constitute a distinct offence, the abettor is liable to punishment for each
of the offences.
Punishment of
abetment if
act abetted is
committed in
consequence
and where no
express
provision is
made for its
punishment.
Punishment of
abetment if
person abetted
does act with
different
intention
from that of
abettor.
Liability of
abettor when
one act
abetted and
different act
done.
Abettor when
liable to
cumulative
punishment
for act abetted
and for act
done.
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Illustration.
A instigates B to resist by force a distress made by a public servant. B, in consequence,
resists that distress. In offering the resistance, B voluntarily causes grievous hurt to the
officer executing the distress. As B has committed both the offence of resisting the distress,
and the offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt, B is liable to punishment for both these
offences; and, if A knew that B was likely voluntarily to cause grievous hurt in resisting the
distress, A will also be liable to punishment for each of the offences.
53. When an act is abetted with the intention on the part of the abettor of causing a
particular effect, and an act for which the abettor is liable in consequence of the abetment,
causes a different effect from that intended by the abettor, the abettor is liable for the effect
caused, in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had abetted the act with the
intention of causing that effect, provided he knew that the act abetted was likely to cause
that effect.
Illustration.
A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B, in consequence of the instigation,
causes grievous hurt to Z. Z dies in consequence. Here, if A knew that the grievous hurt
abetted was likely to cause death, A is liable to be punished with the punishment provided
for murder.
54. Whenever any person, who is absent would be liable to be punished as an abettor,
is present when the act or offence for which he would be punishable in consequence of the
abetment is committed, he shall be deemed to have committed such act or offence.
55. Whoever abets the commission of an offence punishable with death or
imprisonment for life, shall, if that offence be not committed in consequence of the abetment,
and no express provision is made under this Sanhita for the punishment of such abetment, be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, and shall also be liable to fine; and if any act for which the abettor is liable in consequence
of the abetment, and which causes hurt to any person, is done, the abettor shall be liable to
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to fourteen years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
Illustration.
A instigates B to murder Z. The offence is not committed. If B had murdered Z, he
would have been subject to the punishment of death or imprisonment for life. Therefore, A is
liable to imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and also to a fine; and if
any hurt be done to Z in consequence of the abetment, he will be liable to imprisonment for
a term which may extend to fourteen years, and to fine.
56. Whoever abets an offence punishable with imprisonment shall, if that offence be
not committed in consequence of the abetment, and no express provision is made under this
Sanhita for the punishment of such abetment, be punished with imprisonment of any
description provided for that offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the
longest term provided for that offence; or with such fine as is provided for that offence, or
with both; and if the abettor or the person abetted is a public servant, whose duty it is to
prevent the commission of such offence, the abettor shall be punished with imprisonment of
any description provided for that offence, for a term which may extend to one-half of the
longest term provided for that offence, or with such fine as is provided for the offence, or
with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A instigates B to give false evidence. Here, if B does not give false evidence, A has
nevertheless committed the offence defined in this section, and is punishable accordingly.
Liability of
abettor for an
effect caused
by act abetted
different from
that intended
by abettor.
Abettor
present when
offence is
committed.
Abetment of
offence
punishable
with death or
imprisonment
for life.
Abetment of
offence
punishable
with
imprisonment.
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(b) A, a police officer, whose duty it is to prevent robbery, abets the commission of
robbery. Here, though the robbery be not committed, A is liable to one-half of the longest
term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
(c) B abets the commission of a robbery by A, a police officer, whose duty it is to
prevent that offence. Here, though the robbery be not committed, B is liable to one-half of the
longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence of robbery, and also to fine.
57. Whoever abets the commission of an offence by the public generally or by any
number or class of persons exceeding ten, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years and with fine.
Illustration.
A affixes in a public place a placard instigating a sect consisting of more than ten
members to meet at a certain time and place, for the purpose of attacking the members of an
adverse sect, while engaged in a procession. A has committed the offence defined in this
section.
58. Whoever intending to facilitate or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby
facilitate the commission of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life,
voluntarily conceals by any act or omission, or by the use of encryption or any other
information hiding tool, the existence of a design to commit such offence or makes any
representation which he knows to be false respecting such design shall,––
(a) if that offence be committed, be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years; or
(b) if the offence be not committed, with imprisonment of either description, for
a term which may extend to three years,
and shall also be liable to fine.
Illustration.
A, knowing that dacoity is about to be committed at B, falsely informs the Magistrate
that a dacoity is about to be committed at C, a place in an opposite direction, and thereby
misleads the Magistrate with intent to facilitate the commission of the offence. The dacoity
is committed at B in pursuance of the design. A is punishable under this section.
59. Whoever, being a public servant, intending to facilitate or knowing it to be likely
that he will thereby facilitate the commission of an offence which it is his duty as such public
servant to prevent, voluntarily conceals, by any act or omission or by the use of encryption
or any other information hiding tool, the existence of a design to commit such offence, or
makes any representation which he knows to be false respecting such design shall,––
(a) if the offence be committed, be punished with imprisonment of any description
provided for the offence, for a term which may extend to one-half of the longest term of
such imprisonment, or with such fine as is provided for that offence, or with both; or
(b) if the offence be punishable with death or imprisonment for life, with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years; or
(c) if the offence be not committed, shall be punished with imprisonment of any
description provided for the offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of
the longest term of such imprisonment or with such fine as is provided for the offence,
or with both.
Illustration.
A, an officer of police, being legally bound to give information of all designs to commit
robbery which may come to his knowledge, and knowing that B designs to commit robbery,
omits to give such information, with intent to so facilitate the commission of that offence.
Abetting
commission of
offence by
public or by
more than ten
persons.
Concealing
design to
commit
offence
punishable
with death or
imprisonment
for life.
Public servant
concealing
design to
commit
offence which
it is his duty
to prevent.
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Here A has by an illegal omission concealed the existence of B’s design, and is liable to
punishment according to the provision of this section.
60. Whoever, intending to facilitate or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby
facilitate the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment, voluntarily conceals,
by any act or illegal omission, the existence of a design to commit such offence, or makes any
representation which he knows to be false respecting such design shall,––
(a) if the offence be committed, be punished with imprisonment of the description
provided for the offence, for a term which may extend to one-fourth; and
(b) if the offence be not committed, to one-eighth,
of the longest term of such imprisonment, or with such fine as is provided for the offence, or
with both.
Of criminal conspiracy
61. (1) When two or more persons agree with the common object to do, or cause to be
done––
(a) an illegal act; or
(b) an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated
a criminal conspiracy:
Provided that no agreement except an agreement to commit an offence shall amount to
a criminal conspiracy unless some act besides the agreement is done by one or more parties
to such agreement in pursuance thereof.
Explanation.—It is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of such
agreement, or is merely incidental to that object.
(2) Whoever is a party to a criminal conspiracy,––
(a) to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or rigorous
imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, shall, where no express provision is
made in this Sanhita for the punishment of such a conspiracy, be punished in the same
manner as if he had abetted such offence;
(b) other than a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable as aforesaid
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding six
months, or with fine or with both.
Of attempt
62. Whoever attempts to commit an offence punishable by this Sanhita with
imprisonment for life or imprisonment, or to cause such an offence to be committed, and in
such attempt does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall, where no express
provision is made by this Sanhita for the punishment of such attempt, be punished with
imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may extend to
one-half of the imprisonment for life or, as the case may be, one-half of the longest term of
imprisonment provided for that offence, or with such fine as is provided for the offence, or
with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds after so
opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. He has done an act towards the commission of
theft, and therefore is guilty under this section.
(b) A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Z’s pocket. A
fails in the attempt in consequence of Z’s having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty under this
section.
Concealing
design to
commit
offence
punishable
with
imprisonment.
Criminal
conspiracy.
Punishment for
attempting to
commit
offences
punishable with
imprisonment
for life or
other
imprisonment.
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CHAPTER V
OF OFFENCES AGAINST WOMAN AND CHILD
Of sexual offences
63. A man is said to commit “rape” if he—
(a) penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of
a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person; or
(b) inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being the penis,
into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any
other person; or
(c) manipulates any part of the body of a woman so as to cause penetration into
the vagina, urethra, anus or any part of body of such woman or makes her to do so with
him or any other person; or
(d) applies his mouth to the vagina, anus, urethra of a woman or makes her to do
so with him or any other person,
under the circumstances falling under any of the following seven descriptions:—
(i) against her will;
(ii) without her consent;
(iii) with her consent, when her consent has been obtained by putting her or
any person in whom she is interested, in fear of death or of hurt;
(iv) with her consent, when the man knows that he is not her husband and that
her consent is given because she believes that he is another man to whom she is or
believes herself to be lawfully married;
(v) with her consent when, at the time of giving such consent, by reason of
unsoundness of mind or intoxication or the administration by him personally or through
another of any stupefying or unwholesome substance, she is unable to understand
the nature and consequences of that to which she gives consent;
(vi) with or without her consent, when she is under eighteen years of age;
(vii) when she is unable to communicate consent.
Explanation 1.—For the purposes of this section, “vagina” shall also include labia
majora.
Explanation 2.—Consent means an unequivocal voluntary agreement when the woman
by words, gestures or any form of verbal or non-verbal communication, communicates
willingness to participate in the specific sexual act:
Provided that a woman who does not physically resist to the act of penetration shall
not by the reason only of that fact, be regarded as consenting to the sexual activity.
Exception 1.––A medical procedure or intervention shall not constitute rape.
Exception 2.––Sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his own wife, the wife
not being under eighteen years of age, is not rape.
64. (1) Whoever, except in the cases provided for in sub-section (2), commits rape,
shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not
be less than ten years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable
to fine.
(2) Whoever,—
(a) being a police officer, commits rape,—
Rape.
Punishment
for rape.
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(i) within the limits of the police station to which such police officer is
appointed; or
(ii) in the premises of any station house; or
(iii) on a woman in such police officer’s custody or in the custody of a
police officer subordinate to such police officer; or
(b) being a public servant, commits rape on a woman in such public servant’s
custody or in the custody of a public servant subordinate to such public servant; or
(c) being a member of the armed forces deployed in an area by the Central
Government or a State Government commits rape in such area; or
(d) being on the management or on the staff of a jail, remand home or other place
of custody established by or under any law for the time being in force or of a women’s
or children’s institution, commits rape on any inmate of such jail, remand home, place
or institution; or
(e) being on the management or on the staff of a hospital, commits rape on a
woman in that hospital; or
(f) being a relative, guardian or teacher of, or a person in a position of trust or
authority towards the woman, commits rape on such woman; or
(g) commits rape during communal or sectarian violence; or
(h) commits rape on a woman knowing her to be pregnant; or
(i) commits rape, on a woman incapable of giving consent; or
(j) being in a position of control or dominance over a woman, commits rape on
such woman; or
(k) commits rape on a woman suffering from mental or physical disability; or
(l) while committing rape causes grievous bodily harm or maims or disfigures or
endangers the life of a woman; or
(m) commits rape repeatedly on the same woman,
shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten
years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the
remainder of that person’s natural life, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—
(a) “armed forces” means the naval, army and air forces and includes any member
of the Armed Forces constituted under any law for the time being in force, including
the paramilitary forces and any auxiliary forces that are under the control of the Central
Government or the State Government;
(b) “hospital” means the precincts of the hospital and includes the precincts of
any institution for the reception and treatment of persons during convalescence or of
persons requiring medical attention or rehabilitation;
(c) “police officer” shall have the same meaning as assigned to the expression
“police” under the Police Act, 1861;
(d) “women’s or children’s institution” means an institution, whether called an
orphanage or a home for neglected women or children or a widow’s home or an
institution called by any other name, which is established and maintained for the
reception and care of women or children.
5 of 1861.
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65. (1) Whoever, commits rape on a woman under sixteen years of age shall be
punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years,
but which may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the
remainder of that person’s natural life, and shall also be liable to fine:
Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim:
Provided further that any fine imposed under this sub-section shall be paid to the
victim.
(2) Whoever, commits rape on a woman under twelve years of age shall be punished
with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years, but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that
person’s natural life, and with fine or with death:
Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim:
Provided further that any fine imposed under this sub-section shall be paid to the
victim.
66. Whoever, commits an offence punishable under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)
of section 64 and in the course of such commission inflicts an injury which causes the death
of the woman or causes the woman to be in a persistent vegetative state, shall be punished
with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years, but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that
person’s natural life, or with death.
67. Whoever has sexual intercourse with his own wife, who is living separately, whether
under a decree of separation or otherwise, without her consent, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than two years but
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—In this section, “sexual intercourse” shall mean any of the acts mentioned
in clauses (a) to (d) of section 63.
68. Whoever, being—
(a) in a position of authority or in a fiduciary relationship; or
(b) a public servant; or
(c) superintendent or manager of a jail, remand home or other place of custody
established by or under any law for the time being in force, or a women’s or children’s
institution; or
(d) on the management of a hospital or being on the staff of a hospital,
abuses such position or fiduciary relationship to induce or seduce any woman either in his
custody or under his charge or present in the premises to have sexual intercourse with him,
such sexual intercourse not amounting to the offence of rape, shall be punished with rigorous
imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than five years, but
which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation 1.—In this section, “sexual intercourse” shall mean any of the acts
mentioned in clauses (a) to (d) of section 63.
Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this section, Explanation 1 to section 63 shall
also be applicable.
Explanation 3.—“Superintendent”, in relation to a jail, remand home or other place of
custody or a women’s or children’s institution, includes a person holding any other office in
such jail, remand home, place or institution by virtue of which such person can exercise any
authority or control over its inmates.
Punishment
for rape in
certain cases.
Punishment for
causing death
or resulting in
persistent
vegetative
state of victim.
Sexual
intercourse by
husband upon
his wife during
separation.
Sexual
intercourse by
a person in
authority.
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Explanation 4.—The expressions “hospital” and “women’s or children’s institution”
shall respectively have the same meanings as in clauses (b) and (d) of the Explanation to
sub-section (2) of section 64.
69. Whoever, by deceitful means or by making promise to marry to a woman without
any intention of fulfilling the same, has sexual intercourse with her, such sexual intercourse
not amounting to the offence of rape, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—“deceitful means” shall include inducement for, or false promise of
employment or promotion, or marrying by suppressing identity.
70. (1) Where a woman is raped by one or more persons constituting a group or acting
in furtherance of a common intention, each of those persons shall be deemed to have committed
the offence of rape and shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life which shall
mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and with fine:
Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim:
Provided further that any fine imposed under this sub-section shall be paid to the
victim.
(2) Where a woman under eighteen years of age is raped by one or more persons
constituting a group or acting in furtherance of a common intention, each of those persons
shall be deemed to have committed the offence of rape and shall be punished with
imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s
natural life, and with fine, or with death:
Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim:
Provided further that any fine imposed under this sub-section shall be paid to the
victim.
71. Whoever has been previously convicted of an offence punishable under
section 64 or section 65 or section 66 or section 70 and is subsequently convicted of an
offence punishable under any of the said sections shall be punished with imprisonment for
life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, or with
death.
72. (1) Whoever prints or publishes the name or any matter which may make known
the identity of any person against whom an offence under section 64 or section 65 or
section 66 or section 67 or section 68 or section 69 or section 70 or section 71 is alleged or
found to have been committed (hereafter in this section referred to as the victim) shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years
and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Nothing in sub-section (1) extends to any printing or publication of the name or
any matter which may make known the identity of the victim if such printing or publication
is—
(a) by or under the order in writing of the officer-in-charge of the police station
or the police officer making the investigation into such offence acting in good faith for
the purposes of such investigation; or
(b) by, or with the authorisation in writing of, the victim; or
(c) where the victim is dead or a child or of unsound mind, by, or with the
authorisation in writing of, the next of kin of the victim:
Provided that no such authorisation shall be given by the next of kin to anybody other
than the chairman or the secretary, by whatever name called, of any recognised welfare
institution or organisation.
Sexual
intercourse
by employing
deceitful
means, etc.
Gang rape.
Punishment
for repeat
offenders.
Disclosure of
identity of
victim of
certain
offences, etc.
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Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, “recognised welfare institution
or organisation” means a social welfare institution or organisation recognised in this behalf
by the Central Government or the State Government.
73. Whoever prints or publishes any matter in relation to any proceeding before a
Court with respect to an offence referred to in section 72 without the previous permission of
such Court shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to two years and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—The printing or publication of the judgment of any High Court or the
Supreme Court does not amount to an offence within the meaning of this section.
Of criminal force and assault against woman
74. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any woman, intending to outrage or
knowing it to be likely that he will thereby outrage her modesty, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year but which
may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
75. (1) A man committing any of the following acts:—
(i) physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual
overtures; or
(ii) a demand or request for sexual favours; or
(iii) showing pornography against the will of a woman; or
(iv) making sexually coloured remarks,
shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment.
(2) Any man who commits the offence specified in clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iii)
of sub-section (1) shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend
to three years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Any man who commits the offence specified in clause (iv) of sub-section (1) shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year,
or with fine, or with both.
76. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any woman or abets such act with the
intention of disrobing or compelling her to be naked, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which shall not be less than three years but which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
77. Whoever watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in
circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed either
by the perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator or disseminates
such image shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for
a term which shall not be less than one year, but which may extend to three years, and shall
also be liable to fine, and be punished on a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment
of either description for a term which shall not be less than three years, but which may extend
to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation 1.—For the purposes of this section, “private act” includes an act of
watching carried out in a place which, in the circumstances, would reasonably be expected to
provide privacy and where the victim’s genitals, posterior or breasts are exposed or covered
only in underwear; or the victim is using a lavatory; or the victim is doing a sexual act that is
not of a kind ordinarily done in public.
Assault or use
of criminal
force to
woman with
intent to
outrage her
modesty.
Sexual
harassment.
Assault or use
of criminal
force to
woman with
intent to
disrobe.
Voyeurism.
Printing or
publishing any
matter
relating to
Court
proceedings
without
permission.
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Explanation 2.—Where the victim consents to the capture of the images or any act,
but not to their dissemination to third persons and where such image or act is disseminated,
such dissemination shall be considered an offence under this section.
78. (1) Any man who—
(i) follows a woman and contacts, or attempts to contact such woman to foster
personal interaction repeatedly despite a clear indication of disinterest by such woman; or
(ii) monitors the use by a woman of the internet, e-mail or any other form of
electronic communication,
commits the offence of stalking:
Provided that such conduct shall not amount to stalking if the man who pursued it
proves that—
(i) it was pursued for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime and the man
accused of stalking had been entrusted with the responsibility of prevention and
detection of crime by the State; or
(ii) it was pursued under any law or to comply with any condition or requirement
imposed by any person under any law; or
(iii) in the particular circumstances such conduct was reasonable and justified.
(2) Whoever commits the offence of stalking shall be punished on first conviction with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also
be liable to fine; and be punished on a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
79. Whoever, intending to insult the modesty of any woman, utters any words, makes
any sound or gesture, or exhibits any object in any form, intending that such word or sound
shall be heard, or that such gesture or object shall be seen, by such woman, or intrudes upon
the privacy of such woman, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to three years, and also with fine.
Of offences relating to marriage
80. (1) Where the death of a woman is caused by any burns or bodily injury or occurs
otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage and it is
shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband
or any relative of her husband for, or in connection with, any demand for dowry, such death
shall be called “dowry death”, and such husband or relative shall be deemed to have caused
her death.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, “dowry” shall have the same
meaning as in section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
(2) Whoever commits dowry death shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.
81. Every man who by deceit causes any woman who is not lawfully married to him to
believe that she is lawfully married to him and to cohabit or have sexual intercourse with him
in that belief, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
82. (1) Whoever, having a husband or wife living, marries in any case in which such
marriage is void by reason of its taking place during the life of such husband or wife, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Exception.—This sub-section does not extend to any person whose marriage with
such husband or wife has been declared void by a Court of competent jurisdiction, nor to
any person who contracts a marriage during the life of a former husband or wife, if such
husband or wife, at the time of the subsequent marriage, shall have been continually absent
Stalking.
Word, gesture
or act
intended to
insult modesty
of a woman.
Dowry death.
Cohabitation
caused by man
deceitfully
inducing
belief of lawful
marriage.
Marrying
again during
lifetime of
husband or
wife.
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from such person for the space of seven years, and shall not have been heard of by such
person as being alive within that time provided the person contracting such subsequent
marriage shall, before such marriage takes place, inform the person with whom such marriage
is contracted of the real state of facts so far as the same are within his or her knowledge.
(2) Whoever commits the offence under sub-section (1) having concealed from the
person with whom the subsequent marriage is contracted, the fact of the former marriage,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
83. Whoever, dishonestly or with a fraudulent intention, goes through the ceremony
of being married, knowing that he is not thereby lawfully married, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine.
84. Whoever takes or entices away any woman who is and whom he knows or has
reason to believe to be the wife of any other man, with intent that she may have illicit
intercourse with any person, or conceals or detains with that intent any such woman, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two
years, or with fine, or with both.
85. Whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects
such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three years and shall also be liable to fine.
86. For the purposes of section 85, “cruelty” means—
(a) any wilful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman
to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether
mental or physical) of the woman; or
(b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing
her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or
valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet
such demand.
87. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any woman with intent that she may be compelled, or
knowing it to be likely that she will be compelled, to marry any person against her will, or in
order that she may be forced or seduced to illicit intercourse, or knowing it to be likely that
she will be forced or seduced to illicit intercourse, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine;
and whoever, by means of criminal intimidation as defined in this Sanhita or of abuse of
authority or any other method of compulsion, induces any woman to go from any place with
intent that she may be, or knowing that it is likely that she will be, forced or seduced to illicit
intercourse with another person shall also be punishable as aforesaid.
Of causing miscarriage, etc.
88. Whoever voluntarily causes a woman with child to miscarry, shall, if such miscarriage
be not caused in good faith for the purpose of saving the life of the woman, be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or
with both; and, if the woman be quick with child, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—A woman who causes herself to miscarry, is within the meaning of this
section.
Marriage
ceremony
fraudulently
gone through
without lawful
marriage.
Enticing or
taking away or
detaining with
criminal
intent a
married
woman.
Husband or
relative of
husband of a
woman
subjecting her
to cruelty.
Kidnapping,
abducting or
inducing
woman to
compel her
marriage, etc.
Causing
miscarriage.
Cruelty
defined.
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89. Whoever commits the offence under section 88 without the consent of the woman,
whether the woman is quick with child or not, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
90. (1) Whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any
act which causes the death of such woman, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Where the act referred to in sub-section (1) is done without the consent of the
woman, shall be punishable either with imprisonment for life, or with the punishment specified
in said sub-section.
Explanation.—It is not essential to this offence that the offender should know that
the act is likely to cause death.
91. Whoever before the birth of any child does any act with the intention of thereby
preventing that child from being born alive or causing it to die after its birth, and does by
such act prevent that child from being born alive, or causes it to die after its birth, shall, if
such act be not caused in good faith for the purpose of saving the life of the mother, be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
or with fine, or with both.
92. Whoever does any act under such circumstances, that if he thereby caused death
he would be guilty of culpable homicide, and does by such act cause the death of a quick
unborn child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Illustration.
A, knowing that he is likely to cause the death of a pregnant woman, does an act
which, if it caused the death of the woman, would amount to culpable homicide. The woman
is injured, but does not die; but the death of an unborn quick child with which she is
pregnant is thereby caused. A is guilty of the offence defined in this section.
Of offences against child
93. Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of twelve years, or
having the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention
of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—This section is not intended to prevent the trial of the offender for
murder or culpable homicide, as the case may be, if the child die in consequence of the
exposure.
94. Whoever, by secretly burying or otherwise disposing of the dead body of a child
whether such child die before or after or during its birth, intentionally conceals or endeavours
to conceal the birth of such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
95. Whoever hires, employs or engages any child to commit an offence shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than three years
but which may extend to ten years, and with fine; and if the offence be committed shall also
be punished with the punishment provided for that offence as if the offence has been
committed by such person himself.
Explanation.—Hiring, employing, engaging or using a child for sexual exploitation or
pornography is covered within the meaning of this section.
96. Whoever, by any means whatsoever, induces any child to go from any place or to
do any act with intent that such child may be, or knowing that it is likely that such child will
be, forced or seduced to illicit intercourse with another person shall be punishable with
imprisonment which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
97. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child under the age of ten years with the intention
of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
Death caused
by act done
with intent to
cause
miscarriage.
Act done with
intent to
prevent child
being born
alive or to
cause to die
after birth.
Causing death
of quick
unborn child
by act
amounting to
culpable
homicide.
Exposure and
abandonment
of child under
twelve years
of age, by
parent or
person having
care of it.
Concealment
of birth by
secret disposal
of dead body.
Hiring,
employing or
engaging a
child to
commit an
offence.
Procuration of
child.
Kidnapping or
abducting child
under ten years
of age with
intent to steal
from its
person.
Causing
miscarriage
without woman's
consent.
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98. Whoever sells, lets to hire, or otherwise disposes of any child with intent that such
child shall at any age be employed or used for the purpose of prostitution or illicit intercourse
with any person or for any unlawful and immoral purpose, or knowing it to be likely that such
child will at any age be employed or used for any such purpose, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be
liable to fine.
Explanation 1.—When a female under the age of eighteen years is sold, let for hire, or
otherwise disposed of to a prostitute or to any person who keeps or manages a brothel, the
person so disposing of such female shall, until the contrary is proved, be presumed to have
disposed of her with the intent that she shall be used for the purpose of prostitution.
Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this section “illicit intercourse” means sexual
intercourse between persons not united by marriage or by any union or tie which, though
not amounting to a marriage, is recognised by the personal law or custom of the community
to which they belong or, where they belong to different communities, of both such
communities, as constituting between them a quasi-marital relation.
99. Whoever buys, hires or otherwise obtains possession of any child with intent that
such child shall at any age be employed or used for the purpose of prostitution or illicit
intercourse with any person or for any unlawful and immoral purpose, or knowing it to be
likely that such child will at any age be employed or used for any such purpose, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
seven years but which may extend to fourteen years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation 1.—Any prostitute or any person keeping or managing a brothel, who
buys, hires or otherwise obtains possession of a female under the age of eighteen years
shall, until the contrary is proved, be presumed to have obtained possession of such female
with the intent that she shall be used for the purpose of prostitution.
Explanation 2.—“Illicit intercourse” has the same meaning as in section 98.
CHAPTER VI
OF OFFENCES AFFECTING THE HUMAN BODY
Of offences affecting life
100. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death,
or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the
knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable
homicide.
Illustrations.
(a) A lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention of thereby causing death, or with
the knowledge that death is likely to be thereby caused. Z, believing the ground to be firm,
treads on it, falls in and is killed. A has committed the offence of culpable homicide.
(b) A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or
knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z.
Here B may be guilty of no offence; but A has committed the offence of culpable homicide.
(c) A, by shooting at a fowl with intent to kill and steal it, kills B, who is behind a bush;
A not knowing that he was there. Here, although A was doing an unlawful act, he was not
guilty of culpable homicide, as he did not intend to kill B, or to cause death by doing an act
that he knew was likely to cause death.
Explanation 1.—A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring
under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity, and thereby accelerates the death of that other,
shall be deemed to have caused his death.
Selling child for
purposes of
prostitution,
etc.
Buying child
for purposes of
prostitution,
etc.
Culpable
homicide.
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Explanation 2.—Where death is caused by bodily injury, the person who causes such
bodily injury shall be deemed to have caused the death, although by resorting to proper
remedies and skilful treatment the death might have been prevented.
Explanation 3.—The causing of the death of a child in the mother’s womb is not
homicide. But it may amount to culpable homicide to cause the death of a living child, if any
part of that child has been brought forth, though the child may not have breathed or been
completely born.
101. Except in the cases hereinafter excepted, culpable homicide is murder,––
(a) if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing
death; or
(b) if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing
such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the person
to whom the harm is caused; or
(c) if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing
bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient
in the ordinary course of nature to cause death; or
(d) if the person committing the act by which the death is caused, knows that it
is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death, or such bodily
injury as is likely to cause death, and commits such act without any excuse for incurring
the risk of causing death or such injury as aforesaid.
Illustrations.
(a) A shoots Z with the intention of killing him. Z dies in consequence. A commits
murder.
(b) A, knowing that Z is labouring under such a disease that a blow is likely to cause
his death, strikes him with the intention of causing bodily injury. Z dies in consequence of
the blow. A is guilty of murder, although the blow might not have been sufficient in the
ordinary course of nature to cause the death of a person in a sound state of health. But if A,
not knowing that Z is labouring under any disease, gives him such a blow as would not in the
ordinary course of nature kill a person in a sound state of health, here A, although he may
intend to cause bodily injury, is not guilty of murder, if he did not intend to cause death, or
such bodily injury as in the ordinary course of nature would cause death.
(c) A intentionally gives Z a sword-cut or club-wound sufficient to cause the death of
a man in the ordinary course of nature. Z dies in consequence. Here A is guilty of murder,
although he may not have intended to cause Z’s death.
(d) A without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one
of them. A is guilty of murder, although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any
particular individual.
Exception 1.—Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the
power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who
gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident:
Provided that the provocation is not,––
(a) sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for killing or
doing harm to any person;
(b) given by anything done in obedience to the law, or by a public servant in the
lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant;
(c) given by anything done in the lawful exercise of the right of private defence.
Explanation.—Whether the provocation was grave and sudden enough to prevent
the offence from amounting to murder is a question of fact.
Murder.
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Illustrations.
(a) A, under the influence of passion excited by a provocation given by Z, intentionally
kills Y, Z’s child. This is murder, in as much as the provocation was not given by the child, and
the death of the child was not caused by accident or misfortune in doing an act caused by the
provocation.
(b) Y gives grave and sudden provocation to A. A, on this provocation, fires a pistol at
Y, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill Z, who is near him, but out of sight.
A kills Z. Here A has not committed murder, but merely culpable homicide.
(c) A is lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff. A is excited to sudden and violent passion by
the arrest, and kills Z. This is murder, in as much as the provocation was given by a thing
done by a public servant in the exercise of his powers.
(d) A appears as a witness before Z, a Magistrate. Z says that he does not believe a
word of A’s deposition, and that A has perjured himself. A is moved to sudden passion by
these words, and kills Z. This is murder.
(e) A attempts to pull Z’s nose. Z, in the exercise of the right of private defence, lays
hold of A to prevent him from doing so. A is moved to sudden and violent passion in
consequence, and kills Z. This is murder, in as much as the provocation was giving by a thing
done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
(f) Z strikes B. B is by this provocation excited to violent rage. A, a bystander, intending
to take advantage of B’s rage, and to cause him to kill Z, puts a knife into B’s hand for that
purpose. B kills Z with the knife. Here B may have committed only culpable homicide, but A
is guilty of murder.
Exception 2.—Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender in the exercise in good
faith of the right of private defence of person or property, exceeds the power given to him by
law and causes the death of the person against whom he is exercising such right of defence
without premeditation, and without any intention of doing more harm than is necessary for
the purpose of such defence.
Illustration.
Z attempts to horsewhip A, not in such a manner as to cause grievous hurt to A. A
draws out a pistol. Z persists in the assault. A believing in good faith that he can by no other
means prevent himself from being horsewhipped, shoots Z dead. A has not committed
murder, but only culpable homicide.
Exception 3.—Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, being a public servant
or aiding a public servant acting for the advancement of public justice, exceeds the powers
given to him by law, and causes death by doing an act which he, in good faith, believes to be
lawful and necessary for the due discharge of his duty as such public servant and without
ill-will towards the person whose death is caused.
Exception 4.—Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed without premeditation
in a sudden fight in the heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel and without the offender’s
having taken undue advantage or acted in a cruel or unusual manner.
Explanation.—It is immaterial in such cases which party offers the provocation or
commits the first assault.
Exception 5.—Culpable homicide is not murder when the person whose death is caused,
being above the age of eighteen years, suffers death or takes the risk of death with his own
consent.
Illustration.
A, by instigation, voluntarily causes Z, a child to commit suicide. Here, on account of
Z’s youth, he was incapable of giving consent to his own death; A has therefore abetted
murder.
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102. If a person, by doing anything which he intends or knows to be likely to cause
death, commits culpable homicide by causing the death of any person, whose death he
neither intends nor knows himself to be likely to cause, the culpable homicide committed by
the offender is of the description of which it would have been if he had caused the death of
the person whose death he intended or knew himself to be likely to cause.
103. (1) Whoever commits murder shall be punished with death or imprisonment for
life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) When a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the
ground of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any
other similar ground each member of such group shall be punished with death or with
imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
104. Whoever, being under sentence of imprisonment for life, commits murder, shall be
punished with death or with imprisonment for life, which shall mean the remainder of that
person’s natural life.
105. Whoever commits culpable homicide not amounting to murder, shall be punished
with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be
less than five years but which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine, if the
act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death, or of causing
such bodily injury as is likely to cause death; or with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to ten years and with fine, if the act is done with the knowledge that
it is likely to cause death, but without any intention to cause death, or to cause such bodily
injury as is likely to cause death.
106. (1) Whoever causes death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not
amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine; and if such act is
done by a registered medical practitioner while performing medical procedure, he shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years,
and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.— For the purposes of this sub-section, “registered medical practitioner”
means a medical practitioner who possesses any medical qualification recognised under the
National Medical Commission Act, 2019 and whose name has been entered in the National
Medical Register or a State Medical Register under that Act.
(2) Whoever causes death of any person by rash and negligent driving of vehicle not
amounting to culpable homicide, and escapes without reporting it to a police officer or a
Magistrate soon after the incident, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
of a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
107. If any child, any person of unsound mind, any delirious person or any person in
a state of intoxication, commits suicide, whoever abets the commission of such suicide, shall
be punished with death or imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
108. If any person commits suicide, whoever abets the commission of such suicide,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
109. (1) Whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge, and under such
circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty of murder, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
and shall also be liable to fine; and if hurt is caused to any person by such act, the offender
shall be liable either to imprisonment for life, or to such punishment as is hereinbefore
mentioned.
Culpable
homicide by
causing death
of person other
than person
whose death
was intended.
Punishment
for murder.
Punishment
for murder by
life-convict.
Punishment
for culpable
homicide not
amounting to
murder.
Causing death
by negligence.
Abetment of
suicide of child
or person of
unsound mind.
Abetment of
suicide.
Attempt to
murder.
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(2) When any person offending under sub-section (1) is under sentence of imprisonment
for life, he may, if hurt is caused, be punished with death or with imprisonment for life, which
shall mean the remainder of that person’s natural life.
Illustrations.
(a) A shoots at Z with intention to kill him, under such circumstances that, if death
ensued, A would be guilty of murder. A is liable to punishment under this section.
(b) A, with the intention of causing the death of a child of tender years, exposes it in a
desert place. A has committed the offence defined by this section, though the death of the
child does not ensue.
(c) A, intending to murder Z, buys a gun and loads it. A has not yet committed the
offence. A fires the gun at Z. He has committed the offence defined in this section, and, if by
such firing he wounds Z, he is liable to the punishment provided by the latter part of
sub-section (1).
(d) A, intending to murder Z by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same with
food which remains in A’s keeping; A has not yet committed the offence defined in this
section. A places the food on Z’s table or delivers it to Z’s servants to place it on Z’s table. A
has committed the offence defined in this section.
110. Whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge and under such
circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty of culpable homicide
not amounting to murder, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both; and, if hurt is caused to any
person by such act, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
Illustration.
A, on grave and sudden provocation, fires a pistol at Z, under such circumstances that
if he thereby caused death, he would be guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to
murder. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
111. (1) Any continuing unlawful activity including kidnapping, robbery, vehicle
theft, extortion, land grabbing, contract killing, economic offence, cyber-crimes, trafficking
of persons, drugs, weapons or illicit goods or services, human trafficking for prostitution or
ransom, by any person or a group of persons acting in concert, singly or jointly, either as a
member of an organised crime syndicate or on behalf of such syndicate, by use of violence,
threat of violence, intimidation, coercion, or by any other unlawful means to obtain direct or
indirect material benefit including a financial benefit, shall constitute organised crime.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,––
(i) “organised crime syndicate” means a group of two or more persons who,
acting either singly or jointly, as a syndicate or gang indulge in any continuing
unlawful activity;
(ii) “continuing unlawful activity” means an activity prohibited by law which is
a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more, undertaken
by any person, either singly or jointly, as a member of an organised crime syndicate or
Attempt to
commit
culpable
homicide.
Organised
crime.
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on behalf of such syndicate in respect of which more than one charge-sheets have
been filed before a competent Court within the preceding period of ten years and that
Court has taken cognizance of such offence, and includes economic offence;
(iii) “economic offence” includes criminal breach of trust, forgery, counterfeiting
of currency-notes, bank-notes and Government stamps, hawala transaction,
mass-marketing fraud or running any scheme to defraud several persons or doing any
act in any manner with a view to defraud any bank or financial institution or any other
institution or organisation for obtaining monetary benefits in any form.
(2) Whoever commits organised crime shall,—
(a) if such offence has resulted in the death of any person, be punished with
death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine which shall not be less
than ten lakh rupees;
(b) in any other case, be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not
be less than five years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also
be liable to fine which shall not be less than five lakh rupees.
(3) Whoever abets, attempts, conspires or knowingly facilitates the commission of an
organised crime, or otherwise engages in any act preparatory to an organised crime, shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine which shall not be less
than five lakh rupees.
(4) Any person who is a member of an organised crime syndicate shall be punished
with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years but which may extend
to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine which shall not be less than five lakh
rupees.
(5) Whoever, intentionally, harbours or conceals any person who has committed the
offence of an organised crime shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than three years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be
liable to fine which shall not be less than five lakh rupees:
Provided that this sub-section shall not apply to any case in which the harbour or
concealment is by the spouse of the offender.
(6) Whoever possesses any property derived or obtained from the commission of an
organised crime or proceeds of any organised crime or which has been acquired through
the organised crime, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than three years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable
to fine which shall not be less than two lakh rupees.
(7) If any person on behalf of a member of an organised crime syndicate is, or at any
time has been in possession of movable or immovable property which he cannot satisfactorily
account for, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than
three years but which may extend to imprisonment for ten years and shall also be liable to
fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees.
112. (1) Whoever, being a member of a group or gang, either singly or jointly, commits
any act of theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised selling of tickets, unauthorised betting
or gambling, selling of public examination question papers or any other similar criminal act,
is said to commit petty organised crime.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section "theft" includes trick theft, theft
from vehicle, dwelling house or business premises, cargo theft, pick pocketing, theft through
card skimming, shoplifting and theft of Automated Teller Machine.
(2) Whoever commits any petty organised crime shall be punished with imprisonment
for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to seven years, and
shall also be liable to fine.
Petty
organised
crime.
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113. (1) Whoever does any act with the intent to threaten or likely to threaten the
unity, integrity, sovereignty, security, or economic security of India or with the intent to
strike terror or likely to strike terror in the people or any section of the people in India or
in any foreign country,––
(a) by using bombs, dynamite or other explosive substance or inflammable
substance or firearms or other lethal weapons or poisonous or noxious gases or other
chemicals or by any other substance (whether biological, radioactive, nuclear or
otherwise) of a hazardous nature or by any other means of whatever nature to cause
or likely to cause,—
(i) death of, or injury to, any person or persons; or
(ii) loss of, or damage to, or destruction of, property; or
(iii) disruption of any supplies or services essential to the life of the
community in India or in any foreign country; or
(iv) damage to, the monetary stability of India by way of production or
smuggling or circulation of counterfeit Indian paper currency, coin or of any
other material; or
(v) damage or destruction of any property in India or in a foreign country
used or intended to be used for the defence of India or in connection with any
other purposes of the Government of India, any State Government or any of
their agencies; or
(b) overawes by means of criminal force or the show of criminal force or attempts
to do so or causes death of any public functionary or attempts to cause death of any
public functionary; or
(c) detains, kidnaps or abducts any person and threatening to kill or injure such
person or does any other act in order to compel the Government of India, any
State Government or the Government of a foreign country or an international or
inter-governmental organisation or any other person to do or abstain from doing any act,
commit a terrorist act.
Explanation.—For the purpose of this sub-section,—
(a) “public functionary” means the constitutional authorities or any other
functionary notified in the Official Gazette by the Central Government as public
functionary;
(b) “counterfeit Indian currency” means the counterfeit currency as may be
declared after examination by an authorised or notified forensic authority that such
currency imitates or compromises with the key security features of Indian currency.
(2) Whoever commits a terrorist act shall,—
(a) if such offence has resulted in the death of any person, be punished with
death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine;
(b) in any other case, be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not
be less than five years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also
be liable to fine.
(3) Whoever conspires or attempts to commit, or advocates, abets, advises or incites,
directly or knowingly facilitates the commission of a terrorist act or any act preparatory to
the commission of a terrorist act, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than five years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be
liable to fine.
Terrorist act.
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(4) Whoever organises or causes to be organised any camp or camps for imparting
training in terrorist act, or recruits or causes to be recruited any person or persons for
commission of a terrorist act, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not
be less than five years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable
to fine.
(5) Any person who is a member of an organisation which is involved in terrorist act,
shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to imprisonment for life,
and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) Whoever voluntarily harbours or conceals, or attempts to harbour or conceal any
person knowing that such person has committed a terrorist act shall be punished with
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which may extend to
imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine:
Provided that this sub-section shall not apply to any case in which the harbour or
concealment is by the spouse of the offender.
(7) Whoever knowingly possesses any property derived or obtained from commission
of any terrorist act or acquired through the commission of any terrorist act shall be punished
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be
liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that the officer not
below the rank of Superintendent of Police shall decide whether to register the case under
this section or under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967.
Of hurt
114. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to cause
hurt.
115. (1) Whoever does any act with the intention of thereby causing hurt to any
person, or with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause hurt to any person, and does
thereby cause hurt to any person, is said “voluntarily to cause hurt”.
(2) Whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (1) of section 122 voluntarily
causes hurt, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
116. The following kinds of hurt only are designated as “grievous”, namely:––
(a) Emasculation;
(b) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye;
(c) Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear;
(d) Privation of any member or joint;
(e) Destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint;
(f) Permanent disfiguration of the head or face;
(g) Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth;
(h) Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the
space of fifteen days in severe bodily pain, or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits.
117. (1) Whoever voluntarily causes hurt, if the hurt which he intends to cause or
knows himself to be likely to cause is grievous hurt, and if the hurt which he causes is
grievous hurt, is said “voluntarily to cause grievous hurt”.
Hurt.
Voluntarily
causing hurt.
Grievous hurt.
Voluntarily
causing
grievous hurt.
37 of 1967.
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Explanation.—A person is not said voluntarily to cause grievous hurt except when he
both causes grievous hurt and intends or knows himself to be likely to cause grievous hurt.
But he is said voluntarily to cause grievous hurt, if intending or knowing himself to be likely
to cause grievous hurt of one kind, he actually causes grievous hurt of another kind.
Illustration.
A, intending of knowing himself to be likely permanently to disfigure Z’s face, gives
Z a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z’s face, but which causes Z to suffer severe
bodily pain for the space of fifteen days. A has voluntarily caused grievous hurt.
(2) Whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (2) of section 122, voluntarily
causes grievous hurt, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Whoever commits an offence under sub-section (1) and in the course of such
commission causes any hurt to a person which causes that person to be in permanent
disability or in persistent vegetative state, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for
a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life,
which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life.
(4) When a group of five or more persons acting in concert, causes grievous hurt to a
person on the ground of his race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal
belief or any other similar ground, each member of such group shall be guilty of the offence
of causing grievous hurt, and shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
118. (1) Whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (1) of section 122,
voluntarily causes hurt by means of any instrument for shooting, stabbing or cutting, or any
instrument which, used as a weapon of offence, is likely to cause death, or by means of fire
or any heated substance, or by means of any poison or any corrosive substance, or by
means of any explosive substance, or by means of any substance which it is deleterious to
the human body to inhale, to swallow, or to receive into the blood, or by means of any animal,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees, or with both.
(2) Whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (2) of section 122, voluntarily
causes grievous hurt by any means referred to in sub–section (1), shall be punished with
imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be
less than one year but which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
119. (1) Whoever voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extorting from the sufferer,
or from any person interested in the sufferer, any property or valuable security, or of
constraining the sufferer or any person interested in such sufferer to do anything which is
illegal or which may facilitate the commission of an offence, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be
liable to fine.
(2) Whoever voluntarily causes grievous hurt for any purpose referred to in
sub-section (1), shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
120. (1) Whoever voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extorting from the sufferer
or from any person interested in the sufferer, any confession or any information which may
lead to the detection of an offence or misconduct, or for the purpose of constraining the
sufferer or any person interested in the sufferer to restore or to cause the restoration of any
property or valuable security or to satisfy any claim or demand, or to give information which
may lead to the restoration of any property or valuable security, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine.
Voluntarily
causing hurt or
grievous hurt
to extort
confession, or
to compel
restoration of
property.
Voluntarily
causing hurt or
grievous hurt
by dangerous
weapons or
means.
Voluntarily
causing hurt or
grievous hurt
to extort
property, or to
constrain to an
illegal act.
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Illustrations.
(a) A, a police officer, tortures Z in order to induce Z to confess that he committed a
crime. A is guilty of an offence under this section.
(b) A, a police officer, tortures B to induce him to point out where certain stolen
property is deposited. A is guilty of an offence under this section.
(c) A, a revenue officer, tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of
revenue due from Z. A is guilty of an offence under this section.
(2) Whoever voluntarily causes grievous hurt for any purpose referred to in
sub-section (1), shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
121. (1) Whoever voluntarily causes hurt to any person being a public servant in the
discharge of his duty as such public servant, or with intent to prevent or deter that person or
any other public servant from discharging his duty as such public servant or in consequence
of anything done or attempted to be done by that person in the lawful discharge of his duty
as such public servant, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
(2) Whoever voluntarily causes grievous hurt to any person being a public servant in
the discharge of his duty as such public servant, or with intent to prevent or deter that
person or any other public servant from discharging his duty as such public servant or in
consequence of anything done or attempted to be done by that person in the lawful discharge
of his duty as such public servant, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to ten years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
122. (1) Whoever voluntarily causes hurt on grave and sudden provocation, if he
neither intends nor knows himself to be likely to cause hurt to any person other than the
person who gave the provocation, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand
rupees, or with both.
(2) Whoever voluntarily causes grievous hurt on grave and sudden provocation, if he
neither intends nor knows himself to be likely to cause grievous hurt to any person other
than the person who gave the provocation, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine which may extend to ten
thousand rupees, or with both.
Explanation.—This section is subject to the same proviso as Exception 1 of
section 101.
123. Whoever administers to or causes to be taken by any person any poison or any
stupefying, intoxicating or unwholesome drug, or other thing with intent to cause hurt to
such person, or with intent to commit or to facilitate the commission of an offence or knowing
it to be likely that he will thereby cause hurt, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
124. (1) Whoever causes permanent or partial damage or deformity to, or burns or
maims or disfigures or disables, any part or parts of the body of a person or causes grievous
hurt by throwing acid on or by administering acid to that person, or by using any other
means with the intention of causing or with the knowledge that he is likely to cause such
injury or hurt or causes a person to be in a permanent vegetative state shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, and with fine:
Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses of
the treatment of the victim:
Voluntarily
causing hurt or
grievous hurt
to deter public
servant from
his duty.
Voluntarily
causing hurt or
grievous hurt
on
provocation.
Causing hurt
by means of
poison, etc.,
with intent to
commit an
offence.
Voluntarily
causing
grievous hurt
by use of acid,
etc.
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Provided further that any fine imposed under this sub-section shall be paid to the
victim.
(2) Whoever throws or attempts to throw acid on any person or attempts to administer
acid to any person, or attempts to use any other means, with the intention of causing
permanent or partial damage or deformity or burns or maiming or disfigurement or disability
or grievous hurt to that person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which shall not be less than five years but which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
Explanation 1.—For the purposes of this section, “acid” includes any substance
which has acidic or corrosive character or burning nature, that is capable of causing bodily
injury leading to scars or disfigurement or temporary or permanent disability.
Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this section, permanent or partial damage or
deformity or permanent vegetative state shall not be required to be irreversible.
125. Whoever does any act so rashly or negligently as to endanger human life or the
personal safety of others, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to three months or with fine which may extend to two thousand five
hundred rupees, or with both, but—
(a)where hurt is caused, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both;
(b)where grievous hurt is caused, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may
extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
Of wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement
126.(1) Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from
proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to
restrain that person.
Exception.—The obstruction of a private way over land or water which a person in
good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct, is not an offence within the
meaning of this section.
Illustration.
A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, A not believing in good faith that
he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. A wrongfully
restrains Z.
(2) Whoever wrongfully restrains any person shall be punished with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees, or with both.
127. (1) Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that
person from proceedings beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said “wrongfully to confine”
that person.
Illustrations.
(a) A causes Z to go within a walled space, and locks Z in. Z is thus prevented from
proceeding in any direction beyond the circumscribing line of wall. A wrongfully confines Z.
(b) A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will fire
at Z if Z attempts to leave the building. A wrongfully confines Z.
(2) Whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees, or with both.
Act
endangering
life or personal
safety of
others.
Wrongful
restraint.
Wrongful
confinement.
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(3) Whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days, or more, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with
fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
(4) Whoever wrongfully confines any person for ten days or more, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, and shall
also be liable to fine which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees.
(5) Whoever keeps any person in wrongful confinement, knowing that a writ for the
liberation of that person has been duly issued, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years in addition to any term of imprisonment
to which he may be liable under any other section of this Chapter and shall also be liable to
fine.
(6) Whoever wrongfully confines any person in such manner as to indicate an intention
that the confinement of such person may not be known to any person interested in the
person so confined, or to any public servant, or that the place of such confinement may not
be known to or discovered by any such person or public servant as hereinbefore mentioned,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years in addition to any other punishment to which he may be liable for such wrongful
confinement and shall also be liable to fine.
(7) Whoever wrongfully confines any person for the purpose of extorting from the
person confined, or from any person interested in the person confined, any property or
valuable security or of constraining the person confined or any person interested in such
person to do anything illegal or to give any information which may facilitate the commission
of an offence, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(8) Whoever wrongfully confines any person for the purpose of extorting from the
person confined or any person interested in the person confined any confession or any
information which may lead to the detection of an offence or misconduct, or for the purpose
of constraining the person confined or any person interested in the person confined to
restore or to cause the restoration of any property or valuable security or to satisfy any claim
or demand, or to give information which may lead to the restoration of any property or
valuable security, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Of criminal force and assault
128. A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or
cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of
motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that
other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so
situated that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling:
Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of
motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the following
three ways, namely:––
(a) by his own bodily power;
(b) by disposing any substance in such a manner that the motion or change or
cessation of motion takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of
any other person;
(c) by inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.
Force.
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129. Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent,
in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or
knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to
the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
Illustrations.
(a) Z is sitting in a moored boat on a river. A unfastens the moorings, and thus
intentionally causes the boat to drift down the stream. Here A intentionally causes motion to
Z, and he does this by disposing substances in such a manner that the motion is produced
without any other action on any person’s part. A has therefore intentionally used force to Z;
and if he has done so without Z’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or
intending or knowing it to be likely that this use of force will cause injury, fear or annoyance
to Z, A has used criminal force to Z.
(b) Z is riding in a chariot. A lashes Z’s horses, and thereby causes them to quicken
their pace. Here A has caused change of motion to Z by inducing the animals to change their
motion. A has therefore used force to Z; and if A has done this without Z’s consent, intending
or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby injure, frighten or annoy Z, A has used criminal
force to Z.
(c) Z is riding in a palanquin. A, intending to rob Z, seizes the pole and stops the
palanquin. Here A has caused cessation of motion to Z, and he has done this by his own
bodily power. A has therefore used force to Z; and as A has acted thus intentionally, without
Z’s consent, in order to the commission of an offence. A has used criminal force to Z.
(d) A intentionally pushes against Z in the street. Here A has by his own bodily power
moved his own person so as to bring it into contact with Z. He has therefore intentionally
used force to Z; and if he has done so without Z’s consent, intending or knowing it to be
likely that he may thereby injure, frighten or annoy Z, he has used criminal force to Z.
(e) A throws a stone, intending or knowing it to be likely that the stone will be thus
brought into contact with Z, or with Z’s clothes, or with something carried by Z, or that it will
strike water and dash up the water against Z’s clothes or something carried by Z. Here, if the
throwing of the stone produce the effect of causing any substance to come into contact with
Z, or Z’s clothes, A has used force to Z, and if he did so without Z’s consent, intending
thereby to injure, frighten or annoy Z, he has used criminal force to Z.
(f) A intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil. Here A intentionally uses force to her, and if
he does so without her consent intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby
injure, frighten or annoy her, he has used criminal force to her.
(g) Z is bathing. A pours into the bath water which he knows to be boiling. Here A
intentionally by his own bodily power causes such motion in the boiling water as brings that
water into contact with Z, or with other water so situated that such contact must affect Z’s
sense of feeling; A has therefore intentionally used force to Z; and if he has done this
without Z’s consent intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause injury,
fear or annoyance to Z, A has used criminal force.
(h) A incites a dog to spring upon Z, without Z’s consent. Here, if A intends to cause
injury, fear or annoyance to Z, he uses criminal force to Z.
130. Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be
likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he
who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to
commit an assault.
Criminal force.
Assault.
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Explanation.—Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a
person uses may give to his gestures or preparation such a meaning as may make those
gestures or preparations amount to an assault.
Illustrations.
(a) A shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause
Z to believe that A is about to strike Z. A has committed an assault.
(b) A begins to unloose the muzzle of a ferocious dog, intending or knowing it to be
likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that he is about to cause the dog to attack Z. A
has committed an assault upon Z.
(c) A takes up a stick, saying to Z, “I will give you a beating”. Here, though the words
used by A could in no case amount to an assault, and though the mere gesture, unaccompanied
by any other circumstances, might not amount to an assault, the gesture explained by the
words may amount to an assault.
131. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person otherwise than on grave
and sudden provocation given by that person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to
one thousand rupees, or with both.
Explanation 1.—Grave and sudden provocation will not mitigate the punishment for
an offence under this section,—
(a) if the provocation is sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an
excuse for the offence; or
(b) if the provocation is given by anything done in obedience to the law, or by a
public servant, in the lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant; or
(c) if the provocation is given by anything done in the lawful exercise of the right
of private defence.
Explanation 2.—Whether the provocation was grave and sudden enough to mitigate
the offence, is a question of fact.
132. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person being a public servant in
the execution of his duty as such public servant, or with intent to prevent or deter that
person from discharging his duty as such public servant, or in consequence of anything
done or attempted to be done by such person in the lawful discharge of his duty as such
public servant, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
133. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person, intending thereby to
dishonour that person, otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation given by that
person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
134. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person, in attempting to commit
theft on any property which that person is then wearing or carrying, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or
with both.
135. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person, in attempting wrongfully
to confine that person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with
both.
Punishment
for assault or
criminal force
otherwise than
on grave
provocation.
Assault or
criminal force
to deter public
servant from
discharge of
his duty.
Assault or
criminal force
with intent to
dishonour
person,
otherwise than
on grave
provocation.
Assault or
criminal force
in attempt to
commit theft
of property
carried by a
person.
Assault or
criminal force
in attempt to
wrongfully
confine a
person.
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136. Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person on grave and sudden
provocation given by that person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term
which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or
with both.
Explanation.—This section is subject to the same Explanation as section 131.
Of kidnapping, abduction, slavery and forced labour
137. (1) Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from
lawful guardianship––
(a) whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent
of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that
person, is said to kidnap that person from India;
(b) whoever takes or entices any child or any person of unsound mind, out of the
keeping of the lawful guardian of such child or person of unsound mind, without the
consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such child or person from lawful
guardianship.
Explanation.––The words “lawful guardian” in this clause include any person
lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of such child or other person.
Exception.—This clause does not extend to the act of any person who in good
faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith
believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is
committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.
(2) Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
138. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go
from any place, is said to abduct that person.
139. (1) Whoever kidnaps any child or, not being the lawful guardian of such child,
obtains the custody of the child, in order that such child may be employed or used for the
purposes of begging shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be
liable to fine.
(2) Whoever maims any child in order that such child may be employed or used for the
purposes of begging shall be punishable with imprisonment which shall not be less than
twenty years, but which may extend to life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder
of that person’s natural life, and with fine.
(3) Where any person, not being the lawful guardian of a child employs or uses such
child for the purposes of begging, it shall be presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that he
kidnapped or otherwise obtained the custody of such child in order that such child might be
employed or used for the purposes of begging.
(4) In this section “begging” means—
(i) soliciting or receiving alms in a public place, whether under the pretence of
singing, dancing, fortune telling, performing tricks or selling articles or otherwise;
(ii) entering on any private premises for the purpose of soliciting or receiving
alms;
Assault or
criminal force
on grave
provocation.
Kidnapping.
Abduction.
Kidnapping or
maiming a
child for
purposes of
begging.
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(iii) exposing or exhibiting, with the object of obtaining or extorting alms, any
sore, wound, injury, deformity or disease, whether of himself or of any other person or
of an animal;
(iv) using such child as an exhibit for the purpose of soliciting or receiving alms.
140. (1) Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be
murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be
punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to
ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Illustrations.
(a) A kidnaps Z from India, intending or knowing it to be likely that Z may be sacrificed
to an idol. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
(b) A forcibly carries or entices B away from his home in order that B may be murdered.
A has committed the offence defined in this section.
(2) Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person or keeps a person in detention after such
kidnapping or abduction, and threatens to cause death or hurt to such person, or by his
conduct gives rise to a reasonable apprehension that such person may be put to death or
hurt, or causes hurt or death to such person in order to compel the Government or any
foreign State or international inter-governmental organisation or any other person to do or
abstain from doing any act or to pay a ransom, shall be punishable with death, or imprisonment
for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person with intent to cause that person to be
secretly and wrongfully confined, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(4) Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be subjected,
or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being subjected to grievous hurt, or
slavery, or to the unnatural lust of any person, or knowing it to be likely that such person will
be so subjected or disposed of, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
141. Whoever imports into India from any country outside India any girl under the age
of twenty-one years or any boy under the age of eighteen years with intent that girl or boy
may be, or knowing it to be likely that girl or boy will be, forced or seduced to illicit intercourse
with another person, shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ten years
and shall also be liable to fine.
142. Whoever, knowing that any person has been kidnapped or has been abducted,
wrongfully conceals or confines such person, shall be punished in the same manner as if he
had kidnapped or abducted such person with the same intention or knowledge, or for the
same purpose as that with or for which he conceals or detains such person in confinement.
143. (1) Whoever, for the purpose of exploitation recruits, transports, harbours, transfers,
or receives a person or persons, by—
(a) using threats; or
(b) using force, or any other form of coercion; or
(c) by abduction; or
(d) by practising fraud, or deception; or
(e) by abuse of power; or
Kidnapping or
abducting in
order to
murder or for
ransom, etc.
Importation
of girl or boy
from foreign
country.
Wrongfully
concealing or
keeping in
confinement,
kidnapped or
abducted
person.
Trafficking of
person.
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(f) by inducement, including the giving or receiving of payments or benefits, in
order to achieve the consent of any person having control over the person recruited,
transported, harboured, transferred or received,
commits the offence of trafficking.
Explanation 1.—The expression “exploitation” shall include any act of physical
exploitation or any form of sexual exploitation, slavery or practices similar to slavery, servitude,
beggary or forced removal of organs.
Explanation 2.—The consent of the victim is immaterial in determination of the offence
of trafficking.
(2) Whoever commits the offence of trafficking shall be punished with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years, but which may extend to
ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Where the offence involves the trafficking of more than one person, it shall be
punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(4) Where the offence involves the trafficking of a child, it shall be punishable with
rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years, but which may
extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(5) Where the offence involves the trafficking of more than one child, it shall be
punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than fourteen
years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) If a person is convicted of the offence of trafficking of a child on more than one
occasion, then such person shall be punished with imprisonment for life, which shall mean
imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and shall also be liable to fine.
(7) When a public servant or a police officer is involved in the trafficking of any person
then, such public servant or police officer shall be punished with imprisonment for life, which
shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and shall also be
liable to fine.
144. (1) Whoever, knowingly or having reason to believe that a child has been trafficked,
engages such child for sexual exploitation in any manner, shall be punished with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years, but which may extend to ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Whoever, knowingly or having reason to believe that a person has been trafficked,
engages such person for sexual exploitation in any manner, shall be punished with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years, but which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
145. Whoever habitually imports, exports, removes, buys, sells, traffics or deals in
slaves, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description
for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
146. Whoever unlawfully compels any person to labour against the will of that person,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one
year, or with fine, or with both.
Exploitation
of a trafficked
person.
Habitual
dealing in
slaves.
Unlawful
compulsory
labour.
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CHAPTER VII
OF OFFENCES AGAINST THE STATE
147. Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such
war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life
and shall also be liable to fine.
Illustration.
A joins an insurrection against the Government of India. A has committed the offence
defined in this section.
148. Whoever within or without and beyond India conspires to commit any of the
offences punishable by section 147, or conspires to overawe, by means of criminal force or
the show of criminal force, the Central Government or any State Government, shall be punished
with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description which may extend to
ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—To constitute a conspiracy under this section, it is not necessary that
any act or illegal omission shall take place in pursuance thereof.
149. Whoever collects men, arms or ammunition or otherwise prepares to wage war
with the intention of either waging or being prepared to wage war against the Government of
India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or imprisonment of either description for
a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
150. Whoever by any act, or by any illegal omission, conceals the existence of a
design to wage war against the Government of India, intending by such concealment to
facilitate, or knowing it to be likely that such concealment will facilitate, the waging of such
war, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
151. Whoever, with the intention of inducing or compelling the President of India, or
Governor of any State, to exercise or refrain from exercising in any manner any of the lawful
powers of such President or Governor, assaults or wrongfully restrains, or attempts wrongfully
to restrain, or overawes, by means of criminal force or the show of criminal force, or attempts
so to overawe, such President or Governor, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
152. Whoever, purposely or knowingly, by words, either spoken or written, or by
signs, or by visible representation, or by electronic communication or by use of financial
mean, or otherwise, excites or attempts to excite, secession or armed rebellion or subversive
activities, or encourages feelings of separatist activities or endangers sovereignty or unity
and integrity of India; or indulges in or commits any such act shall be punished with
imprisonment for life or with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine.
Explanation.––Comments expressing disapprobation of the measures, or administrative
or other action of the Government with a view to obtain their alteration by lawful means
without exciting or attempting to excite the activities referred to in this section do not constitute
an offence under this section.
153. Whoever wages war against the Government of any foreign State at peace with
the Government of India or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall
be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, to which fine may be added, or
with fine.
Waging, or
attempting to
wage war, or
abetting
waging of war,
against
Government
of India.
Conspiracy to
commit
offences
punishable by
section 147.
Collecting
arms, etc.,
with intention
of waging war
against
Government
of India.
Concealing
with intent to
facilitate
design to wage
war.
Assaulting
President,
Governor, etc.,
with intent to
compel or
restrain
exercise of any
lawful power.
Act
endangering
sovereignty,
unity and
integrity of
India.
Waging war
against
Government
of any foreign
State at peace
with
Government
of India.
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154. Whoever commits depredation, or makes preparations to commit depredation, on
the territories of any foreign State at peace with the Government of India, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine and to forfeiture of any property used or intended to be used in
committing such depredation, or acquired by such depredation.
155. Whoever receives any property knowing the same to have been taken in the
commission of any of the offences mentioned in sections 153 and 154, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine and to forfeiture of the property so received.
156. Whoever, being a public servant and having the custody of any State prisoner or
prisoner of war, voluntarily allows such prisoner to escape from any place in which such
prisoner is confined, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
157. Whoever, being a public servant and having the custody of any State prisoner or
prisoner of war, negligently suffers such prisoner to escape from any place of confinement in
which such prisoner is confined, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term
which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
158. Whoever knowingly aids or assists any State prisoner or prisoner of war in
escaping from lawful custody, or rescues or attempts to rescue any such prisoner, or harbours
or conceals any such prisoner who has escaped from lawful custody, or offers or attempts to
offer any resistance to the recapture of such prisoner, shall be punished with imprisonment
for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—A State prisoner or prisoner of war, who is permitted to be at large on
his parole within certain limits in India, is said to escape from lawful custody if he goes
beyond the limits within which he is allowed to be at large.
CHAPTER VIII
OF OFFENCES RELATING TO THE ARMY, NAVY AND AIR FORCE
159. Whoever abets the committing of mutiny by an officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in
the Army, Navy or Air Force of the Government of India or attempts to seduce any such
officer, soldier, sailor or airman from his allegiance or his duty, shall be punished with
imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
160. Whoever abets the committing of mutiny by an officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in
the Army, Navy or Air Force of the Government of India, shall, if mutiny be committed in
consequence of that abetment, be punished with death or with imprisonment for life, or
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be
liable to fine.
161. Whoever abets an assault by an officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in the Army,
Navy or Air Force of the Government of India, on any superior officer being in the execution
of his office, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Committing
depredation on
territories of
foreign State
at peace with
Government
of India.
Receiving
property taken
by war or
depredation
mentioned in
sections 153
and 154.
Public servant
voluntarily
allowing
prisoner of
State or war to
escape.
Public servant
negligently
suffering such
prisoner to
escape.
Aiding escape
of, rescuing or
harbouring
such prisoner.
Abetting
mutiny, or
attempting to
seduce a
soldier, sailor
or airman
from his duty.
Abetment of
mutiny, if
mutiny is
committed in
consequence
thereof.
Abetment of
assault by
soldier, sailor
or airman on
his superior
officer, when
in execution of
his office.
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162. Whoever abets an assault by an officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in the Army,
Navy or Air Force of the Government of India, on any superior officer being in the execution
of his office, shall, if such assault be committed in consequence of that abetment be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
163. Whoever abets the desertion of any officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in the Army,
Navy or Air Force of the Government of India, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
164. Whoever, except as hereinafter excepted, knowing or having reason to believe
that an officer, soldier, sailor or airman, in the Army, Navy or Air Force of the Government of
India, has deserted, harbours such officer, soldier, sailor or airman, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine or
with both.
Exception.—This provision does not extend to the case in which the harbour is given
by the spouse of the deserter.
165. The master or person in charge of a merchant vessel, on board of which any
deserter from the Army, Navy or Air Force of the Government of India is concealed, shall,
though ignorant of such concealment, be liable to a penalty not exceeding three thousand
rupees, if he might have known of such concealment but for some neglect of his duty as such
master or person in charge, or but for some want of discipline on board of the vessel.
166. Whoever abets what he knows to be an act of insubordination by an officer,
soldier, sailor or airman, in the Army, Navy or Air Force, of the Government of India, shall, if
such act of insubordination be committed in consequence of that abetment, be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both.
167. No person subject to the Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950 and the Navy
Act, 1957, or shall be subject to punishment under this Sanhita for any of the offences
defined in this Chapter.
168. Whoever, not being a soldier, sailor or airman in the Army, Naval or Air service of
the Government of India, wears any garb or carries any token resembling any garb or token
used by such a soldier, sailor or airman with the intention that it may be believed that he is
such a soldier, sailor or airman, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand
rupees, or with both.
CHAPTER IX
OF OFFENCES RELATING TO ELECTIONS
169. For the purposes of this Chapter—
(a) “candidate” means a person who has been nominated as a candidate at any
election;
(b) “electoral right” means the right of a person to stand, or not to stand as, or to
withdraw from being, a candidate or to vote or refrain from voting at an election.
170. (1) Whoever—
(i) gives a gratification to any person with the object of inducing him or any
other person to exercise any electoral right or of rewarding any person for having
exercised any such right; or
Abetment of
such assault, if
assault
committed.
Abetment of
desertion of
soldier, sailor
or airman.
Harbouring
deserter.
Deserter
concealed on
board
merchant
vessel through
negligence of
master.
Abetment of
act of
insubordination
by soldier,
sailor or
airman.
Persons subject
to certain
Acts.
Wearing garb
or carrying
token used by
soldier, sailor
or airman.
Candidate,
electoral right
defined.
Bribery.
45 of 1950.
46 of 1950.
62 of 1957.
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(ii) accepts either for himself or for any other person any gratification as a
reward for exercising any such right or for inducing or attempting to induce any other
person to exercise any such right,
commits the offence of bribery:
Provided that a declaration of public policy or a promise of public action shall not be an
offence under this section.
(2) A person who offers, or agrees to give, or offers or attempts to procure, a gratification
shall be deemed to give a gratification.
(3) A person who obtains or agrees to accept or attempts to obtain a gratification shall
be deemed to accept a gratification, and a person who accepts a gratification as a motive for
doing what he does not intend to do, or as a reward for doing what he has not done, shall be
deemed to have accepted the gratification as a reward.
171. (1) Whoever voluntarily interferes or attempts to interfere with the free exercise of
any electoral right commits the offence of undue influence at an election.
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of sub-section (1), whoever—
(a) threatens any candidate or voter, or any person in whom a candidate or voter
is interested, with injury of any kind; or
(b) induces or attempts to induce a candidate or voter to believe that he or any
person in whom he is interested will become or will be rendered an object of Divine
displeasure or of spiritual censure,
shall be deemed to interfere with the free exercise of the electoral right of such candidate or
voter, within the meaning of sub-section (1).
(3) A declaration of public policy or a promise of public action or the mere exercise or
a legal right without intent to interfere with an electoral right, shall not be deemed to be
interference within the meaning of this section.
172. Whoever at an election applies for a voting paper on votes in the name of any
other person, whether living or dead, or in a fictitious name, or who having voted once at
such election applies at the same election for a voting paper in his own name, and whoever
abets, procures or attempts to procure the voting by any person in any such way, commits
the offence of personation at an election:
Provided that nothing in this section shall apply to a person who has been authorised
to vote as proxy for an elector under any law for the time being in force in so far as he votes
as a proxy for such elector.
173. Whoever commits the offence of bribery shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both:
Provided that bribery by treating shall be punished with fine only.
Explanation.—“Treating” means that form of bribery where the gratification consists
in food, drink, entertainment, or provision.
174. Whoever commits the offence of undue influence or personation at an election
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
one year or with fine, or with both.
175. Whoever with intent to affect the result of an election makes or publishes any
statement purporting to be a statement of fact which is false and which he either knows or
believes to be false or does not believe to be true, in relation to the personal character or
conduct of any candidate shall be punished with fine.
Undue
influence at
elections.
Personation at
elections.
Punishment
for bribery.
Punishment
for undue
influence or
personation at
an election.
False
statement in
connection
with an
election.
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176. Whoever without the general or special authority in writing of a candidate incurs
or authorises expenses on account of the holding of any public meeting, or upon any
advertisement, circular or publication, or in any other way whatsoever for the purpose of
promoting or procuring the election of such candidate, shall be punished with fine which
may extend to ten thousand rupees:
Provided that if any person having incurred any such expenses not exceeding the
amount of ten rupees without authority obtains within ten days from the date on which such
expenses were incurred the approval in writing of the candidate, he shall be deemed to have
incurred such expenses with the authority of the candidate.
177. Whoever being required by any law for the time being in force or any rule having
the force of law to keep accounts of expenses incurred at or in connection with an election
fails to keep such accounts shall be punished with fine which may extend to five thousand
rupees.
CHAPTER X
OF OFFENCES RELATING TO COIN, CURRENCY-NOTES, BANK-NOTES, AND GOVERNMENT STAMPS
178. Whoever counterfeits, or knowingly performs any part of the process
of counterfeiting, any coin, stamp issued by Government for the purpose of revenue,
currency-note or bank-note, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this Chapter,—
(1) the expression “bank-note” means a promissory note or engagement for the
payment of money to bearer on demand issued by any person carrying on the business
of banking in any part of the world, or issued by or under the authority of any State or
Sovereign Power, and intended to be used as equivalent to, or as a substitute for
money;
(2) “coin” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in section 2 of the
Coinage Act, 2011 and includes metal used for the time being as money and is stamped
and issued by or under the authority of any State or Sovereign Power intended to be
so used;
(3) a person commits the offence of “counterfeiting Government stamp” who
counterfeits by causing a genuine stamp of one denomination to appear like a genuine
stamp of a different denomination;
(4) a person commits the offence of counterfeiting coin who intending to practise
deception, or knowing it to be likely that deception will thereby be practised, causes a
genuine coin to appear like a different coin; and
(5) the offence of “counterfeiting coin” includes diminishing the weight or
alteration of the composition, or alteration of the appearance of the coin.
179. Whoever imports or exports, or sells or delivers to, or buys or receives from, any
other person, or otherwise traffics or uses as genuine, any forged or counterfeit coin, stamp,
currency-note or bank-note, knowing or having reason to believe the same to be forged or
counterfeit, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
180. Whoever has in his possession any forged or counterfeit coin, stamp,
currency-note or bank-note, knowing or having reason to believe the same to be forged or
counterfeit and intending to use the same as genuine or that it may be used as genuine, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—If a person establishes the possession of the forged or counterfeit
coin, stamp, currency-note or bank-note to be from a lawful source, it shall not constitute an
offence under this section.
Illegal
payments in
connection
with an
election.
Failure to keep
election
accounts.
Counterfeiting
coin,
Government
stamps,
currency-notes
or bank-notes.
Using as
genuine, forged
or counterfeit
coin,
Government
stamp,
currency-notes
or bank-notes.
Possession of
forged or
counterfeit
coin,
Government
stamp,
currency-notes
or bank-notes.
11 of 2011.
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181. Whoever makes or mends, or performs any part of the process of making or
mending, or buys or sells or disposes of, or has in his possession, any machinery, die, or
instrument or material for the purpose of being used, or knowing or having reason to believe
that it is intended to be used, for forging or counterfeiting any coin, stamp issued by
Government for the purpose of revenue, currency-note or bank-note, shall be punished with
imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
182. (1) Whoever makes, or causes to be made, or uses for any purpose whatsoever,
or delivers to any person, any document purporting to be, or in any way resembling, or so
nearly resembling as to be calculated to deceive, any currency-note or bank-note shall be
punished with fine which may extend to three hundred rupees.
(2) If any person, whose name appears on a document the making of which is an
offence under sub-section (1), refuses, without lawful excuse, to disclose to a police officer
on being so required the name and address of the person by whom it was printed or otherwise
made, he shall be punished with fine which may extend to six hundred rupees.
(3) Where the name of any person appears on any document in respect of which any
person is charged with an offence under sub-section (1) or on any other document used or
distributed in connection with that document it may, until the contrary is proved, be presumed
that the person caused the document to be made.
183. Whoever, fraudulently or with intent to cause loss to the Government, removes or
effaces from any substance, bearing any stamp issued by Government for the purpose of
revenue, any writing or document for which such stamp has been used, or removes from any
writing or document a stamp which has been used for such writing or document, in order that
such stamp may be used for a different writing or document, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or
with both.
184. Whoever, fraudulently or with intent to cause loss to the Government, uses for
any purpose a stamp issued by Government for the purpose of revenue, which he knows to
have been before used, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
185. Whoever, fraudulently or with intent to cause loss to Government, erases or
removes from a stamp issued by Government for the purpose of revenue, any mark, put or
impressed upon such stamp for the purpose of denoting that the same has been used, or
knowingly has in his possession or sells or disposes of any such stamp from which such
mark has been erased or removed, or sells or disposes of any such stamp which he knows to
have been used, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
186. (1) Whoever—
(a) makes, knowingly utters, deals in or sells any fictitious stamp, or knowingly
uses for any postal purpose any fictitious stamp; or
(b) has in his possession, without lawful excuse, any fictitious stamp; or
(c) makes or, without lawful excuse, has in his possession any die, plate,
instrument or materials for making any fictitious stamp,
Making or
possessing
instruments or
materials for
forging or
counterfeiting
coin,
Government
stamp,
currency-notes
or bank-notes.
Making or
using
documents
resembling
currency-notes
or bank-notes.
Effacing
writing from
substance
bearing
Government
stamp, or
removing from
document a
stamp used for
it, with intent
to cause loss to
Government.
Using
Government
stamp known
to have been
before used.
Erasure of
mark denoting
that stamp has
been used.
Prohibition of
fictitious
stamps.
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shall be punished with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees.
(2) Any such stamp, die, plate, instrument or materials in the possession of any person
for making any fictitious stamp may be seized and, if seized shall be forfeited.
(3) In this section “fictitious stamp” means any stamp falsely purporting to be issued
by Government for the purpose of denoting a rate of postage, or any facsimile or imitation or
representation, whether on paper or otherwise, of any stamp issued by Government for that
purpose.
(4) In this section and also in sections 178 to 181 (both inclusive), and sections 183 to
185 (both inclusive) the word “Government”, when used in connection with, or in reference
to any stamp issued for the purpose of denoting a rate of postage, shall, notwithstanding
anything in clause (12) of section 2, be deemed to include the person or persons authorised
by law to administer executive Government in any part of India or in any foreign country.
187. Whoever, being employed in any mint lawfully established in India, does any act,
or omits what he is legally bound to do, with the intention of causing any coin issued from
that mint to be of a different weight or composition from the weight or composition fixed by
law, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
188. Whoever, without lawful authority, takes out of any mint, lawfully established in
India, any coining tool or instrument, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
CHAPTER XI
OF OFFENCES AGAINST THE PUBLIC TRANQUILLITY
189. (1) An assembly of five or more persons is designated an “unlawful assembly”, if
the common object of the persons composing that assembly is—
(a) to overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force, the Central Government
or any State Government or Parliament or the Legislature of any State, or any public
servant in the exercise of the lawful power of such public servant; or
(b) to resist the execution of any law, or of any legal process; or
(c) to commit any mischief or criminal trespass, or other offence; or
(d) by means of criminal force, or show of criminal force, to any person, to take or
obtain possession of any property, or to deprive any person of the enjoyment of a
right of way, or of the use of water or other incorporeal right of which he is in possession
or enjoyment, or to enforce any right or supposed right; or
(e) by means of criminal force, or show of criminal force, to compel any person to
do what he is not legally bound to do, or to omit to do what he is legally entitled to do.
Explanation.—An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled, may
subsequently become an unlawful assembly.
(2) Whoever, being aware of facts which render any assembly an unlawful assembly,
intentionally joins that assembly, or continues in it, is said to be a member of an unlawful
assembly and such member shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever joins or continues in an unlawful assembly, knowing that such unlawful
assembly has been commanded in the manner prescribed by law to disperse, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both.
Person
employed in
mint causing
coin to be of
different
weight or
composition
from that
fixed by law.
Unlawfully
taking coining
instrument
from mint.
Unlawful
assembly.
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(4) Whoever, being armed with any deadly weapon, or with anything which, used as a
weapon of offence, is likely to cause death, is a member of an unlawful assembly, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years,
or with fine, or with both.
(5) Whoever knowingly joins or continues in any assembly of five or more persons
likely to cause a disturbance of the public peace, after such assembly has been lawfully
commanded to disperse, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—If the assembly is an unlawful assembly within the meaning of
sub-section (1), the offender shall be punishable under sub-section (3).
(6) Whoever hires or engages, or employs, or promotes, or connives at the hiring,
engagement or employment of any person to join or become a member of any unlawful
assembly, shall be punishable as a member of such unlawful assembly, and for any offence
which may be committed by any such person as a member of such unlawful assembly in
pursuance of such hiring, engagement or employment, in the same manner as if he had been
a member of such unlawful assembly, or himself had committed such offence.
(7) Whoever harbours, receives or assembles, in any house or premises in his
occupation or charge, or under his control any persons knowing that such persons have
been hired, engaged or employed, or are about to be hired, engaged or employed, to join or
become members of an unlawful assembly, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
(8) Whoever is engaged, or hired, or offers or attempts to be hired or engaged, to do or
assist in doing any of the acts specified in sub-section (1), shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
(9) Whoever, being so engaged or hired as referred to in sub-section (8), goes armed,
or engages or offers to go armed, with any deadly weapon or with anything which used as a
weapon of offence is likely to cause death, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
190. If an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution
of the common object of that assembly, or such as the members of that assembly knew to be
likely to be committed in prosecution of that object, every person who, at the time of the
committing of that offence, is a member of the same assembly, is guilty of that offence.
191. (1) Whenever force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly, or by any
member thereof, in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, every member of
such assembly is guilty of the offence of rioting.
(2) Whoever is guilty of rioting, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever is guilty of rioting, being armed with a deadly weapon or with anything
which, used as a weapon of offence, is likely to cause death, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or
with both.
192.Whoever malignantly, or wantonly by doing anything which is illegal, gives
provocation to any person intending or knowing it to be likely that such provocation will
cause the offence of rioting to be committed, shall, if the offence of rioting be committed in
consequence of such provocation, be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both; and if the offence of rioting
be not committed, with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six
months, or with fine, or with both.
Every member
of unlawful
assembly guilty
of offence
committed in
prosecution of
common
object.
Rioting.
Wantonly
giving
provocation
with intent to
cause riot-if
rioting be
committed; if
not
committed.
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193. (1) Whenever any unlawful assembly or riot takes place, the owner or occupier of
the land upon which such unlawful assembly is held, or such riot is committed, and any
person having or claiming an interest in such land, shall be punishable with fine not exceeding
one thousand rupees, if he or his agent or manager, knowing that such offence is being or
has been committed, or having reason to believe it is likely to be committed, do not give
the earliest notice thereof in his or their power to the officer in charge at the nearest
police station, and do not, in the case of his or their having reason to believe that it was about
to be committed, use all lawful means in his or their power to prevent it and, in the event of its
taking place, do not use all lawful means in his or their power to disperse or suppress the riot
or unlawful assembly.
(2) Whenever a riot is committed for the benefit or on behalf of any person who is the
owner or occupier of any land respecting which such riot takes place or who claims any
interest in such land, or in the subject of any dispute which gave rise to the riot, or who has
accepted or derived any benefit therefrom, such person shall be punishable with fine, if he or
his agent or manager, having reason to believe that such riot was likely to be committed or
that the unlawful assembly by which such riot was committed was likely to be held, shall not
respectively use all lawful means in his or their power to prevent such assembly or riot from
taking place, and for suppressing and dispersing the same.
(3) Whenever a riot is committed for the benefit or on behalf of any person who is the
owner or occupier of any land respecting which such riot takes place, or who claims any
interest in such land, or in the subject of any dispute which gave rise to the riot, or who has
accepted or derived any benefit therefrom, the agent or manager of such person shall be
punishable with fine, if such agent or manager, having reason to believe that such riot was
likely to be committed, or that the unlawful assembly by which such riot was committed was
likely to be held, shall not use all lawful means in his power to prevent such riot or assembly
from taking place and for suppressing and dispersing the same.
194. (1) When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public
peace, they are said to commit an affray.
(2) Whoever commits an affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand
rupees, or with both.
195. (1) Whoever assaults or obstructs any public servant or uses criminal force on
any public servant in the discharge of his duty as such public servant in endeavouring to
disperse an unlawful assembly, or to suppress a riot or affray, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine
which shall not be less than twenty-five thousand rupees, or with both.
(2) Whoever threatens to assault or attempts to obstruct any public servant or threatens
or attempts to use criminal force to any public servant in the discharge of his duty as such
public servant in endeavouring to disperse an unlawful assembly, or to suppress a riot or
affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to one year, or with fine, or with both.
196. (1) Whoever—
(a) by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations
or through electronic communication or otherwise, promotes or attempts to promote,
on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, caste or community or
any other ground whatsoever, disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred or ill-will
between different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or
communities; or
Liability of
owner,
occupier, etc.,
of land on
which an
unlawful
assembly or
riot takes
place.
Affray.
Assaulting or
obstructing
public servant
when
suppressing
riot, etc.
Promoting
enmity
between
different
groups on
grounds of
religion, race,
place of birth,
residence,
language, etc.,
and doing acts
prejudicial to
maintenance
of harmony.
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(b) commits any act which is prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between
different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities, and
which disturbs or is likely to disturb the public tranquillity; or
(c) organises any exercise, movement, drill or other similar activity intending that
the participants in such activity shall use or be trained to use criminal force or violence
or knowing it to be likely that the participants in such activity will use or be trained to
use criminal force or violence, or participates in such activity intending to use or be
trained to use criminal force or violence or knowing it to be likely that the participants
in such activity will use or be trained to use criminal force or violence, against any
religious, racial, language or regional group or caste or community and such activity
for any reason whatsoever causes or is likely to cause fear or alarm or a feeling of
insecurity amongst members of such religious, racial, language or regional group or
caste or community,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with
both.
(2) Whoever commits an offence specified in sub-section (1) in any place of worship
or in any assembly engaged in the performance of religious worship or religious ceremonies,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to five years and shall also be liable
to fine.
197. (1) Whoever, by words either spoken or written or by signs or by visible
representations or through electronic communication or otherwise,—
(a) makes or publishes any imputation that any class of persons cannot, by
reason of their being members of any religious, racial, language or regional group or
caste or community, bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law
established or uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India; or
(b) asserts, counsels, advises, propagates or publishes that any class of persons
shall, by reason of their being members of any religious, racial, language or regional
group or caste or community, be denied, or deprived of their rights as citizens of India; or
(c) makes or publishes any assertion, counsel, plea or appeal concerning the
obligation of any class of persons, by reason of their being members of any religious,
racial, language or regional group or caste or community, and such assertion, counsel,
plea or appeal causes or is likely to cause disharmony or feelings of enmity or hatred or
ill-will between such members and other persons; or
(d) makes or publishes false or misleading information, jeopardising the
sovereignty, unity and integrity or security of India,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with
both.
(2) Whoever commits an offence specified in sub-section (1) in any place of worship
or in any assembly engaged in the performance of religious worship or religious ceremonies,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to five years and shall also be liable
to fine.
CHAPTER XII
OF OFFENCES BY OR RELATING TO PUBLIC SERVANTS
198. Whoever, being a public servant, knowingly disobeys any direction of the law as
to the way in which he is to conduct himself as such public servant, intending to cause, or
knowing it to be likely that he will by such disobedience, cause injury to any person, shall be
punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or
with both.
Imputations,
assertions
prejudicial to
national
integration.
Public servant
disobeying law,
with intent to
cause injury to
any person.
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Illustration.
A, being an officer directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a
decree pronounced in Z’s favour by a Court, knowingly disobeys that direction of law, with
the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to Z. A has committed the offence
defined in this section.
199. Whoever, being a public servant,—
(a) knowingly disobeys any direction of the law which prohibits him from requiring
the attendance at any place of any person for the purpose of investigation into an
offence or any other matter; or
(b) knowingly disobeys, to the prejudice of any person, any other direction of
the law regulating the manner in which he shall conduct such investigation; or
(c) fails to record any information given to him under sub-section (1) of
section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in relation to cognizable
offence punishable under section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68,
section 70, section 71, section 74, section 76, section 77, section 79, section 124,
section 143 or section 144,
shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six
months but which may extend to two years, and shall also be liable to fine.
200. Whoever, being in charge of a hospital, public or private, whether run by the
Central Government, the State Government, local bodies or any other person, contravenes
the provisions of section 397 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with
both.
201. Whoever, being a public servant, and being, as such public servant, charged with
the preparation or translation of any document or electronic record, frames, prepares or
translates that document or electronic record in a manner which he knows or believes to be
incorrect, intending thereby to cause or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause
injury to any person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
202. Whoever, being a public servant, and being legally bound as such public servant
not to engage in trade, engages in trade, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a
term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both or with community service.
203. Whoever, being a public servant, and being legally bound as such public servant,
not to purchase or bid for certain property, purchases or bids for that property, either in his
own name or in the name of another, or jointly, or in shares with others, shall be punished
with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both;
and the property, if purchased, shall be confiscated.
204. Whoever pretends to hold any particular office as a public servant, knowing that
he does not hold such office or falsely personates any other person holding such office, and
in such assumed character does or attempts to do any act under colour of such office, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
six months but which may extend to three years and with fine.
205. Whoever, not belonging to a certain class of public servants, wears any garb or
carries any token resembling any garb or token used by that class of public servants, with
the intention that it may be believed, or with the knowledge that it is likely to be believed, that
he belongs to that class of public servants, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees, or with both.
Public servant
disobeying
direction under
law.
Punishment
for non-
treatment of
victim.
Public servant
framing an
incorrect
document with
intent to cause
injury.
Public servant
unlawfully
engaging in
trade.
Public servant
unlawfully
buying or
bidding for
property.
Personating a
public servant.
Wearing garb
or carrying
token used by
public servant
with fraudulent
intent.
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CHAPTER XIII
OF CONTEMPTS OF THE LAWFUL AUTHORITY OF PUBLIC SERVANTS
206. Whoever absconds in order to avoid being served with a summons, notice or
order proceeding from any public servant legally competent, as such public servant, to issue
such summons, notice or order,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) where such summons or notice or order is to attend in person or by agent, or
to produce a document or an electronic record in a Court shall be punished with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend
to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
207. Whoever in any manner intentionally prevents the serving on himself, or on any
other person, of any summons, notice or order proceeding from any public servant legally
competent, as such public servant, to issue such summons, notice or order, or intentionally
prevents the lawful affixing to any place of any such summons, notice or order or intentionally
removes any such summons, notice or order from any place to which it is lawfully affixed or
intentionally prevents the lawful making of any proclamation, under the authority of any
public servant legally competent, as such public servant, to direct such proclamation to be
made,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) where the summons, notice, order or proclamation is to attend in person or by
agent, or to produce a document or electronic record in a Court, with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend
to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
208. Whoever, being legally bound to attend in person or by an agent at a certain place
and time in obedience to a summons, notice, order, or proclamation proceeding from any
public servant legally competent, as such public servant, to issue the same, intentionally
omits to attend at that place or time or departs from the place where he is bound to attend
before the time at which it is lawful for him to depart,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) where the summons, notice, order or proclamation is to attend in person or by
agent in a Court with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months,
or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A, being legally bound to appear before a High Court, in obedience to a
subpoena issuing from that Court, intentionally omits to appear. A has committed the
offence defined in this section.
(b) A, being legally bound to appear before a District Judge, as a witness, in
obedience to a summons issued by that District Judge intentionally omits to appear. A
has committed the offence defined in this section.
209. Whoever fails to appear at the specified place and the specified time as required
by a proclamation published under sub-section (1) of section 84 of the Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service, and where a declaration has
been made under sub-section (4) of that section pronouncing him as a proclaimed offender,
he shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall
also be liable to fine.
Absconding to
avoid service
of summons or
other
proceeding.
Preventing
service of
summons or
other
proceeding, or
preventing
publication
thereof.
Non-
attendance in
obedience to
an order from
public servant.
Non-
appearance in
response to a
proclamation
under
section 84 of
Bharatiya
Nagarik
Suraksha
Sanhita, 2023.
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210. Whoever, being legally bound to produce or deliver up any document or electronic
record to any public servant, as such, intentionally omits so to produce or deliver up the
same,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) and where the document or electronic record is to be produced or delivered
up to a Court with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or
with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
Illustration.
A, being legally bound to produce a document before a District Court, intentionally
omits to produce the same. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
211. Whoever, being legally bound to give any notice or to furnish information on any
subject to any public servant, as such, intentionally omits to give such notice or to furnish
such information in the manner and at the time required by law,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one month, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) where the notice or information required to be given respects the commission
of an offence, or is required for the purpose of preventing the commission of an
offence, or in order to the apprehension of an offender, with simple imprisonment for a
term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand
rupees, or with both;
(c) where the notice or information required to be given is required by an order
passed under section 394 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with
fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
212. Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any
public servant, as such, furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has
reason to believe to be false,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both;
(b) where the information which he is legally bound to give respects the
commission of an offence, or is required for the purpose of preventing the commission
of an offence, or in order to the apprehension of an offender, with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of
his estate, wilfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred
by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake. A is guilty of the offence defined in
this section.
(b) A, a village watchman, knowing that a considerable body of strangers has
passed through his village in order to commit a dacoity in the house of Z, a wealthy
merchant residing in a neighbouring place, and being legally bound to give early and
punctual information of the above fact to the officer of the nearest police station,
wilfully misinforms the police officer that a body of suspicious characters passed
through the village with a view to commit dacoity in a certain distant place in a different
direction. Here A is guilty of the offence defined in this section.
Omission to
produce
document or
electronic
record to
public servant
by person
legally bound
to produce it.
Omission to
give notice or
information to
public servant
by person
legally bound
to give it.
Furnishing
false
information.
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Explanation.—In section 211 and in this section the word “offence” include any act
committed at any place out of India, which, if committed in India, would be punishable
under any of the following sections, namely, 103, 105, 307, sub-sections (2), (3) and (4) of
section 309, sub-sections (2), (3), (4) and (5) of section 310, 311, 312, clauses (f) and (g) of
section 326, sub-sections (4), (6), (7) and (8) of section 331, clauses (a) and (b) of
section 332 and the word “offender” includes any person who is alleged to have been
guilty of any such act.
213. Whoever refuses to bind himself by an oath or affirmation to state the truth,
when required so to bind himself by a public servant legally competent to require that he
shall so bind himself, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
214. Whoever, being legally bound to state the truth on any subject to any public
servant, refuses to answer any question demanded of him touching that subject by such
public servant in the exercise of the legal powers of such public servant, shall be punished
with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which
may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
215. Whoever refuses to sign any statement made by him, when required to sign
that statement by a public servant legally competent to require that he shall sign that
statement, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three months, or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees, or with both.
216. Whoever, being legally bound by an oath or affirmation to state the truth on
any subject to any public servant or other person authorised by law to administer such
oath or affirmation, makes, to such public servant or other person as aforesaid, touching
that subject, any statement which is false, and which he either knows or believes to be
false or does not believe to be true, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
217. Whoever gives to any public servant any information which he knows or
believes to be false, intending thereby to cause, or knowing it to be likely that he will
thereby cause, such public servant—
(a) to do or omit anything which such public servant ought not to do or omit
if the true state of facts respecting which such information is given were known by
him; or
(b) to use the lawful power of such public servant to the injury or annoyance
of any person,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
one year, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A informs a Magistrate that Z, a police officer, subordinate to such Magistrate,
has been guilty of neglect of duty or misconduct, knowing such information to be false,
and knowing it to be likely that the information will cause the Magistrate to dismiss Z. A
has committed the offence defined in this section.
(b) A falsely informs a public servant that Z has contraband salt in a secret place,
knowing such information to be false, and knowing that it is likely that the consequence
of the information will be a search of Z’s premises, attended with annoyance to Z. A has
committed the offence defined in this section.
Refusing oath
or affirmation
when duly
required by
public servant
to make it.
Refusing to
answer public
servant
authorised to
question.
Refusing to
sign statement.
False
statement on
oath or
affirmation to
public servant
or person
authorised to
administer an
oath or
affirmation.
False
information,
with intent to
cause public
servant to use
his lawful
power to
injury of
another
person.
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(c) A falsely informs a policeman that he has been assaulted and robbed in the
neighbourhood of a particular village. He does not mention the name of any person as one
of his assailants, but knows it to be likely that in consequence of this information the
police will make enquiries and institute searches in the village to the annoyance of the
villagers or some of them. A has committed an offence under this section.
218. Whoever offers any resistance to the taking of any property by the lawful
authority of any public servant, knowing or having reason to believe that he is such
public servant, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with
both.
219. Whoever intentionally obstructs any sale of property offered for sale by the
lawful authority of any public servant, as such, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may
extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
220. Whoever, at any sale of property held by the lawful authority of a public
servant, as such, purchases or bids for any property on account of any person, whether
himself or any other, whom he knows to be under a legal incapacity to purchase that
property at that sale, or bids for such property not intending to perform the obligations
under which he lays himself by such bidding, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may
extend to two hundred rupees, or with both.
221. Whoever voluntarily obstructs any public servant in the discharge of his
public functions, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand and
five hundred rupees, or with both.
222. Whoever, being bound by law to render or furnish assistance to any public
servant in the execution of his public duty, intentionally omits to give such assistance,––
(a) shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend
to one month, or with fine which may extend to two thousand and five hundred
rupees, or with both;
(b) and where such assistance be demanded of him by a public servant legally
competent to make such demand for the purposes of executing any process lawfully
issued by a Court or of preventing the commission of an offence, or suppressing a
riot, or affray, or of apprehending a person charged with or guilty of an offence, or
of having escaped from lawful custody, shall be punished with simple imprisonment
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both.
223. Whoever, knowing that, by an order promulgated by a public servant lawfully
empowered to promulgate such order, he is directed to abstain from a certain act, or to take
certain order with certain property in his possession or under his management, disobeys
such direction,––
(a) shall, if such disobedience causes or tends to cause obstruction, annoyance
or injury, or risk of obstruction, annoyance or injury, to any person lawfully employed,
be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or
with fine which may extend to two thousand and five hundred rupees, or with both;
Resistance to
taking of
property by
lawful
authority of a
public servant.
Obstructing
sale of
property
offered for sale
by authority of
public servant.
Illegal purchase
or bid for
property
offered for sale
by authority of
public servant.
Obstructing
public servant
in discharge of
public
functions.
Omission to
assist public
servant when
bound by law
to give
assistance.
Disobedience
to order duly
promulgated
by public
servant.
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(b) and where such disobedience causes or tends to cause danger to human
life, health or safety, or causes or tends to cause a riot or affray, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or
with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
Explanation.—It is not necessary that the offender should intend to produce harm,
or contemplate his disobedience as likely to produce harm. It is sufficient that he knows of
the order which he disobeys, and that his disobedience produces, or is likely to produce,
harm.
Illustration.
An order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to promulgate
such order, directing that a religious procession shall not pass down a certain street. A
knowingly disobeys the order, and thereby causes danger of riot. A has committed the
offence defined in this section.
224. Whoever holds out any threat of injury to any public servant, or to any person
in whom he believes that public servant to be interested, for the purpose of inducing that
public servant to do any act, or to forbear or delay to do any act, connected with the
exercise of the public functions of such public servant, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
225. Whoever holds out any threat of injury to any person for the purpose of
inducing that person to refrain or desist from making a legal application for protection
against any injury to any public servant legally empowered as such to give such protection,
or to cause such protection to be given, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
226. Whoever attempts to commit suicide with the intent to compel or restrain any
public servant from discharging his official duty shall be punished with simple imprisonment
for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both, or with community
service.
CHAPTER XIV
OF FALSE EVIDENCE AND OFFENCES AGAINST PUBLIC JUSTICE
227. Whoever, being legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law to
state the truth, or being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject, makes any
statement which is false, and which he either knows or believes to be false or does not
believe to be true, is said to give false evidence.
Explanation 1.—A statement is within the meaning of this section, whether it is
made verbally or otherwise.
Explanation 2.—A false statement as to the belief of the person attesting is within
the meaning of this section, and a person may be guilty of giving false evidence by
stating that he believes a thing which he does not believe, as well as by stating that he
knows a thing which he does not know.
Illustrations.
(a) A, in support of a just claim which B has against Z for one thousand rupees,
falsely swears on a trial that he heard Z admit the justice of B’s claim. A has given false
evidence.
Threat of
injury to
public servant.
Threat of
injury to
induce person
to refrain
from applying
for protection
to public
servant.
Attempt to
commit suicide
to compel or
restrain
exercise of
lawful power.
Giving false
evidence.
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(b) A, being bound by an oath to state the truth, states that he believes a certain
signature to be the handwriting of Z, when he does not believe it to be the handwriting of
Z. Here A states that which he knows to be false, and therefore gives false evidence.
(c) A, knowing the general character of Z’s handwriting, states that he believes a
certain signature to be the handwriting of Z; A in good faith believing it to be so. Here A’s
statement is merely as to his belief, and is true as to his belief, and therefore, although the
signature may not be the handwriting of Z, A has not given false evidence.
(d) A, being bound by an oath to state the truth, states that he knows that Z was at
a particular place on a particular day, not knowing anything upon the subject. A gives
false evidence whether Z was at that place on the day named or not.
(e) A, an interpreter or translator, gives or certifies as a true interpretation or
translation of a statement or document which he is bound by oath to interpret or translate
truly, that which is not and which he does not believe to be a true interpretation or
translation. A has given false evidence.
228. Whoever causes any circumstance to exist or makes any false entry in any
book or record, or electronic record or makes any document or electronic record containing
a false statement, intending that such circumstance, false entry or false statement may
appear in evidence in a judicial proceeding, or in a proceeding taken by law before a public
servant as such, or before an arbitrator, and that such circumstance, false entry or false
statement, so appearing in evidence, may cause any person who in such proceeding is to
form an opinion upon the evidence, to entertain an erroneous opinion touching any point
material to the result of such proceeding is said “to fabricate false evidence”.
Illustrations.
(a) A puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be
found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of theft. A has
fabricated false evidence.
(b) A makes a false entry in his shop-book for the purpose of using it as corroborative
evidence in a Court. A has fabricated false evidence.
(c) A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes
a letter in imitation of Z’s handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in
such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of
the police are likely to search. A has fabricated false evidence.
229. (1) Whoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial
proceeding, or fabricates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a
judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to ten
thousand rupees.
(2) Whoever intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in any case other than
that referred to in sub-section (1), shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine which may
extend to five thousand rupees.
Fabricating
false evidence.
Punishment
for false
evidence.
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Explanation 1.—A trial before a Court-martial is a judicial proceeding.
Explanation 2.—An investigation directed by law preliminary to a proceeding before
a Court, is a stage of a judicial proceeding, though that investigation may not take place
before a Court.
Illustration.
A, in an enquiry before a Magistrate for the purpose of ascertaining whether Z
ought to be committed for trial, makes on oath a statement which he knows to be false. As
this enquiry is a stage of a judicial proceeding, A has given false evidence.
Explanation 3.—An investigation directed by a Court according to law, and
conducted under the authority of a Court, is a stage of a judicial proceeding, though that
investigation may not take place before a Court.
Illustration.
A, in an enquiry before an officer deputed by a Court to ascertain on the spot the
boundaries of land, makes on oath a statement which he knows to be false. As this
enquiry is a stage of a judicial proceeding, A has given false evidence.
230. (1) Whoever gives or fabricates false evidence, intending thereby to cause, or
knowing it to be likely that he will thereby cause, any person to be convicted of an
offence which is capital by the law for the time being in force in India shall be punished
with imprisonment for life, or with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to
ten years, and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.
(2) If an innocent person be convicted and executed in consequence of false evidence
referred to in sub-section (1), the person who gives such false evidence shall be punished
either with death or the punishment specified in sub-section (1).
231. Whoever gives or fabricates false evidence intending thereby to cause, or
knowing it to be likely that he will thereby cause, any person to be convicted of an
offence which by the law for the time being in force in India is not capital, but punishable
with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of seven years or upwards, shall be
punished as a person convicted of that offence would be liable to be punished.
Illustration.
A gives false evidence before a Court, intending thereby to cause Z to be convicted
of a dacoity. The punishment of dacoity is imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment
for a term which may extend to ten years, with or without fine. A, therefore, is liable to
imprisonment for life or imprisonment, with or without fine.
232. (1) Whoever threatens another with any injury to his person, reputation or
property or to the person or reputation of any one in whom that person is interested, with
intent to cause that person to give false evidence shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
(2) If innocent person is convicted and sentenced in consequence of false evidence
referred to in sub-section (1), with death or imprisonment for more than seven years, the
person who threatens shall be punished with the same punishment and sentence in the
same manner and to the same extent such innocent person is punished and sentenced.
Giving or
fabricating
false evidence
with intent to
procure
conviction of
capital
offence.
Giving or
fabricating
false evidence
with intent to
procure
conviction of
offence
punishable with
imprisonment
for life or
imprisonment.
Threatening
any person to
give false
evidence.
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233. Whoever corruptly uses or attempts to use as true or genuine evidence any
evidence which he knows to be false or fabricated, shall be punished in the same manner
as if he gave or fabricated false evidence.
234. Whoever issues or signs any certificate required by law to be given or signed,
or relating to any fact of which such certificate is by law admissible in evidence, knowing
or believing that such certificate is false in any material point, shall be punished in the
same manner as if he gave false evidence.
235. Whoever corruptly uses or attempts to use any such certificate as a true
certificate, knowing the same to be false in any material point, shall be punished in the
same manner as if he gave false evidence.
236. Whoever, in any declaration made or subscribed by him, which declaration any
Court or any public servant or other person, is bound or authorised by law to receive as
evidence of any fact, makes any statement which is false, and which he either knows or
believes to be false or does not believe to be true, touching any point material to the
object for which the declaration is made or used, shall be punished in the same manner as
if he gave false evidence.
237. Whoever corruptly uses or attempts to use as true any such declaration,
knowing the same to be false in any material point, shall be punished in the same manner
as if he gave false evidence.
Explanation.—A declaration which is inadmissible merely upon the ground of some
informality, is a declaration within the meaning of section 236 and this section.
238. Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been
committed, causes any evidence of the commission of that offence to disappear, with the
intention of screening the offender from legal punishment, or with that intention gives any
information respecting the offence which he knows or believes to be false shall,—
(a) if the offence which he knows or believes to have been committed is
punishable with death, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(b) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment
which may extend to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(c) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for any term not extending
to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of the description provided for the
offence, for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term of the
imprisonment provided for the offence, or with fine, or with both.
Illustration.
A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to hide the body with the intention of
screening B from punishment. A is liable to imprisonment of either description for seven
years, and also to fine.
239. Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been
committed, intentionally omits to give any information respecting that offence which he is
legally bound to give, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees,
or with both.
Using evidence
known to be
false.
Issuing or
signing false
certificate.
Using as true a
certificate
known to be
false.
False
statement
made in
declaration
which is by
law receivable
as evidence.
Using as true
such
declaration
knowing it to
be false.
Causing
disappearance
of evidence of
offence, or
giving false
information
to screen
offender.
Intentional
omission to
give
information
of offence by
person bound
to inform.
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240. Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been
committed, gives any information respecting that offence which he knows or believes to
be false, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—In sections 238 and 239 and in this section the word “offence”
includes any act committed at any place out of India, which, if committed in India, would
be punishable under any of the following sections, namely, 103, 105, 307, sub-sections (2),
(3) and (4) of section 309, sub-sections (2), (3), (4) and (5) of section 310, 311, 312,
clauses (f) and (g) of section 326, sub-sections (4), (6), (7) and (8) of section 331,
clauses (a) and (b) of section 332.
241. Whoever secretes or destroys any document or electronic record which he
may be lawfully compelled to produce as evidence in a Court or in any proceeding
lawfully held before a public servant, as such, or obliterates or renders illegible the whole
or any part of such document or electronic record with the intention of preventing the
same from being produced or used as evidence before such Court or public servant as
aforesaid, or after he shall have been lawfully summoned or required to produce the same
for that purpose, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees,
or with both.
242. Whoever falsely personates another, and in such assumed character makes
any admission or statement, or confesses judgment, or causes any process to be issued or
becomes bail or security, or does any other act in any suit or criminal prosecution, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
years, or with fine, or with both.
243. Whoever fraudulently removes, conceals, transfers or delivers to any person
any property or any interest therein, intending thereby to prevent that property or interest
therein from being taken as a forfeiture or in satisfaction of a fine, under a sentence which
has been pronounced, or which he knows to be likely to be pronounced, by a Court or
other competent authority, or from being taken in execution of a decree or order which has
been made, or which he knows to be likely to be made by a Court in a civil suit, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
years, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
244. Whoever fraudulently accepts, receives or claims any property or any interest
therein, knowing that he has no right or rightful claim to such property or interest, or
practises any deception touching any right to any property or any interest therein,
intending thereby to prevent that property or interest therein from being taken as a forfeiture
or in satisfaction of a fine, under a sentence which has been pronounced, or which he
knows to be likely to be pronounced by a Court or other competent authority, or from
being taken in execution of a decree or order which has been made, or which he knows to
be likely to be made by a Court in a civil suit, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
245. Whoever fraudulently causes or suffers a decree or order to be passed against
him at the suit of any person for a sum not due or for a larger sum than is due to such
person or for any property or interest in property to which such person is not entitled, or
fraudulently causes or suffers a decree or order to be executed against him after it has
been satisfied, or for anything in respect of which it has been satisfied, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both.
Giving false
information
respecting an
offence
committed.
Destruction of
document or
electronic
record to
prevent its
production as
evidence.
False
personation
for purpose of
act or
proceeding in
suit or
prosecution.
Fraudulent
removal or
concealment
of property to
prevent its
seizure as
forfeited or in
execution.
Fraudulent
claim to
property to
prevent its
seizure as
forfeited or in
execution.
Fraudulently
suffering
decree for sum
not due.
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Illustration.
A institutes a suit against Z. Z, knowing that A is likely to obtain a decree against
him, fraudulently suffers a judgment to pass against him for a larger amount at the suit of
B, who has no just claim against him, in order that B, either on his own account or for the
benefit of Z, may share in the proceeds of any sale of Z’s property which may be made
under A’s decree. Z has committed an offence under this section.
246. Whoever fraudulently or dishonestly, or with intent to injure or annoy any
person, makes in a Court any claim which he knows to be false, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
247. Whoever fraudulently obtains a decree or order against any person for a sum
not due, or for a larger sum than is due or for any property or interest in property to which
he is not entitled, or fraudulently causes a decree or order to be executed against any
person after it has been satisfied or for anything in respect of which it has been satisfied,
or fraudulently suffers or permits any such act to be done in his name, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both.
248. Whoever, with intent to cause injury to any person, institutes or causes to be
instituted any criminal proceeding against that person, or falsely charges any person with
having committed an offence, knowing that there is no just or lawful ground for such
proceeding or charge against that person,—
(a) shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to five years, or with fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or with
both;
(b) if such criminal proceeding be instituted on a false charge of an offence
punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years or upwards,
shall be punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
249. Whenever an offence has been committed, whoever harbours or conceals a
person whom he knows or has reason to believe to be the offender, with the intention of
screening him from legal punishment shall,—
(a) if the offence is punishable with death, be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable
to fine;
(b) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment
which may extend to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(c) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to one
year, and not to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of the description provided
for the offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term of
imprisonment provided for the offence, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.––“Offence” in this section includes any act committed at any place
out of India, which, if committed in India, would be punishable under any of the following
sections, namely, 103, 105, 307, sub-sections (2), (3) and (4) of section 309, sub-sections (2),
(3), (4) and (5) of section 310, 311, 312, clauses (f) and (g) of section 326, sub-sections (4),
(6), (7) and (8) of section 331, clauses (a) and (b) of section 332 and every such act shall,
for the purposes of this section, be deemed to be punishable as if the accused person had
been guilty of it in India.
Dishonestly
making false
claim in
Court.
Fraudulently
obtaining
decree for sum
not due.
False charge
of offence
made with
intent to
injure.
Harbouring
offender.
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Exception.—This section shall not extend to any case in which the harbour or
concealment is by the spouse of the offender.
Illustration.
A, knowing that B has committed dacoity, knowingly conceals B in order to screen
him from legal punishment. Here, as B is liable to imprisonment for life, A is liable to
imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding three years, and is also liable
to fine.
250. Whoever accepts or attempts to obtain, or agrees to accept, any gratification
for himself or any other person, or any restitution of property to himself or any other
person, in consideration of his concealing an offence or of his screening any person from
legal punishment for any offence, or of his not proceeding against any person for the
purpose of bringing him to legal punishment shall,––
(a) if the offence is punishable with death, be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be
liable to fine;
(b) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment
which may extend to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(c) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment not extending to ten years,
be punished with imprisonment of the description provided for the offence for a
term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term of imprisonment
provided for the offence, or with fine, or with both.
251. Whoever gives or causes, or offers or agrees to give or cause, any gratification
to any person, or restores or causes the restoration of any property to any person, in
consideration of that person’s concealing an offence, or of his screening any person from
legal punishment for any offence, or of his not proceeding against any person for the
purpose of bringing him to legal punishment shall,––
(a) if the offence is punishable with death, be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be
liable to fine;
(b) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life or with imprisonment
which may extend to ten years, be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(c) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment not extending to ten years,
be punished with imprisonment of the description provided for the offence for a
term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term of imprisonment
provided for the offence, or with fine, or with both.
Exception.—The provisions of this section and section 250 do not extend to any
case in which the offence may lawfully be compounded.
252. Whoever takes or agrees or consents to take any gratification under pretence
or on account of helping any person to recover any movable property of which he shall
have been deprived by any offence punishable under this Sanhita, shall, unless he uses
all means in his power to cause the offender to be apprehended and convicted of the
Taking gift,
etc., to screen
an offender
from
punishment.
Offering gift
or restoration
of property in
consideration
of screening
offender.
Taking gift to
help to
recover stolen
property, etc.
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offence, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to two years, or with fine, or with both.
253. Whenever any person convicted of or charged with an offence, being in lawful
custody for that offence, escapes from such custody, or whenever a public servant, in the
exercise of the lawful powers of such public servant, orders a certain person to be
apprehended for an offence, whoever, knowing of such escape or order for apprehension,
harbours or conceals that person with the intention of preventing him from being
apprehended, shall be punished in the manner following, namely:––
(a) if the offence for which the person was in custody or is ordered to be
apprehended is punishable with death, he shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be
liable to fine;
(b) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment for
ten years, he shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, with or without fine;
(c) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to one
year and not to ten years, he shall be punished with imprisonment of the description
provided for the offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the
longest term of the imprisonment provided for such offence, or with fine, or with
both.
Explanation.––“Offence” in this section includes also any act or omission of which
a person is alleged to have been guilty out of India, which, if he had been guilty of it in
India, would have been punishable as an offence, and for which he is, under any law
relating to extradition, or otherwise, liable to be apprehended or detained in custody in
India, and every such act or omission shall, for the purposes of this section, be deemed to
be punishable as if the accused person had been guilty of it in India.
Exception.—The provisions of this section do not extend to the case in which the
harbour or concealment is by the spouse of the person to be apprehended.
254. Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that any persons are about to
commit or have recently committed robbery or dacoity, harbours them or any of them, with
the intention of facilitating the commission of such robbery or dacoity, or of screening
them or any of them from punishment, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a
term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section it is immaterial whether the robbery
or dacoity is intended to be committed, or has been committed, within or without India.
Exception.—The provisions of this section do not extend to the case in which the
harbour is by the spouse of the offender.
255. Whoever, being a public servant, knowingly disobeys any direction of the law
as to the way in which he is to conduct himself as such public servant, intending thereby
to save, or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby save, any person from legal
punishment, or subject him to a less punishment than that to which he is liable, or with
intent to save, or knowing that he is likely thereby to save, any property from forfeiture or
any charge to which it is liable by law, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Harbouring
offender who
has escaped
from custody
or whose
apprehension
has been
ordered.
Penalty for
harbouring
robbers or
dacoits.
Public servant
disobeying
direction of
law with
intent to save
person from
punishment or
property from
forfeiture.
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256. Whoever, being a public servant, and being as such public servant, charged
with the preparation of any record or other writing, frames that record or writing in a
manner which he knows to be incorrect, with intent to cause, or knowing it to be likely that
he will thereby cause, loss or injury to the public or to any person, or with intent thereby
to save, or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby save, any person from legal
punishment, or with intent to save, or knowing that he is likely thereby to save, any
property from forfeiture or other charge to which it is liable by law, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine,
or with both.
257. Whoever, being a public servant, corruptly or maliciously makes or pronounces
in any stage of a judicial proceeding, any report, order, verdict, or decision which he
knows to be contrary to law, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
258. Whoever, being in any office which gives him legal authority to commit persons
for trial or to confinement, or to keep persons in confinement, corruptly or maliciously
commits any person for trial or to confinement, or keeps any person in confinement, in the
exercise of that authority knowing that in so doing he is acting contrary to law, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, or with fine, or with both.
259. Whoever, being a public servant, legally bound as such public servant to
apprehend or to keep in confinement any person charged with or liable to be apprehended
for an offence, intentionally omits to apprehend such person, or intentionally suffers such
person to escape, or intentionally aids such person in escaping or attempting to escape
from such confinement, shall be punished,––
(a) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, with or without fine, if the person in confinement, or who ought to
have been apprehended, was charged with, or liable to be apprehended for, an
offence punishable with death; or
(b) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years, with or without fine, if the person in confinement, or who ought to have
been apprehended, was charged with, or liable to be apprehended for, an offence
punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term which may extend
to ten years; or
(c) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two
years, with or without fine, if the person in confinement, or who ought to have been
apprehended, was charged with, or liable to be apprehended for, an offence
punishable with imprisonment for a term less than ten years.
260. Whoever, being a public servant, legally bound as such public servant to
apprehend or to keep in confinement any person under sentence of a Court for any
offence or lawfully committed to custody, intentionally omits to apprehend such person,
or intentionally suffers such person to escape or intentionally aids such person in escaping
or attempting to escape from such confinement, shall be punished,—
(a) with imprisonment for life or with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to fourteen years, with or without fine, if the person in
confinement, or who ought to have been apprehended, is under sentence of
death; or
Public servant
framing
incorrect
record or
writing with
intent to save
person from
punishment or
property from
forfeiture.
Public servant
in judicial
proceeding
corruptly
making report,
etc., contrary
to law.
Commitment
for trial or
confinement by
person having
authority who
knows that he is
acting contrary
to law.
Intentional
omission to
apprehend on
part of public
servant bound
to apprehend.
Intentional
omission to
apprehend on
part of public
servant bound
to apprehend
person under
sentence or
lawfully
committed.
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(b) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, with or without fine, if the person in confinement or who ought to have
been apprehended, is subject, by a sentence of a Court, or by virtue of a commutation
of such sentence, to imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years, or
upwards; or
(c) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years, or with fine, or with both, if the person in confinement or who ought to
have been apprehended, is subject by a sentence of a Court to imprisonment for a
term not extending to ten years or if the person was lawfully committed to custody.
261. Whoever, being a public servant legally bound as such public servant to keep
in confinement any person charged with or convicted of any offence or lawfully committed
to custody, negligently suffers such person to escape from confinement, shall be punished
with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with
both.
262. Whoever intentionally offers any resistance or illegal obstruction to the lawful
apprehension of himself for any offence with which he is charged or of which he has been
convicted, or escapes or attempts to escape from any custody in which he is lawfully
detained for any such offence, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—The punishment in this section is in addition to the punishment for
which the person to be apprehended or detained in custody was liable for the offence with
which he was charged, or of which he was convicted.
263. Whoever, intentionally offers any resistance or illegal obstruction to the lawful
apprehension of any other person for an offence, or rescues or attempts to rescue any
other person from any custody in which that person is lawfully detained for an offence,—
(a) shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both; or
(b) if the person to be apprehended, or the person rescued or attempted to be
rescued, is charged with or liable to be apprehended for an offence punishable with
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years, and shall also be liable to fine; or
(c) if the person to be apprehended or rescued, or attempted to be rescued, is
charged with or liable to be apprehended for an offence punishable with death, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine; or
(d) if the person to be apprehended or rescued, or attempted to be rescued, is
liable under the sentence of a Court or by virtue of a commutation of such a sentence,
to imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of ten years or upwards, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine; or
(e) if the person to be apprehended or rescued, or attempted to be rescued, is
under sentence of death, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or imprisonment
of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to
fine.
Resistance or
obstruction by
a person to his
lawful
apprehension.
Escape from
confinement
or custody
negligently
suffered by
public servant.
Resistance or
obstruction to
lawful
apprehension
of another
person.
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264. Whoever, being a public servant legally bound as such public servant to
apprehend, or to keep in confinement, any person in any case not provided for in section 259,
section 260 or section 261, or in any other law for the time being in force, omits to apprehend
that person or suffers him to escape from confinement, shall be punished—
(a) if he does so intentionally, with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both; and
(b) if he does so negligently, with simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
265. Whoever, in any case not provided for in section 262 or section 263 or in any
other law for the time being in force, intentionally offers any resistance or illegal obstruction
to the lawful apprehension of himself or of any other person, or escapes or attempts to
escape from any custody in which he is lawfully detained, or rescues or attempts to rescue
any other person from any custody in which that person is lawfully detained, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months,
or with fine, or with both.
266. Whoever, having accepted any conditional remission of punishment, knowingly
violates any condition on which such remission was granted, shall be punished with the
punishment to which he was originally sentenced, if he has already suffered no part of that
punishment, and if he has suffered any part of that punishment, then with so much of that
punishment as he has not already suffered.
267. Whoever, intentionally offers any insult, or causes any interruption to any public
servant, while such public servant is sitting in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be
punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
268. Whoever, by personation or otherwise, shall intentionally cause, or knowingly
suffer himself to be returned, empanelled or sworn as an assessor in any case in which he
knows that he is not entitled by law to be so returned, empanelled or sworn, or knowing
himself to have been so returned, empanelled or sworn contrary to law, shall voluntarily
serve as such assessor, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
269. Whoever, having been charged with an offence and released on bail bond or on
bond, fails without sufficient cause (the burden of proving which shall lie upon him), to
appear in Court in accordance with the terms of the bail or bond, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or
with both.
Explanation.—The punishment under this section is—
(a) in addition to the punishment to which the offender would be liable on a
conviction for the offence with which he has been charged; and
(b) without prejudice to the power of the Court to order forfeiture of the bond.
CHAPTER XV
OF OFFENCES AFFECTING THE PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, CONVENIENCE, DECENCY AND
MORALS
270. A person is guilty of a public nuisance who does any act or is guilty of an illegal
omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to the
people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which must necessarily
cause injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use
any public right but a common nuisance is not excused on the ground that it causes some
convenience or advantage.
Omission to
apprehend, or
sufferance of
escape, on
part of public
servant, in
cases not
otherwise
provided for.
Resistance or
obstruction to
lawful
apprehension
or escape or
rescue in cases
not otherwise
provided for.
Violation of
condition of
remission of
punishment.
Intentional
insult or
interruption
to public
servant sitting
in judicial
proceeding.
Personation
of assessor.
Failure by
person
released on
bail bond or
bond to
appear in
Court.
Public
nuisance.
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271. Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or
has reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six
months, or with fine, or with both.
272. Whoever malignantly does any act which is, and which he knows or has reason
to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years,
or with fine, or with both.
273. Whoever knowingly disobeys any rule made by the Government for putting any
mode of transport into a state of quarantine, or for regulating the intercourse of any such
transport in a state of quarantine or for regulating the intercourse between places where an
infectious disease prevails and other places, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
274. Whoever adulterates any article of food or drink, so as to make such article
noxious as food or drink, intending to sell such article as food or drink, or knowing it to be
likely that the same will be sold as food or drink, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend
to five thousand rupees, or with both.
275. Whoever sells, or offers or exposes for sale, as food or drink, any article which
has been rendered or has become noxious, or is in a state unfit for food or drink, knowing or
having reason to believe that the same is noxious as food or drink, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
276. Whoever adulterates any drug or medical preparation in such a manner as to
lessen the efficacy or change the operation of such drug or medical preparation, or to make
it noxious, intending that it shall be sold or used for, or knowing it to be likely that it will be
sold or used for, any medicinal purpose, as if it had not undergone such adulteration, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or
with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
277. Whoever, knowing any drug or medical preparation to have been adulterated in
such a manner as to lessen its efficacy, to change its operation, or to render it noxious, sells
the same, or offers or exposes it for sale, or issues it from any dispensary for medicinal
purposes as unadulterated, or causes it to be used for medicinal purposes by any person not
knowing of the adulteration, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees,
or with both.
278. Whoever knowingly sells, or offers or exposes for sale, or issues from a dispensary
for medicinal purposes, any drug or medical preparation, as a different drug or medical
preparation, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
279. Whoever voluntarily corrupts or fouls the water of any public spring or reservoir,
so as to render it less fit for the purpose for which it is ordinarily used, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
280. Whoever voluntarily vitiates the atmosphere in any place so as to make it noxious
to the health of persons in general dwelling or carrying on business in the neighbourhood or
passing along a public way, shall be punished with fine which may extend to one thousand
rupees.
281. Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or
negligent as to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other
Negligent act
likely to spread
infection of
disease
dangerous to
life.
Malignant act
likely to spread
infection of
disease dangerous
to life.
Disobedience
to quarantine
rule.
Adulteration
of food or
drink intended
for sale.
Sale of noxious
food or drink.
Adulteration
of drugs.
Sale of
adulterated
drugs.
Sale of drug as
a different
drug or
preparation.
Fouling water
of public
spring or
reservoir.
Making
atmosphere
noxious to
health.
Rash driving
or riding on a
public way.
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person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
282. Whoever navigates any vessel in a manner so rash or negligent as to endanger
human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both.
283. Whoever exhibits any false light, mark or buoy, intending or knowing it to be
likely that such exhibition will mislead any navigator, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and with fine which shall not
be less than ten thousand rupees.
284. Whoever knowingly or negligently conveys, or causes to be conveyed for hire,
any person by water in any vessel, when that vessel is in such a state or so loaded as to
endanger the life of that person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand
rupees, or with both.
285. Whoever, by doing any act, or by omitting to take order with any property in his
possession or under his charge, causes danger, obstruction or injury to any person in any
public way or public line of navigation, shall be punished with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees.
286. Whoever does, with any poisonous substance, any act in a manner so rash or
negligent as to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any person or
knowingly or negligently omits to take such order with any poisonous substance in his
possession as is sufficient to guard against any probable danger to human life from such
poisonous substance, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or
with both.
287. Whoever does, with fire or any combustible matter, any act so rashly or negligently
as to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person or
knowingly or negligently omits to take such order with any fire or any combustible matter in
his possession as is sufficient to guard against any probable danger to human life from such
fire or combustible matter, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees,
or with both.
288. Whoever does, with any explosive substance, any act so rashly or negligently as
to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, or
knowingly or negligently omits to take such order with any explosive substance in his
possession as is sufficient to guard against any probable danger to human life from that
substance, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
289. Whoever does, with any machinery, any act so rashly or negligently as to endanger
human life or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person or knowingly or
negligently omits to take such order with any machinery in his possession or under his care
as is sufficient to guard against any probable danger to human life from such machinery,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six
months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
290. Whoever, in pulling down, repairing or constructing any building, knowingly or
negligently omits to take such measures with that building as is sufficient to guard against
any probable danger to human life from the fall of that building, or of any part thereof, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six
months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
Rash navigaWLRQ
of vessel.
Exhibition of
false light,
mark or buoy.
Conveying
person by
water for hire
in unsafe or
overloaded
vessel.
Danger or
obstruction in
public way or
line of
navigation.
Negligent
conduct with
respect to
poisonous
substance.
Negligent
conduct with
respect to fire
or combustible
matter.
Negligent
conduct with
respect to
explosive
substance.
Negligent
conduct with
respect to
machinery.
Negligent
conduct with
respect to
pulling down,
repairing or
constructing
buildings, etc.
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291. Whoever knowingly or negligently omits to take such measures with any animal
in his possession as is sufficient to guard against any probable danger to human life, or any
probable danger of grievous hurt from such animal, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend
to five thousand rupees, or with both.
292. Whoever commits a public nuisance in any case not otherwise punishable by this
Sanhita shall be punished with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees.
293.Whoever repeats or continues a public nuisance, having been enjoined by any
public servant who has lawful authority to issue such injunction not to repeat or continue
such nuisance, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to
six months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees or with both.
294. (1) For the purposes of sub-section (2), a book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing,
painting, representation, figure or any other object, including display of any content in
electronic form shall be deemed to be obscene if it is lascivious or appeals to the prurient
interest or if its effect, or (where it comprises two or more distinct items) the effect of any one
of its items, is, if taken as a whole, such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons who are
likely, having regard to all relevant circumstances, to read, see or hear the matter contained or
embodied in it.
(2) Whoever—
(a) sells, lets to hire, distributes, publicly exhibits or in any manner puts into
circulation, or for purposes of sale, hire, distribution, public exhibition or circulation,
makes, produces or has in his possession any obscene book, pamphlet, paper, drawing,
painting, representation or figure or any other obscene object whatsoever in whatever
manner; or
(b) imports, exports or conveys any obscene object for any of the purposes
aforesaid, or knowing or having reason to believe that such object will be sold, let to
hire, distributed or publicly exhibited or in any manner put into circulation; or
(c) takes part in or receives profits from any business in the course of which he
knows or has reason to believe that any such obscene objects are, for any of the
purposes aforesaid, made produced, purchased, kept, imported, exported, conveyed,
publicly exhibited or in any manner put into circulation; or
(d) advertises or makes known by any means whatsoever that any person is
engaged or is ready to engage in any act which is an offence under this section, or that
any such obscene object can be procured from or through any person; or
(e) offers or attempts to do any act which is an offence under this section,
shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to two years, and with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, and, in the
event of a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to five years, and also with fine which may extend to ten thousand
rupees.
Exception.—This section does not extend to—
(a) any book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation or
figure—
(i) the publication of which is proved to be justified as being for the public
good on the ground that such book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting,
representation or figure is in the interest of science, literature, art or learning or
other objects of general concern; or
Negligent
conduct with
respect to
animal.
Punishment for
public nuisance
in cases not
otherwise
provided for.
Continuance of
nuisance after
injunction to
discontinue.
Sale, etc., of
obscene books,
etc.
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(ii) which is kept or used bona fide for religious purposes;
(b) any representation sculptured, engraved, painted or otherwise represented
on or in—
(i) any ancient monument within the meaning of the Ancient Monuments
and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958; or
(ii) any temple, or on any car used for the conveyance of idols, or kept or
used for any religious purpose.
295. Whoever sells, lets to hire, distributes, exhibits or circulates to any child any such
obscene object as is referred to in section 294, or offers or attempts so to do, shall be
punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to three years, and with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees, and, in the
event of a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to seven years, and also with fine which may extend to five thousand
rupees.
296. Whoever, to the annoyance of others,—
(a) does any obscene act in any public place; or
(b) sings, recites or utters any obscene song, ballad or words, in or near any
public place,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
297. (1) Whoever keeps any office or place for the purpose of drawing any lottery not
being a State lottery or a lottery authorised by the State Government, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or
with both.
(2) Whoever publishes any proposal to pay any sum, or to deliver any goods, or to do
or forbear from doing anything for the benefit of any person, on any event or contingency
relative or applicable to the drawing of any ticket, lot, number or figure in any such lottery,
shall be punished with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees.
CHAPTER XVI
OF OFFENCES RELATING TO RELIGION
298. Whoever destroys, damages or defiles any place of worship, or any object held
sacred by any class of persons with the intention of thereby insulting the religion of any
class of persons or with the knowledge that any class of persons is likely to consider such
destruction, damage or defilement as an insult to their religion, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or
with both.
299. Whoever, with deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings
of any class of citizens of India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or by visible
representations or through electronic means or otherwise, insults or attempts to insult the
religion or the religious beliefs of that class, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
300. Whoever voluntarily causes disturbance to any assembly lawfully engaged in
the performance of religious worship, or religious ceremonies, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or
with both.
Sale, etc., of
obscene
objects to
child.
Obscene acts
and songs.
Keeping
lottery office.
Injuring or
defiling place
of worship
with intent to
insult religion
of any class.
Deliberate and
malicious acts,
intended to
outrage
religious
feelings of any
class by
insulting its
religion or
religious
beliefs.
Disturbing
religious
assembly.
24 of 1958.
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301. Whoever, with the intention of wounding the feelings of any person, or of insulting
the religion of any person, or with the knowledge that the feelings of any person are likely to
be wounded, or that the religion of any person is likely to be insulted thereby, commits any
trespass in any place of worship or on any place of sepulchre, or any place set apart for the
performance of funeral rites or as a depository for the remains of the dead, or offers any
indignity to any human corpse, or causes disturbance to any persons assembled for the
performance of funeral ceremonies, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
302. Whoever, with the deliberate intention of wounding the religious feelings of any
person, utters any word or makes any sound in the hearing of that person or makes any
gesture in the sight of that person or places any object in the sight of that person, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or
with fine, or with both.
CHAPTER XVII
OF OFFENCES AGAINST PROPERTY
Of theft
303. (1) Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the
possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to
such taking, is said to commit theft.
Explanation 1.—A thing so long as it is attached to the earth, not being movable
property, is not the subject of theft; but it becomes capable of being the subject of theft as
soon as it is severed from the earth.
Explanation 2.—A moving effected by the same act which affects the severance may
be a theft.
Explanation 3.—A person is said to cause a thing to move by removing an obstacle
which prevented it from moving or by separating it from any other thing, as well as by
actually moving it.
Explanation 4.—A person, who by any means causes an animal to move, is said to
move that animal, and to move everything which, in consequence of the motion so caused,
is moved by that animal.
Explanation 5.—The consent mentioned in this section may be express or implied,
and may be given either by the person in possession, or by any person having for that
purpose authority either express or implied.
Illustrations.
(a) A cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree
out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. Here, as soon as A has severed the tree in order
to such taking, he has committed theft.
(b) A puts a bait for dogs in his pocket, and thus induces Z’s dog to follow it. Here, if
A’s intention be dishonestly to take the dog out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. A
has committed theft as soon as Z’s dog has begun to follow A.
(c) A meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He drives the bullock in a certain
direction, in order that he may dishonestly take the treasure. As soon as the bullock begins
to move, A has committed theft of the treasure.
(d) A being Z’s servant, and entrusted by Z with the care of Z’s plate, dishonestly runs
away with the plate, without Z’s consent. A has committed theft.
(e) Z, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to A, the keeper of a warehouse, till Z shall
return. A carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it. Here the plate was not in Z’s possession.
It could not therefore be taken out of Z’s possession, and A has not committed theft, though
he may have committed criminal breach of trust.
Trespassing on
burial places,
etc.
Uttering words,
etc., with
deliberate
intent to
wound religious
feelings of any
person.
Theft.
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(f) A finds a ring belonging to Z on a table in the house which Z occupies. Here the ring
is in Z’s possession, and if A dishonestly removes it, A commits theft.
(g) A finds a ring lying on the highroad, not in the possession of any person. A, by
taking it, commits no theft, though he may commit criminal misappropriation of property.
(h) A sees a ring belonging to Z lying on a table in Z’s house. Not venturing to
misappropriate the ring immediately for fear of search and detection, A hides the ring in a
place where it is highly improbable that it will ever be found by Z, with the intention of taking
the ring from the hiding place and selling it when the loss is forgotten. Here A, at the time of
first moving the ring, commits theft.
(i) A delivers his watch to Z, a jeweler, to be regulated. Z carries it to his shop. A, not
owing to the jeweler any debt for which the jeweler might lawfully detain the watch as a
security, enters the shop openly, takes his watch by force out of Z’s hand, and carries it away.
Here A, though he may have committed criminal trespass and assault, has not committed
theft, in as much as what he did was not done dishonestly.
(j) If A owes money to Z for repairing the watch, and if Z retains the watch lawfully as
a security for the debt, and A takes the watch out of Z’s possession, with the intention of
depriving Z of the property as a security for his debt, he commits theft, in as much as he takes
it dishonestly.
(k) Again, if A, having pawned his watch to Z, takes it out of Z’s possession without
Z’s consent, not having paid what he borrowed on the watch, he commits theft, though the
watch is his own property in as much as he takes it dishonestly.
(l) A takes an article belonging to Z out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent, with
the intention of keeping it until he obtains money from Z as a reward for its restoration. Here
A takes dishonestly; A has therefore committed theft.
(m) A, being on friendly terms with Z, goes into Z’s library in Z’s absence, and takes
away a book without Z’s express consent for the purpose merely of reading it, and with the
intention of returning it. Here, it is probable that A may have conceived that he had Z’s
implied consent to use Z’s book. If this was A’s impression, A has not committed theft.
(n) A asks charity from Z’s wife. She gives A money, food and clothes, which A knows
to belong to Z her husband. Here it is probable that A may conceive that Z’s wife is authorised
to give away alms. If this was A’s impression, A has not committed theft.
(o) A is the paramour of Z’s wife. She gives a valuable property, which A knows to
belong to her husband Z, and to be such property as she has no authority from Z to give. If
A takes the property dishonestly, he commits theft.
(p) A, in good faith, believing property belonging to Z to be A’s own property, takes
that property out of Z’s possession. Here, as A does not take dishonestly, he does not
commit theft.
(2) Whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both and in case of second
or subsequent conviction of any person under this section, he shall be punished with
rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend
to five years and with fine:
Provided that in cases of theft where the value of the stolen property is less than five
thousand rupees, and a person is convicted for the first time, shall upon return of the value
of property or restoration of the stolen property, shall be punished with community service.
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304. (1) Theft is snatching if, in order to commit theft, the offender suddenly or quickly
or forcibly seizes or secures or grabs or takes away from any person or from his possession
any movable property.
(2) Whoever commits snatching, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
305. Whoever commits theft—
(a) in any building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or used for the
custody of property; or
(b) of any means of transport used for the transport of goods or passengers; or
(c) of any article or goods from any means of transport used for the transport of
goods or passengers; or
(d) of idol or icon in any place of worship; or
(e) of any property of the Government or of a local authority,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
306. Whoever, being a clerk or servant, or being employed in the capacity of a clerk or
servant, commits theft in respect of any property in the possession of his master or employer,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
307. Whoever commits theft, having made preparation for causing death, or hurt, or
restraint, or fear of death, or of hurt, or of restraint, to any person, in order to the committing
of such theft, or in order to the effecting of his escape after the committing of such theft, or
in order to the retaining of property taken by such theft, shall be punished with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Illustrations.
(a) A commits theft on property in Z’s possession; and while committing this theft, he
has a loaded pistol under his garment, having provided this pistol for the purpose of hurting
Z in case Z should resist. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
(b) A picks Z’s pocket, having posted several of his companions near him, in order that
they may restrain Z, if Z should perceive what is passing and should resist, or should attempt
to apprehend A. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
Of extortion
308. (1) Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or
to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any
person any property, or valuable security or anything signed or sealed which may be converted
into a valuable security, commits extortion.
Illustrations.
(a) A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money.
He thus induces Z to give him money. A has committed extortion.
(b) A threatens Z that he will keep Z’s child in wrongful confinement, unless Z will sign
and deliver to A a promissory note binding Z to pay certain monies to A. Z signs and delivers
the note. A has committed extortion.
(c) A threatens to send club-men to plough up Z’s field unless Z will sign and deliver
to B a bond binding Z under a penalty to deliver certain produce to B, and thereby
induces Z to sign and deliver the bond. A has committed extortion.
Snatching.
Theft in a
dwelling house,
or means of
transportation
or place of
worship, etc.
Theft by clerk
or servant of
property
in
possession of
master.
Theft after
preparation
made for
causing death,
hurt or
restraint in
order to
committing of
theft.
Extortion.
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(d) A, by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign or
affix his seal to a blank paper and deliver it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A.
Here, as the paper so signed may be converted into a valuable security. A has committed
extortion.
(e) A threatens Z by sending a message through an electronic device that “Your child
is in my possession, and will be put to death unless you send me one lakh rupees.” A thus
induces Z to give him money. A has committed extortion.
(2) Whoever commits extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever, in order to the committing of extortion, puts any person in fear, or attempts
to put any person in fear, of any injury, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
(4) Whoever, in order to the committing of extortion, puts or attempts to put any
person in fear of death or of grievous hurt to that person or to any other, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
(5) Whoever commits extortion by putting any person in fear of death or of grievous
hurt to that person or to any other, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) Whoever, in order to the committing of extortion, puts or attempts to put any
person in fear of an accusation, against that person or any other, of having committed, or
attempted to commit, an offence punishable with death or with imprisonment for life, or with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(7) Whoever commits extortion by putting any person in fear of an accusation against
that person or any other, of having committed or attempted to commit any offence punishable
with death, or with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
ten years, or of having attempted to induce any other person to commit such offence, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Of robbery and dacoity
309. (1) In all robbery there is either theft or extortion.
(2) Theft is robbery if, in order to the committing of the theft, or in committing the theft,
or in carrying away or attempting to carry away property obtained by the theft, the offender,
for that end voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful
restraint, or fear of instant death or of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint.
(3) Extortion is robbery if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the
presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of
instant death, of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person or to some other
person, and, by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver
up the thing extorted.
Explanation.—The offender is said to be present if he is sufficiently near to put the
other person in fear of instant death, of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint.
Illustrations.
(a) A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Z’s money and jewels from Z’s clothes,
without Z’s consent. Here A has committed theft, and, in order to the committing of that theft,
has voluntarily caused wrongful restraint to Z. A has therefore committed robbery.
Robbery.
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(b) A meets Z on the high road, shows a pistol, and demands Z’s purse. Z, in
consequence, surrenders his purse. Here A has extorted the purse from Z by putting him in
fear of instant hurt, and being at the time of committing the extortion in his presence. A has
therefore committed robbery.
(c) A meets Z and Z’s child on the high road. A takes the child, and threatens to fling it
down a precipice, unless Z delivers his purse. Z, in consequence, delivers his purse. Here A
has extorted the purse from Z, by causing Z to be in fear of instant hurt to the child who is
there present. A has therefore committed robbery on Z.
(d) A obtains property from Z by saying—“Your child is in the hands of my gang, and
will be put to death unless you send us ten thousand rupees”. This is extortion, and punishable
as such; but it is not robbery, unless Z is put in fear of the instant death of his child.
(4) Whoever commits robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term
which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine; and, if the robbery be committed
on the highway between sunset and sunrise, the imprisonment may be extended to fourteen
years.
(5) Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment
for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) If any person, in committing or in attempting to commit robbery, voluntarily causes
hurt, such person, and any other person jointly concerned in committing or attempting to
commit such robbery, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
310. (1) When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery,
or where the whole number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a
robbery, and persons present and aiding such commission or attempt, amount to five or
more, every person so committing, attempting or aiding, is said to commit dacoity.
(2) Whoever commits dacoity shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with
rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to
fine.
(3) If any one of five or more persons, who are conjointly committing dacoity, commits
murder in so committing dacoity, every one of those persons shall be punished with death,
or imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(4) Whoever makes any preparation for committing dacoity, shall be punished with
rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to
fine.
(5) Whoever is one of five or more persons assembled for the purpose of committing
dacoity, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) Whoever belongs to a gang of persons associated for the purpose of habitually
committing dacoity, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with rigorous imprisonment
for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
311. If, at the time of committing robbery or dacoity, the offender uses any deadly
weapon, or causes grievous hurt to any person, or attempts to cause death or grievous hurt
to any person, the imprisonment with which such offender shall be punished shall not be
less than seven years.
312. If, at the time of attempting to commit robbery or dacoity, the offender is armed
with any deadly weapon, the imprisonment with which such offender shall be punished shall
not be less than seven years.
Dacoity.
Robbery, or
dacoity, with
attempt to
cause death or
grievous hurt.
Attempt to
commit
robbery or
dacoity when
armed with
deadly weapon.
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313. Whoever belongs to any gang of persons associated in habitually committing
theft or robbery, and not being a gang of dacoits, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment
for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Of criminal misappropriation of property
314. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable
property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not
be less than six months but which may extend to two years and with fine.
Illustrations.
(a) A takes property belonging to Z out of Z’s possession, in good faith believing at
the time when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself. A is not guilty of theft; but if
A, after discovering his mistake, dishonestly appropriates the property to his own use, he is
guilty of an offence under this section.
(b) A, being on friendly terms with Z, goes into Z’s library in Z’s absence, and takes
away a book without Z’s express consent. Here, if A was under the impression that he had Z’s
implied consent to take the book for the purpose of reading it, A has not committed theft. But,
if A afterwards sells the book for his own benefit, he is guilty of an offence under this section.
(c) A and B, being, joint owners of a horse. A takes the horse out of B’s possession,
intending to use it. Here, as A has a right to use the horse, he does not dishonestly
misappropriate it. But, if A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his own
use, he is guilty of an offence under this section.
Explanation 1.—A dishonest misappropriation for a time only is a misappropriation
within the meaning of this section.
Illustration.
A finds a Government promissory note belonging to Z, bearing a blank endorsement.
A, knowing that the note belongs to Z, pledges it with a banker as a security for a loan,
intending at a future time to restore it to Z. A has committed an offence under this section.
Explanation 2.—A person who finds property not in the possession of any other
person, and takes such property for the purpose of protecting it for, or of restoring it to, the
owner, does not take or misappropriate it dishonestly, and is not guilty of an offence; but he
is guilty of the offence above defined, if he appropriates it to his own use, when he knows or
has the means of discovering the owner, or before he has used reasonable means to discover
and give notice to the owner and has kept the property a reasonable time to enable the owner
to claim it.
What are reasonable means or what is a reasonable time in such a case, is a question
of fact.
It is not necessary that the finder should know who is the owner of the property, or that
any particular person is the owner of it; it is sufficient if, at the time of appropriating it, he
does not believe it to be his own property, or in good faith believe that the real owner cannot
be found.
Illustrations.
(a) A finds a rupee on the high road, not knowing to whom the rupee belongs, A picks
up the rupee. Here A has not committed the offence defined in this section.
(b) A finds a letter on the road, containing a bank-note. From the direction and contents
of the letter he learns to whom the note belongs. He appropriates the note. He is guilty of an
offence under this section.
(c) A finds a cheque payable to bearer. He can form no conjecture as to the person who
has lost the cheque. But the name of the person, who has drawn the cheque, appears. A
Punishment
for belonging
to gang of
robbers, etc.
Dishonest
misappropriaWLRQ
of SURSHUW\
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knows that this person can direct him to the person in whose favour the cheque was drawn.
A appropriates the cheque without attempting to discover the owner. He is guilty of an
offence under this section.
(d) A sees Z drop his purse with money in it. A picks up the purse with the intention of
restoring it to Z, but afterwards appropriates it to his own use. A has committed an offence
under this section.
(e) A finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers
that it belongs to Z, and appropriates it to his own use. A is guilty of an offence under this
section.
(f) A finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. A sells it immediately
without attempting to discover the owner. A is guilty of an offence under this section.
315. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any property,
knowing that such property was in the possession of a deceased person at the time of that
person’s decease, and has not since been in the possession of any person legally entitled to
such possession, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine, and if the offender at the time of
such person’s decease was employed by him as a clerk or servant, the imprisonment may
extend to seven years.
Illustration.
Z dies in possession of furniture and money. His servant A, before the money comes
into the possession of any person entitled to such possession, dishonestly misappropriates
it. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
Of criminal breach of trust
316. (1) Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion
over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, or
dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing
the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied,
which he has made touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any other person
so to do, commits criminal breach of trust.
Explanation 1.—A person, being an employer of an establishment whether
exempted under section 17 of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952 or not who deducts the employee’s contribution from the wages payable
to the employee for credit to a Provident Fund or Family Pension Fund established by any
law for the time being in force, shall be deemed to have been entrusted with the amount of the
contribution so deducted by him and if he makes default in the payment of such contribution
to the said Fund in violation of the said law, shall be deemed to have dishonestly used the
amount of the said contribution in violation of a direction of law as aforesaid.
Explanation 2.—A person, being an employer, who deducts the employees’
contribution from the wages payable to the employee for credit to the Employees’ State
Insurance Fund held and administered by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
established under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 shall be deemed to have been
entrusted with the amount of the contribution so deducted by him and if he makes default in
the payment of such contribution to the said Fund in violation of the said Act, shall be
deemed to have dishonestly used the amount of the said contribution in violation of a
direction of law as aforesaid.
Illustrations.
(a) A, being executor to the will of a deceased person, dishonestly disobeys the law
which directs him to divide the effects according to the will, and appropriates them to his
own use. A has committed criminal breach of trust.
Dishonest
misappropriaWLRQ
of SURSHUW\
possessed by
deceased
person at the
time of his
death.
Criminal
breach of
trust.
19 of 1952.
34 of 1948.
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(b) A is a warehouse-keeper Z going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to A, under a
contract that it shall be returned on payment of a stipulated sum for warehouse room. A
dishonestly sells the goods. A has committed criminal breach of trust.
(c) A, residing in Kolkata, is agent for Z, residing at Delhi. There is an express or implied
contract between A and Z, that all sums remitted by Z to A shall be invested by A, according
to Z’s direction. Z remits one lakh of rupees to A, with directions to A to invest the same in
Company’s paper. A dishonestly disobeys the directions and employs the money in his own
business. A has committed criminal breach of trust.
(d) But if A, in illustration (c), not dishonestly but in good faith, believing that it will be
more for Z’s advantage to hold shares in the Bank of Bengal, disobeys Z’s directions, and
buys shares in the Bank of Bengal, for Z, instead of buying Company’s paper, here,
though Z should suffer loss, and should be entitled to bring a civil action against A, on
account of that loss, yet A, not having acted dishonestly, has not committed criminal
breach of trust.
(e) A, a revenue-officer, is entrusted with public money and is either directed by law, or
bound by a contract, express or implied, with the Government, to pay into a certain treasury
all the public money which he holds. A dishonestly appropriates the money. A has committed
criminal breach of trust.
(f) A, a carrier, is entrusted by Z with property to be carried by land or by water. A
dishonestly misappropriates the property. A has committed criminal breach of trust.
(2) Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
(3)
Whoever, being entrusted with property as a carrier, wharfinger or
warehousekeeper, commits criminal breach of trust in respect of such property, shall be
punished withimprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, and shall alsobe liable to fine.
(4) Whoever, being a clerk or servant or employed as a clerk or servant, and being in
any manner entrusted in such capacity with property, or with any dominion over property,
commits criminal breach of trust in respect of that property, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine.
(5) Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion over
property in his capacity of a public servant or in the way of his business as a banker,
merchant, factor, broker, attorney or agent commits criminal breach of trust in respect of that
property, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Of receiving stolen property
317. (1) Property, the possession whereof has been transferred by theft or extortion or
robbery or cheating, and property which has been criminally misappropriated or in respect of
which criminal breach of trust has been committed, is designated as stolen property, whether
the transfer has been made, or the misappropriation or breach of trust has been committed,
within or without India, but, if such property subsequently comes into the possession of a
person legally entitled to the possession thereof, it then ceases to be stolen property.
(2) Whoever dishonestly receives or retains any stolen property, knowing or having
reason to believe the same to be stolen property, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever dishonestly receives or retains any stolen property, the possession
whereof he knows or has reason to believe to have been transferred by the commission of
Stolen
property.
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dacoity, or dishonestly receives from a person, whom he knows or has reason to believe to
belong or to have belonged to a gang of dacoits, property which he knows or has reason to
believe to have been stolen, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with rigorous
imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(4) Whoever habitually receives or deals in property which he knows or has reason to
believe to be stolen property, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(5) Whoever voluntarily assists in concealing or disposing of or making away with
property which he knows or has reason to believe to be stolen property, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with
fine, or with both.
Of cheating
318. (1) Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the
person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person
shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do
anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or
omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation
or property, is said to cheat.
Explanation.—A dishonest concealment of facts is a deception within the meaning of
this section.
Illustrations.
(a) A, by falsely pretending to be in the Civil Service, intentionally deceives Z, and
thus dishonestly induces Z to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to
pay. A cheats.
(b) A, by putting a counterfeit mark on an article, intentionally deceives Z into a
belief that this article was made by a certain celebrated manufacturer, and thus dishonestly
induces Z to buy and pay for the article. A cheats.
(c) A, by exhibiting to Z a false sample of an article intentionally deceives Z into
believing that the article corresponds with the sample, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to
buy and pay for the article. A cheats.
(d) A, by tendering in payment for an article a bill on a house with which A keeps no
money, and by which A expects that the bill will be dishonoured, intentionally deceives Z,
and thereby dishonestly induces Z to deliver the article, intending not to pay for it. A cheats.
(e) A, by pledging as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamonds, intentionally
deceives Z, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to lend money. A cheats.
(f) A intentionally deceives Z into a belief that A means to repay any money that Z
may lend to him and thereby dishonestly induces Z to lend him money, A not intending to
repay it. A cheats.
(g) A intentionally deceives Z into a belief that A means to deliver to Z a certain
quantity of indigo plant which he does not intend to deliver, and thereby dishonestly induces
Z to advance money upon the faith of such delivery. A cheats; but if A, at the time of
obtaining the money, intends to deliver the indigo plant, and afterwards breaks his contract
and does not deliver it, he does not cheat, but is liable only to a civil action for breach of
contract.
(h) A intentionally deceives Z into a belief that A has performed A’s part of a contract
made with Z, which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to pay money.
A cheats.
Cheating.
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(i) A sells and conveys an estate to B. A, knowing that in consequence of such sale
he has no right to the property, sells or mortgages the same to Z, without disclosing the fact
of the previous sale and conveyance to B, and receives the purchase or mortgage money
from Z. A cheats.
(2) Whoever cheats shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever cheats with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause wrongful
loss to a person whose interest in the transaction to which the cheating relates, he was
bound, either by law, or by a legal contract, to protect, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
(4) Whoever cheats and thereby dishonestly induces the person deceived to deliver
any property to any person, or to make, alter or destroy the whole or any part of a valuable
security, or anything which is signed or sealed, and which is capable of being converted into
a valuable security, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
319. (1) A person is said to cheat by personation if he cheats by pretending to be some
other person, or by knowingly substituting one person for or another, or representing that he
or any other person is a person other than he or such other person really is.
Explanation.—The offence is committed whether the individual personated is a real
or imaginary person.
Illustrations.
(a) A cheats by pretending to be a certain rich banker of the same name. A cheats by
personation.
(b) A cheats by pretending to be B, a person who is deceased. A cheats by personation.
(2) Whoever cheats by personation shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
Of fraudulent deeds and dispositions of property
320. Whoever dishonestly or fraudulently removes, conceals or delivers to any person,
or transfers or causes to be transferred to any person, without adequate consideration, any
property, intending thereby to prevent, or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby prevent,
the distribution of that property according to law among his creditors or the creditors of any
other person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
shall not be less than six months but which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with
both.
321. Whoever dishonestly or fraudulently prevents any debt or demand due to himself
or to any other person from being made available according to law for payment of his debts
or the debts of such other person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
322. Whoever dishonestly or fraudulently signs, executes or becomes a party to any
deed or instrument which purports to transfer or subject to any charge any property, or any
interest therein, and which contains any false statement relating to the consideration for
such transfer or charge, or relating to the person or persons for whose use or benefit it is
really intended to operate, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
Cheating by
personation.
Dishonest or
fraudulent
removal or
concealment
of property to
prevent
distribution
among
creditors.
Dishonestly or
fraudulently
preventing
debt being
available for
creditors.
Dishonest or
fraudulent
execution of
deed of transfer
containing
false statement
of
consideration.
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323. Whoever dishonestly or fraudulently conceals or removes any property of himself
or any other person, or dishonestly or fraudulently assists in the concealment or removal
thereof, or dishonestly releases any demand or claim to which he is entitled, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with
fine, or with both.
Of mischief
324. (1) Whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful
loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any
such change in any property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or
utility, or affects it injuriously, commits mischief.
Explanation 1.—It is not essential to the offence of mischief that the offender should
intend to cause loss or damage to the owner of the property injured or destroyed. It is
sufficient if he intends to cause, or knows that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage
to any person by injuring any property, whether it belongs to that person or not.
Explanation 2.—Mischief may be committed by an act affecting property belonging
to the person who commits the act, or to that person and others jointly.
Illustrations.
(a) A voluntarily burns a valuable security belonging to Z intending to cause wrongful
loss to Z. A has committed mischief.
(b) A introduces water into an ice-house belonging to Z and thus causes the ice to
melt, intending wrongful loss to Z. A has committed mischief.
(c) A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to Z, with the intention of thereby
causing wrongful loss to Z. A has committed mischief.
(d) A, knowing that his effects are about to be taken in execution in order to satisfy a
debt due from him to Z, destroys those effects, with the intention of thereby preventing Z
from obtaining satisfaction of the debt, and of thus causing damage to Z. A has committed
mischief.
(e) A having insured a ship, voluntarily causes the same to be cast away, with the
intention of causing damage to the underwriters. A has committed mischief.
(f) A causes a ship to be cast away, intending thereby to cause damage to Z who has
lent money on bottomry on the ship. A has committed mischief.
(g)A, having joint property with Z in a horse, shoots the horse, intending thereby to
cause wrongful loss to Z. A has committed mischief.
(h) A causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to Z, intending to cause and
knowing that he is likely to cause damage to Z’s crop. A has committed mischief.
(2) Whoever commits mischief shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever commits mischief and thereby causes loss or damage to any property
including the property of Government or Local Authority shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
(4) Whoever commits mischief and thereby causes loss or damage to the amount of
twenty thousand rupees and more but less than one lakh rupees shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or
with both.
(5) Whoever commits mischief and thereby causes loss or damage to the amount of
one lakh rupees or upwards, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
Dishonest or
fraudulent
removal or
concealment
of property.
Mischief.
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(6) Whoever commits mischief, having made preparation for causing to any person
death, or hurt, or wrongful restraint, or fear of death, or of hurt, or of wrongful restraint, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five
years, and shall also be liable to fine.
325. Whoever commits mischief by killing, poisoning, maiming or rendering useless
any animal shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
326. Whoever commits mischief by,—
(a) doing any act which causes, or which he knows to be likely to cause, a
diminution of the supply of water for agricultural purposes, or for food or drink for
human beings or for animals which are property, or for cleanliness or for carrying on
any manufacture, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both;
(b) doing any act which renders or which he knows to be likely to render any
public road, bridge, navigable river or navigable channel, natural or artificial, impassable
or less safe for travelling or conveying property, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with
both;
(c) doing any act which causes or which he knows to be likely to cause an
inundation or an obstruction to any public drainage attended with injury or damage,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to five years, or with fine, or with both;
(d) destroying or moving any sign or signal used for navigation of rail, aircraft
or ship or other thing placed as a guide for navigators, or by any act which renders any
such sign or signal less useful as a guide for navigators, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with
fine, or with both;
(e) destroying or moving any land-mark fixed by the authority of a public servant,
or by any act which renders such land-mark less useful as such, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with
fine, or with both;
(f) fire or any explosive substance intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely
that he will thereby cause, damage to any property including agricultural produce,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(g) fire or any explosive substance, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely
that he will thereby cause, the destruction of any building which is ordinarily used as
a place of worship or as a human dwelling or as a place for the custody of property,
shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
327. (1) Whoever commits mischief to any rail, aircraft, or a decked vessel or any
vessel of a burden of twenty tons or upwards, intending to destroy or render unsafe, or
knowing it to be likely that he will thereby destroy or render unsafe, that rail, aircraft or
vessel, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Whoever commits, or attempts to commit, by fire or any explosive substance, such
mischief as is described in sub-section (1), shall be punished with imprisonment for life or
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
Mischief by
killing or
maiming
animal.
Mischief by
injury,
inundation, fire
or explosive
substance, etc.
Mischief with
intent to
destroy or
make unsafe a
rail, aircraft,
decked vessel
or one of
twenty tons
burden.
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328. Whoever intentionally runs any vessel aground or ashore, intending to commit
theft of any property contained therein or to dishonestly misappropriate any such property,
or with intent that such theft or misappropriation of property may be committed, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
and shall also be liable to fine.
Of criminal trespass
329. (1) Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with
intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of
such property or having lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains
there with intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person or with intent to
commit an offence is said to commit criminal trespass.
(2) Whoever commits criminal trespass by entering into or remaining in any building,
tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or any building used as a place for worship, or as a
place for the custody of property, is said to commit house-trespass.
Explanation.—The introduction of any part of the criminal trespasser’s body is entering
sufficient to constitute house-trespass.
(3) Whoever commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees, or with both.
(4) Whoever commits house-trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both.
330. (1) Whoever commits house-trespass having taken precautions to conceal such
house-trespass from some person who has a right to exclude or eject the trespasser from the
building, tent or vessel which is the subject of the trespass, is said to commit lurking
house-trespass.
(2) A person is said to commit house-breaking who commits house-trespass if he
effects his entrance into the house or any part of it in any of the six ways hereinafter
described; or if, being in the house or any part of it for the purpose of committing an offence,
or having committed an offence therein, he quits the house or any part of it in any of the
following ways, namely:––
(a) if he enters or quits through a passage made by himself, or by any abettor of
the house-trespass, in order to the committing of the house-trespass;
(b) if he enters or quits through any passage not intended by any person, other
than himself or an abettor of the offence, for human entrance; or through any passage
to which he has obtained access by scaling or climbing over any wall or building;
(c) if he enters or quits through any passage which he or any abettor of the
house-trespass has opened, in order to the committing of the house-trespass by any
means by which that passage was not intended by the occupier of the house to be
opened;
(d) if he enters or quits by opening any lock in order to the committing of the
house-trespass, or in order to the quitting of the house after a house-trespass;
(e) if he effects his entrance or departure by using criminal force or committing
an assault, or by threatening any person with assault;
(f) if he enters or quits by any passage which he knows to have been fastened
against such entrance or departure, and to have been unfastened by himself or by an
abettor of the house-trespass.
Punishment for
intentionally
running vessel
aground or
ashore with
intent to
commit theft,
etc.
Criminal
trespass and
house-trespass.
House-trespass
and house-
breaking.
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Explanation.—Any out-house or building occupied with a house, and between which
and such house there is an immediate internal communication, is part of the house within the
meaning of this section.
Illustrations.
(a) A commits house-trespass by making a hole through the wall of Z’s house, and
putting his hand through the aperture. This is house-breaking.
(b) A commits house-trespass by creeping into a ship at a port-hole between decks.
This is house-breaking.
(c) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through a window. This is
house-breaking.
(d) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having opened
a door which was fastened. This is house-breaking.
(e) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a
latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door. This is house-breaking.
(f) A finds the key of Z’s house door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass by
entering Z’s house, having opened the door with that key. This is house-breaking.
(g) Z is standing in his doorway. A forces a passage by knocking Z down, and commits
house-trespass by entering the house. This is house-breaking.
(h) Z, the door-keeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by
entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him. This is
house-breaking.
331. (1) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass or house-breaking, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
(2) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass or house-breaking after sunset and before
sunrise, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass or house-breaking, in order to the
committing of any offence punishable with imprisonment, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to
fine; and if the offence intended to be committed is theft, the term of the imprisonment may
be extended to ten years.
(4) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass or house-breaking after sunset and before
sunrise, in order to the committing of any offence punishable with imprisonment, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years,
and shall also be liable to fine; and, if the offence intended to be committed is theft, the term
of the imprisonment may be extended to fourteen years.
(5) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass, or house-breaking, having made
preparation for causing hurt to any person, or for assaulting any person, or for wrongfully
restraining any person, or for putting any person in fear of hurt or of assault or of wrongful
restraint, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description or a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(6) Whoever commits lurking house-trespass or house-breaking after sunset and before
sunrise, having made preparation for causing hurt to any person or for assaulting any
person, or for wrongfully restraining any person, or for putting any person in fear of hurt, or
of assault, or of wrongful restraint, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to fourteen years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Punishment for
house-trespass
or house-
breaking.
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(7) Whoever, whilst committing lurking house-trespass or house-breaking, causes
grievous hurt to any person or attempts to cause death or grievous hurt to any person, shall
be punished with imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(8) If, at the time of the committing of lurking house-trespass or house-breaking after
sunset and before sunrise, any person guilty of such offence shall voluntarily cause or
attempt to cause death or grievous hurt to any person, every person jointly concerned in
committing such lurking house-trespass or house-breaking after sunset and before sunrise,
shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
332. Whoever commits house-trespass in order to the committing of any offence––
(a) punishable with death, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with
rigorous imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to
fine;
(b) punishable with imprisonment for life, shall be punished with imprisonment
of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine;
(c) punishable with imprisonment, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to two years, and shall also be liable to fine:
Provided that if the offence intended to be committed is theft, the term of the
imprisonment may be extended to seven years.
333. Whoever commits house-trespass, having made preparation for causing hurt to
any person or for assaulting any person, or for wrongfully restraining any person, or for
putting any person in fear of hurt, or of assault, or of wrongful restraint, shall be punished
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
334. (1) Whoever dishonestly or with intent to commit mischief, breaks open or
unfastens any closed receptacle which contains or which he believes to contain property,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two
years, or with fine, or with both.
(2) Whoever, being entrusted with any closed receptacle which contains or which he
believes to contain property, without having authority to open the same, dishonestly, or with
intent to commit mischief, breaks open or unfastens that receptacle, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or
with both.
CHAPTER XVIII
OF OFFENCES RELATING TO DOCUMENTS AND TO PROPERTY MARKS
335. A person is said to make a false document or false electronic record—
(A) Who dishonestly or fraudulently—
(i) makes, signs, seals or executes a document or part of a document;
(ii) makes or transmits any electronic record or part of any electronic
record;
(iii) affixes any electronic signature on any electronic record;
(iv) makes any mark denoting the execution of a document or the
authenticity of the electronic signature,
with the intention of causing it to be believed that such document or part of
document, electronic record or electronic signature was made, signed, sealed,
executed, transmitted orDIIL[HGE\RUE\WKHDXWKRULW\RIDSHUVRQE\ZKRPRU
House-trespass
in order to
commit
offence.
House-trespass
after
preparation for
hurt, assault or
wrongful
restraint.
Dishonestly
breaking open
receptacle
containing
property.
Making a false
document.
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by whose authority he knows that itwas not made, signed, sealed, executed or
affixed; or
(B)Who without lawful authority, dishonestly or fraudulently, by cancellation
or otherwise, alters a document or an electronic record in any material part thereof,
after it has been made, executed or affixed with electronic signature either by himself or
by any other person, whether such person be living or dead at the time of such
alteration; or
(C) Who dishonestly or fraudulently causes any person to sign, seal, execute or
alter a document or an electronic record or to affix his electronic signature on any
electronic record knowing that such person by reason of unsoundness of mind or
intoxication cannot, or that by reason of deception practised upon him, he does not
know the contents of the document or electronic record or the nature of the alteration.
Illustrations.
(a) A has a letter of credit upon B for rupees 10,000, written by Z. A, in order to defraud
B, adds cipher to the 10,000, and makes the sum 1,00,000 intending that it may be believed by
B that Z so wrote the letter. A has committed forgery.
(b) A, without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance
of an estate from Z to A, with the intention of selling the estate to B and thereby of obtaining
from B the purchase-money. A has committed forgery.
(c) A picks up a cheque on a banker signed by B, payable to bearer, but without any
sum having been inserted in the cheque. A fraudulently fills up the cheque by inserting the
sum of ten thousand rupees. A commits forgery.
(d) A leaves with B, his agent, a cheque on a banker, signed by A, without inserting the
sum payable and authorises B to fill up the cheque by inserting a sum not exceeding ten
thousand rupees for the purpose of making certain payments. B fraudulently fills up the
cheque by inserting the sum of twenty thousand rupees. B commits forgery.
(e)A draws a bill of exchange on himself in the name of B without B’s authority,
intending to discount it as a genuine bill with a banker and intending to take up the bill on its
maturity. Here, as A draws the bill with intent to deceive the banker by leading him to
suppose that he had the security of B, and thereby to discount the bill, A is guilty of forgery.
(f)Z’s will contains these words—“I direct that all my remaining property be equally
divided between A, B and C” A dishonestly scratches out B’s name, intending that it may be
believed that the whole was left to himself and C. A has committed forgery.
(g) A endorses a Government promissory note and makes it payable to Z or his order
by writing on the bill the words “Pay to Z or his order” and signing the endorsement. B
dishonestly erases the words “Pay to Z or his order”, and thereby converts the special
endorsement into a blank endorsement. B commits forgery.
(h) A sells and conveys an estate to Z. A afterwards, in order to defraud Z of his estate,
executes a conveyance of the same estate to B, dated six months earlier than the date of the
conveyance to Z, intending it to be believed that he had conveyed the estate to B before he
conveyed it to Z. A has committed forgery.
(i)Z dictates his will to A. A intentionally writes down a different legatee from the
legatee named by Z, and by representing to Z that he has prepared the will according to his
instructions, induces Z to sign the will. A has committed forgery.
(j) A writes a letter and signs it with B’s name without B’s authority, certifying that A is
a man of good character and in distressed circumstances from unforeseen misfortune,
intending by means of such letter to obtain alms from Z and other persons. Here, as A made
a false document in order to induce Z to part with property, A has committed forgery.
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(k) A without B’s authority writes a letter and signs it in B’s name certifying to A’s
character, intending thereby to obtain employment under Z. A has committed forgery in as
much as he intended to deceive Z by the forged certificate, and thereby to induce Z to enter
into an express or implied contract for service.
Explanation 1.—A man’s signature of his own name may amount to forgery.
Illustrations.
(a) A signs his own name to a bill of exchange, intending that it may be believed that
the bill was drawn by another person of the same name. A has committed forgery.
(b) A writes the word “accepted” on a piece of paper and signs it with Z’s name, in
order that B may afterwards write on the paper a bill of exchange drawn by B upon Z, and
negotiate the bill as though it had been accepted by Z. A is guilty of forgery; and if B,
knowing the fact, draws the bill upon the paper pursuant to A’s intention, B is also guilty of
forgery.
(c) A picks up a bill of exchange payable to the order of a different person of the same
name. A endorses the bill in his own name, intending to cause it to be believed that it was
endorsed by the person to whose order it was payable; here A has committed forgery.
(d) A purchases an estate sold under execution of a decree against B. B, after the
seizure of the estate, in collusion with Z, executes a lease of the estate, to Z at a nominal rent
and for a long period and dates the lease six months prior to the seizure, with intent to
defraud A, and to cause it to be believed that the lease was granted before the seizure. B,
though he executes the lease in his own name, commits forgery by antedating it.
(e) A, a trader, in anticipation of insolvency, lodges effects with B for A’s benefit, and
with intent to defraud his creditors; and in order to give a colour to the transaction, writes a
promissory note binding himself to pay to B a sum for value received, and antedates the
note, intending that it may be believed to have been made before A was on the point of
insolvency. A has committed forgery under the first head of the definition.
Explanation 2.—The making of a false document in the name of a fictitious person,
intending it to be believed that the document was made by a real person, or in the name of a
deceased person, intending it to be believed that the document was made by the person in
his lifetime, may amount to forgery.
Illustration.
A draws a bill of exchange upon a fictitious person, and fraudulently accepts the bill in
the name of such fictitious person with intent to negotiate it. A commits forgery.
Explanation 3.—For the purposes of this section, the expression “affixing electronic
signature” shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 2
of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
336. (1) Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a
document or electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any
person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to
enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be
committed, commits forgery.
(2) Whoever commits forgery shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever commits forgery, intending that the document or electronic record forged
shall be used for the purpose of cheating, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Forgery.
21 of 2000.
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(4) Whoever commits forgery, intending that the document or electronic record forged
shall harm the reputation of any party, or knowing that it is likely to be used for that purpose,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
337. Whoever forges a document or an electronic record, purporting to be a record or
proceeding of or in a Court or an identity document issued by Government including voter
identity card or Aadhaar Card, or a register of birth, marriage or burial, or a register kept by
a public servant as such, or a certificate or document purporting to be made by a public
servant in his official capacity, or an authority to institute or defend a suit, or to take any
proceedings therein, or to confess judgment, or a power of attorney, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also
be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, “register” includes any list, data or
record of any entries maintained in the electronic form as defined in clause (r) of sub-section (1)
of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
338. Whoever forges a document which purports to be a valuable security or a will, or
an authority to adopt a son, or which purports to give authority to any person to make or
transfer any valuable security, or to receive the principal, interest or dividends thereon, or to
receive or deliver any money, movable property, or valuable security, or any document
purporting to be an acquittance or receipt acknowledging the payment of money, or an
acquittance or receipt for the delivery of any movable property or valuable security, shall be
punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
339. Whoever has in his possession any document or electronic record, knowing the
same to be forged and intending that the same shall fraudulently or dishonestly be used as
genuine, shall, if the document or electronic record is one of the description mentioned in
section 337 of this Sanhita, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine; and if the document is one
of the description mentioned in section 338, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or
with imprisonment of either description, for a term which may extend to seven years, and
shall also be liable to fine.
340. (1) A false document or electronic record made wholly or in part by forgery is
designated a forged document or electronic record.
(2) Whoever fraudulently or dishonestly uses as genuine any document or electronic
record which he knows or has reason to believe to be a forged document or electronic record,
shall be punished in the same manner as if he had forged such document or electronic record.
341. (1) Whoever makes or counterfeits any seal, plate or other instrument for making
an impression, intending that the same shall be used for the purpose of committing any
forgery which would be punishable under section 338 of this Sanhita, or, with such intent,
has in his possession any such seal, plate or other instrument, knowing the same to be
counterfeit, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Whoever makes or counterfeits any seal, plate or other instrument for making an
impression, intending that the same shall be used for the purpose of committing any forgery
which would be punishable under any section of this Chapter other than section 338, or, with
such intent, has in his possession any such seal, plate or other instrument, knowing the
same to be counterfeit, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Whoever possesses any seal, plate or other instrument knowing the same to be
counterfeit, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Forgery of
record of
Court or of
public register,
etc.
Forgery of
valuable
security, will,
etc.
Having
possession of
document
described in
section 337 or
section 338,
knowing it to
be forged and
intending to
use it as
genuine.
21 of 2000.
Forged
document or
electronic
record and
using it as
genuine.
Making or
possessing
counterfeit
seal, etc., with
intent to
commit
forgery
punishable
under section
338.
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(4) Whoever fraudulently or dishonestly uses as genuine any seal, plate or other
instrument knowing or having reason to believe the same to be counterfeit, shall be punished
in the same manner as if he had made or counterfeited such seal, plate or other instrument.
342. (1) Whoever counterfeits upon, or in the substance of, any material, any device
or mark used for the purpose of authenticating any document described in section 338,
intending that such device or mark shall be used for the purpose of giving the appearance of
authenticity to any document then forged or thereafter to be forged on such material, or who,
with such intent, has in his possession any material upon or in the substance of which any
such device or mark has been counterfeited, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
(2) Whoever counterfeits upon, or in the substance of, any material, any device or
mark used for the purpose of authenticating any document or electronic record other than
the documents described in section 338, intending that such device or mark shall be used for
the purpose of giving the appearance of authenticity to any document then forged or
thereafter to be forged on such material, or who with such intent, has in his possession any
material upon or in the substance of which any such device or mark has been counterfeited,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
343. Whoever fraudulently or dishonestly, or with intent to cause damage or injury to
the public or to any person, cancels, destroys or defaces, or attempts to cancel, destroy or
deface, or secretes or attempts to secrete any document which is or purports to be a will, or
an authority to adopt a son, or any valuable security, or commits mischief in respect of such
document, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
344. Whoever, being a clerk, officer or servant, or employed or acting in the capacity
of a clerk, officer or servant, wilfully, and with intent to defraud, destroys, alters, mutilates or
falsifies any book, electronic record, paper, writing, valuable security or account which
belongs to or is in the possession of his employer, or has been received by him for or on
behalf of his employer, or wilfully, and with intent to defraud, makes or abets the making of
any false entry in, or omits or alters or abets the omission or alteration of any material
particular from or in, any such book, electronic record, paper, writing, valuable security or
account, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation.—It shall be sufficient in any charge under this section to allege a general
intent to defraud without naming any particular person intended to be defrauded or specifying
any particular sum of money intended to be the subject of the fraud, or any particular day on
which the offence was committed.
Of property marks
345. (1) A mark used for denoting that movable property belongs to a particular person
is called a property mark.
(2) Whoever marks any movable property or goods or any case, package or other
receptacle containing movable property or goods, or uses any case, package or other
receptacle having any mark thereon, in a manner reasonably calculated to cause it to be
believed that the property or goods so marked, or any property or goods contained in any
such receptacle so marked, belong to a person to whom they do not belong, is said to use a
false property mark.
(3) Whoever uses any false property mark shall, unless he proves that he acted without
intent to defraud, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
Counterfeiting
device or
mark used for
authenticating
documents
described in
section 338,
or possessing
counterfeit
marked
material.
Fraudulent
cancellation,
destruction,
etc., of will,
authority to
adopt, or
valuable
security.
Falsification
of accounts.
Property
mark.
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346. Whoever removes, destroys, defaces or adds to any property mark, intending or
knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause injury to any person, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or
with both.
347. (1) Whoever counterfeits any property mark used by any other person shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years,
or with fine, or with both.
(2) Whoever counterfeits any property mark used by a public servant, or any mark
used by a public servant to denote that any property has been manufactured by a particular
person or at a particular time or place, or that the property is of a particular quality or has
passed through a particular office, or that it is entitled to any exemption, or uses as genuine
any such mark knowing the same to be counterfeit, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
348. Whoever makes or has in his possession any die, plate or other instrument for the
purpose of counterfeiting a property mark, or has in his possession a property mark for the
purpose of denoting that any goods belong to a person to whom they do not belong, shall
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
years, or with fine, or with both.
349. Whoever sells, or exposes, or has in possession for sale, any goods or things
with a counterfeit property mark affixed to or impressed upon the same or to or upon any
case, package or other receptacle in which such goods are contained, shall, unless he proves—
(a) that, having taken all reasonable precautions against committing an offence
against this section, he had at the time of the commission of the alleged offence no
reason to suspect the genuineness of the mark; and
(b) that, on demand made by or on behalf of the prosecutor, he gave all the
information in his power with respect to the persons from whom he obtained such
goods or things; or
(c) that otherwise he had acted innocently,
be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year,
or with fine, or with both.
350. (1) Whoever makes any false mark upon any case, package or other receptacle
containing goods, in a manner reasonably calculated to cause any public servant or any
other person to believe that such receptacle contains goods which it does not contain or that
it does not contain goods which it does contain, or that the goods contained in such
receptacle are of a nature or quality different from the real nature or quality thereof, shall,
unless he proves that he acted without intent to defraud, be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
(2) Whoever makes use of any false mark in any manner prohibited under sub-section (1)
shall, unless he proves that he acted without intent to defraud, be punished as if he had
committed the offence under sub-section (1).
CHAPTER XIX
OF CRIMINAL INTIMIDATION, INSULT, ANNOYANCE, DEFAMATION, ETC.
351. (1) Whoever threatens another by any means, with any injury to his person,
reputation or property, or to the person or reputation of any one in whom that person is
interested, with intent to cause alarm to that person, or to cause that person to do any act
which he is not legally bound to do, or to omit to do any act which that person is legally
entitled to do, as the means of avoiding the execution of such threat, commits criminal
intimidation.
Tampering
with property
mark with
intent to cause
injury.
Counterfeiting
a property
mark.
Making or
possession of
any instruPHQW
for
counterfeiting
a property
mark.
Selling goods
marked with a
counterfeit
property
mark.
Making a false
mark upon
any receptacle
containing
goods.
Criminal
intimidation.
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Explanation.—A threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the
person threatened is interested, is within this section.
Illustration.
A, for the purpose of inducing B to resist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to
burn B’s house. A is guilty of criminal intimidation.
(2) Whoever commits the offence of criminal intimidation shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or
with both.
(3) Whoever commits the offence of criminal intimidation by threatening to cause
death or grievous hurt, or to cause the destruction of any property by fire, or to cause an
offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment for a term which
may extend to seven years, or to impute unchastity to a woman, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine,
or with both.
(4) Whoever commits the offence of criminal intimidation by an anonymous
communication, or having taken precaution to conceal the name or abode of the person from
whom the threat comes, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to two years, in addition to the punishment provided for the offence under
sub-section (1).
352. Whoever intentionally insults in any manner, and thereby gives provocation to
any person, intending or knowing it to be likely that such provocation will cause him to break
the public peace, or to commit any other offence, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
353. (1) Whoever makes, publishes or circulates any statement, false information,
rumour, or report, including through electronic means—
(a) with intent to cause, or which is likely to cause, any officer, soldier, sailor or
airman in the Army, Navy or Air Force of India to mutiny or otherwise disregard or fail
in his duty as such; or
(b) with intent to cause, or which is likely to cause, fear or alarm to the public, or
to any section of the public whereby any person may be induced to commit an offence
against the State or against the public tranquillity; or
(c) with intent to incite, or which is likely to incite, any class or community of
persons to commit any offence against any other class or community,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with
both.
(2) Whoever makes, publishes or circulates any statement or report containing false
information, rumour or alarming news, including through electronic means, with intent to
create or promote, or which is likely to create or promote, on grounds of religion, race, place
of birth, residence, language, caste or community or any other ground whatsoever, feelings
of enmity, hatred or ill will between different religious, racial, language or regional groups or
castes or communities, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three
years, or with fine, or with both.
(3) Whoever commits an offence specified in sub-section (2) in any place of worship
or in any assembly engaged in the performance of religious worship or religious ceremonies,
shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to five years and shall also be liable
to fine.
Intentional
insult with
intent to
provoke
breach of
peace.
Statements
conducing to
public
mischief.
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Exception.—It does not amount to an offence, within the meaning of this section,
when the person making, publishing or circulating any such statement, false information,
rumour or report, has reasonable grounds for believing that such statement, false information,
rumour or report is true and makes, publishes or circulates it in good faith and without any
such intent as aforesaid.
354. Whoever voluntarily causes or attempts to cause any person to do anything
which that person is not legally bound to do, or to omit to do anything which he is legally
entitled to do, by inducing or attempting to induce that person to believe that he or any
person in whom he is interested will become or will be rendered by some act of the offender
an object of Divine displeasure if he does not do the thing which it is the object of the
offender to cause him to do, or if he does the thing which it is the object of the offender to
cause him to omit, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
Illustrations.
(a) A sits dharna at Z’s door with the intention of causing it to be believed that, by so
sitting, he renders Z an object of Divine displeasure. A has committed the offence defined in
this section.
(b) A threatens Z that, unless Z performs a certain act, A will kill one of A’s own
children, under such circumstances that the killing would be believed to render Z an object
of Divine displeasure. A has committed the offence defined in this section.
355. Whoever, in a state of intoxication, appears in any public place, or in any place
which it is a trespass in him to enter, and there conducts himself in such a manner as to cause
annoyance to any person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to twenty-four hours, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with
both or with community service.
Of defamation
356. (1) Whoever, by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by
visible representations, makes or publishes in any manner, any imputation concerning any
person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will
harm, the reputation of such person, is said, except in the cases hereinafter excepted, to
defame that person.
Explanation 1.—It may amount to defamation to impute anything to a deceased person,
if the imputation would harm the reputation of that person if living, and is intended to be
hurtful to the feelings of his family or other near relatives.
Explanation 2.—It may amount to defamation to make an imputation concerning a
company or an association or collection of persons as such.
Explanation 3.—An imputation in the form of an alternative or expressed ironically,
may amount to defamation.
Explanation 4.—No imputation is said to harm a person’s reputation, unless that
imputation directly or indirectly, in the estimation of others, lowers the moral or intellectual
character of that person, or lowers the character of that person in respect of his caste or of his
calling, or lowers the credit of that person, or causes it to be believed that the body of that
person is in a loathsome state, or in a state generally considered as disgraceful.
Illustrations.
(a) A says— “Z is an honest man; he never stole B’s watch”; intending to cause it to
be believed that Z did steal B’s watch. This is defamation, unless it falls within one of the
exceptions.
(b) A is asked who stole B’s watch. A points to Z, intending to cause it to be believed
that Z stole B’s watch. This is defamation, unless it falls within one of the exceptions.
Act caused
by inducing
person to
believe that he
will be rendered
an object of
Divine
displeasure.
Misconduct in
public by a
drunken
person.
Defamation.
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(c) A draws a picture of Z running away with B’s watch, intending it to be believed that
Z stole B’s watch. This is defamation, unless it falls within one of the exceptions.
Exception 1.—It is not defamation to impute anything which is true concerning any
person, if it be for the public good that the imputation should be made or published. Whether
or not it is for the public good is a question of fact.
Exception 2.—It is not defamation to express in good faith any opinion whatever
respecting the conduct of a public servant in the discharge of his public functions, or
respecting his character, so far as his character appears in that conduct, and no further.
Exception 3.—It is not defamation to express in good faith any opinion whatever
respecting the conduct of any person touching any public question, and respecting his
character, so far as his character appears in that conduct, and no further.
Illustration.
It is not defamation in A to express in good faith any opinion whatever respecting Z’s
conduct in petitioning Government on a public question, in signing a requisition for a meeting
on a public question, in presiding or attending at such meeting, in forming or joining any
society which invites the public support, in voting or canvassing for a particular candidate
for any situation in the efficient discharge of the duties of which the public is interested.
Exception 4.––It is not defamation to publish substantially true report of the
proceedings of a Court, or of the result of any such proceedings.
Explanation.—A Magistrate or other officer holding an inquiry in open Court
preliminary to a trial in a Court, is a Court within the meaning of the above section.
Exception 5.—It is not defamation to express in good faith any opinion whatever
respecting the merits of any case, civil or criminal, which has been decided by a Court, or
respecting the conduct of any person as a party, witness or agent, in any such case, or
respecting the character of such person, as far as his character appears in that conduct, and
no further.
Illustrations.
(a) A says—“I think Z’s evidence on that trial is so contradictory that he must be
stupid or dishonest”. A is within this exception if he says this in good faith, in as much as the
opinion which he expresses respects Z’s character as it appears in Z’s conduct as a witness,
and no further.
(b) But if A says—“I do not believe what Z asserted at that trial because I know him to
be a man without veracity”; A is not within this exception, in as much as the opinion which
expresses of Z’s character, is an opinion not founded on Z’s conduct as a witness.
Exception 6.—It is not defamation to express in good faith any opinion respecting the
merits of any performance which its author has submitted to the judgment of the public, or
respecting the character of the author so far as his character appears in such performance,
and no further.
Explanation.—A performance may be submitted to the judgment of the public expressly
or by acts on the part of the author which imply such submission to the judgment of the
public.
Illustrations.
(a) A person who publishes a book, submits that book to the judgment of the public.
(b) A person who makes a speech in public, submits that speech to the judgment of the
public.
(c) An actor or singer who appears on a public stage, submits his acting or singing to
the judgment of the public.
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(d) A says of a book published by Z—“Z’s book is foolish; Z must be a weak man. Z’s
book is indecent; Z must be a man of impure mind” A is within the exception, if he says this
in good faith, in as much as the opinion which he expresses of Z respects Z’s character only
so far as it appears in Z’s book, and no further.
(e) But if A says “I am not surprised that Z’s book is foolish and indecent, for he is a
weak man and a libertine” A is not within this exception, in as much as the opinion which
heexpresses of Z’s character is an opinion not founded on Z’s book.
Exception 7.—It is not defamation in a person having over another any authority,
either conferred by law or arising out of a lawful contract made with that other, to pass in
good faith any censure on the conduct of that other in matters to which such lawful authority
relates.
Illustration.
A Judge censuring in good faith the conduct of a witness, or of an officer of the Court;
a head of a department censuring in good faith those who are under his orders, a parent
censuring in good faith a child in the presence of other children; a school master, whose
authority is derived from a parent, censuring in good faith a pupil in the presence of other
pupils; a master censuring a servant in good faith for remissness in service; a banker censuring
in good faith the cashier of his bank for the conduct of such cashier as such cashier are
within this exception.
Exception 8.—It is not defamation to prefer in good faith an accusation against any
person to any of those who have lawful authority over that person with respect to the
subject-matter of accusation.
Illustration.
If A in good faith accuses Z before a Magistrate; if A in good faith complains of the
conduct of Z, a servant, to Z’s master; if A in good faith complains of the conduct of Z, a
child, to Z’s fatherA is within this exception.
Exception 9.— It is not defamation to make an imputation on the character of another
provided that the imputation be made in good faith for the protection of the interests of the
person making it, or of any other person, or for the public good.
Illustrations.
(a) A, a shopkeeper, says to B, who manages his business—“Sell nothing to Z unless
he pays you ready money, for I have no opinion of his honesty” A is within the exception,
ifhe has made this imputation on Z in good faith for the protection of his own interests.
(b) A, a Magistrate, in making a report to his own superior officer, casts an imputation
on the character of Z. Here, if the imputation is made in good faith, and for the public good,
A is within the exception.
Exception 10.— It is not defamation to convey a caution, in good faith, to one person
against another, provided that such caution be intended for the good of the person to whom
it is conveyed, or of some person in whom that person is interested, or for the public good.
(2) Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term
which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both or with community service.
(3) Whoever prints or engraves any matter, knowing or having good reason to believe
that such matter is defamatory of any person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for
a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
(4) Whoever sells or offers for sale any printed or engraved substance containing
defamatory matter, knowing that it contains such matter, shall be punished with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
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Of breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person
357. Whoever, being bound by a lawful contract to attend on or to supply the wants
of any person who, by reason of youth, or of unsoundness of mind, or of a disease or bodily
weakness, is helpless or incapable of providing for his own safety or of supplying his own
wants, voluntarily omits so to do, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three months, or with fine which may extend to five thousand
rupees, or with both.
CHAPTER XX
REPEAL AND SAVINGS
358. (1) The Indian Penal Code is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Code referred to in sub-section (1), it shall not
affect,—
(a) the previous operation of the Code so repealed or anything duly done or
suffered thereunder; or
(b) any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred
under the Code so repealed; or
(c) any penalty, or punishment incurred in respect of any offences committed
against the Code so repealed; or
(d) any investigation or remedy in respect of any such penalty, or punishment; or
(e) any proceeding, investigation or remedy in respect of any such penalty or
punishment as aforesaid, and any such proceeding or remedy may be instituted,
continued or enforced, and any such penalty may be imposed as if that Code had not
been repealed.
(3) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the said
Code shall be deemed to have been done or taken under the corresponding provisions of
this Sanhita.
(4) The mention of particular matters in sub-section (2) shall not be held to prejudice or
affect the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act,1897 with regard to the
effect of the repeal.
Breach of
contract to
attend on and
supply wants
of helpless
person.
Repeal and
savings.
45 of 1860.
10 of 1897.
—————
DIWAKAR SINGH,
Joint Secretary & Legislative Counsel to the Govt. of India.
102 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-95
Sd/-
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 25th December, 2023/Pausha 4, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
25th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
THE BHARATIYA NAGARIK SURAKSHA SANHITA, 2023
NO. 46 OF 2023
[25th December, 2023.]
An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to Criminal Procedure.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
(2) The provisions of this Sanhita, other than those relating to Chapters IX, XI and
XII thereof, shall not apply—
(a) to the State of Nagaland;
(b) to the tribal areas,
but the concerned State Government may, by notification, apply such provisions or any of
them to the whole or part of the State of Nagaland or such tribal areas, as the case may be,
with such supplemental, incidental or consequential modifications, as may be specified in
the notification.
Short title,
extent and
commencement.
———————————————————————————————
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———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
Explanation.—In this section, "tribal areas" means the territories which immediately
before the 21st day of January, 1972, were included in the tribal areas of Assam, as referred
to in paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution, other than those within the
local limits of the municipality of Shillong.
(3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification
in the Official Gazette, appoint.
2. (1) In this Sanhita, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) "audio-video electronic means" shall include use of any communication device
for the purposes of video conferencing, recording of processes of identification, search
and seizure or evidence, transmission of electronic communication and for such other
purposes and by such other means as the State Government may, by rules provide;
(b) "bail" means release of a person accused of or suspected of commission of
an offence from the custody of law upon certain conditions imposed by an officer or
Court on execution by such person of a bond or a bail bond;
(c) "bailable offence" means an offence which is shown as bailable in the First
Schedule, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force; and
"non-bailable offence" means any other offence;
(d) "bail bond" means an undertaking for release with surety;
(e) "bond" means a personal bond or an undertaking for release without surety;
(f) "charge" includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads
than one;
(g) "cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and "cognizable case"
means a case in which, a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or
under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant;
(h) "complaint" means any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate,
with a view to his taking action under this Sanhita, that some person, whether known
or unknown, has committed an offence, but does not include a police report.
Explanation.—A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses,
after investigation, the commission of a non-cognizable offence shall be deemed to be
a complaint; and the police officer by whom such report is made shall be deemed to be
the complainant;
(i) "electronic communication" means the communication of any written, verbal,
pictorial information or video content transmitted or transferred (whether from one
person to another or from one device to another or from a person to a device or from
a device to a person) by means of an electronic device including a telephone, mobile
phone, or other wireless telecommunication device, or a computer, or audio-video
player or camera or any other electronic device or electronic form as may be specified
by notification, by the Central Government;
(j) "High Court" means,—
(i) in relation to any State, the High Court for that State;
(ii) in relation to a Union territory to which the jurisdiction of the High
Court for a State has been extended by law, that High Court;
(iii) in relation to any other Union territory, the highest Court of criminal
appeal for that territory other than the Supreme Court of India;
(k) "inquiry" means every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this
Sanhita by a Magistrate or Court;
(l) "investigation" includes all the proceedings under this Sanhita for the
collection of evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than a
Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in this behalf.
Explanation.—Where any of the provisions of a special Act are inconsistent
with the provisions of this Sanhita, the provisions of the special Act shall prevail;
Definitions.
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(m) "judicial proceeding" includes any proceeding in the course of which
evidence is or may be legally taken on oath;
(n) "local jurisdiction", in relation to a Court or Magistrate, means the local area
within which the Court or Magistrate may exercise all or any of its or his powers under
this Sanhita and such local area may comprise the whole of the State, or any part of
the State, as the State Government may, by notification, specify;
(o) "non-cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and "non-cognizable
case" means a case in which, a police officer has no authority to arrest without
warrant;
(p) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette;
(q) "offence" means any act or omission made punishable by any law for the
time being in force and includes any act in respect of which a complaint may be made
under section 20 of the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871;
(r) "officer in charge of a police station" includes, when the officer in charge of
the police station is absent from the station-house or unable from illness or other
cause to perform his duties, the police officer present at the station-house who is next
in rank to such officer and is above the rank of constable or, when the State Government
so directs, any other police officer so present;
(s) "place" includes a house, building, tent, vehicle and vessel;
(t) "police report" means a report forwarded by a police officer to a Magistrate
under sub-section (3) of section 193;
(u) "police station" means any post or place declared generally or specially by
the State Government, to be a police station, and includes any local area specified by
the State Government in this behalf;
(v) "Public Prosecutor" means any person appointed under section 18, and
includes any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor;
(w) "sub-division" means a sub-division of a district;
(x) "summons-case" means a case relating to an offence, and not being a
warrant-case;
(y) "victim" means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by
reason of the act or omission of the accused person and includes the guardian or
legal heir of such victim;
(z) "warrant-case" means a case relating to an offence punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.
(2) Words and expressions used herein and not defined but defined in the Information
Technology Act, 2000 and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 shall have the meanings
respectively assigned to them in that Act and Sanhita.
3. (1) Unless the context otherwise requires, any reference in any law, to a Magistrate
without any qualifying words, Magistrate of the first class or a Magistrate of the second
class shall, in relation to any area, be construed as a reference to a Judicial Magistrate of the
first class or Judicial Magistrate of the second class, as the case may be, exercising jurisdiction
in such area.
Construction
of references.
1 of 1871.
2 of 2000.
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(2) Where, under any law, other than this Sanhita, the functions exercisable by a
Magistrate relate to matters,—
(a) which involve the appreciation or shifting of evidence or the formulation of
any decision which exposes any person to any punishment or penalty or detention in
custody pending investigation, inquiry or trial or would have the effect of sending
him for trial before any Court, they shall, subject to the provisions of this Sanhita, be
exercisable by a Judicial Magistrate; or
(b) which are administrative or executive in nature, such as, the granting of a
licence, the suspension or cancellation of a licence, sanctioning a prosecution or
withdrawing from a prosecution, they shall, subject to the provisions of clause (a) be
exercisable by an Executive Magistrate.
4. (1) All offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 shall be investigated,
inquired into, tried, and otherwise dealt with according to the provisions hereinafter
contained.
(2) All offences under any other law shall be investigated, inquired into, tried, and
otherwise dealt with according to the same provisions, but subject to any enactment for the
time being in force regulating the manner or place of investigating, inquiring into, trying or
otherwise dealing with such offences.
5. Nothing contained in this Sanhita shall, in the absence of a specific provision to
the contrary, affect any special or local law for the time being in force, or any special
jurisdiction or power conferred, or any special form of procedure prescribed, by any other
law for the time being in force.
CHAPTER II
CONSTITUTION OF CRIMINAL COURTS AND OFFICES
6. Besides the High Courts and the Courts constituted under any law, other than this
Sanhita, there shall be, in every State, the following classes of Criminal Courts, namely:—
(i) Courts of Session;
(ii) Judicial Magistrates of the first class;
(iii) Judicial Magistrates of the second class; and
(iv) Executive Magistrates.
7. (1) Every State shall be a sessions division or shall consist of sessions divisions;
and every sessions divisions shall, for the purposes of this Sanhita, be a district or consist
of districts.
(2) The State Government may, after consultation with the High Court, alter the limits
or the number of such divisions and districts.
(3) The State Government may, after consultation with the High Court, divide any
district into sub-divisions and may alter the limits or the number of such sub-divisions.
(4) The sessions divisions, districts and sub-divisions existing in a State at the
commencement of this Sanhita, shall be deemed to have been formed under this section.
8. (1) The State Government shall establish a Court of Session for every sessions
division.
(2) Every Court of Session shall be presided over by a Judge, to be appointed by the
High Court.
(3) The High Court may also appoint Additional Sessions Judges to exercise jurisdiction
in a Court of Session.
Trial of
offences under
Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita,
2023 and other
laws.
Saving.
Classes of
Criminal
Courts.
Territorial
divisions.
Court of
Session.
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(4) The Sessions Judge of one sessions division may be appointed by the High Court
to be also an Additional Sessions Judge of another division, and in such case, he may sit for
the disposal of cases at such place or places in the other division as the High Court may
direct.
(5) Where the office of the Sessions Judge is vacant, the High Court may make
arrangements for the disposal of any urgent application which is, or may be, made or
pending before such Court of Session by an Additional Sessions Judge or if there be no
Additional Sessions Judge, by a Chief Judicial Magistrate, in the sessions division; and
every such Judge or Magistrate shall have jurisdiction to deal with any such application.
(6) The Court of Session shall ordinarily hold its sitting at such place or places as the
High Court may, by notification, specify; but, if, in any particular case, the Court of Session
is of opinion that it will tend to the general convenience of the parties and witnesses to hold
its sittings at any other place in the sessions division, it may, with the consent of the
prosecution and the accused, sit at that place for the disposal of the case or the examination
of any witness or witnesses therein.
(7) The Sessions Judge may, from time to time, make orders consistent with this
Sanhita, as to the distribution of business among such Additional Sessions Judges.
(8) The Sessions Judge may also make provision for the disposal of any urgent
application, in the event of his absence or inability to act, by an Additional Sessions Judge
or if there be no Additional Sessions Judge, by the Chief Judicial Magistrate, and such
Judge or Magistrate shall be deemed to have jurisdiction to deal with any such application.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this Sanhita, "appointment" does not include the
first appointment, posting or promotion of a person by the Government to any Service, or
post in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State, where under any law, such
appointment, posting or promotion is required to be made by the Government.
9. (1) In every district there shall be established as many Courts of Judicial Magistrates
of the first class and of the second class, and at such places, as the State Government may,
after consultation with the High Court, by notification, specify:
Provided that the State Government may, after consultation with the High Court,
establish, for any local area, one or more Special Courts of Judicial Magistrates of the first
class or of the second class to try any particular case or particular class of cases, and where
any such Special Court is established, no other Court of Magistrate in the local area shall
have jurisdiction to try any case or class of cases for the trial of which such Special Court
of Judicial Magistrate has been established.
(2) The presiding officers of such Courts shall be appointed by the High Court.
(3) The High Court may, whenever it appears to it to be expedient or necessary, confer
the powers of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or of the second class on any member
of the Judicial Service of the State, functioning as a Judge in a Civil Court.
10. (1) In every district, the High Court shall appoint a Judicial Magistrate of the first
class to be the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(2) The High Court may appoint any Judicial Magistrate of the first class to be an
Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate, and such Magistrate shall have all or any of the
powers of a Chief Judicial Magistrate under this Sanhita or under any other law for the time
being in force as the High Court may direct.
(3) The High Court may designate any Judicial Magistrate of the first class in any
sub-division as the Sub-divisional Judicial Magistrate and relieve him of the responsibilities
specified in this section as occasion requires.
(4) Subject to the general control of the Chief Judicial Magistrate, every Sub-divisional
Judicial Magistrate shall also have and exercise, such powers of supervision and control
over the work of the Judicial Magistrates (other than Additional Chief Judicial Magistrates)
in the sub-division as the High Court may, by general or special order, specify in this behalf.
Courts of
Judicial
Magistrates.
Chief Judicial
Magistrate and
Additional
Chief Judicial
Magistrate,
etc.
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11. (1) The High Court may, if requested by the Central or State Government so to do,
confer upon any person who holds or has held any post under the Government, all or any
of the powers conferred or conferrable by or under this Sanhita on a Judicial Magistrate of
the first class or of the second class, in respect to particular cases or to particular classes of
cases, in any local area:
Provided that no such power shall be conferred on a person unless he possesses
such qualification or experience in relation to legal affairs as the High Court may, by rules,
specify.
(2) Such Magistrates shall be called Special Judicial Magistrates and shall be appointed
for such term, not exceeding one year at a time, as the High Court may, by general or special
order, direct.
12. (1) Subject to the control of the High Court, the Chief Judicial Magistrate may,
from time to time, define the local limits of the areas within which the Magistrates appointed
under section 9 or under section 11 may exercise all or any of the powers with which they
may respectively be invested under this Sanhita:
Provided that the Court of Special Judicial Magistrate may hold its sitting at any place
within the local area for which it is established.
(2) Except as otherwise provided by such definition, the jurisdiction and powers of
every such Magistrate shall extend throughout the district.
(3) Where the local jurisdiction of a Magistrate appointed under section 9 or section 11
extends to an area beyond the district in which he ordinarily holds Court, any reference in
this Sanhita to the Court of Session or Chief Judicial Magistrate shall, in relation to such
Magistrate, throughout the area within his local jurisdiction, be construed, unless the
context otherwise requires, as a reference to the Court of Session or Chief Judicial Magistrate,
as the case may be, exercising jurisdiction in relation to the said district.
13. (1) Every Chief Judicial Magistrate shall be subordinate to the Sessions Judge;
and every other Judicial Magistrate shall, subject to the general control of the Sessions
Judge, be subordinate to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(2) The Chief Judicial Magistrate may, from time to time, make rules or give special
orders, consistent with this Sanhita, as to the distribution of business among the Judicial
Magistrates subordinate to him.
14. (1) In every district, the State Government may appoint as many persons as it
thinks fit to be Executive Magistrates and shall appoint one of them to be the District
Magistrate.
(2) The State Government may appoint any Executive Magistrate to be an Additional
District Magistrate, and such Magistrate shall have such of the powers of a District
Magistrate under this Sanhita or under any other law for the time being in force as may be
directed by the State Government.
(3) Whenever, in consequence of the office of a District Magistrate becoming vacant,
any officer succeeds temporarily to the executive administration of the district, such officer
shall, pending the orders of the State Government, exercise all the powers and perform all
the duties respectively conferred and imposed by this Sanhita on the District Magistrate.
(4) The State Government may place an Executive Magistrate in charge of a
sub-division and may relieve him of the charge as occasion requires; and the Magistrate so
placed in charge of a sub-division shall be called the Sub-divisional Magistrate.
(5) The State Government may, by general or special order and subject to such control
and directions as it may deem fit to impose, delegate its powers under sub-section (4) to the
District Magistrate.
Special Judicial
Magistrates.
Local
Jurisdiction of
Judicial
Magistrates.
Subordination
of Judicial
Magistrates.
Executive
Magistrates.
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(6) Nothing in this section shall preclude the State Government from conferring,
under any law for the time being in force, on a Commissioner of Police all or any of the
powers of an Executive Magistrate.
15. The State Government may appoint, for such term as it may think fit, Executive
Magistrates or any police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police or equivalent,
to be known as Special Executive Magistrates, for particular areas or for the performance of
particular functions and confer on such Special Executive Magistrates such of the powers
as are conferrable under this Sanhita on Executive Magistrates, as it may deem fit.
16. (1) Subject to the control of the State Government, the District Magistrate may,
from time to time, define the local limits of the areas within which the Executive Magistrates
may exercise all or any of the powers with which they may be invested under this Sanhita.
(2) Except as otherwise provided by such definition, the jurisdiction and powers of
every such Magistrate shall extend throughout the district.
17. (1) All Executive Magistrates shall be subordinate to the District Magistrate, and
every Executive Magistrate (other than the Sub-divisional Magistrate) exercising powers in
a sub-division shall also be subordinate to the Sub-divisional Magistrate, subject, to the
general control of the District Magistrate.
(2) The District Magistrate may, from time to time, make rules or give special orders,
consistent with this Sanhita, as to the distribution or allocation of business among the
Executive Magistrates subordinate to him.
18. (1) For every High Court, the Central Government or the State Government shall,
after consultation with the High Court, appoint a Public Prosecutor and may also appoint
one or more Additional Public Prosecutors, for conducting in such Court, any prosecution,
appeal or other proceeding on behalf of the Central Government or the State Government,
as the case may be:
Provided that for National Capital Territory of Delhi, the Central Government shall,
after consultation with the High Court of Delhi, appoint the Public Prosecutor or Additional
Public Prosecutors for the purposes of this sub-section.
(2) The Central Government may appoint one or more Public Prosecutors for the
purpose of conducting any case in any district or local area.
(3) For every district, the State Government shall appoint a Public Prosecutor and may
also appoint one or more Additional Public Prosecutors for the district:
Provided that the Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor appointed for
one district may be appointed also to be a Public Prosecutor or an Additional Public
Prosecutor, as the case may be, for another district.
(4) The District Magistrate shall, in consultation with the Sessions Judge, prepare a
panel of names of persons, who are, in his opinion fit to be appointed as Public Prosecutors
or Additional Public Prosecutors for the district.
(5) No person shall be appointed by the State Government as the Public Prosecutor or
Additional Public Prosecutor for the district unless his name appears in the panel of names
prepared by the District Magistrate under sub-section (4).
(6) Notwithstanding anything in sub-section (5), where in a State there exists a
regular Cadre of Prosecuting Officers, the State Government shall appoint a Public
Prosecutor or an Additional Public Prosecutor only from among the persons constituting
such Cadre:
Provided that where, in the opinion of the State Government, no suitable person is
available in such Cadre for such appointment, that Government may appoint a person as
Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor, as the case may be, from the panel of
names prepared by the District Magistrate under sub-section (4).
Special
Executive
Magistrates.
Local
Jurisdiction of
Executive
Magistrates.
Subordination
of Executive
Magistrates.
Public
Prosecutors.
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Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—
(a) "regular Cadre of Prosecuting Officers" means a Cadre of Prosecuting Officers
which includes therein the post of Public Prosecutor, by whatever name called, and
which provides for promotion of Assistant Public Prosecutors, by whatever name
called, to that post;
(b) "Prosecuting Officer" means a person, by whatever name called, appointed
to perform the functions of a Public Prosecutor, Special Public Prosecutor, Additional
Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor under this Sanhita.
(7) A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a Public Prosecutor or an Additional
Public Prosecutor under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) or sub-section (6),
only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years.
(8) The Central Government or the State Government may appoint, for the purposes
of any case or class of cases, a person who has been in practice as an advocate for not less
than ten years as a Special Public Prosecutor:
Provided that the Court may permit the victim to engage an advocate of his choice to
assist the prosecution under this sub-section.
(9) For the purposes of sub-section (7) and sub-section (8), the period during which
a person has been in practice as an advocate, or has rendered (whether before or after the
commencement of this Sanhita) service as a Public Prosecutor or as an Additional Public
Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor or other Prosecuting Officer, by whatever name
called, shall be deemed to be the period during which such person has been in practice as
an advocate.
19. (1) The State Government shall appoint in every district one or more Assistant
Public Prosecutors for conducting prosecutions in the Courts of Magistrates.
(2) The Central Government may appoint one or more Assistant Public Prosecutors
for the purpose of conducting any case or class of cases in the Courts of Magistrates.
(3) Without prejudice to provisions contained in sub-sections (1) and (2), where no
Assistant Public Prosecutor is available for the purposes of any particular case, the District
Magistrate may appoint any other person to be the Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of
that case after giving notice of fourteen days to the State Government:
Provided that no police officer shall be eligible to be appointed as an Assistant Public
Prosecutor, if he—
(a) has taken any part in the investigation into the offence with respect to
which the accused is being prosecuted; or
(b) is below the rank of Inspector.
20. (1) The State Government may establish,—
(a) a Directorate of Prosecution in the State consisting of a Director of
Prosecution and as many Deputy Directors of Prosecution as it thinks fit; and
(b) a District Directorate of Prosecution in every district consisting of as many
Deputy Directors and Assistant Directors of Prosecution, as it thinks fit.
(2) A person shall be eligible to be appointed,—
(a) as a Director of Prosecution or a Deputy Director of Prosecution, if he has
been in practice as an advocate for not less than fifteen years or is or has been a
Sessions Judge;
(b) as an Assistant Director of Prosecution, if he has been in practice as an
advocate for not less than seven years or has been a Magistrate of the first class.
Assistant
Public
Prosecutors.
Directorate of
Prosecution.
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(3) The Directorate of Prosecution shall be headed by the Director of Prosecution,
who shall function under the administrative control of the Home Department in the State.
(4) Every Deputy Director of Prosecution or Assistant Director of Prosecution shall
be subordinate to the Director of Prosecution; and every Assistant Director of Prosecution
shall be subordinate to the Deputy Director of Prosecution.
(5) Every Public Prosecutor, Additional Public Prosecutor and Special Public Prosecutor
appointed by the State Government under sub-section (1) or sub-section (8) of section 18
to conduct cases in the High Court shall be subordinate to the Director of Prosecution.
(6) Every Public Prosecutor, Additional Public Prosecutor and Special Public Prosecutor
appointed by the State Government under sub-section (3) or sub-section (8) of section 18
to conduct cases in District Courts and every Assistant Public Prosecutor appointed under
sub-section (1) of section 19 shall be subordinate to the Deputy Director of Prosecution or
the Assistant Director of Prosecution.
(7) The powers and functions of the Director of Prosecution shall be to monitor cases
in which offences are punishable for ten years or more, or with life imprisonment, or with
death; to expedite the proceedings and to give opinion on filing of appeals.
(8) The powers and functions of the Deputy Director of Prosecution shall be to
examine and scrutinise police report and monitor the cases in which offences are punishable
for seven years or more, but less than ten years, for ensuring their expeditious disposal.
(9) The functions of the Assistant Director of Prosecution shall be to monitor cases in
which offences are punishable for less than seven years.
(10) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-sections (7), (8) and (9), the Director,
Deputy Director or Assistant Director of Prosecution shall have the power to deal with and
be responsible for all proceedings under this Sanhita.
(11) The other powers and functions of the Director of Prosecution, Deputy Directors
of Prosecution and Assistant Directors of Prosecution and the areas for which each of the
Deputy Directors of Prosecution or Assistant Directors of Prosecution have been appointed
shall be such as the State Government may, by notification, specify.
(12) The provisions of this section shall not apply to the Advocate General for the
State while performing the functions of a Public Prosecutor.
CHAPTER III
POWER OF COURTS
21. Subject to the other provisions of this Sanhita,—
(a) any offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 may be tried by—
(i) the High Court; or
(ii) the Court of Session; or
(iii) any other Court by which such offence is shown in the First Schedule
to be triable:
Provided that any offence under section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67,
section 68, section 69, section 70 or section 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
shall be tried as far as practicable by a Court presided over by a woman;
(b) any offence under any other law shall, when any Court is mentioned in this
behalf in such law, be tried by such Court and when no Court is so mentioned, may be
tried by—
(i) the High Court; or
(ii) any other Court by which such offence is shown in the First Schedule
to be triable.
Courts by
which
offences are
triable.
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22. (1) A High Court may pass any sentence authorised by law.
(2) A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised
by law; but any sentence of death passed by any such Judge shall be subject to confirmation
by the High Court.
23. (1) The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by
law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term
exceeding seven years.
(2) The Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment
for a term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding fifty thousand rupees, or of
both, or of community service.
(3) The Court of Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of imprisonment
for a term not exceeding one year, or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees, or of both,
or of community service.
Explanation.—"Community service" shall mean the work which the Court may order
a convict to perform as a form of punishment that benefits the community, for which he shall
not be entitled to any remuneration.
24. (1) The Court of a Magistrate may award such term of imprisonment in default of
payment of fine as is authorised by law:
Provided that the term—
(a) is not in excess of the powers of the Magistrate under section 23;
(b) shall not, where imprisonment has been awarded as part of the substantive
sentence, exceed one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is
competent to inflict as punishment for the offence otherwise than as imprisonment in
default of payment of the fine.
(2) The imprisonment awarded under this section may be in addition to a substantive
sentence of imprisonment for the maximum term awardable by the Magistrate under section 23.
25. (1) When a person is convicted at one trial of two or more offences, the Court may,
subject to the provisions of section 9 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sentence him
for such offences, to the several punishments prescribed therefor which such Court is
competent to inflict and the Court shall, considering the gravity of offences, order such
punishments to run concurrently or consecutively.
(2) In the case of consecutive sentences, it shall not be necessary for the Court by
reason only of the aggregate punishment for the several offences being in excess of the
punishment which it is competent to inflict on conviction of a single offence, to send the
offender for trial before a higher Court:
Provided that—
(a) in no case shall such person be sentenced to imprisonment for a longer
period than twenty years;
(b) the aggregate punishment shall not exceed twice the amount of punishment
which the Court is competent to inflict for a single offence.
(3) For the purpose of appeal by a convicted person, the aggregate of the consecutive
sentences passed against him under this section shall be deemed to be a single sentence.
26. (1) In conferring powers under this Sanhita, the High Court or the State Government,
as the case may be, may, by order, empower persons specially by name or in virtue of their
offices or classes of officials generally be their official titles.
(2) Every such order shall take effect from the date on which it is communicated to the
person so empowered.
27. Whenever any person holding an office in the service of Government who has
been invested by the High Court or the State Government with any powers under this
Sanhita throughout any local area is appointed to an equal or higher office of the same
Sentences
which High
Courts and
Sessions Judges
may pass.
Sentences
which
Magistrates
may pass.
Sentence of
imprisonment
in default of
fine.
Sentence in
cases of
conviction of
several
offences at
one trial.
Mode of
conferring
powers.
Powers of
officers
appointed.
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nature, within a like local area under the same State Government, he shall, unless the High
Court or the State Government, as the case may be, otherwise directs, or has otherwise
directed, exercise the same powers in the local area in which he is so appointed.
28. (1) The High Court or the State Government, as the case may be, may withdraw all
or any of the powers conferred by it under this Sanhita on any person or by any officer
subordinate to it.
(2) Any powers conferred by the Chief Judicial Magistrate or by the District Magistrate
may be withdrawn by the respective Magistrate by whom such powers were conferred.
29. (1) Subject to the other provisions of this Sanhita, the powers and duties of a
Judge or Magistrate may be exercised or performed by his successor-in-office.
(2) When there is any doubt as to who is the successor-in-office, the Sessions Judge
shall determine by order in writing the Judge who shall, for the purposes of this Sanhita or
of any proceedings or order thereunder, be deemed to be the successor-in-office.
(3) When there is any doubt as to who is the successor-in-office of any Magistrate,
the Chief Judicial Magistrate, or the District Magistrate, as the case may be, shall determine
by order in writing the Magistrate who shall, for the purpose of this Sanhita or of any
proceedings or order thereunder, be deemed to be the successor-in-office of such Magistrate.
CHAPTER IV
POWERS OF SUPERIOR OFFICERS OF POLICE AND AID TO THE MAGISTRATES AND THE POLICE
30. Police officers superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station may
exercise the same powers, throughout the local area to which they are appointed, as may be
exercised by such officer within the limits of his station.
31. Every person is bound to assist a Magistrate or police officer reasonably demanding
his aid—
(a) in the taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such
Magistrate or police officer is authorised to arrest; or
(b) in the prevention or suppression of a breach of the peace; or
(c) in the prevention of any injury attempted to be committed to any public
property.
32. When a warrant is directed to a person other than a police officer, any other
person may aid in the execution of such warrant, if the person to whom the warrant is
directed be near at hand and acting in the execution of the warrant.
33. (1) Every person, aware of the commission of, or of the intention of any other
person to commit, any offence punishable under any of the following sections of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, namely:—
(i) sections 103 to 105 (both inclusive);
(ii) sections 111 to 113 (both inclusive);
(iii) sections 140 to 144 (both inclusive);
(iv) sections 147 to 154 (both inclusive) and section 158;
(v) sections 178 to 182 (both inclusive);
(vi) sections 189 and 191;
(vii) sections 274 to 280 (both inclusive);
(viii) section 307;
Withdrawal of
powers.
Powers of
Judges and
Magistrates
exercisable by
their
successors-in-
office.
Powers of
superior
officers of
police.
Public when to
assist
Magistrates
and police.
Aid to person,
other than
police officer,
executing
warrant.
Public to give
information
of certain
offences.
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(ix) sections 309 to 312 (both inclusive);
(x) sub-section (5) of section 316;
(xi) sections 326 to 328 (both inclusive); and
(xii) sections 331 and 332,
shall, in the absence of any reasonable excuse, the burden of proving which excuse shall lie
upon the person so aware, forthwith give information to the nearest Magistrate or police
officer of such commission or intention.
(2) For the purposes of this section, the term "offence" includes any act committed at
any place out of India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.
34. (1) Every officer employed in connection with the affairs of a village and every
person residing in a village shall forthwith communicate to the nearest Magistrate or to the
officer in charge of the nearest police station, whichever is nearer, any information which he
may possess respecting—
(a) the permanent or temporary residence of any notorious receiver or vendor
of stolen property in or near such village;
(b) the resort to any place within, or the passage through, such village of any
person whom he knows, or reasonably suspects, to be a robber, escaped convict or
proclaimed offender;
(c) the commission of, or intention to commit, in or near such village any
non-bailable offence or any offence punishable under section 189 and section 191 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(d) the occurrence in or near such village of any sudden or unnatural death or
of any death under suspicious circumstances or the discovery in or near such village
of any corpse or part of a corpse, in circumstances which lead to a reasonable suspicion
that such a death has occurred or the disappearance from such village of any person
in circumstances which lead to a reasonable suspicion that a non-bailable offence has
been committed in respect of such person;
(e) the commission of, or intention to commit, at any place out of India near
such village any act which, if committed in India, would be an offence punishable
under any of the following sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, namely,
103, 105, 111, 112, 113, 178 to 181 (both inclusive), 305, 307, 309 to 312 (both inclusive),
clauses (f) and (g) of section 326, 331or 332;
(f) any matter likely to affect the maintenance of order or the prevention of crime
or the safety of person or property respecting which the District Magistrate, by
general or special order made with the previous sanction of the State Government,
has directed him to communicate information.
(2) In this section,—
(i) "village" includes village lands;
(ii) the expression "proclaimed offender" includes any person proclaimed as an
offender by any Court or authority in any territory in India to which this Sanhita does
not extend, in respect of any act which if committed in the territories to which this
Sanhita extends, would be an offence punishable under any of the offence punishable
with imprisonment for ten years or more or with imprisonment for life or with death
under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(iii) the words "officer employed in connection with the affairs of the village"
means a member of the panchayat of the village and includes the headman and every
officer or other person appointed to perform any function connected with the
administration of the village.
Duty of
officers
employed in
connection
with affairs of
a village to
make certain
report.
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CHAPTER V
ARREST OF PERSONS
35. (1) Any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a
warrant, arrest any person—
(a) who commits, in the presence of a police officer, a cognizable offence; or
(b) against whom a reasonable complaint has been made, or credible information
has been received, or a reasonable suspicion exists that he has committed a cognizable
offence punishable with imprisonment for a term which may be less than seven years
or which may extend to seven years whether with or without fine, if the following
conditions are satisfied, namely:—
(i) the police officer has reason to believe on the basis of such complaint,
information, or suspicion that such person has committed the said offence;
(ii) the police officer is satisfied that such arrest is necessary—
(a) to prevent such person from committing any further offence; or
(b) for proper investigation of the offence; or
(c) to prevent such person from causing the evidence of the offence
to disappear or tampering with such evidence in any manner; or
(d) to prevent such person from making any inducement, threat or
promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so as to
dissuade him from disclosing such facts to the Court or to the police
officer; or
(e) as unless such person is arrested, his presence in the Court
whenever required cannot be ensured,
and the police officer shall record while making such arrest, his reasons in writing:
Provided that a police officer shall, in all cases where the arrest of a person is
not required under the provisions of this sub-section, record the reasons in writing
for not making the arrest; or
(c) against whom credible information has been received that he has committed
a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
more than seven years whether with or without fine or with death sentence and the
police officer has reason to believe on the basis of that information that such person
has committed the said offence; or
(d) who has been proclaimed as an offender either under this Sanhita or by
order of the State Government; or
(e) in whose possession anything is found which may reasonably be suspected
to be stolen property and who may reasonably be suspected of having committed an
offence with reference to such thing; or
(f) who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty, or who has
escaped, or attempts to escape, from lawful custody; or
(g) who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any of the Armed
Forces of the Union; or
(h) who has been concerned in, or against whom a reasonable complaint has
been made, or credible information has been received, or a reasonable suspicion
exists, of his having been concerned in, any act committed at any place out of India
which, if committed in India, would have been punishable as an offence, and for
When police
may arrest
without
warrant.
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which he is, under any law relating to extradition, or otherwise, liable to be apprehended
or detained in custody in India; or
(i) who, being a released convict, commits a breach of any rule made under
sub-section (5) of section 394; or
(j) for whose arrest any requisition, whether written or oral, has been received
from another police officer, provided that the requisition specifies the person to be
arrested and the offence or other cause for which the arrest is to be made and it
appears therefrom that the person might lawfully be arrested without a warrant by the
officer who issued the requisition.
(2) Subject to the provisions of section 39, no person concerned in a non-cognizable
offence or against whom a complaint has been made or credible information has been
received or reasonable suspicion exists of his having so concerned, shall be arrested except
under a warrant or order of a Magistrate.
(3) The police officer shall, in all cases where the arrest of a person is not required
under sub-section (1) issue a notice directing the person against whom a reasonable
complaint has been made, or credible information has been received, or a reasonable suspicion
exists that he has committed a cognizable offence, to appear before him or at such other
place as may be specified in the notice.
(4) Where such a notice is issued to any person, it shall be the duty of that person to
comply with the terms of the notice.
(5) Where such person complies and continues to comply with the notice, he shall
not be arrested in respect of the offence referred to in the notice unless, for reasons to be
recorded, the police officer is of the opinion that he ought to be arrested.
(6) Where such person, at any time, fails to comply with the terms of the notice or is
unwilling to identify himself, the police officer may, subject to such orders as may have
been passed by a competent Court in this behalf, arrest him for the offence mentioned in the
notice.
(7) No arrest shall be made without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of
Deputy Superintendent of Police in case of an offence which is punishable for imprisonment
of less than three years and such person is infirm or is above sixty years of age.
36. Every police officer while making an arrest shall—
(a) bear an accurate, visible and clear identification of his name which will
facilitate easy identification;
(b) prepare a memorandum of arrest which shall be—
(i) attested by at least one witness, who is a member of the family of the
person arrested or a respectable member of the locality where the arrest is
made;
(ii) countersigned by the person arrested; and
(c) inform the person arrested, unless the memorandum is attested by a member
of his family, that he has a right to have a relative or a friend or any other person
named by him to be informed of his arrest.
37. The State Government shall—
(a) establish a police control room in every district and at State level;
(b) designate a police officer in every district and in every police station, not
below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector of Police who shall be responsible for
maintaining the information about the names and addresses of the persons arrested,
nature of the offence with which charged, which shall be prominently displayed in
any manner including in digital mode in every police station and at the district
headquarters.
Procedure of
arrest and
duties of
officer making
arrest.
Designated
police officer.
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38. When any person is arrested and interrogated by the police, he shall be entitled
to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout interrogation.
39. (1) When any person who, in the presence of a police officer, has committed or
has been accused of committing a non-cognizable offence refuses on demand of such
officer to give his name and residence or gives a name or residence which such officer has
reason to believe to be false, he may be arrested by such officer in order that his name or
residence may be ascertained.
(2) When the true name and residence of such person have been ascertained, he shall
be released on a bond or bail bond, to appear before a Magistrate if so required:
Provided that if such person is not resident in India, the bail bond shall be secured by
a surety or sureties resident in India.
(3) If the true name and residence of such person is not ascertained within
twenty-four hours from the time of arrest or if he fails to execute the bond or bail bond, or,
if so required, to furnish sufficient sureties, he shall forthwith be forwarded to the nearest
Magistrate having jurisdiction.
40. (1) Any private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person who in his
presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender, and,
without unnecessary delay, but within six hours from such arrest, shall make over or cause
to be made over any person so arrested to a police officer, or, in the absence of a police
officer, take such person or cause him to be taken in custody to the nearest police station.
(2) If there is reason to believe that such person comes under the provisions of
sub-section (1) of section 35, a police officer shall take him in custody.
(3) If there is reason to believe that he has committed a non-cognizable offence, and
he refuses on the demand of a police officer to give his name and residence, or gives a name
or residence which such officer has reason to believe to be false, he shall be dealt with
under the provisions of section 39; but if there is no sufficient reason to believe that he has
committed any offence, he shall be at once released.
41. (1) When any offence is committed in the presence of a Magistrate, whether
Executive or Judicial, within his local jurisdiction, he may himself arrest or order any person
to arrest the offender, and may thereupon, subject to the provisions herein contained as to
bail, commit the offender to custody.
(2) Any Magistrate, whether Executive or Judicial, may at any time arrest or direct the
arrest, in his presence, within his local jurisdiction, of any person for whose arrest he is
competent at the time and in the circumstances to issue a warrant.
42. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in section 35 and sections 39 to 41 (both
inclusive), no member of the Armed Forces of the Union shall be arrested for anything done
or purported to be done by him in the discharge of his official duties except after obtaining
the consent of the Central Government.
(2) The State Government may, by notification, direct that the provisions of
sub-section (1) shall apply to such class or category of the members of the Force charged
with the maintenance of public order as may be specified therein, wherever they may be
serving, and thereupon the provisions of that sub-section shall apply as if for the expression
"Central Government" occurring therein, the expression "State Government" were
substituted.
Right of
arrested
person to
meet an
advocate of
his choice
during
interrogation.
Arrest on
refusal to give
name and
residence.
Arrest by
private person
and procedure
on such arrest.
Arrest by
Magistrate.
Protection of
members of
Armed Forces
from arrest.
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43. (1) In making an arrest the police officer or other person making the same shall
actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there be a submission
to the custody by word or action:
Provided that where a woman is to be arrested, unless the circumstances indicate
to the contrary, her submission to custody on an oral intimation of arrest shall be
presumed and, unless the circumstances otherwise require or unless the police officer
is a female, the police officer shall not touch the person of the woman for making her
arrest.
(2) If such person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, or attempts to evade
the arrest, such police officer or other person may use all means necessary to effect the
arrest.
(3) The police officer may, keeping in view the nature and gravity of the offence,
use handcuff while making the arrest of a person or while producing such person
before the court who is a habitual or repeat offender, or who escaped from custody, or
who has committed offence of organised crime, terrorist act, drug related crime, or
illegal possession of arms and ammunition, murder, rape, acid attack, counterfeiting of
coins and currency-notes, human trafficking, sexual offence against children, or offence
against the State.
(4) Nothing in this section gives a right to cause the death of a person who is not
accused of an offence punishable with death or with imprisonment for life.
(5) Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after sunset and
before sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances exist, the woman police officer
shall, by making a written report, obtain the prior permission of the Magistrate of the
first class within whose local jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be
made.
44. (1) If any person acting under a warrant of arrest, or any police officer having
authority to arrest, has reason to believe that the person to be arrested has entered into, or
is within, any place, any person residing in, or being in charge of, such place shall, on
demand of such person acting as aforesaid or such police officer, allow him free ingress
thereto, and afford all reasonable facilities for a search therein.
(2) If ingress to such place cannot be obtained under sub-section (1), it shall be lawful
in any case for a person acting under a warrant and in any case in which a warrant may
issue, but cannot be obtained without affording the person to be arrested an opportunity of
escape, for a police officer to enter such place and search therein, and in order to effect an
entrance into such place, to break open any outer or inner door or window of any house or
place, whether that of the person to be arrested or of any other person, if after notification
of his authority and purpose, and demand of admittance duly made, he cannot otherwise
obtain admittance:
Provided that if any such place is an apartment in the actual occupancy of a female
(not being the person to be arrested) who, according to custom, does not appear in public,
such person or police officer shall, before entering such apartment, give notice to such
female that she is at liberty to withdraw and shall afford her every reasonable facility for
withdrawing, and may then break open the apartment and enter it.
(3) Any police officer or other person authorised to make an arrest may break open
any outer or inner door or window of any house or place in order to liberate himself or any
other person who, having lawfully entered for the purpose of making an arrest, is detained
therein.
Arrest how
made.
Search of place
entered by
person sought
to be arrested.
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45. A police officer may, for the purpose of arresting without warrant any person
whom he is authorised to arrest, pursue such person into any place in India.
46. The person arrested shall not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to
prevent his escape.
47. (1) Every police officer or other person arresting any person without warrant shall
forthwith communicate to him full particulars of the offence for which he is arrested or other
grounds for such arrest.
(2) Where a police officer arrests without warrant any person other than a person
accused of a non-bailable offence, he shall inform the person arrested that he is entitled to
be released on bail and that he may arrange for sureties on his behalf.
48. (1) Every police officer or other person making any arrest under this Sanhita shall
forthwith give the information regarding such arrest and place where the arrested person is
being held to any of his relatives, friends or such other persons as may be disclosed or
nominated by the arrested person for the purpose of giving such information and also to
the designated police officer in the district.
(2) The police officer shall inform the arrested person of his rights under
sub-section (1) as soon as he is brought to the police station.
(3) An entry of the fact as to who has been informed of the arrest of such person shall
be made in a book to be kept in the police station in such form as the State Government may,
by rules, provide.
(4) It shall be the duty of the Magistrate before whom such arrested person is produced,
to satisfy himself that the requirements of sub-section (2) and sub-section (3) have been
complied with in respect of such arrested person.
49. (1) Whenever,—
(i) a person is arrested by a police officer under a warrant which does not
provide for the taking of bail, or under a warrant which provides for the taking of bail
but the person arrested cannot furnish bail; and
(ii) a person is arrested without warrant, or by a private person under a warrant,
and cannot legally be admitted to bail, or is unable to furnish bail,
the officer making the arrest or, when the arrest is made by a private person, the police
officer to whom he makes over the person arrested, may search such person, and place in
safe custody all articles, other than necessary wearing-apparel, found upon him and where
any article is seized from the arrested person, a receipt showing the articles taken in
possession by the police officer shall be given to such person.
(2) Whenever it is necessary to cause a female to be searched, the search shall be
made by another female with strict regard to decency.
50. The police officer or other person making any arrest under this Sanhita may,
immediately after the arrest is made, take from the person arrested any offensive weapons
which he has about his person, and shall deliver all weapons so taken to the Court or officer
before which or whom the officer or person making the arrest is required by this Sanhita to
produce the person arrested.
51. (1) When a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence of such a
nature and alleged to have been committed under such circumstances that there are
reasonable grounds for believing that an examination of his person will afford evidence as
to the commission of an offence, it shall be lawful for a registered medical practitioner,
acting at the request of any police officer, and for any person acting in good faith in his aid
and under his direction, to make such an examination of the person arrested as is reasonably
Pursuit of
offenders into
other
jurisdictions.
No unnecessary
restraint.
Person
arrested to be
informed of
grounds of
arrest and of
right to bail.
Obligation of
person making
arrest to
inform about
arrest, etc., to
relative or
friend.
Search of
arrested
person.
Power to seize
offensive
weapons.
Examination
of accused by
medical
practitioner at
request of
police officer.
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necessary in order to ascertain the facts which may afford such evidence, and to use such
force as is reasonably necessary for that purpose.
(2) Whenever the person of a female is to be examined under this section, the
examination shall be made only by, or under the supervision of, a female registered medical
practitioner.
(3) The registered medical practitioner shall, without any delay, forward the examination
report to the investigating officer.
Explanation.—In this section and sections 52 and 53,—
(a) "examination" shall include the examination of blood, blood stains, semen,
swabs in case of sexual offences, sputum and sweat, hair samples and finger nail
clippings by the use of modern and scientific techniques including DNA profiling and
such other tests which the registered medical practitioner thinks necessary in a
particular case;
(b) "registered medical practitioner" means a medical practitioner who possesses
any medical qualification recognised under the National Medical Commission
Act, 2019 and whose name has been entered in the National Medical Register or a
State Medical Register under that Act.
52. (1) When a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence of rape or an
attempt to commit rape and there are reasonable grounds for believing that an examination
of his person will afford evidence as to the commission of such offence, it shall be lawful for
a registered medical practitioner employed in a hospital run by the Government or by a local
authority and in the absence of such a practitioner within the radius of sixteen kilometres
from the place where the offence has been committed, by any other registered medical
practitioner, acting at the request of any police officer, and for any person acting in good
faith in his aid and under his direction, to make such an examination of the arrested person
and to use such force as is reasonably necessary for that purpose.
(2) The registered medical practitioner conducting such examination shall, without
any delay, examine such person and prepare a report of his examination giving the following
particulars, namely:—
(i) the name and address of the accused and of the person by whom he was
brought;
(ii) the age of the accused;
(iii) marks of injury, if any, on the person of the accused;
(iv) the description of material taken from the person of the accused for DNA
profiling; and
(v) other material particulars in reasonable detail.
(3) The report shall state precisely the reasons for each conclusion arrived at.
(4) The exact time of commencement and completion of the examination shall also be
noted in the report.
(5) The registered medical practitioner shall, without any delay, forward the report to
the investigating officer, who shall forward it to the Magistrate referred to in section 193 as
part of the documents referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (6) of that section.
53. (1) When any person is arrested, he shall be examined by a medical officer in the
service of the Central Government or a State Government, and in case the medical officer is
not available, by a registered medical practitioner soon after the arrest is made:
Examination
of person
accused of
rape by
medical
practitioner.
Examination
of arrested
person by
medical
officer.
30 of 2019.
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Provided that if the medical officer or the registered medical practitioner is of the
opinion that one more examination of such person is necessary, he may do so:
Provided further that where the arrested person is a female, the examination of the
body shall be made only by or under the supervision of a female medical officer, and in case
the female medical officer is not available, by a female registered medical practitioner.
(2) The medical officer or a registered medical practitioner so examining the arrested
person shall prepare the record of such examination, mentioning therein any injuries or
marks of violence upon the person arrested, and the approximate time when such injuries or
marks may have been inflicted.
(3) Where an examination is made under sub-section (1), a copy of the report of such
examination shall be furnished by the medical officer or registered medical practitioner, as
the case may be, to the arrested person or the person nominated by such arrested person.
54. Where a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence and his
identification by any other person or persons is considered necessary for the purpose of
investigation of such offence, the Court, having jurisdiction may, on the request of the
officer in charge of a police station, direct the person so arrested to subject himself to
identification by any person or persons in such manner as the Court may deem fit:
Provided that if the person identifying the person arrested is mentally or physically
disabled, such process of identification shall take place under the supervision of a Magistrate
who shall take appropriate steps to ensure that such person identifies the person arrested
using methods that person is comfortable with and the identification process shall be
recorded by any audio-video electronic means.
55. (1) When any officer in charge of a police station or any police officer making an
investigation under Chapter XIII requires any officer subordinate to him to arrest without a
warrant (otherwise than in his presence) any person who may lawfully be arrested without
a warrant, he shall deliver to the officer required to make the arrest an order in writing,
specifying the person to be arrested and the offence or other cause for which the arrest is
to be made and the officer so required shall, before making the arrest, notify to the person
to be arrested the substance of the order and, if so required by such person, shall show him
the order.
(2) Nothing in sub-section (1) shall affect the power of a police officer to arrest a
person under section 35.
56. It shall be the duty of the person having the custody of an accused to take
reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused.
57. A police officer making an arrest without warrant shall, without unnecessary
delay and subject to the provisions herein contained as to bail, take or send the person
arrested before a Magistrate having jurisdiction in the case, or before the officer in charge
of a police station.
58. No police officer shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for a
longer period than under all the circumstances of the case is reasonable, and such period
shall not, in the absence of a special order of a Magistrate under section 187, exceed
twenty-four hours exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to
the Magistrate's Court, whether having jurisdiction or not.
59. Officers in charge of police stations shall report to the District Magistrate, or, if
he so directs, to the Sub-divisional Magistrate, the cases of all persons arrested without
warrant, within the limits of their respective stations, whether such persons have been
admitted to bail or otherwise.
Identification
of person
arrested.
Procedure
when police
officer deputes
subordinate to
arrest without
warrant.
Health and
safety of
arrested person.
Person
arrested to be
taken before
Magistrate or
officer in
charge of
police station.
Person
arrested not to
be detained
more than
twenty-four
hours.
Police to
report
apprehensions.
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60. No person who has been arrested by a police officer shall be discharged except
on his bond, or bail bond, or under the special order of a Magistrate.
61. (1) If a person in lawful custody escapes or is rescued, the person from whose
custody he escaped or was rescued may immediately pursue and arrest him in any place in
India.
(2) The provisions of section 44 shall apply to arrests under sub-section (1) although
the person making any such arrest is not acting under a warrant and is not a police officer
having authority to arrest.
62. No arrest shall be made except in accordance with the provisions of this Sanhita
or any other law for the time being in force providing for arrest.
CHAPTER VI
PROCESSES TO COMPEL APPEARANCE
A.—Summons
63. Every summons issued by a Court under this Sanhita shall be,—
(i) in writing, in duplicate, signed by the presiding officer of such Court or by
such other officer as the High Court may, from time to time, by rule direct, and shall
bear the seal of the Court; or
(ii) in an encrypted or any other form of electronic communication and shall
bear the image of the seal of the Court or digital signature.
64. (1) Every summons shall be served by a police officer, or subject to such rules as
the State Government may make in this behalf, by an officer of the Court issuing it or other
public servant:
Provided that the police station or the registrar in the Court shall maintain a register to
enter the address, email address, phone number and such other details as the State
Government may, by rules, provide.
(2) The summons shall, if practicable, be served personally on the person summoned,
by delivering or tendering to him one of the duplicates of the summons:
Provided that summons bearing the image of Court's seal may also be served by
electronic communication in such form and in such manner, as the State Government may,
by rules, provide.
(3) Every person on whom a summons is so served personally shall, if so required by
the serving officer, sign a receipt therefor on the back of the other duplicate.
65. (1) Service of a summons on a company or corporation may be effected by serving
it on the Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer of the company or corporation, or by
letter sent by registered post addressed to the Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer
of the company or corporation in India, in which case the service shall be deemed to have
been effected when the letter would arrive in ordinary course of post.
Explanation.—In this section, "company" means a body corporate and "corporation"
means an incorporated company or other body corporate registered under the Companies
Act, 2013 or a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
(2) Service of a summons on a firm or other association of individuals may be effected
by serving it on any partner of such firm or association, or by letter sent by registered post
addressed to such partner, in which case the service shall be deemed to have been effected
when the letter would arrive in ordinary course of post.
Discharge of
person
apprehended.
Power, on
escape, to
pursue and
retake.
Arrest to be
made strictly
according to
Sanhita.
Form of
summons.
Summons how
served.
Service of
summons on
corporate
bodies, firms,
and societies.
18 of 2013.
21 of 1860.
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66. Where the person summoned cannot, by the exercise of due diligence, be found,
the summons may be served by leaving one of the duplicates for him with some adult
member of his family residing with him, and the person with whom the summons is so left
shall, if so required by the serving officer, sign a receipt therefor on the back of the other
duplicate.
Explanation.—A servant is not a member of the family within the meaning of this
section.
67. If service cannot by the exercise of due diligence be effected as provided in
section 64, section 65 or section 66, the serving officer shall affix one of the duplicates of the
summons to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which the person
summoned ordinarily resides; and thereupon the Court, after making such inquiries as it
thinks fit, may either declare that the summons has been duly served or order fresh service
in such manner as it considers proper.
68. (1) Where the person summoned is in the active service of the Government, the
Court issuing the summons shall ordinarily send it in duplicate to the head of the office in
which such person is employed; and such head shall thereupon cause the summons to be
served in the manner provided by section 64, and shall return it to the Court under his
signature with the endorsement required by that section.
(2) Such signature shall be evidence of due service.
69. When a Court desires that a summons issued by it shall be served at any place
outside its local jurisdiction, it shall ordinarily send such summons in duplicate to a
Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the person summoned resides, or is, to be there
served.
70. (1) When a summons issued by a Court is served outside its local jurisdiction, and
in any case where the officer who has served a summons is not present at the hearing of the
case, an affidavit, purporting to be made before a Magistrate, that such summons has been
served, and a duplicate of the summons purporting to be endorsed (in the manner provided
by section 64 or section 66) by the person to whom it was delivered or tendered or with
whom it was left, shall be admissible in evidence, and the statements made therein shall be
deemed to be correct unless and until the contrary is proved.
(2) The affidavit mentioned in this section may be attached to the duplicate of the
summons and returned to the Court.
(3) All summons served through electronic communication under sections 64 to 71
(both inclusive) shall be considered as duly served and a copy of such summons shall be
attested and kept as a proof of service of summons.
71. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the preceding sections of this Chapter,
a Court issuing a summons to a witness may, in addition to and simultaneously with the
issue of such summons, direct a copy of the summons to be served by electronic
communication or by registered post addressed to the witness at the place where he ordinarily
resides or carries on business or personally works for gain.
(2) When an acknowledgement purporting to be signed by the witness or an
endorsement purporting to be made by a postal employee that the witness refused to take
delivery of the summons has been received or on the proof of delivery of summons under
sub-section (3) of section 70 by electronic communication to the satisfaction of the Court,
the Court issuing summons may deem that the summons has been duly served.
B.—Warrant of arrest
72. (1) Every warrant of arrest issued by a Court under this Sanhita shall be in writing,
signed by the presiding officer of such Court and shall bear the seal of the Court.
Service when
persons
summoned
cannot be
found.
Procedure
when service
cannot be
effected as
before
provided.
Service on
Government
servant.
Service of
summons
outside local
limits.
Proof of
service in such
cases and
when serving
officer not
present.
Service of
summons on
witness.
Form of warrant
of arrest and
duration.
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(2) Every such warrant shall remain in force until it is cancelled by the Court which
issued it, or until it is executed.
73. (1) Any Court issuing a warrant for the arrest of any person may in its discretion
direct by endorsement on the warrant that, if such person executes a bail bond with sufficient
sureties for his attendance before the Court at a specified time and thereafter until otherwise
directed by the Court, the officer to whom the warrant is directed shall take such security
and shall release such person from custody.
(2) The endorsement shall state—
(a) the number of sureties;
(b) the amount in which they and the person for whose arrest the warrant is
issued, are to be respectively bound;
(c) the time at which he is to attend before the Court.
(3) Whenever security is taken under this section, the officer to whom the warrant is
directed shall forward the bond to the Court.
74. (1) A warrant of arrest shall ordinarily be directed to one or more police officers;
but the Court issuing such a warrant may, if its immediate execution is necessary and no
police officer is immediately available, direct it to any other person or persons, and such
person or persons shall execute the same.
(2) When a warrant is directed to more officers or persons than one, it may be executed
by all, or by any one or more of them.
75. (1) The Chief Judicial Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class may direct a
warrant to any person within his local jurisdiction for the arrest of any escaped convict,
proclaimed offender or of any person who is accused of a non-bailable offence and is
evading arrest.
(2) Such person shall acknowledge in writing the receipt of the warrant, and shall
execute it if the person for whose arrest it was issued, is in, or enters on, any land or other
property under his charge.
(3) When the person against whom such warrant is issued is arrested, he shall be
made over with the warrant to the nearest police officer, who shall cause him to be taken
before a Magistrate having jurisdiction in the case, unless security is taken under section 73.
76. A warrant directed to any police officer may also be executed by any other police
officer whose name is endorsed upon the warrant by the officer to whom it is directed or
endorsed.
77. The police officer or other person executing a warrant of arrest shall notify the
substance thereof to the person to be arrested, and, if so required, shall show him the
warrant.
78. The police officer or other person executing a warrant of arrest shall (subject to
the provisions of section 73 as to security) without unnecessary delay bring the person
arrested before the Court before which he is required by law to produce such person:
Provided that such delay shall not, in any case, exceed twenty-four hours exclusive
of the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court.
79. A warrant of arrest may be executed at any place in India.
Power to
direct security
to be taken.
Warrants to
whom
directed.
Warrant may
be directed to
any person.
Warrant
directed to
police officer.
Notification
of substance
of warrant.
Person
arrested to be
brought before
Court without
delay.
Where
warrant may
be executed.
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80. (1) When a warrant is to be executed outside the local jurisdiction of the Court
issuing it, such Court may, instead of directing the warrant to a police officer within its
jurisdiction, forward it by post or otherwise to any Executive Magistrate or District
Superintendent of Police or Commissioner of Police within the local limits of whose jurisdiction
it is to be executed; and the Executive Magistrate or District Superintendent or Commissioner
shall endorse his name thereon, and if practicable, cause it to be executed in the manner
hereinbefore provided.
(2) The Court issuing a warrant under sub-section (1) shall forward, along with the
warrant, the substance of the information against the person to be arrested together with
such documents, if any, as may be sufficient to enable the Court acting under section 83 to
decide whether bail should or should not be granted to the person.
81. (1) When a warrant directed to a police officer is to be executed beyond the local
jurisdiction of the Court issuing the same, he shall ordinarily take it for endorsement either
to an Executive Magistrate or to a police officer not below the rank of an officer in charge of
a police station, within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the warrant is to be executed.
(2) Such Magistrate or police officer shall endorse his name thereon and such
endorsement shall be sufficient authority to the police officer to whom the warrant is
directed to execute the same, and the local police shall, if so required, assist such officer in
executing such warrant.
(3) Whenever there is reason to believe that the delay occasioned by obtaining the
endorsement of the Magistrate or police officer within whose local jurisdiction the warrant
is to be executed will prevent such execution, the police officer to whom it is directed may
execute the same without such endorsement in any place beyond the local jurisdiction of
the Court which issued it.
82. (1) When a warrant of arrest is executed outside the district in which it was issued,
the person arrested shall, unless the Court which issued the warrant is within thirty kilometres
of the place of arrest or is nearer than the Executive Magistrate or District Superintendent of
Police or Commissioner of Police within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the arrest was
made, or unless security is taken under section 73, be taken before such Magistrate or
District Superintendent or Commissioner.
(2) On the arrest of any person referred to in sub-section (1), the police officer shall
forthwith give the information regarding such arrest and the place where the arrested person
is being held to the designated police officer in the district and to such officer of another
district where the arrested person normally resides.
83. (1) The Executive Magistrate or District Superintendent of Police or Commissioner
of Police shall, if the person arrested appears to be the person intended by the Court which
issued the warrant, direct his removal in custody to such Court:
Provided that, if the offence is bailable, and such person is ready and willing to give
bail bond to the satisfaction of such Magistrate, District Superintendent or Commissioner,
or a direction has been endorsed under section 73 on the warrant and such person is ready
and willing to give the security required by such direction, the Magistrate, District
Superintendent or Commissioner shall take such bail bond or security, as the case may be,
and forward the bond, to the Court which issued the warrant:
Provided further that if the offence is a non-bailable one, it shall be lawful for the Chief
Judicial Magistrate (subject to the provisions of section 480), or the Sessions Judge, of the
district in which the arrest is made on consideration of the information and the documents
referred to in sub-section (2) of section 80, to release such person on bail.
(2) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to prevent a police officer from taking
security under section 73.
Warrant
forwarded for
execution
outside
jurisdiction.
Warrant
directed to
police officer
for execution
outside
jurisdiction.
Procedure on
arrest of
person against
whom warrant
issued.
Procedure by
Magistrate
before whom
such person
arrested is
brought.
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C.—Proclamation and attachment
84. (1) If any Court has reason to believe (whether after taking evidence or not) that
any person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has absconded or is concealing
himself so that such warrant cannot be executed, such Court may publish a written
proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and at a specified time not less
than thirty days from the date of publishing such proclamation.
(2) The proclamation shall be published as follows:—
(i) (a) it shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village
in which such person ordinarily resides;
(b) it shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in
which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or
village;
(c) a copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the
Court-house;
(ii) the Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be
published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily
resides.
(3) A statement in writing by the Court issuing the proclamation to the effect that the
proclamation was duly published on a specified day, in the manner specified in clause (i) of
sub-section (2), shall be conclusive evidence that the requirements of this section have
been complied with, and that the proclamation was published on such day.
(4) Where a proclamation published under sub-section (1) is in respect of a person
accused of an offence which is made punishable with imprisonment of ten years or more, or
imprisonment for life or with death under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or under any
other law for the time being in force, and such person fails to appear at the specified place
and time required by the proclamation, the Court may, after making such inquiry as it thinks
fit, pronounce him a proclaimed offender and make a declaration to that effect.
(5) The provisions of sub-sections (2) and (3) shall apply to a declaration made
by the Court under sub-section (4) as they apply to the proclamation published under
sub-section (1).
85. (1) The Court issuing a proclamation under section 84 may, for reasons to be
recorded in writing, at any time after the issue of the proclamation, order the attachment of
any property, movable or immovable, or both, belonging to the proclaimed person:
Provided that where at the time of the issue of the proclamation the Court is satisfied,
by affidavit or otherwise, that the person in relation to whom the proclamation is to be
issued,—
(a) is about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property; or
(b) is about to remove the whole or any part of his property from the local
jurisdiction of the Court,
it may order the attachment of property simultaneously with the issue of the proclamation.
(2) Such order shall authorise the attachment of any property belonging to such
person within the district in which it is made; and it shall authorise the attachment of any
property belonging to such person without such district when endorsed by the District
Magistrate within whose district such property is situate.
(3) If the property ordered to be attached is a debt or other movable property, the
attachment under this section shall be made—
(a) by seizure; or
Proclamation
for person
absconding.
Attachment
of property of
person
absconding.
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(b) by the appointment of a receiver; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the
proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf; or
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.
(4) If the property ordered to be attached is immovable, the attachment under this
section shall, in the case of land paying revenue to the State Government, be made through
the Collector of the district in which the land is situate, and in all other cases—
(a) by taking possession; or
(b) by the appointment of a receiver; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the payment of rent on delivery of property
to the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf; or
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.
(5) If the property ordered to be attached consists of live-stock or is of a perishable
nature, the Court may, if it thinks it expedient, order immediate sale thereof, and in such case
the proceeds of the sale shall abide the order of the Court.
(6) The powers, duties and liabilities of a receiver appointed under this section shall
be the same as those of a receiver appointed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
86. The Court may, on the written request from a police officer not below the rank of
the Superintendent of Police or Commissioner of Police, initiate the process of requesting
assistance from a Court or an authority in the contracting State for identification, attachment
and forfeiture of property belonging to a proclaimed person in accordance with the procedure
provided in Chapter VIII.
87. (1) If any claim is preferred to, or objection made to the attachment of, any
property attached under section 85, within six months from the date of such attachment, by
any person other than the proclaimed person, on the ground that the claimant or objector
has an interest in such property, and that such interest is not liable to attachment under
section 85, the claim or objection shall be inquired into, and may be allowed or disallowed in
whole or in part:
Provided that any claim preferred or objection made within the period allowed by this
sub-section may, in the event of the death of the claimant or objector, be continued by his
legal representative.
(2) Claims or objections under sub-section (1) may be preferred or made in the Court
by which the order of attachment is issued, or, if the claim or objection is in respect of
property attached under an order endorsed under sub-section (2) of section 85, in the Court
of the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the district in which the attachment is made.
(3) Every such claim or objection shall be inquired into by the Court in which it is
preferred or made:
Provided that, if it is preferred or made in the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate, he
may make it over for disposal to any Magistrate subordinate to him.
(4) Any person whose claim or objection has been disallowed in whole or in part by an
order under sub-section (1) may, within a period of one year from the date of such order,
institute a suit to establish the right which he claims in respect of the property in dispute;
but subject to the result of such suit, if any, the order shall be conclusive.
88. (1) If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation,
the Court shall make an order releasing the property from the attachment.
(2) If the proclaimed person does not appear within the time specified in the
proclamation, the property under the attachment shall be at the disposal of the State
Identification
and
attachment of
property of
proclaimed
person.
Claims and
objections to
attachment.
Release, sale
and
restoration of
attached
property.
5 of 1908.
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Government; but it shall not be sold until the expiration of six months from the date of the
attachment and until any claim preferred or objection made under section 87 has been
disposed of under that section, unless it is subject to speedy and natural decay, or the
Court considers that the sale would be for the benefit of the owner; in either of which cases
the Court may cause it to be sold whenever it thinks fit.
(3) If, within two years from the date of the attachment, any person whose property is
or has been at the disposal of the State Government under sub-section (2), appears voluntarily
or is apprehended and brought before the Court by whose order the property was attached,
or the Court to which such Court is subordinate, and proves to the satisfaction of such
Court that he did not abscond or conceal himself for the purpose of avoiding execution of
the warrant, and that he had not such notice of the proclamation as to enable him to attend
within the time specified therein, such property, or, if the same has been sold, the net
proceeds of the sale, or, if part only thereof has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale and
the residue of the property, shall, after satisfying therefrom all costs incurred in consequence
of the attachment, be delivered to him.
89. Any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 88, who is aggrieved by any
refusal to deliver property or the proceeds of the sale thereof may appeal to the Court to
which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of the first-mentioned Court.
D.—Other rules regarding processes
90. A Court may, in any case in which it is empowered by this Sanhita to issue a
summons for the appearance of any person, issue, after recording its reasons in writing, a
warrant for his arrest—
(a) if, either before the issue of such summons, or after the issue of the same but
before the time fixed for his appearance, the Court sees reason to believe that he has
absconded or will not obey the summons; or
(b) if at such time he fails to appear and the summons is proved to have been
duly served in time to admit of his appearing in accordance therewith and no reasonable
excuse is offered for such failure.
91. When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any
Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such Court, such officer
may require such person to execute a bond or bail bond for his appearance in such Court, or
any other Court to which the case may be transferred for trial.
92. When any person who is bound by any bond or bail bond taken under this
Sanhita to appear before a Court, does not appear, the officer presiding in such Court may
issue a warrant directing that such person be arrested and produced before him.
93. The provisions contained in this Chapter relating to summons and warrant, and
their issue, service and execution, shall, so far as may be, apply to every summons and
every warrant of arrest issued under this Sanhita.
CHAPTER VII
PROCESSES TO COMPEL THE PRODUCTION OF THINGS
A.—Summons to produce
94. (1) Whenever any Court or any officer in charge of a police station considers that
the production of any document, electronic communication, including communication
devices, which is likely to contain digital evidence or other thing is necessary or desirable
for the purposes of any investigation, inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita
Appeal from
order rejecting
application
for restoration
of attached
property.
Issue of
warrant in lieu
of, or in
addition to,
summons.
Power to take
bond or bail
bond for
appearance.
Arrest on
breach of bond
or bail bond
for
appearance.
Provisions of
this Chapter
generally
applicable to
summons and
warrants of
arrest.
Summons to
produce
document or
other thing.
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by or before such Court or officer, such Court may issue a summons or such officer may, by
a written order, either in physical form or in electronic form, require the person in whose
possession or power such document or thing is believed to be, to attend and produce it, or
to produce it, at the time and place stated in the summons or order.
(2) Any person required under this section merely to produce a document, or other
thing shall be deemed to have complied with the requisition if he causes such document or
thing to be produced instead of attending personally to produce the same.
(3) Nothing in this section shall be deemed—
(a) to affect sections 129 and 130 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 or
the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891; or
(b) to apply to a letter, postcard, or other document or any parcel or thing in the
custody of the postal authority.
95. (1) If any document, parcel or thing in the custody of a postal authority is, in the
opinion of the District Magistrate, Chief Judicial Magistrate, Court of Session or High Court
wanted for the purpose of any investigation, inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this
Sanhita, such Magistrate or Court may require the postal authority to deliver the document,
parcel or thing to such person as the Magistrate or Court directs.
(2) If any such document, parcel or thing is, in the opinion of any other Magistrate,
whether Executive or Judicial, or of any Commissioner of Police or District Superintendent
of Police, wanted for any such purpose, he may require the postal authority to cause search
to be made for and to detain such document, parcel or thing pending the order of a District
Magistrate, Chief Judicial Magistrate or Court under sub-section (1).
B.—Search-warrants
96. (1) Where—
(a) any Court has reason to believe that a person to whom a summons order
under section 94 or a requisition under sub-section (1) of section 95 has been, or
might be, addressed, will not or would not produce the document or thing as required
by such summons or requisition; or
(b) such document or thing is not known to the Court to be in the possession of
any person; or
(c) the Court considers that the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding
under this Sanhita will be served by a general search or inspection,
it may issue a search-warrant; and the person to whom such warrant is directed, may search
or inspect in accordance therewith and the provisions hereinafter contained.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, specify in the warrant the particular place or part
thereof to which only the search or inspection shall extend; and the person charged with
the execution of such warrant shall then search or inspect only the place or part so specified.
(3) Nothing contained in this section shall authorise any Magistrate other than a
District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate to grant a warrant to search for a document,
parcel or other thing in the custody of the postal authority.
97. (1) If a District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Magistrate of the first
class, upon information and after such inquiry as he thinks necessary, has reason to believe
that any place is used for the deposit or sale of stolen property, or for the deposit, sale or
production of any objectionable article to which this section applies, or that any such
objectionable article is deposited in any place, he may by warrant authorise any police
officer above the rank of a constable—
(a) to enter, with such assistance as may be required, such place;
(b) to search the same in the manner specified in the warrant;
Procedure as
to letters.
13 of 1891.
When search-
warrant may
be issued.
Search of
place
suspected to
contain stolen
property,
forged
documents,
etc.
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(c) to take possession of any property or article therein found which he
reasonably suspects to be stolen property or objectionable article to which this
section applies;
(d) to convey such property or article before a Magistrate, or to guard the same
on the spot until the offender is taken before a Magistrate, or otherwise to dispose of
it in some place of safety;
(e) to take into custody and carry before a Magistrate every person found in
such place who appears to have been privy to the deposit, sale or production of any
such property or article knowing or having reasonable cause to suspect it to be
stolen property or, as the case may be, objectionable article to which this section
applies.
(2) The objectionable articles to which this section applies are—
(a) counterfeit coin;
(b) pieces of metal made in contravention of the Coinage Act, 2011, or brought
into India in contravention of any notification for the time being in force issued under
section 11 of the Customs Act, 1962;
(c) counterfeit currency note; counterfeit stamps;
(d) forged documents;
(e) false seals;
(f) obscene objects referred to in section 294 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023;
(g) instruments or materials used for the production of any of the articles
mentioned in clauses (a) to (f).
98. (1) Where—
(a) any newspaper, or book; or
(b) any document,
wherever printed, appears to the State Government to contain any matter the publication
of which is punishable under section 152 or section 196 or section 197 or section 294 or
section 295 or section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the State Government may,
by notification, stating the grounds of its opinion, declare every copy of the issue of the
newspaper containing such matter, and every copy of such book or other document to be
forfeited to Government, and thereupon any police officer may seize the same wherever
found in India and any Magistrate may by warrant authorise any police officer not below
the rank of sub-inspector to enter upon and search for the same in any premises where any
copy of such issue, or any such book or other document may be or may be reasonably
suspected to be.
(2) In this section and in section 99,—
(a) "newspaper" and "book" have the same meanings as in the Press and
Registration of Books Act, 1867;
(b) "document" includes any painting, drawing or photograph, or other visible
representation.
(3) No order passed or action taken under this section shall be called in question in
any Court otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of section 99.
99. (1) Any person having any interest in any newspaper, book or other document, in
respect of which a declaration of forfeiture has been made under section 98, may, within two
months from the date of publication in the Official Gazette of such declaration, apply to the
High Court to set aside such declaration on the ground that the issue of the newspaper, or
Power to
declare certain
publications
forfeited and
to issue
search-
warrants for
same.
11 of 2011.
25 of 1867.
Application to
High Court to
set aside
declaration of
forfeiture.
52 of 1962.
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the book or other document, in respect of which the declaration was made, did not contain
any such matter as is referred to in sub-section (1) of section 98.
(2) Every such application shall, where the High Court consists of three or more
Judges, be heard and determined by a Special Bench of the High Court composed of three
Judges and where the High Court consists of less than three Judges, such Special Bench
shall be composed of all the Judges of that High Court.
(3) On the hearing of any such application with reference to any newspaper, any copy
of such newspaper may be given in evidence in aid of the proof of the nature or tendency
of the words, signs or visible representations contained in such newspaper, in respect of
which the declaration of forfeiture was made.
(4) The High Court shall, if it is not satisfied that the issue of the newspaper, or the
book or other document, in respect of which the application has been made, contained any
such matter as is referred to in sub-section (1) of section 98, set aside the declaration of
forfeiture.
(5) Where there is a difference of opinion among the Judges forming the Special
Bench, the decision shall be in accordance with the opinion of the majority of those Judges.
100. If any District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Magistrate of the first
class has reason to believe that any person is confined under such circumstances that the
confinement amounts to an offence, he may issue a search-warrant, and the person to
whom such warrant is directed may search for the person so confined; and such search
shall be made in accordance therewith, and the person, if found, shall be immediately taken
before a Magistrate, who shall make such order as in the circumstances of the case seems
proper.
101. Upon complaint made on oath of the abduction or unlawful detention of a
woman, or a female child for any unlawful purpose, a District Magistrate, Sub-divisional
Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class may make an order for the immediate restoration
of such woman to her liberty, or of such female child to her parent, guardian or other person
having the lawful charge of such child, and may compel compliance with such order, using
such force as may be necessary.
C.—General provisions relating to searches
102. The provisions of sections 32, 72, 74, 76, 79, 80 and 81 shall, so far as may be,
apply to all search-warrants issued under section 96, section 97, section 98 or section 100.
103. (1) Whenever any place liable to search or inspection under this Chapter is
closed, any person residing in, or being in charge of, such place, shall, on demand of the
officer or other person executing the warrant, and on production of the warrant, allow him
free ingress thereto, and afford all reasonable facilities for a search therein.
(2) If ingress into such place cannot be so obtained, the officer or other person
executing the warrant may proceed in the manner provided by sub-section (2) of section 44.
(3) Where any person in or about such place is reasonably suspected of concealing
about his person any article for which search should be made, such person may be searched
and if such person is a woman, the search shall be made by another woman with strict
regard to decency.
(4) Before making a search under this Chapter, the officer or other person about to
make it shall call upon two or more independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality
in which the place to be searched is situate or of any other locality if no such inhabitant of
the said locality is available or is willing to be a witness to the search, to attend and witness
the search and may issue an order in writing to them or any of them so to do.
(5) The search shall be made in their presence, and a list of all things seized in the
course of such search and of the places in which they are respectively found shall be
Search for
persons
wrongfully
confined.
Power to
compel
restoration of
abducted
females.
Direction,
etc., of
search-
warrants.
Persons in
charge of
closed place to
allow search.
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prepared by such officer or other person and signed by such witnesses; but no person
witnessing a search under this section shall be required to attend the Court as a witness of
the search unless specially summoned by it.
(6) The occupant of the place searched, or some person in his behalf, shall, in every
instance, be permitted to attend during the search, and a copy of the list prepared under this
section, signed by the said witnesses, shall be delivered to such occupant or person.
(7) When any person is searched under sub-section (3), a list of all things taken
possession of shall be prepared, and a copy thereof shall be delivered to such person.
(8) Any person who, without reasonable cause, refuses or neglects to attend and
witness a search under this section, when called upon to do so by an order in writing
delivered or tendered to him, shall be deemed to have committed an offence under
section 222 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
104. When, in the execution of a search-warrant at any place beyond the local
jurisdiction of the Court which issued the same, any of the things for which search is made,
are found, such things, together with the list of the same prepared under the provisions
hereinafter contained, shall be immediately taken before the Court issuing the warrant,
unless such place is nearer to the Magistrate having jurisdiction therein than to such Court,
in which case the list and things shall be immediately taken before such Magistrate; and,
unless there be good cause to the contrary, such Magistrate shall make an order authorising
them to be taken to such Court.
D.—Miscellaneous
105. The process of conducting search of a place or taking possession of any property,
article or thing under this Chapter or under section 185, including preparation of the list of
all things seized in the course of such search and seizure and signing of such list by
witnesses, shall be recorded through any audio-video electronic means preferably mobile
phone and the police officer shall without delay forward such recording to the District
Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
106. (1) Any police officer may seize any property which may be alleged or suspected
to have been stolen, or which may be found under circumstances which create suspicion of
the commission of any offence.
(2) Such police officer, if subordinate to the officer in charge of a police station, shall
forthwith report the seizure to that officer.
(3) Every police officer acting under sub-section (1) shall forthwith report the seizure
to the Magistrate having jurisdiction and where the property seized is such that it cannot be
conveniently transported to the Court, or where there is difficulty in securing proper
accommodation for the custody of such property, or where the continued retention of the
property in police custody may not be considered necessary for the purpose of investigation,
he may give custody thereof to any person on his executing a bond undertaking to produce
the property before the Court as and when required and to give effect to the further orders
of the Court as to the disposal of the same:
Provided that where the property seized under sub-section (1) is subject to speedy
and natural decay and if the person entitled to the possession of such property is unknown
or absent and the value of such property is less than five hundred rupees, it may forthwith
be sold by auction under the orders of the Superintendent of Police and the provisions of
sections 503 and 504 shall, as nearly as may be practicable, apply to the net proceeds of
such sale.
107. (1) Where a police officer making an investigation has reason to believe that any
property is derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, as a result of a criminal activity or from
the commission of any offence, he may, with the approval of the Superintendent of Police or
Commissioner of Police, make an application to the Court or the Magistrate exercising
Disposal of
things found
in search
beyond
jurisdiction.
Recording of
search and
seizure
through audio-
video
electronic
means.
Power of
police officer
to seize
certain
property.
Attachment,
forfeiture or
restoration of
property.
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jurisdiction to take cognizance of the offence or commit for trial or try the case, for the
attachment of such property.
(2) If the Court or the Magistrate has reasons to believe, whether before or after
taking evidence, that all or any of such properties are proceeds of crime, the Court or the
Magistrate may issue a notice upon such person calling upon him to show cause within a
period of fourteen days as to why an order of attachment shall not be made.
(3) Where the notice issued to any person under sub-section (2) specifies any property
as being held by any other person on behalf of such person, a copy of the notice shall also
be served upon such other person.
(4) The Court or the Magistrate may, after considering the explanation, if any, to the
show-cause notice issued under sub-section (2) and the material fact available before such
Court or Magistrate and after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard to such
person or persons, may pass an order of attachment, in respect of those properties which
are found to be the proceeds of crime:
Provided that if such person does not appear before the Court or the Magistrate or
represent his case before the Court or Magistrate within a period of fourteen days specified
in the show-cause notice, the Court or the Magistrate may proceed to pass the ex parte
order.
(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (2), if the Court or the
Magistrate is of the opinion that issuance of notice under the said sub-section would
defeat the object of attachment or seizure, the Court or Magistrate may by an interim order
passed ex parte direct attachment or seizure of such property, and such order shall remain
in force till an order under sub-section (6) is passed.
(6) If the Court or the Magistrate finds the attached or seized properties to be
the proceeds of crime, the Court or the Magistrate shall by order direct the District
Magistrate to rateably distribute such proceeds of crime to the persons who are affected by
such crime.
(7) On receipt of an order passed under sub-section (6), the District Magistrate shall,
within a period of sixty days distribute the proceeds of crime either by himself or authorise
any officer subordinate to him to effect such distribution.
(8) If there are no claimants to receive such proceeds or no claimant is ascertainable
or there is any surplus after satisfying the claimants, such proceeds of crime shall stand
forfeited to the Government.
108. Any Magistrate may direct a search to be made in his presence of any place for
the search of which he is competent to issue a search-warrant.
109. Any Court may, if it thinks fit, impound any document or thing produced before
it under this Sanhita.
110. (1) Where a Court in the territories to which this Sanhita extends (hereafter in this
section referred to as the said territories) desires that—
(a) a summons to an accused person; or
(b) a warrant for the arrest of an accused person; or
(c) a summons to any person requiring him to attend and produce a document
or other thing, or to produce it; or
Magistrate
may direct
search in his
presence.
Power to
impound
document,
etc., produced.
Reciprocal
arrangements
regarding
processes.
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31
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(d) a search-warrant,
issued by it shall be served or executed at any place,—
(i) within the local jurisdiction of a Court in any State or area in India outside the
said territories, it may send such summons or warrant in duplicate by post or otherwise,
to the presiding officer of that Court to be served or executed; and where any summons
referred to in clause (a) or clause (c) has been so served, the provisions of section 70
shall apply in relation to such summons as if the presiding officer of the Court to
whom it is sent were a Magistrate in the said territories;
(ii) in any country or place outside India in respect of which arrangements have
been made by the Central Government with the Government of such country or place
for service or execution of summons or warrant in relation to criminal matters (hereafter
in this section referred to as the contracting State), it may send such summons or
warrant in duplicate in such form, directed to such Court, Judge or Magistrate, and
send to such authority for transmission, as the Central Government may, by
notification, specify in this behalf.
(2) Where a Court in the said territories has received for service or execution—
(a) a summons to an accused person; or
(b) a warrant for the arrest of an accused person; or
(c) a summons to any person requiring him to attend and produce a document
or other thing, or to produce it; or
(d) a search-warrant,
issued by—
(I) a Court in any State or area in India outside the said territories;
(II) a Court, Judge or Magistrate in a contracting State,
it shall cause the same to be served or executed as if it were a summons or warrant received
by it from another Court in the said territories for service or execution within its local
jurisdiction; and where—
(i) a warrant of arrest has been executed, the person arrested shall, so far as
possible, be dealt with in accordance with the procedure specified by sections 82 and 83;
(ii) a search-warrant has been executed, the things found in the search shall, so
far as possible, be dealt with in accordance with the procedure specified by
section 104:
Provided that in a case where a summons or search-warrant received from a contracting
State has been executed, the documents or things produced or things found in the search
shall be forwarded to the Court issuing the summons or search-warrant through such
authority as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf.
CHAPTER VIII
RECIPROCAL ARRANGEMENTS FOR ASSISTANCE IN CERTAIN MATTERS AND PROCEDURE FOR
ATTACHMENT AND FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY
111. In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) "contracting State" means any country or place outside India in respect of
which arrangements have been made by the Central Government with the Government
of such country through a treaty or otherwise;
(b) "identifying" includes establishment of a proof that the property was derived
from, or used in, the commission of an offence;
Definitions.
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(c) "proceeds of crime" means any property derived or obtained directly or
indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity (including crime involving
currency transfers) or the value of any such property;
(d) "property" means property and assets of every description whether corporeal
or incorporeal, movable or immovable, tangible or intangible and deeds and instruments
evidencing title to, or interest in, such property or assets derived or used in the
commission of an offence and includes property obtained through proceeds of crime;
(e) "tracing" means determining the nature, source, disposition, movement,
title or ownership of property.
112. (1) If, in the course of an investigation into an offence, an application is made by
the investigating officer or any officer superior in rank to the investigating officer that
evidence may be available in a country or place outside India, any Criminal Court may issue
a letter of request to a Court or an authority in that country or place competent to deal with
such request to examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts and
circumstances of the case and to record his statement made in the course of such examination
and also to require such person or any other person to produce any document or thing
which may be in his possession pertaining to the case and to forward all the evidence so
taken or collected or the authenticated copies thereof or the thing so collected to the Court
issuing such letter.
(2) The letter of request shall be transmitted in such manner as the Central Government
may specify in this behalf.
(3) Every statement recorded or document or thing received under sub-section (1)
shall be deemed to be the evidence collected during the course of investigation under this
Sanhita.
113. (1) Upon receipt of a letter of request from a Court or an authority in a country or
place outside India competent to issue such letter in that country or place for the examination
of any person or production of any document or thing in relation to an offence under
investigation in that country or place, the Central Government may, if it thinks fit—
(i) forward the same to the Chief Judicial Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate as he
may appoint in this behalf, who shall thereupon summon the person before him and
record his statement or cause the document or thing to be produced; or
(ii) send the letter to any police officer for investigation, who shall thereupon
investigate into the offence in the same manner,
as if the offence had been committed within India.
(2) All the evidence taken or collected under sub-section (1), or authenticated copies
thereof or the thing so collected, shall be forwarded by the Magistrate or police officer, as
the case may be, to the Central Government for transmission to the Court or the authority
issuing the letter of request, in such manner as the Central Government may deem fit.
114. (1) Where a Court in India, in relation to a criminal matter, desires that a warrant
for arrest of any person to attend or produce a document or other thing issued by it shall be
executed in any place in a contracting State, it shall send such warrant in duplicate in such
form to such Court, Judge or Magistrate through such authority, as the Central Government
may, by notification, specify in this behalf and that Court, Judge or Magistrate, as the case
may be, shall cause the same to be executed.
(2) If , in the course of an investigation or any inquiry into an offence, an application
is made by the investigating officer or any officer superior in rank to the investigating
officer that the attendance of a person who is in any place in a contracting State is required
in connection with such investigation or inquiry and the Court is satisfied that such
attendance is so required, it shall issue a summons or warrant, in duplicate, against the said
Letter of
request to
competent
authority for
investigation
in a country
or place
outside India.
Letter of
request from a
country or
place outside
India to a
Court or an
authority for
investigation
in India.
Assistance in
securing
transfer of
persons.
Sec. 1]
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33
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person to such Court, Judge or Magistrate, in such form as the Central Government may, by
notification, specify in this behalf, to cause the same to be served or executed.
(3) Where a Court in India, in relation to a criminal matter, has received a warrant for
arrest of any person requiring him to attend or attend and produce a document or other
thing in that Court or before any other investigating agency, issued by a Court, Judge or
Magistrate in a contracting State, the same shall be executed as if it is the warrant received
by it from another Court in India for execution within its local limits.
(4) Where a person transferred to a contracting State pursuant to sub-section (3) is a
prisoner in India, the Court in India or the Central Government may impose such conditions
as that Court or Government deems fit.
(5) Where the person transferred to India pursuant to sub-section (1) or
sub-section (2) is a prisoner in a contracting State, the Court in India shall ensure that the
conditions subject to which the prisoner is transferred to India are complied with and such
prisoner shall be kept in such custody subject to such conditions as the Central Government
may direct in writing.
115. (1) Where a Court in India has reasonable grounds to believe that any property
obtained by any person is derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by such person from
the commission of an offence, it may make an order of attachment or forfeiture of such
property, as it may deem fit under the provisions of sections 116 to 122 (both inclusive).
(2) Where the Court has made an order for attachment or forfeiture of any property
under sub-section (1), and such property is suspected to be in a contracting State, the
Court may issue a letter of request to a Court or an authority in the contracting State for
execution of such order.
(3) Where a letter of request is received by the Central Government from a Court or an
authority in a contracting State requesting attachment or forfeiture of the property in India,
derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person from the commission of an offence
committed in that contracting State, the Central Government may forward such letter of
request to the Court, as it thinks fit, for execution in accordance with the provisions of
sections 116 to 122 (both inclusive) or, as the case may be, any other law for the time being
in force.
116. (1) The Court shall, under sub-section (1), or on receipt of a letter of request
under sub-section (3) of section 115, direct any police officer not below the rank of
Sub-Inspector of Police to take all steps necessary for tracing and identifying such property.
(2) The steps referred to in sub-section (1) may include any inquiry, investigation or
survey in respect of any person, place, property, assets, documents, books of account in
any bank or public financial institutions or any other relevant matters.
(3) Any inquiry, investigation or survey referred to in sub-section (2) shall be carried
out by an officer mentioned in sub-section (1) in accordance with such directions issued by
the said Court in this behalf.
117. (1) Where any officer conducting an inquiry or investigation under section 116
has a reason to believe that any property in relation to which such inquiry or investigation
is being conducted is likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which
will result in disposal of such property, he may make an order for seizing such property and
where it is not practicable to seize such property, he may make an order of attachment
directing that such property shall not be transferred or otherwise dealt with, except with the
prior permission of the officer making such order, and a copy of such order shall be served
on the person concerned.
(2) Any order made under sub-section (1) shall have no effect unless the said order is
confirmed by an order of the said Court, within a period of thirty days of its being made.
Assistance in
relation to
orders of
attachment or
forfeiture of
property.
Identifying
unlawfully
acquired
property.
Seizure or
attachment of
property.
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118. (1) The Court may appoint the District Magistrate of the area where the property
is situated, or any other officer that may be nominated by the District Magistrate, to perform
the functions of an Administrator of such property.
(2) The Administrator appointed under sub-section (1) shall receive and manage the
property in relation to which the order has been made under sub-section (1) of section 117
or under section 120 in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be specified by
the Central Government.
(3) The Administrator shall also take such measures, as the Central Government may
direct, to dispose of the property which is forfeited to the Central Government.
119. (1) If as a result of the inquiry, investigation or survey under section 116, the
Court has reason to believe that all or any of such properties are proceeds of crime, it may
serve a notice upon such person (hereinafter referred to as the person affected) calling
upon him within a period of thirty days specified in the notice to indicate the source of
income, earnings or assets, out of which or by means of which he has acquired such
property, the evidence on which he relies and other relevant information and particulars,
and to show cause why all or any of such properties, as the case may be, should not be
declared to be proceeds of crime and forfeited to the Central Government.
(2) Where a notice under sub-section (1) to any person specifies any property as
being held on behalf of such person by any other person, a copy of the notice shall also be
served upon such other person.
120. (1) The Court may, after considering the explanation, if any, to the show-cause
notice issued under section 119 and the material available before it and after giving to the
person affected (and in a case where the person affected holds any property specified in the
notice through any other person, to such other person also) a reasonable opportunity of
being heard, by order, record a finding whether all or any of the properties in question are
proceeds of crime:
Provided that if the person affected (and in a case where the person affected holds
any property specified in the notice through any other person such other person also) does
not appear before the Court or represent his case before it within a period of thirty days
specified in the show-cause notice, the Court may proceed to record a finding under this
sub-section ex parte on the basis of evidence available before it.
(2) Where the Court is satisfied that some of the properties referred to in the
show-cause notice are proceeds of crime but it is not possible to identify specifically such
properties, then, it shall be lawful for the Court to specify the properties which, to the
best of its judgment, are proceeds of crime and record a finding accordingly under
sub-section (1).
(3) Where the Court records a finding under this section to the effect that any property
is proceeds of crime, such property shall stand forfeited to the Central Government free
from all encumbrances.
(4) Where any shares in a company stand forfeited to the Central Government under
this section, then, the company shall, notwithstanding anything contained in the Companies
Act, 2013 or the Articles of Association of the company, forthwith register the Central
Government as the transferee of such shares.
121. (1) Where the Court makes a declaration that any property stands forfeited to
the Central Government under section 120 and it is a case where the source of only a part of
such property has not been proved to the satisfaction of the Court, it shall make an order
giving an option to the person affected to pay, in lieu of forfeiture, a fine equal to the market
value of such part.
(2) Before making an order imposing a fine under sub-section (1), the person affected
shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Management
of properties
seized or
forfeited under
this Chapter.
Notice of
forfeiture of
property.
Forfeiture of
property in
certain cases.
Fine in lieu of
forfeiture.
18 of 2013.
Sec. 1]
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(3)Where the person affected pays the fine due under sub-section (1), within such
time as may be allowed in that behalf, the Court may, by order, revoke the declaration of
forfeiture under section 120 and thereupon such property shall stand released.
122.Where after the making of an order under sub-section (1) of section 117 or the
issue of a notice under section 119, any property referred to in the said order or notice is
transferred by any mode whatsoever such transfers shall, for the purposes of the
proceedings under this Chapter, be ignored and if such property is subsequently forfeited
to the Central Government under section 120, then, the transfer of such property shall be
deemed to be QXOO and YRLG.
123. Every letter of request, summons or warrant, received by the Central Government
from, and every letter of request, summons or warrant, to be transmitted to a contracting
State under this Chapter shall be transmitted to a contracting State or, as the case may be,
sent to the concerned Court in India in such form and in such manner as the Central
Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf.
124. The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, direct that
the application of this Chapter in relation to a contracting State with which reciprocal
arrangements have been made, shall be subject to such conditions, exceptions or
qualifications as are specified in the said notification.
CHAPTER IX
SECURITY FOR KEEPING THE PEACE AND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
125.(1) When a Court of Session or Court of a Magistrate of the first class convicts
a person of any of the offences specified in sub-section (2) or of abetting any such offence
and is of opinion that it is necessary to take security from such person for keeping the
peace, the Court may, at the time of passing sentence on such person, order him to execute
a bond or bail bond, for keeping the peace for such period, not exceeding three years, as it
thinks fit.
(2) The offences referred to in sub-section (1) are—
(a) any offence punishable under Chapter XI of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023, other than an offence punishable under sub-section (1) of section 193
or section 196 or section 197 thereof;
(b) any offence which consists of, or includes, assault or using criminal force or
committing mischief;
(c) any offence of criminal intimidation;
(d) any other offence which caused, or was intended or known to be likely to
cause, a breach of the peace.
(3) If the conviction is set aside on appeal or otherwise, the bond or bail bond so
executed shall become void.
(4) An order under this section may also be made by an Appellate Court or by a Court
when exercising its powers of revision.
126. (1) When an Executive Magistrate receives information that any person is likely
to commit a breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity or to do any wrongful act
that may probably occasion a breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity and is of
opinion that there is sufficient ground for proceeding, he may, in the manner hereinafter
provided, require such person to show cause why he should not be ordered to execute a
bond or bail bond for keeping the peace for such period, not exceeding one year, as the
Magistrate thinks fit.
(2) Proceedings under this section may be taken before any Executive Magistrate
when either the place where the breach of the peace or disturbance is apprehended is within
Certain
transfers to be
QXOO and YRLG.
Procedure in
respect of
letter of
request.
Application of
this Chapter.
Security for
keeping peace
on conviction.
Security for
keeping peace
in other cases.
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his local jurisdiction or there is within such jurisdiction a person who is likely to commit a
breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity or to do any wrongful act as aforesaid
beyond such jurisdiction.
127. (1) When an Executive Magistrate receives information that there is within his
local jurisdiction any person who, within or without such jurisdiction,—
(i) either orally or in writing or in any other manner, intentionally disseminates
or attempts to disseminate or abets the dissemination of,—
(a) any matter the publication of which is punishable under section 152 or
section 196 or section 197 or section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; or
(b) any matter concerning a Judge acting or purporting to act in the
discharge of his official duties which amounts to criminal intimidation or
defamation under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(ii) makes, produces, publishes or keeps for sale, imports, exports, conveys,
sells, lets to hire, distributes, publicly exhibits or in any other manner puts into
circulation any obscene matter such as is referred to in section 294 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
and the Magistrate is of opinion that there is sufficient ground for proceeding, the Magistrate
may, in the manner hereinafter provided, require such person to show cause why he should
not be ordered to execute a bond or bail bond, for his good behaviour for such period, not
exceeding one year, as the Magistrate thinks fit.
(2) No proceedings shall be taken under this section against the editor, proprietor,
printer or publisher of any publication registered under, and edited, printed and published
in conformity with, the rules laid down in the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867 with
reference to any matter contained in such publication except by the order or under the
authority of the State Government or some officer empowered by the State Government in
this behalf.
128. When an Executive Magistrate receives information that there is within his local
jurisdiction a person taking precautions to conceal his presence and that there is reason to
believe that he is doing so with a view to committing a cognizable offence, the Magistrate
may, in the manner hereinafter provided, require such person to show cause why he should
not be ordered to execute a bond or bail bond for his good behaviour for such period, not
exceeding one year, as the Magistrate thinks fit.
129. When an Executive Magistrate receives information that there is within his local
jurisdiction a person who—
(a) is by habit a robber, house-breaker, thief, or forger; or
(b) is by habit a receiver of stolen property knowing the same to have been
stolen; or
(c) habitually protects or harbours thieves, or aids in the concealment or disposal
of stolen property; or
(d) habitually commits, or attempts to commit, or abets the commission of, the
offence of kidnapping, abduction, extortion, cheating or mischief, or any offence
punishable under Chapter X of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, or under
section 178, section 179, section 180 or section 181 of that Sanhita; or
(e) habitually commits, or attempts to commit, or abets the commission of,
offences, involving a breach of the peace; or
(f) habitually commits, or attempts to commit, or abets the commission of—
Security for
good
behaviour
from persons
disseminating
certain
matters.
Security for
good
behaviour
from
suspected
persons.
Security for
good
behaviour
from habitual
offenders.
25 of 1867.
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(i) any offence under one or more of the following Acts, namely:—
(a) the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940;
(b) the Foreigners Act, 1946;
(c) the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions
Act, 1952;
(d) the Essential Commodities Act, 1955;
(e) the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955;
(f) the Customs Act, 1962;
(g) the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006; or
(ii) any offence punishable under any other law providing for the
prevention of hoarding or profiteering or of adulteration of food or drugs or of
corruption; or
(g) is so desperate and dangerous as to render his being at large without
security hazardous to the community,
such Magistrate may, in the manner hereinafter provided, require such person to show
cause why he should not be ordered to execute a bail bond, for his good behaviour for such
period, not exceeding three years, as the Magistrate thinks fit.
130. When a Magistrate acting under section 126, section 127, section 128 or
section 129, deems it necessary to require any person to show cause under such section, he
shall make an order in writing, setting forth the substance of the information received, the
amount of the bond to be executed, the term for which it is to be in force and the number of
sureties, after considering the sufficiency and fitness of sureties.
131. If the person in respect of whom such order is made is present in Court, it shall
be read over to him, or, if he so desires, the substance thereof shall be explained to him.
132. If such person is not present in Court, the Magistrate shall issue a summons
requiring him to appear, or, when such person is in custody, a warrant directing the officer
in whose custody he is to bring him before the Court:
Provided that whenever it appears to such Magistrate, upon the report of a police
officer or upon other information (the substance of which report or information shall be
recorded by the Magistrate), that there is reason to fear the commission of a breach of the
peace, and that such breach of the peace cannot be prevented otherwise than by the
immediate arrest of such person, the Magistrate may at any time issue a warrant for his
arrest.
133. Every summons or warrant issued under section 132 shall be accompanied by a
copy of the order made under section 130, and such copy shall be delivered by the officer
serving or executing such summons or warrant to the person served with, or arrested under,
the same.
134. The Magistrate may, if he sees sufficient cause, dispense with the personal
attendance of any person called upon to show cause why he should not be ordered to
execute a bond for keeping the peace or for good behaviour and may permit him to appear
by an advocate.
135. (1) When an order under section 130 has been read or explained under
section 131 to a person present in Court, or when any person appears or is brought before
a Magistrate in compliance with, or in execution of, a summons or warrant, issued under
section 132, the Magistrate shall proceed to inquire into the truth of the information upon
which action has been taken, and to take such further evidence as may appear necessary.
23 of 1940.
34 of 2006.
19 of 1952.
10 of 1955.
22 of 1955.
52 of 1962.
31 of 1946.
Order to be
made.
Procedure in
respect of
person present
in Court.
Summons or
warrant in
case of person
not so
present.
Copy of order
to accompany
summons or
warrant.
Power to
dispense with
personal
attendance.
Inquiry as to
truth of
information.
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(2) Such inquiry shall be made, as nearly as may be practicable, in the manner
hereinafter prescribed for conducting trial and recording evidence in summons-cases.
(3) After the commencement, and before the completion, of the inquiry under
sub-section (1), the Magistrate, if he considers that immediate measures are necessary for
the prevention of a breach of the peace or disturbance of the public tranquillity or the
commission of any offence or for the public safety, may, for reasons to be recorded in
writing, direct the person in respect of whom the order under section 130 has been made to
execute a bond or bail bond, for keeping the peace or maintaining good behaviour until the
conclusion of the inquiry, and may detain him in custody until such bond or bail bond is
executed or, in default of execution, until the inquiry is concluded:
Provided that—
(a) no person against whom proceedings are not being taken under section 127,
section 128, or section 129 shall be directed to execute a bond or bail bond for
maintaining good behaviour;
(b) the conditions of such bond, whether as to the amount thereof or as to the
provision of sureties or the number thereof or the pecuniary extent of their liability,
shall not be more onerous than those specified in the order under section 130.
(4) For the purposes of this section the fact that a person is a habitual offender or is
so desperate and dangerous as to render his being at large without security hazardous to
the community may be proved by evidence of general repute or otherwise.
(5) Where two or more persons have been associated together in the matter under
inquiry, they may be dealt with in the same or separate inquiries as the Magistrate shall
think just.
(6) The inquiry under this section shall be completed within a period of six months
from the date of its commencement, and if such inquiry is not so completed, the proceedings
under this Chapter shall, on the expiry of the said period, stand terminated unless, for
special reasons to be recorded in writing, the Magistrate otherwise directs:
Provided that where any person has been kept in detention pending such inquiry, the
proceeding against that person, unless terminated earlier, shall stand terminated on the
expiry of a period of six months of such detention.
(7) Where any direction is made under sub-section (6) permitting the continuance of
proceedings, the Sessions Judge may, on an application made to him by the aggrieved
party, vacate such direction if he is satisfied that it was not based on any special reason or
was perverse.
136. If, upon such inquiry, it is proved that it is necessary for keeping the peace or
maintaining good behaviour, as the case may be, that the person in respect of whom the
inquiry is made should execute a bond or bail bond, the Magistrate shall make an order
accordingly:
Provided that—
(a) no person shall be ordered to give security of a nature different from, or of
an amount larger than, or for a period longer than, that specified in the order made
under section 130;
(b) the amount of every bond or bail bond shall be fixed with due regard to the
circumstances of the case and shall not be excessive;
(c) when the person in respect of whom the inquiry is made is a child, the bond
shall be executed only by his sureties.
137. If, on an inquiry under section 135, it is not proved that it is necessary for
keeping the peace or maintaining good behaviour, as the case may be, that the person in
respect of whom the inquiry is made, should execute a bond, the Magistrate shall make an
Order to give
security.
Discharge of
person
informed
against.
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entry on the record to that effect, and if such person is in custody only for the purposes of
the inquiry, shall release him, or, if such person is not in custody, shall discharge him.
138. (1) If any person, in respect of whom an order requiring security is made under
section 125 or section 136, is at the time such order is made, sentenced to, or undergoing a
sentence of, imprisonment, the period for which such security is required shall commence
on the expiration of such sentence.
(2) In other cases such period shall commence on the date of such order unless the
Magistrate, for sufficient reason, fixes a later date.
139. The bond or bail bond to be executed by any such person shall bind him to keep
the peace or to be of good behaviour, as the case may be, and in the latter case the commission
or attempt to commit, or the abetment of, any offence punishable with imprisonment, wherever
it may be committed, is a breach of the bond or bail bond.
140. (1) A Magistrate may refuse to accept any surety offered, or may reject any
surety previously accepted by him or his predecessor under this Chapter on the ground
that such surety is an unfit person for the purposes of the bail bond:
Provided that before so refusing to accept or rejecting any such surety, he shall either
himself hold an inquiry on oath into the fitness of the surety, or cause such inquiry to be
held and a report to be made thereon by a Magistrate subordinate to him.
(2) Such Magistrate shall, before holding the inquiry, give reasonable notice to the
surety and to the person by whom the surety was offered and shall, in making the inquiry,
record the substance of the evidence adduced before him.
(3) If the Magistrate is satisfied, after considering the evidence so adduced either
before him or before a Magistrate deputed under sub-section (1), and the report of such
Magistrate (if any), that the surety is an unfit person for the purposes of the bail bond, he
shall make an order refusing to accept or rejecting, as the case may be, such surety and
recording his reasons for so doing:
Provided that before making an order rejecting any surety who has previously been
accepted, the Magistrate shall issue his summons or warrant, as he thinks fit, and cause the
person for whom the surety is bound to appear or to be brought before him.
141. (1) (a) If any person ordered to give security under section 125 or section 136
does not give such security on or before the date on which the period for which such
security is to be given commences, he shall, except in the case next hereinafter mentioned,
be committed to prison, or, if he is already in prison, be detained in prison until such period
expires or until within such period he gives the security to the Court or Magistrate who
made the order requiring it;
(b) if any person after having executed a bond or bail bond for keeping the peace in
pursuance of an order of a Magistrate under section 136, is proved, to the satisfaction of
such Magistrate or his successor-in-office, to have committed breach of the bond or bail
bond, such Magistrate or successor-in-office may, after recording the grounds of such
proof, order that the person be arrested and detained in prison until the expiry of the period
of the bond or bail bond and such order shall be without prejudice to any other punishment
or forfeiture to which the said person may be liable in accordance with law.
(2) When such person has been ordered by a Magistrate to give security for a period
exceeding one year, such Magistrate shall, if such person does not give such security as
aforesaid, issue a warrant directing him to be detained in prison pending the orders of the
Sessions Judge and the proceedings shall be laid, as soon as conveniently may be, before
such Court.
(3) Such Court, after examining such proceedings and requiring from the Magistrate
any further information or evidence which it thinks necessary, and after giving the concerned
Commencement
of period for
which security
is required.
Contents of
bond.
Power to
reject sureties.
Imprisonment
in default of
security.
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person a reasonable opportunity of being heard, may pass such order on the case as it
thinks fit:
Provided that the period (if any) for which any person is imprisoned for failure to give
security shall not exceed three years.
(4) If security has been required in the course of the same proceeding from two or
more persons in respect of any one of whom the proceedings are referred to the Sessions
Judge under sub-section (2) such reference shall also include the case of any other of such
persons who has been ordered to give security, and the provisions of sub-sections (2)
and (3) shall, in that event, apply to the case of such other person also, except that the
period (if any) for which he may be imprisoned, shall not exceed the period for which he was
ordered to give security.
(5) A Sessions Judge may in his discretion transfer any proceedings laid before him
under sub-section (2) or sub-section (4) to an Additional Sessions Judge and upon such
transfer, such Additional Sessions Judge may exercise the powers of a Sessions Judge
under this section in respect of such proceedings.
(6) If the security is tendered to the officer in charge of the jail, he shall forthwith refer
the matter to the Court or Magistrate who made the order, and shall await the orders of such
Court or Magistrate.
(7) Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace shall be simple.
(8) Imprisonment for failure to give security for good behaviour shall, where the
proceedings have been taken under section 127, be simple, and, where the proceedings
have been taken under section 128 or section 129, be rigorous or simple as the Court or
Magistrate in each case directs.
142. (1) Whenever the District Magistrate in the case of an order passed by an
Executive Magistrate under section 136, or the Chief Judicial Magistrate in any other case
is of opinion that any person imprisoned for failing to give security under this Chapter may
be released without hazard to the community or to any other person, he may order such
person to be discharged.
(2) Whenever any person has been imprisoned for failing to give security under this
Chapter, the High Court or Court of Session, or, where the order was made by any other
Court, District Magistrate, in the case of an order passed by an Executive Magistrate under
section 136, or the Chief Judicial Magistrate in any other case, may make an order reducing
the amount of the security or the number of sureties or the time for which security has been
required.
(3) An order under sub-section (1) may direct the discharge of such person either
without conditions or upon any conditions which such person accepts:
Provided that any condition imposed shall cease to be operative when the period for
which such person was ordered to give security has expired.
(4) The State Government may prescribe, by rules, the conditions upon which a
conditional discharge may be made.
(5) If any condition upon which any person has been discharged is, in the opinion of
District Magistrate, in the case of an order passed by an Executive Magistrate under
section 136, or the Chief Judicial Magistrate in any other case by whom the order of discharge
was made or of his successor, not fulfilled, he may cancel the same.
(6) When a conditional order of discharge has been cancelled under sub-section (5),
such person may be arrested by any police officer without warrant, and shall thereupon be
produced before the District Magistrate, in the case of an order passed by an Executive
Magistrate under section 136, or the Chief Judicial Magistrate in any other case.
Power to
release
persons
imprisoned for
failing to give
security.
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(7) Unless such person gives security in accordance with the terms of the original
order for the unexpired portion of the term for which he was in the first instance committed
or ordered to be detained (such portion being deemed to be a period equal to the period
between the date of the breach of the conditions of discharge and the date on which, except
for such conditional discharge, he would have been entitled to release), District Magistrate,
in the case of an order passed by an Executive Magistrate under section 136, or the Chief
Judicial Magistrate in any other case may remand such person to prison to undergo such
unexpired portion.
(8) A person remanded to prison under sub-section (7) shall, subject to the provisions
of section 141, be released at any time on giving security in accordance with the terms of the
original order for the unexpired portion aforesaid to the Court or Magistrate by whom such
order was made, or to its or his successor.
(9) The High Court or Court of Session may at any time, for sufficient reasons to be
recorded in writing, cancel any bond for keeping the peace or for good behaviour executed
under this Chapter by any order made by it, and District Magistrate, in the case of an order
passed by an Executive Magistrate under section 136, or the Chief Judicial Magistrate in
any other case may make such cancellation where such bond was executed under his order
or under the order of any other Court in his district.
(10) Any surety for the peaceable conduct or good behaviour of another person
ordered to execute a bond under this Chapter may at any time apply to the Court making
such order to cancel the bond and on such application being made, the Court shall issue a
summons or warrant, as it thinks fit, requiring the person for whom such surety is bound to
appear or to be brought before it.
143. (1) When a person for whose appearance a summons or warrant has been issued
under the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 140 or under sub-section (10) of section 142,
appears or is brought before the Magistrate or Court, the Magistrate or Court shall cancel
the bond or bail bond executed by such person and shall order such person to give, for the
unexpired portion of the term of such bond, fresh security of the same description as the
original security.
(2) Every such order shall, for the purposes of sections 139 to 142 (both inclusive) be
deemed to be an order made under section 125 or section 136, as the case may be.
CHAPTER X
ORDER FOR MAINTENANCE OF WIVES, CHILDREN AND PARENTS
144. (1) If any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain—
(a) his wife, unable to maintain herself; or
(b) his legitimate or illegitimate child, whether married or not, unable to maintain
itself; or
(c) his legitimate or illegitimate child (not being a married daughter) who has
attained majority, where such child is, by reason of any physical or mental abnormality
or injury unable to maintain itself; or
(d) his father or mother, unable to maintain himself or herself,
a Magistrate of the first class may, upon proof of such neglect or refusal, order such person
to make a monthly allowance for the maintenance of his wife or such child, father or mother,
at such monthly rate as such Magistrate thinks fit and to pay the same to such person as the
Magistrate may from time to time direct:
Provided that the Magistrate may order the father of a female child referred to in
clause (b) to make such allowance, until she attains her majority, if the Magistrate is satisfied
that the husband of such female child, if married, is not possessed of sufficient means:
Security for
unexpired
period of
bond.
Order for
maintenance
of wives,
children and
parents.
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Provided further that the Magistrate may, during the pendency of the proceeding
regarding monthly allowance for the maintenance under this sub-section, order such person
to make a monthly allowance for the interim maintenance of his wife or such child, father or
mother, and the expenses of such proceeding which the Magistrate considers reasonable,
and to pay the same to such person as the Magistrate may from time to time direct:
Provided also that an application for the monthly allowance for the interim maintenance
and expenses of proceeding under the second proviso shall, as far as possible, be disposed
of within sixty days from the date of the service of notice of the application to such person.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this Chapter, "wife" includes a woman who has
been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband and has not remarried.
(2) Any such allowance for the maintenance or interim maintenance and expenses of
proceeding shall be payable from the date of the order, or, if so ordered, from the date of the
application for maintenance or interim maintenance and expenses of proceeding, as the
case may be.
(3) If any person so ordered fails without sufficient cause to comply with the order,
any such Magistrate may, for every breach of the order, issue a warrant for levying the
amount due in the manner provided for levying fines, and may sentence such person, for
the whole or any part of each month's allowance for the maintenance or the interim
maintenance and expenses of proceeding, as the case may be, remaining unpaid after the
execution of the warrant, to imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month or until
payment if sooner made:
Provided that no warrant shall be issued for the recovery of any amount due under
this section unless application be made to the Court to levy such amount within a period of
one year from the date on which it became due:
Provided further that if such person offers to maintain his wife on condition of her
living with him, and she refuses to live with him, such Magistrate may consider any grounds
of refusal stated by her, and may make an order under this section notwithstanding such
offer, if he is satisfied that there is just ground for so doing.
Explanation.—If a husband has contracted marriage with another woman or keeps a
mistress, it shall be considered to be just ground for his wife's refusal to live with him.
(4) No wife shall be entitled to receive an allowance for the maintenance or the interim
maintenance and expenses of proceeding, from her husband under this section if she is
living in adultery, or if, without any sufficient reason, she refuses to live with her husband,
or if they are living separately by mutual consent.
(5) On proof that any wife in whose favour an order has been made under this section
is living in adultery, or that without sufficient reason she refuses to live with her husband,
or that they are living separately by mutual consent, the Magistrate shall cancel the order.
145. (1) Proceedings under section 144 may be taken against any person in any
district—
(a) where he is; or
(b) where he or his wife resides; or
(c) where he last resided with his wife, or as the case may be, with the mother of
the illegitimate child; or
(d) where his father or mother resides.
Procedure.
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(2) All evidence in such proceedings shall be taken in the presence of the person
against whom an order for payment of maintenance is proposed to be made, or, when his
personal attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his advocate, and shall be recorded
in the manner prescribed for summons-cases:
Provided that if the Magistrate is satisfied that the person against whom an order for
payment of maintenance is proposed to be made is wilfully avoiding service, or wilfully
neglecting to attend the Court, the Magistrate may proceed to hear and determine the
case ex parte and any order so made may be set aside for good cause shown on an
application made within three months from the date thereof subject to such terms including
terms as to payment of costs to the opposite party as the Magistrate may think just and
proper.
(3) The Court in dealing with applications under section 144 shall have power to make
such order as to costs as may be just.
146. (1) On proof of a change in the circumstances of any person, receiving, under
section 144 a monthly allowance for the maintenance or interim maintenance, or ordered
under the same section to pay a monthly allowance for the maintenance, or interim
maintenance, to his wife, child, father or mother, as the case may be, the Magistrate may
make such alteration, as he thinks fit, in the allowance for the maintenance or the interim
maintenance, as the case may be.
(2) Where it appears to the Magistrate that in consequence of any decision of a
competent Civil Court, any order made under section 144 should be cancelled or varied, he
shall cancel the order or, as the case may be, vary the same accordingly.
(3) Where any order has been made under section 144 in favour of a woman who has
been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband, the Magistrate shall, if he is
satisfied that—
(a) the woman has, after the date of such divorce, remarried, cancel such order
as from the date of her remarriage;
(b) the woman has been divorced by her husband and that she has received,
whether before or after the date of the said order, the whole of the sum which, under
any customary or personal law applicable to the parties, was payable on such divorce,
cancel such order,—
(i) in the case where such sum was paid before such order, from the date
on which such order was made;
(ii) in any other case, from the date of expiry of the period, if any, for
which maintenance has been actually paid by the husband to the woman;
(c) the woman has obtained a divorce from her husband and that she had
voluntarily surrendered her rights to maintenance or interim maintenance, as the case
may be, after her divorce, cancel the order from the date thereof.
(4) At the time of making any decree for the recovery of any maintenance or dowry by
any person, to whom a monthly allowance for the maintenance and interim maintenance or
any of them has been ordered to be paid under section 144, the Civil Court shall take into
account the sum which has been paid to, or recovered by, such person as monthly allowance
for the maintenance and interim maintenance or any of them, as the case may be, in pursuance
of the said order.
147. A copy of the order of maintenance or interim maintenance and expenses of
proceedings, as the case may be, shall be given without payment to the person in whose
favour it is made, or to his guardian, if any, or to the person to whom the allowance for the
maintenance or the allowance for the interim maintenance and expenses of proceeding, as
the case may be, is to be paid; and such order may be enforced by any Magistrate in any
Alteration in
allowance.
Enforcement
of order of
maintenance.
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place where the person against whom it is made may be, on such Magistrate being satisfied
as to the identity of the parties and the non-payment of the allowance, or as the case may
be, expenses, due.
CHAPTER XI
MAINTENANCE OF PUBLIC ORDER AND TRANQUILLITY
A.—Unlawful assemblies
148. (1) Any Executive Magistrate or officer in charge of a police station or, in the
absence of such officer in charge, any police officer, not below the rank of a sub-inspector,
may command any unlawful assembly, or any assembly of five or more persons likely to
cause a disturbance of the public peace, to disperse; and it shall thereupon be the duty of
the members of such assembly to disperse accordingly.
(2) If, upon being so commanded, any such assembly does not disperse, or if, without
being so commanded, it conducts itself in such a manner as to show a determination not to
disperse, any Executive Magistrate or police officer referred to in sub-section (1), may
proceed to disperse such assembly by force, and may require the assistance of any person,
not being an officer or member of the armed forces and acting as such, for the purpose of
dispersing such assembly, and, if necessary, arresting and confining the persons who form
part of it, in order to disperse such assembly or that they may be punished according to law.
149. (1) If any assembly referred to in sub-section (1) of section 148 cannot otherwise
be dispersed, and it is necessary for the public security that it should be dispersed, the
District Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate authorised by him, who is present,
may cause it to be dispersed by the armed forces.
(2) Such Magistrate may require any officer in command of any group of persons
belonging to the armed forces to disperse the assembly with the help of the armed forces
under his command, and to arrest and confine such persons forming part of it as the
Executive Magistrate may direct, or as it may be necessary to arrest and confine in order to
disperse the assembly or to have them punished according to law.
(3) Every such officer of the armed forces shall obey such requisition in such manner
as he thinks fit, but in so doing he shall use as little force, and do as little injury to person
and property, as may be consistent with dispersing the assembly and arresting and detaining
such persons.
150. When the public security is manifestly endangered by any such assembly and
no Executive Magistrate can be communicated with, any commissioned or gazetted officer
of the armed forces may disperse such assembly with the help of the armed forces under his
command, and may arrest and confine any persons forming part of it, in order to disperse
such assembly or that they may be punished according to law; but if, while he is acting
under this section, it becomes practicable for him to communicate with an Executive
Magistrate, he shall do so, and shall thenceforward obey the instructions of the Magistrate,
as to whether he shall or shall not continue such action.
151. (1) No prosecution against any person for any act purporting to be done under
section 148, section 149 or section 150 shall be instituted in any Criminal Court except—
(a) with the sanction of the Central Government where such person is an officer
or member of the armed forces;
(b) with the sanction of the State Government in any other case.
(2) (a) No Executive Magistrate or police officer acting under any of the said sections
in good faith;
Dispersal of
assembly by
use of civil
force.
Use of armed
forces to
disperse
assembly.
Power of
certain armed
force officers
to disperse
assembly.
Protection
against
prosecution
for acts done
under sections
148, 149 and
150.
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(b) no person doing any act in good faith in compliance with a requisition under
section 148 or section 149;
(c) no officer of the armed forces acting under section 150 in good faith;
(d) no member of the armed forces doing any act in obedience to any order which he
was bound to obey,
shall be deemed to have thereby committed an offence.
(3) In this section and in the preceding sections of this Chapter,—
(a) the expression "armed forces" means the army, naval and air forces, operating
as land forces and includes any other armed forces of the Union so operating;
(b) "officer", in relation to the armed forces, means a person commissioned,
gazetted or in pay as an officer of the armed forces and includes a junior commissioned
officer, a warrant officer, a petty officer, a non-commissioned officer and a non-gazetted
officer;
(c) "member", in relation to the armed forces, means a person in the armed
forces other than an officer.
B.—Public nuisances
152. (1) Whenever a District Magistrate or a Sub-divisional Magistrate or any other
Executive Magistrate specially empowered in this behalf by the State Government, on
receiving the report of a police officer or other information and on taking such evidence
(if any) as he thinks fit, considers—
(a) that any unlawful obstruction or nuisance should be removed from any
public place or from any way, river or channel which is or may be lawfully used by the
public; or
(b) that the conduct of any trade or occupation, or the keeping of any goods or
merchandise, is injurious to the health or physical comfort of the community, and that
in consequence such trade or occupation should be prohibited or regulated or such
goods or merchandise should be removed or the keeping thereof regulated; or
(c) that the construction of any building, or, the disposal of any substance, as
is likely to occasion conflagration or explosion, should be prevented or stopped; or
(d) that any building, tent or structure, or any tree is in such a condition that it
is likely to fall and thereby cause injury to persons living or carrying on business in
the neighbourhood or passing by, and that in consequence the removal, repair or
support of such building, tent or structure, or the removal or support of such tree, is
necessary; or
(e) that any tank, well or excavation adjacent to any such way or public place
should be fenced in such manner as to prevent danger arising to the public; or
(f) that any dangerous animal should be destroyed, confined or otherwise
disposed of,
such Magistrate may make a conditional order requiring the person causing such obstruction
or nuisance, or carrying on such trade or occupation, or keeping any such goods or
merchandise, or owning, possessing or controlling such building, tent, structure, substance,
Conditional
order for
removal of
nuisance.
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tank, well or excavation, or owning or possessing such animal or tree, within a time to be
fixed in the order—
(i) to remove such obstruction or nuisance; or
(ii) to desist from carrying on, or to remove or regulate in such manner as may
be directed, such trade or occupation, or to remove such goods or merchandise, or to
regulate the keeping thereof in such manner as may be directed; or
(iii) to prevent or stop the construction of such building, or to alter the disposal
of such substance; or
(iv) to remove, repair or support such building, tent or structure, or to remove or
support such trees; or
(v) to fence such tank, well or excavation; or
(vi) to destroy, confine or dispose of such dangerous animal in the manner
provided in the said order,
or, if he objects so to do, to appear before himself or some other Executive Magistrate
subordinate to him at a time and place to be fixed by the order, and show cause, in the
manner hereinafter provided, why the order should not be made absolute.
(2) No order duly made by a Magistrate under this section shall be called in question
in any Civil Court.
Explanation.—A "public place" includes also property belonging to the State,
camping grounds and grounds left unoccupied for sanitary or recreative purposes.
153. (1) The order shall, if practicable, be served on the person against whom it is
made, in the manner herein provided for service of summons.
(2) If such order cannot be so served, it shall be notified by proclamation published in
such manner as the State Government may, by rules, direct, and a copy thereof shall be
stuck up at such place or places as may be fittest for conveying the information to such
person.
154. The person against whom such order is made shall—
(a) perform, within the time and in the manner specified in the order, the act
directed thereby; or
(b) appear in accordance with such order and show cause against the same;
and such appearance or hearing may be permitted through audio-video conferencing.
155. If the person against whom an order is made under section 154 does not perform
such act or appear and show cause, he shall be liable to the penalty specified in that behalf
in section 223 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and the order shall be made absolute.
156. (1) Where an order is made under section 152 for the purpose of preventing
obstruction, nuisance or danger to the public in the use of any way, river, channel or place,
the Magistrate shall, on the appearance before him of the person against whom the order
was made, question him as to whether he denies the existence of any public right in respect
of the way, river, channel or place, and if he does so, the Magistrate shall, before proceeding
under section 157, inquire into the matter.
(2) If in such inquiry the Magistrate finds that there is any reliable evidence in support
of such denial, he shall stay the proceedings until the matter of the existence of such right
has been decided by a competent Court; and, if he finds that there is no such evidence, he
shall proceed as laid down in section 157.
(3) A person who has, on being questioned by the Magistrate under sub-section (1),
Service or
notification of
order.
Person to
whom order is
addressed to
obey or show
cause.
Penalty for
failure to
comply with
section 154.
Procedure
where
existence of
public right is
denied.
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failed to deny the existence of a public right of the nature therein referred to, or who, having
made such denial, has failed to adduce reliable evidence in support thereof, shall not in the
subsequent proceedings be permitted to make any such denial.
157. (1) If the person against whom an order under section 152 is made appears and
shows cause against the order, the Magistrate shall take evidence in the matter as in a
summons-case.
(2) If the Magistrate is satisfied that the order, either as originally made or subject to
such modification as he considers necessary, is reasonable and proper, the order shall be
made absolute without modification or, as the case may be, with such modification.
(3) If the Magistrate is not so satisfied, no further proceedings shall be taken in the
case:
Provided that the proceedings under this section shall be completed, as soon as
possible, within a period of ninety days, which may be extended for the reasons to be
recorded in writing, to one hundred and twenty days.
158. The Magistrate may, for the purposes of an inquiry under section 156 or
section 157—
(a) direct a local investigation to be made by such person as he thinks fit; or
(b) summon and examine an expert.
159. (1) Where the Magistrate directs a local investigation by any person under
section 158, the Magistrate may—
(a) furnish such person with such written instructions as may seem necessary
for his guidance;
(b) declare by whom the whole or any part of the necessary expenses of the
local investigation shall be paid.
(2) The report of such person may be read as evidence in the case.
(3) Where the Magistrate summons and examines an expert under section 158, the
Magistrate may direct by whom the costs of such summoning and examination shall be
paid.
160. (1) When an order has been made absolute under section 155 or section 157, the
Magistrate shall give notice of the same to the person against whom the order was made,
and shall further require him to perform the act directed by the order within the time to be
fixed in the notice, and inform him that, in case of disobedience, he shall be liable to the
penalty provided by section 223 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(2) If such act is not performed within the time fixed, the Magistrate may cause it to be
performed, and may recover the costs of performing it, either by the sale of any building,
goods or other property removed by his order, or by the distress and sale of any other
movable property of such person within or without such Magistrate's local jurisdiction, and
if such other property is without such jurisdiction, the order shall authorise its attachment
and sale when endorsed by the Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the property to
be attached is found.
(3) No suit shall lie in respect of anything done in good faith under this section.
161. (1) If a Magistrate making an order under section 152 considers that immediate
measures should be taken to prevent imminent danger or injury of a serious kind to the
public, he may issue such an injunction to the person against whom the order was made, as
is required to obviate or prevent such danger or injury pending the determination of the
matter.
Procedure
where person
against whom
order is made
under section
152 appears
to show cause.
Power of
Magistrate to
direct local
investigation
and
examination
of an expert.
Power of
Magistrate to
furnish written
instructions,
etc.
Procedure on
order being
made absolute
and
consequences
of
disobedience.
Injunction
pending
inquiry.
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(2) In default of such person forthwith obeying such injunction, the Magistrate may
himself use, or cause to be used, such means as he thinks fit to obviate such danger or to
prevent such injury.
(3) No suit shall lie in respect of anything done in good faith by a Magistrate under
this section.
162. A District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive
Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner of Police empowered by the State Government or the
District Magistrate in this behalf, may order any person not to repeat or continue a public
nuisance, as defined in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, or any special or local law.
C.—Urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger
163. (1) In cases where, in the opinion of a District Magistrate, a Sub-divisional
Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government
in this behalf, there is sufficient ground for proceeding under this section and immediate
prevention or speedy remedy is desirable, such Magistrate may, by a written order stating
the material facts of the case and served in the manner provided by section 153, direct any
person to abstain from a certain act or to take certain order with respect to certain property
in his possession or under his management, if such Magistrate considers that such direction
is likely to prevent, or tends to prevent, obstruction, annoyance or injury to any person
lawfully employed, or danger to human life, health or safety or a disturbance of the public
tranquillity, or a riot, or an affray.
(2) An order under this section may, in cases of emergency or in cases where the
circumstances do not admit of the serving in due time of a notice upon the person against
whom the order is directed, be passed ex parte.
(3) An order under this section may be directed to a particular individual, or to persons
residing in a particular place or area, or to the public generally when frequenting or visiting
a particular place or area.
(4) No order under this section shall remain in force for more than two months from
the making thereof:
Provided that if the State Government considers it necessary so to do for preventing
danger to human life, health or safety or for preventing a riot or any affray, it may, by
notification, direct that an order made by a Magistrate under this section shall remain in
force for such further period not exceeding six months from the date on which the order
made by the Magistrate would have, but for such order, expired, as it may specify in the said
notification.
(5) Any Magistrate may, either on his own motion or on the application of any person
aggrieved, rescind or alter any order made under this section by himself or any Magistrate
subordinate to him or by his predecessor-in-office.
(6) The State Government may, either on its own motion or on the application of any
person aggrieved, rescind or alter any order made by it under the proviso to sub-section (4).
(7) Where an application under sub-section (5) or sub-section (6) is received, the
Magistrate, or the State Government, as the case may be, shall afford to the applicant an
early opportunity of appearing before him or it, either in person or by an advocate and
showing cause against the order; and if the Magistrate or the State Government, as the case
may be, rejects the application wholly or in part, he or it shall record in writing the reasons
for so doing.
D.—Disputes as to immovable property
164. (1) Whenever an Executive Magistrate is satisfied from a report of a police
officer or upon other information that a dispute likely to cause a breach of the peace exists
concerning any land or water or the boundaries thereof, within his local jurisdiction, he
shall make an order in writing, stating the grounds of his being so satisfied, and requiring
the parties concerned in such dispute to attend his Court in person or by an advocate on a
Magistrate
may prohibit
repetition or
continuance
of public
nuisance.
Power to issue
order in urgent
cases of
nuisance or
apprehended
danger.
Procedure
where dispute
concerning
land or water
is likely to
cause breach
of peace.
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specified date and time, and to put in written statements of their respective claims as
respects the fact of actual possession of the subject of dispute.
(2) For the purposes of this section, the expression "land or water" includes buildings,
markets, fisheries, crops or other produce of land, and the rents or profits of any such
property.
(3) A copy of the order shall be served in the manner provided by this Sanhita for the
service of summons upon such person or persons as the Magistrate may direct, and at least
one copy shall be published by being affixed to some conspicuous place at or near the
subject of dispute.
(4) The Magistrate shall, without reference to the merits or the claims of any of the
parties to a right to possess the subject of dispute, peruse the statements so put in, hear the
parties, receive all such evidence as may be produced by them, take such further evidence,
if any, as he thinks necessary, and, if possible, decide whether any and which of the parties
was, at the date of the order made by him under sub-section (1), in possession of the
subject of dispute:
Provided that if it appears to the Magistrate that any party has been forcibly and
wrongfully dispossessed within two months next before the date on which the report of a
police officer or other information was received by the Magistrate, or after that date and
before the date of his order under sub-section (1), he may treat the party so dispossessed
as if that party had been in possession on the date of his order under sub-section (1).
(5) Nothing in this section shall preclude any party so required to attend, or any other
person interested, from showing that no such dispute as aforesaid exists or has existed; and
in such case the Magistrate shall cancel his said order, and all further proceedings thereon
shall be stayed, but, subject to such cancellation, the order of the Magistrate under
sub-section (1) shall be final.
(6) (a) If the Magistrate decides that one of the parties was, or should under the
proviso to sub-section (4) be treated as being, in such possession of the said subject of
dispute, he shall issue an order declaring such party to be entitled to possession thereof
until evicted therefrom in due course of law, and forbidding all disturbance of such possession
until such eviction; and when he proceeds under the proviso to sub-section (4), may
restore to possession the party forcibly and wrongfully dispossessed;
(b) the order made under this sub-section shall be served and published in the manner
laid down in sub-section (3).
(7) When any party to any such proceeding dies, the Magistrate may cause the legal
representative of the deceased party to be made a party to the proceeding and shall thereupon
continue the inquiry, and if any question arises as to who the legal representative of a
deceased party for the purposes of such proceeding is, all persons claiming to be
representatives of the deceased party shall be made parties thereto.
(8) If the Magistrate is of opinion that any crop or other produce of the property, the
subject of dispute in a proceeding under this section pending before him, is subject to
speedy and natural decay, he may make an order for the proper custody or sale of such
property, and, upon the completion of the inquiry, shall make such order for the disposal of
such property, or the sale-proceeds thereof, as he thinks fit.
(9) The Magistrate may, if he thinks fit, at any stage of the proceedings under this
section, on the application of either party, issue a summons to any witness directing him to
attend or to produce any document or thing.
(10) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to be in derogation of powers of the
Magistrate to proceed under section 126.
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165. (1) If the Magistrate at any time after making the order under sub-section (1) of
section 164 considers the case to be one of emergency, or if he decides that none of the
parties was then in such possession as is referred to in section 164, or if he is unable to
satisfy himself as to which of them was then in such possession of the subject of dispute,
he may attach the subject of dispute until a competent Court has determined the rights of
the parties thereto with regard to the person entitled to the possession thereof:
Provided that such Magistrate may withdraw the attachment at any time if he is
satisfied that there is no longer any likelihood of breach of the peace with regard to the
subject of dispute.
(2) When the Magistrate attaches the subject of dispute, he may, if no receiver in
relation to such subject of dispute has been appointed by any Civil Court, make such
arrangements as he considers proper for looking after the property or if he thinks fit,
appoint a receiver thereof, who shall have, subject to the control of the Magistrate, all the
powers of a receiver appointed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:
Provided that in the event of a receiver being subsequently appointed in relation to
the subject of dispute by any Civil Court, the Magistrate—
(a) shall order the receiver appointed by him to hand over the possession of the
subject of dispute to the receiver appointed by the Civil Court and shall thereafter
discharge the receiver appointed by him;
(b) may make such other incidental or consequential orders as may be just.
166. (1) Whenever an Executive Magistrate is satisfied from the report of a police
officer or upon other information, that a dispute likely to cause a breach of the peace exists
regarding any alleged right of user of any land or water within his local jurisdiction, whether
such right be claimed as an easement or otherwise, he shall make an order in writing, stating
the grounds of his being so satisfied and requiring the parties concerned in such dispute to
attend his Court in person or by an advocate on a specified date and time and to put in
written statements of their respective claims.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, the expression "land or water"
has the meaning given to it in sub-section (2) of section 164.
(2) The Magistrate shall peruse the statements so put in, hear the parties, receive all
such evidence as may be produced by them respectively, consider the effect of such
evidence, take such further evidence, if any, as he thinks necessary and, if possible, decide
whether such right exists; and the provisions of section 164 shall, so far as may be, apply in
the case of such inquiry.
(3) If it appears to such Magistrate that such rights exist, he may make an order
prohibiting any interference with the exercise of such right, including, in a proper case, an
order for the removal of any obstruction in the exercise of any such right:
Provided that no such order shall be made where the right is exercisable at all times of
the year, unless such right has been exercised within three months next before the receipt
under sub-section (1) of the report of a police officer or other information leading to the
institution of the inquiry, or where the right is exercisable only at particular seasons or on
particular occasions, unless the right has been exercised during the last of such seasons or
on the last of such occasions before such receipt.
(4) When in any proceedings commenced under sub-section (1) of section 164 the
Magistrate finds that the dispute is as regards an alleged right of user of land or water, he
may, after recording his reasons, continue with the proceedings as if they had been
commenced under sub-section (1), and when in any proceedings commenced under
sub-section (1) the Magistrate finds that the dispute should be dealt with under
section 164, he may, after recording his reasons, continue with the proceedings as if they
had been commenced under sub-section (1) of section 164.
Power to
attach subject
of dispute and
to appoint
receiver.
Dispute
concerning
right of use of
land or water.
5 of 1908.
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167. (1) Whenever a local inquiry is necessary for the purposes of section 164,
section 165 or section 166, a District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate may depute
any Magistrate subordinate to him to make the inquiry, and may furnish him with such
written instructions as may seem necessary for his guidance, and may declare by whom the
whole or any part of the necessary expenses of the inquiry shall be paid.
(2) The report of the person so deputed may be read as evidence in the case.
(3) When any costs have been incurred by any party to a proceeding under
section 164, section 165 or section 166, the Magistrate passing a decision may direct by
whom such costs shall be paid, whether by such party or by any other party to the proceeding,
and whether in whole or in part or proportion and such costs may include any expenses
incurred in respect of witnesses and of advocates' fees, which the Court may consider
reasonable.
CHAPTER XII
PREVENTIVE ACTION OF THE POLICE
168. Every police officer may interpose for the purpose of preventing, and shall, to
the best of his ability, prevent, the commission of any cognizable offence.
169. Every police officer receiving information of a design to commit any cognizable
offence shall communicate such information to the police officer to whom he is subordinate,
and to any other officer whose duty it is to prevent or take cognizance of the commission of
any such offence.
170. (1) A police officer knowing of a design to commit any cognizable offence may
arrest, without orders from a Magistrate and without a warrant, the person so designing, if
it appears to such officer that the commission of the offence cannot be otherwise prevented.
(2) No person arrested under sub-section (1) shall be detained in custody for a period
exceeding twenty-four hours from the time of his arrest unless his further detention is
required or authorised under any other provisions of this Sanhita or of any other law for the
time being in force.
171. A police officer may of his own authority interpose to prevent any injury attempted
to be committed in his view to any public property, movable or immovable, or the removal or
injury of any public landmark, buoy or other mark used for navigation.
172. (1) All persons shall be bound to conform to the lawful directions of a police
officer given in fulfilment of any of his duty under this Chapter.
(2) A police officer may detain or remove any person resisting, refusing, ignoring or
disregarding to conform to any direction given by him under sub-section (1) and may either
take such person before a Magistrate or, in petty cases, release him as soon as possible
within a period of twenty-four hours.
CHAPTER XIII
INFORMATION TO THE POLICE AND THEIR POWERS TO INVESTIGATE
173. (1) Every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence,
irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic
communication to an officer in charge of a police station, and if given—
(i) orally, it shall be reduced to writing by him or under his direction, and be read
over to the informant; and every such information, whether given in writing or reduced
to writing as aforesaid, shall be signed by the person giving it;
(ii) by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record by him on being
signed within three days by the person giving it,
Local inquiry.
Police to
prevent
cognizable
offences.
Information
of design to
commit
cognizable
offences.
Arrest to
prevent
commission of
cognizable
offences.
Prevention of
injury to
public
property.
Persons bound
to conform to
lawful
directions of
police.
Information
in cognizable
cases.
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and the substance thereof shall be entered in a book to be kept by such officer in such form
as the State Government may by rules prescribe in this behalf:
Provided that if the information is given by the woman against whom an offence
under section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 69, section 70,
section 71, section 74, section 75, section 76, section 77, section 78, section 79 or
section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is alleged to have been committed or
attempted, then such information shall be recorded, by a woman police officer or any
woman officer:
Provided further that—
(a) in the event that the person against whom an offence under section 64,
section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 69, section 70, section 71,
section 74, section 75, section 76, section 77, section 78, section 79 or section 124 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is alleged to have been committed or attempted, is
temporarily or permanently mentally or physically disabled, then such information
shall be recorded by a police officer, at the residence of the person seeking to report
such offence or at a convenient place of such person's choice, in the presence of an
interpreter or a special educator, as the case may be;
(b) the recording of such information shall be videographed;
(c) the police officer shall get the statement of the person recorded by a
Magistrate under clause (a) of sub-section (6) of section 183 as soon as possible.
(2) A copy of the information as recorded under sub-section (1) shall be given forthwith,
free of cost, to the informant or the victim.
(3) Without prejudice to the provisions contained in section 175, on receipt of
information relating to the commission of any cognizable offence, which is made punishable
for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge of the police station
may with the prior permission from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent
of Police, considering the nature and gravity of the offence,—
(i) proceed to conduct preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether there exists a
prima facie case for proceeding in the matter within a period of fourteen days; or
(ii) proceed with investigation when there exists a prima facie case.
(4) Any person aggrieved by a refusal on the part of an officer in charge of a police
station to record the information referred to in sub-section (1), may send the substance of
such information, in writing and by post, to the Superintendent of Police concerned who, if
satisfied that such information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence, shall
either investigate the case himself or direct an investigation to be made by any police officer
subordinate to him, in the manner provided by this Sanhita, and such officer shall have all
the powers of an officer in charge of the police station in relation to that offence failing
which such aggrieved person may make an application to the Magistrate.
174. (1) When information is given to an officer in charge of a police station of the
commission within the limits of such station of a non-cognizable offence, he shall enter or
cause to be entered the substance of the information in a book to be kept by such officer in
such form as the State Government may by rules prescribe in this behalf, and,—
(i) refer the informant to the Magistrate;
(ii) forward the daily diary report of all such cases fortnightly to the Magistrate.
(2) No police officer shall investigate a non-cognizable case without the order of a
Magistrate having power to try such case or commit the case for trial.
(3) Any police officer receiving such order may exercise the same powers in respect of
the investigation (except the power to arrest without warrant) as an officer in charge of a
police station may exercise in a cognizable case.
Information
as to non-
cognizable
cases and
investigation
of such cases.
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(4) Where a case relates to two or more offences of which at least one is cognizable,
the case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case, notwithstanding that the other offences
are non-cognizable.
175. (1) Any officer in charge of a police station may, without the order of a Magistrate,
investigate any cognizable case which a Court having jurisdiction over the local area within
the limits of such station would have power to inquire into or try under the provisions of
Chapter XIV:
Provided that considering the nature and gravity of the offence, the Superintendent
of Police may require the Deputy Superintendent of Police to investigate the case.
(2) No proceeding of a police officer in any such case shall at any stage be called in
question on the ground that the case was one which such officer was not empowered under
this section to investigate.
(3) Any Magistrate empowered under section 210 may, after considering the application
supported by an affidavit made under sub-section (4) of section 173, and after making such
inquiry as he thinks necessary and submission made in this regard by the police officer,
order such an investigation as above-mentioned.
(4) Any Magistrate empowered under section 210, may, upon receiving a complaint
against a public servant arising in course of the discharge of his official duties, order
investigation, subject to—
(a) receiving a report containing facts and circumstances of the incident from
the officer superior to him; and
(b) after consideration of the assertions made by the public servant as to the
situation that led to the incident so alleged.
176. (1) If, from information received or otherwise, an officer in charge of a police
station has reason to suspect the commission of an offence which he is empowered under
section 175 to investigate, he shall forthwith send a report of the same to a Magistrate
empowered to take cognizance of such offence upon a police report and shall proceed in
person, or shall depute one of his subordinate officers not being below such rank as the
State Government may, by general or special order, prescribe in this behalf, to proceed, to
the spot, to investigate the facts and circumstances of the case, and, if necessary, to take
measures for the discovery and arrest of the offender:
Provided that—
(a) when information as to the commission of any such offence is given against
any person by name and the case is not of a serious nature, the officer in charge of a
police station need not proceed in person or depute a subordinate officer to make an
investigation on the spot;
(b) if it appears to the officer in charge of a police station that there is no
sufficient ground for entering on an investigation, he shall not investigate the case:
Provided further that in relation to an offence of rape, the recording of statement of
the victim shall be conducted at the residence of the victim or in the place of her choice and
as far as practicable by a woman police officer in the presence of her parents or guardian or
near relatives or social worker of the locality and such statement may also be recorded
through any audio-video electronic means including mobile phone.
(2) In each of the cases mentioned in clauses (a) and (b) of the first proviso to
sub-section (1), the officer in charge of the police station shall state in his report the
reasons for not fully complying with the requirements of that sub-section by him, and,
forward the daily diary report fortnightly to the Magistrate and in the case mentioned in
Police
officer's power
to investigate
cognizable
case.
Procedure for
investigation.
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clause (b) of the said proviso, the officer shall also forthwith notify to the informant, if any,
in such manner as may be prescribed by rules made by the State Government.
(3) On receipt of every information relating to the commission of an offence which is
made punishable for seven years or more, the officer in charge of a police station shall, from
such date, as may be notified within a period of five years by the State Government in this
regard, cause the forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence in the
offence and also cause videography of the process on mobile phone or any other electronic
device:
Provided that where forensic facility is not available in respect of any such offence,
the State Government shall, until the facility in respect of that matter is developed or made
in the State, notify the utilisation of such facility of any other State.
177. (1) Every report sent to a Magistrate under section 176 shall, if the State
Government so directs, be submitted through such superior officer of police as the State
Government, by general or special order, appoints in that behalf.
(2) Such superior officer may give such instructions to the officer in charge of the
police station as he thinks fit, and shall, after recording such instructions on such report,
transmit the same without delay to the Magistrate.
178. The Magistrate, on receiving a report under section 176, may direct an
investigation, or, if he thinks fit, at once proceed, or depute any Magistrate subordinate to
him to proceed, to hold a preliminary inquiry into, or otherwise to dispose of, the case in the
manner provided in this Sanhita.
179. (1) Any police officer making an investigation under this Chapter may, by order
in writing, require the attendance before himself of any person being within the limits of his
own or any adjoining station who, from the information given or otherwise, appears to be
acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case; and such person shall attend as so
required:
Provided that no male person under the age of fifteen years or above the age of
sixty years or a woman or a mentally or physically disabled person or a person with acute illness
shall be required to attend at any place other than the place in which such person resides:
Provided further that if such person is willing to attend at the police station, such
person may be permitted so to do.
(2) The State Government may, by rules made in this behalf, provide for the payment
by the police officer of the reasonable expenses of every person, attending under
sub-section (1) at any place other than his residence.
180. (1) Any police officer making an investigation under this Chapter, or any police
officer not below such rank as the State Government may, by general or special order,
prescribe in this behalf, acting on the requisition of such officer, may examine orally any
person supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case.
(2) Such person shall be bound to answer truly all questions relating to such case put
to him by such officer, other than questions the answers to which would have a tendency
to expose him to a criminal charge or to a penalty or forfeiture.
(3) The police officer may reduce into writing any statement made to him in the course
of an examination under this section; and if he does so, he shall make a separate and true
record of the statement of each such person whose statement he records:
Provided that statement made under this sub-section may also be recorded by
audio-video electronic means:
Provided further that the statement of a woman against whom an offence under
section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 69, section 70, section 71,
Report how
submitted.
Power to hold
investigation
or preliminary
inquiry.
Police
officer's power
to require
attendance of
witnesses.
Examination
of witnesses
by police.
Sec. 1]
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55
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section 74, section 75, section 76, section 77, section 78, section 79 or section 124 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is alleged to have been committed or attempted, shall be
recorded, by a woman police officer or any woman officer.
181. (1) No statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of an
investigation under this Chapter, shall, if reduced to writing, be signed by the person
making it; nor shall any such statement or any record thereof, whether in a police diary or
otherwise, or any part of such statement or record, be used for any purpose, save as
hereinafter provided, at any inquiry or trial in respect of any offence under investigation at
the time when such statement was made:
Provided that when any witness is called for the prosecution in such inquiry or trial
whose statement has been reduced into writing as aforesaid, any part of his statement, if
duly proved, may be used by the accused, and with the permission of the Court, by the
prosecution, to contradict such witness in the manner provided by section 148 of the
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023; and when any part of such statement is so used, any
part thereof may also be used in the re-examination of such witness, but for the purpose
only of explaining any matter referred to in his cross-examination.
(2) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to apply to any statement falling within
the provisions of clause (a) of section 26 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023; or to
affect the provisions of the proviso to sub-section (2) of section 23 of that Adhiniyam.
Explanation.—An omission to state a fact or circumstance in the statement referred
to in sub-section (1) may amount to contradiction if the same appears to be significant and
otherwise relevant having regard to the context in which such omission occurs and whether
any omission amounts to a contradiction in the particular context shall be a question of fact.
182. (1) No police officer or other person in authority shall offer or make, or cause to
be offered or made, any such inducement, threat or promise as is mentioned in section 22 of
the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
(2) But no police officer or other person shall prevent, by any caution or otherwise,
any person from making in the course of any investigation under this Chapter any statement
which he may be disposed to make of his own free will:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall affect the provisions of sub-section (4)
of section 183.
183. (1) Any Magistrate of the District in which the information about commission of
any offence has been registered, may, whether or not he has jurisdiction in the case, record
any confession or statement made to him in the course of an investigation under this
Chapter or under any other law for the time being in force, or at any time afterwards but
before the commencement of the inquiry or trial:
Provided that any confession or statement made under this sub-section may also be
recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the advocate of the person
accused of an offence:
Provided further that no confession shall be recorded by a police officer on whom any
power of a Magistrate has been conferred under any law for the time being in force.
(2) The Magistrate shall, before recording any such confession, explain to the person
making it that he is not bound to make a confession and that, if he does so, it may be used
as evidence against him; and the Magistrate shall not record any such confession unless,
upon questioning the person making it, he has reason to believe that it is being made
voluntarily.
(3) If at any time before the confession is recorded, the person appearing before the
Magistrate states that he is not willing to make the confession, the Magistrate shall not
authorise the detention of such person in police custody.
Statements to
police and use
thereof.
No inducement
to be offered.
Recording of
confessions
and
statements.
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(4) Any such confession shall be recorded in the manner provided in section 316 for
recording the examination of an accused person and shall be signed by the person making
the confession; and the Magistrate shall make a memorandum at the foot of such record to
the following effect:—
"I have explained to (name) that he is not bound to make a confession and that,
if he does so, any confession he may make may be used as evidence against him and
I believe that this confession was voluntarily made. It was taken in my presence and
hearing, and was read over to the person making it and admitted by him to be correct,
and it contains a full and true account of the statement made by him.
(Signed) A. B.
Magistrate.".
(5) Any statement (other than a confession) made under sub-section (1) shall be
recorded in such manner hereinafter provided for the recording of evidence as is, in the
opinion of the Magistrate, best fitted to the circumstances of the case; and the Magistrate
shall have power to administer oath to the person whose statement is so recorded.
(6) (a) In cases punishable under section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67,
section 68, section 69, section 70, section 71, section 74, section 75, section 76, section 77,
section 78, section 79 or section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Magistrate
shall record the statement of the person against whom such offence has been committed in
the manner specified in sub-section (5), as soon as the commission of the offence is brought
to the notice of the police:
Provided that such statement shall, as far as practicable, be recorded by a woman
Magistrate and in her absence by a male Magistrate in the presence of a woman:
Provided further that in cases relating to the offences punishable with imprisonment
for ten years or more or with imprisonment for life or with death, the Magistrate shall record
the statement of the witness brought before him by the police officer:
Provided also that if the person making the statement is temporarily or permanently,
mentally or physically disabled, the Magistrate shall take the assistance of an interpreter or
a special educator in recording the statement:
Provided also that if the person making the statement is temporarily or permanently,
mentally or physically disabled, the statement made by the person, with the assistance of
an interpreter or a special educator, shall be recorded through audio-video electronic means
preferably by mobile phone;
(b) a statement recorded under clause (a) of a person, who is temporarily or
permanently, mentally or physically disabled, shall be considered a statement in lieu of
examination-in-chief, as specified in section 142 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
such that the maker of the statement can be cross-examined on such statement, without the
need for recording the same at the time of trial.
(7) The Magistrate recording a confession or statement under this section shall
forward it to the Magistrate by whom the case is to be inquired into or tried.
184. (1) Where, during the stage when an offence of committing rape or attempt to
commit rape is under investigation, it is proposed to get the person of the woman with
whom rape is alleged or attempted to have been committed or attempted, examined by a
medical expert, such examination shall be conducted by a registered medical practitioner
employed in a hospital run by the Government or a local authority and in the absence of
such a practitioner, by any other registered medical practitioner, with the consent of such
woman or of a person competent to give such consent on her behalf and such woman shall
be sent to such registered medical practitioner within twenty-four hours from the time of
receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence.
Medical
examination
of victim of
rape.
Sec. 1]
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(2) The registered medical practitioner, to whom such woman is sent, shall, without
delay, examine her person and prepare a report of his examination giving the following
particulars, namely:—
(i) the name and address of the woman and of the person by whom she was
brought;
(ii) the age of the woman;
(iii) the description of material taken from the person of the woman for
DNA profiling;
(iv) marks of injury, if any, on the person of the woman;
(v) general mental condition of the woman; and
(vi) other material particulars in reasonable detail.
(3) The report shall state precisely the reasons for each conclusion arrived at.
(4) The report shall specifically record that the consent of the woman or of the person
competent to give such consent on her behalf to such examination had been obtained.
(5) The exact time of commencement and completion of the examination shall also be
noted in the report.
(6) The registered medical practitioner shall, within a period of seven days forward
the report to the investigating officer who shall forward it to the Magistrate referred to in
section 193 as part of the documents referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (6) of that
section.
(7) Nothing in this section shall be construed as rendering lawful any examination
without the consent of the woman or of any person competent to give such consent on her
behalf.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "examination" and "registered
medical practitioner" shall have the same meanings as respectively assigned to them in
section 51.
185. (1) Whenever an officer in charge of a police station or a police officer making an
investigation has reasonable grounds for believing that anything necessary for the purposes
of an investigation into any offence which he is authorised to investigate may be found in
any place within the limits of the police station of which he is in charge, or to which he is
attached, and that such thing cannot in his opinion be otherwise obtained without undue
delay, such officer may, after recording in writing the grounds of his belief in the case-diary
and specifying in such writing, so far as possible, the thing for which search is to be made,
search, or cause search to be made, for such thing in any place within the limits of such
station.
(2) A police officer proceeding under sub-section (1), shall, if practicable, conduct the
search in person:
Provided that the search conducted under this section shall be recorded through
audio-video electronic means preferably by mobile phone.
(3) If he is unable to conduct the search in person, and there is no other person
competent to make the search present at the time, he may, after recording in writing his
reasons for so doing, require any officer subordinate to him to make the search, and he shall
deliver to such subordinate officer an order in writing, specifying the place to be searched,
and so far as possible, the thing for which search is to be made; and such subordinate
officer may thereupon search for such thing in such place.
Search by
police officer.
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(4) The provisions of this Sanhita as to search-warrants and the general provisions as
to searches contained in section 103 shall, so far as may be, apply to a search made under
this section.
(5) Copies of any record made under sub-section (1) or sub-section (3) shall forthwith,
but not later than forty-eight hours, be sent to the nearest Magistrate empowered to take
cognizance of the offence, and the owner or occupier of the place searched shall, on
application, be furnished, free of cost, with a copy of the same by the Magistrate.
186. (1) An officer in charge of a police station or a police officer not being below the
rank of sub-inspector making an investigation may require an officer in charge of another
police station, whether in the same or a different district, to cause a search to be made in any
place, in any case in which the former officer might cause such search to be made, within the
limits of his own station.
(2) Such officer, on being so required, shall proceed according to the provisions of
section 185, and shall forward the thing found, if any, to the officer at whose request the
search was made.
(3) Whenever there is reason to believe that the delay occasioned by requiring an
officer in charge of another police station to cause a search to be made under
sub-section (1) might result in evidence of the commission of an offence being concealed or
destroyed, it shall be lawful for an officer in charge of a police station or a police officer
making any investigation under this Chapter to search, or cause to be searched, any place
in the limits of another police station in accordance with the provisions of section 185, as if
such place were within the limits of his own police station.
(4) Any officer conducting a search under sub-section (3) shall forthwith send notice
of the search to the officer in charge of the police station within the limits of which such
place is situate, and shall also send with such notice a copy of the list (if any) prepared
under section 103, and shall also send to the nearest Magistrate empowered to take
cognizance of the offence, copies of the records referred to in sub-sections (1) and (3) of
section 185.
(5) The owner or occupier of the place searched shall, on application, be furnished
free of cost with a copy of any record sent to the Magistrate under sub-section (4).
187. (1) Whenever any person is arrested and detained in custody, and it appears
that the investigation cannot be completed within the period of twenty-four hours fixed by
section 58, and there are grounds for believing that the accusation or information is
well-founded, the officer in charge of the police station or the police officer making the
investigation, if he is not below the rank of sub-inspector, shall forthwith transmit to the
nearest Magistrate a copy of the entries in the diary hereinafter specified relating to the
case, and shall at the same time forward the accused to such Magistrate.
(2) The Magistrate to whom an accused person is forwarded under this section may,
irrespective of whether he has or has no jurisdiction to try the case, after taking into
consideration whether such person has not been released on bail or his bail has been
cancelled, authorise, from time to time, the detention of the accused in such custody as
such Magistrate thinks fit, for a term not exceeding fifteen days in the whole, or in parts, at
any time during the initial forty days or sixty days out of detention period of sixty days or
ninety days, as the case may be, as provided in sub-section (3), and if he has no jurisdiction
to try the case or commit it for trial, and considers further detention unnecessary, he may
order the accused to be forwarded to a Magistrate having such jurisdiction.
(3) The Magistrate may authorise the detention of the accused person, beyond the
period of fifteen days, if he is satisfied that adequate grounds exist for doing so, but no
Magistrate shall authorise the detention of the accused person in custody under this
sub-section for a total period exceeding—
When officer
in charge of
police station
may require
another to
issue search-
warrant.
Procedure
when
investigation
cannot be
completed in
twenty-four
hours.
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(i) ninety days, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with
death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more;
(ii) sixty days, where the investigation relates to any other offence,
and, on the expiry of the said period of ninety days, or sixty days, as the case may be, the
accused person shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail, and every
person released on bail under this sub-section shall be deemed to be so released under the
provisions of Chapter XXXV for the purposes of that Chapter.
(4) No Magistrate shall authorise detention of the accused in custody of the police
under this section unless the accused is produced before him in person for the first time and
subsequently every time till the accused remains in the custody of the police, but the
Magistrate may extend further detention in judicial custody on production of the accused
either in person or through the audio-video electronic means.
(5) No Magistrate of the second class, not specially empowered in this behalf by the
High Court, shall authorise detention in the custody of the police.
Explanation I.—For the avoidance of doubts, it is hereby declared that,
notwithstanding the expiry of the period specified in sub-section (3), the accused shall be
detained in custody so long as he does not furnish bail.
Explanation II.—If any question arises whether an accused person was produced
before the Magistrate as required under sub-section (4), the production of the accused
person may be proved by his signature on the order authorising detention or by the order
certified by the Magistrate as to production of the accused person through the audio-video
electronic means, as the case may be:
Provided that in case of a woman under eighteen years of age, the detention shall be
authorised to be in the custody of a remand home or recognised social institution:
Provided further that no person shall be detained otherwise than in police station
under police custody or in prison under judicial custody or a place declared as prison by the
Central Government or the State Government.
(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1) to sub-section (5), the
officer in charge of the police station or the police officer making the investigation, if he is
not below the rank of a sub-inspector, may, where a Magistrate is not available, transmit to
the nearest Executive Magistrate, on whom the powers of a Magistrate have been conferred,
a copy of the entry in the diary hereinafter specified relating to the case, and shall, at the
same time, forward the accused to such Executive Magistrate, and thereupon such Executive
Magistrate, may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, authorise the detention of the
accused person in such custody as he may think fit for a term not exceeding seven days in
the aggregate; and, on the expiry of the period of detention so authorised, the accused
person shall be released on bail except where an order for further detention of the accused
person has been made by a Magistrate competent to make such order; and, where an order
for such further detention is made, the period during which the accused person was detained
in custody under the orders made by an Executive Magistrate under this sub-section, shall
be taken into account in computing the period specified in sub-section (3):
Provided that before the expiry of the period aforesaid, the Executive Magistrate shall
transmit to the nearest Judicial Magistrate the records of the case together with a copy of
the entries in the diary relating to the case which was transmitted to him by the officer in
charge of the police station or the police officer making the investigation, as the case may
be.
(7) A Magistrate authorising under this section detention in the custody of the police
shall record his reasons for so doing.
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(8) Any Magistrate other than the Chief Judicial Magistrate making such order shall
forward a copy of his order, with his reasons for making it, to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(9) If in any case triable by a Magistrate as a summons-case, the investigation is not
concluded within a period of six months from the date on which the accused was arrested,
the Magistrate shall make an order stopping further investigation into the offence unless
the officer making the investigation satisfies the Magistrate that for special reasons and in
the interests of justice the continuation of the investigation beyond the period of six
months is necessary.
(10) Where any order stopping further investigation into an offence has been made
under sub-section (9), the Sessions Judge may, if he is satisfied, on an application made to
him or otherwise, that further investigation into the offence ought to be made, vacate the
order made under sub-section (9) and direct further investigation to be made into the
offence subject to such directions with regard to bail and other matters as he may specify.
188. When any subordinate police officer has made any investigation under this
Chapter, he shall report the result of such investigation to the officer in charge of the police
station.
189. If, upon an investigation under this Chapter, it appears to the officer in charge of
the police station that there is not sufficient evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion to
justify the forwarding of the accused to a Magistrate, such officer shall, if such person is in
custody, release him on his executing a bond or bail bond, as such officer may direct, to
appear, if and when so required, before a Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the
offence on a police report, and to try the accused or commit him for trial.
190. (1) If, upon an investigation under this Chapter, it appears to the officer in charge
of the police station that there is sufficient evidence or reasonable ground as aforesaid,
such officer shall forward the accused under custody to a Magistrate empowered to take
cognizance of the offence upon a police report and to try the accused or commit him for trial,
or, if the offence is bailable and the accused is able to give security, shall take security from
him for his appearance before such Magistrate on a day fixed and for his attendance from
day to day before such Magistrate until otherwise directed:
Provided that if the accused is not in custody, the police officer shall take security
from such person for his appearance before the Magistrate and the Magistrate to whom
such report is forwarded shall not refuse to accept the same on the ground that the accused
is not taken in custody.
(2) When the officer in charge of a police station forwards an accused person to a
Magistrate or takes security for his appearance before such Magistrate under this section,
he shall send to such Magistrate any weapon or other article which it may be necessary to
produce before him, and shall require the complainant (if any) and so many of the persons
who appear to such officer to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case as
he may think necessary, to execute a bond to appear before the Magistrate as thereby
directed and prosecute or give evidence (as the case may be) in the matter of the charge
against the accused.
(3) If the Court of the Chief Judicial Magistrate is mentioned in the bond, such Court
shall be held to include any Court to which such Magistrate may refer the case for inquiry
or trial, provided reasonable notice of such reference is given to such complainant or
persons.
(4) The officer in whose presence the bond is executed shall deliver a copy thereof to
one of the persons who executed it, and shall then send to the Magistrate the original with
his report.
Report of
investigation
by subordinate
police officer.
Release of
accused when
evidence
deficient.
Cases to be
sent to
Magistrate,
when evidence
is sufficient.
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191. No complainant or witness on his way to any Court shall be required to accompany
a police officer, or shall be subjected to unnecessary restraint or inconvenience, or required
to give any security for his appearance other than his own bond:
Provided that if any complainant or witness refuses to attend or to execute a bond as
directed in section 190, the officer in charge of the police station may forward him in
custody to the Magistrate, who may detain him in custody until he executes such bond, or
until the hearing of the case is completed.
192. (1) Every police officer making an investigation under this Chapter shall day by
day enter his proceedings in the investigation in a diary, setting forth the time at which the
information reached him, the time at which he began and closed his investigation, the place
or places visited by him, and a statement of the circumstances ascertained through his
investigation.
(2) The statements of witnesses recorded during the course of investigation under
section 180 shall be inserted in the case diary.
(3) The diary referred to in sub-section (1) shall be a volume and duly paginated.
(4) Any Criminal Court may send for the police diaries of a case under inquiry or trial
in such Court, and may use such diaries, not as evidence in the case, but to aid it in such
inquiry or trial.
(5) Neither the accused nor his agents shall be entitled to call for such diaries, nor
shall he or they be entitled to see them merely because they are referred to by the Court; but,
if they are used by the police officer who made them to refresh his memory, or if the Court
uses them for the purpose of contradicting such police officer, the provisions of section 148
or section 164, as the case may be, of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, shall apply.
193. (1) Every investigation under this Chapter shall be completed without
unnecessary delay.
(2) The investigation in relation to an offence under sections 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 70, 71
of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or under sections 4, 6, 8 or section 10 of the Protection
of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 shall be completed within two months from the
date on which the information was recorded by the officer in charge of the police station.
(3) (i) As soon as the investigation is completed, the officer in charge of the police
station shall forward, including through electronic communication to a Magistrate empowered
to take cognizance of the offence on a police report, a report in the form as the State
Government may, by rules provide, stating—
(a) the names of the parties;
(b) the nature of the information;
(c) the names of the persons who appear to be acquainted with the circumstances
of the case;
(d) whether any offence appears to have been committed and, if so, by whom;
(e) whether the accused has been arrested;
(f) whether the accused has been released on his bond or bail bond;
(g) whether the accused has been forwarded in custody under section 190;
(h) whether the report of medical examination of the woman has been attached
where investigation relates to an offence under sections 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 70 or
section 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(i) the sequence of custody in case of electronic device;
Complainant
and witnesses
not to be
required to
accompany
police officer
and not to be
subject to
restraint.
Diary of
proceedings in
investigation.
Report of
police officer
on completion
of
investigation.
32 of 2012.
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(ii) the police officer shall, within a period of ninety days, inform the progress of the
investigation by any means including through electronic communication to the informant
or the victim;
(iii) the officer shall also communicate, in such manner as the State Government may,
by rules, provide, the action taken by him, to the person, if any, by whom the information
relating to the commission of the offence was first given.
(4) Where a superior officer of police has been appointed under section 177, the
report shall, in any case in which the State Government by general or special order so
directs, be submitted through that officer, and he may, pending the orders of the Magistrate,
direct the officer in charge of the police station to make further investigation.
(5) Whenever it appears from a report forwarded under this section that the accused
has been released on his bond or bail bond, the Magistrate shall make such order for the
discharge of such bond or bail bond or otherwise as he thinks fit.
(6) When such report is in respect of a case to which section 190 applies, the police
officer shall forward to the Magistrate along with the report—
(a) all documents or relevant extracts thereof on which the prosecution proposes
to rely other than those already sent to the Magistrate during investigation;
(b) the statements recorded under section 180 of all the persons whom the
prosecution proposes to examine as its witnesses.
(7) If the police officer is of opinion that any part of any such statement is not relevant
to the subject matter of the proceedings or that its disclosure to the accused is not essential
in the interests of justice and is inexpedient in the public interest, he shall indicate that part
of the statement and append a note requesting the Magistrate to exclude that part from the
copies to be granted to the accused and stating his reasons for making such request.
(8) Subject to the provisions contained in sub-section (7), the police officer
investigating the case shall also submit such number of copies of the police report along
with other documents duly indexed to the Magistrate for supply to the accused as required
under section 230:
Provided that supply of report and other documents by electronic communication
shall be considered as duly served.
(9) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to preclude further investigation in respect
of an offence after a report under sub-section (3) has been forwarded to the Magistrate and,
where upon such investigation, the officer in charge of the police station obtains further
evidence, oral or documentary, he shall forward to the Magistrate a further report or reports
regarding such evidence in the form as the State Government may, by rules, provide; and
the provisions of sub-sections (3) to (8) shall, as far as may be, apply in relation to such
report or reports as they apply in relation to a report forwarded under sub-section (3):
Provided that further investigation during the trial may be conducted with the
permission of the Court trying the case and the same shall be completed within a period of
ninety days which may be extended with the permission of the Court.
194. (1) When the officer in charge of a police station or some other police officer
specially empowered by the State Government in that behalf receives information that a
person has committed suicide, or has been killed by another or by an animal or by machinery
or by an accident, or has died under circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that
some other person has committed an offence, he shall immediately give intimation thereof
to the nearest Executive Magistrate empowered to hold inquests, and, unless otherwise
directed by any rule made by the State Government, or by any general or special order of the
District or Sub-divisional Magistrate, shall proceed to the place where the body of such
deceased person is, and there, in the presence of two or more respectable inhabitants of the
Police to
enquire and
report on
suicide, etc.
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neighbourhood, shall make an investigation, and draw up a report of the apparent cause of
death, describing such wounds, fractures, bruises, and other marks of injury as may be
found on the body, and stating in what manner, or by what weapon or instrument
(if any), such marks appear to have been inflicted.
(2) The report shall be signed by such police officer and other persons, or by so many
of them as concur therein, and shall be forwarded to the District Magistrate or the
Sub-divisional Magistrate within twenty-four hours.
(3) When—
(i) the case involves suicide by a woman within seven years of her marriage; or
(ii) the case relates to the death of a woman within seven years of her marriage
in any circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that some other person committed
an offence in relation to such woman; or
(iii) the case relates to the death of a woman within seven years of her marriage
and any relative of the woman has made a request in this behalf; or
(iv) there is any doubt regarding the cause of death; or
(v) the police officer for any other reason considers it expedient so to do,
he shall, subject to such rules as the State Government may prescribe in this behalf, forward
the body, with a view to its being examined, to the nearest Civil Surgeon, or other qualified
medical person appointed in this behalf by the State Government, if the state of the weather
and the distance admit of its being so forwarded without risk of such putrefaction on the
road as would render such examination useless.
(4) The following Magistrates are empowered to hold inquests, namely, any District
Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate and any other Executive Magistrate specially
empowered in this behalf by the State Government or the District Magistrate.
195. (1) A police officer proceeding under section 194 may, by order in writing, summon
two or more persons as aforesaid for the purpose of the said investigation, and any other
person who appears to be acquainted with the facts of the case and every person so
summoned shall be bound to attend and to answer truly all questions other than questions
the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge or to a
penalty or forfeiture:
Provided that no male person under the age of fifteen years or above the age of sixty
years or a woman or a mentally or physically disabled person or a person with acute illness
shall be required to attend at any place other than the place where such person resides:
Provided further that if such person is willing to attend and answer at the police
station, such person may be permitted so to do.
(2) If the facts do not disclose a cognizable offence to which section 190 applies, such
persons shall not be required by the police officer to attend a Magistrate's Court.
196. (1) When the case is of the nature referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii) of
sub-section (3) of section 194, the nearest Magistrate empowered to hold inquests shall,
and in any other case mentioned in sub-section (1) of section 194, any Magistrate so
empowered may hold an inquiry into the cause of death either instead of, or in addition to,
the investigation held by the police officer; and if he does so, he shall have all the powers
in conducting it which he would have in holding an inquiry into an offence.
(2) Where,—
(a) any person dies or disappears; or
(b) rape is alleged to have been committed on any woman,
while such person or woman is in the custody of the police or in any other custody authorised
Power to
summon
persons.
Inquiry by
Magistrate
into cause of
death.
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by the Magistrate or the Court, under this Sanhita in addition to the inquiry or investigation
held by the police, an inquiry shall be held by the Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction
the offence has been committed.
(3) The Magistrate holding such an inquiry shall record the evidence taken by him in
connection therewith in any manner hereinafter specified according to the circumstances of
the case.
(4) Whenever such Magistrate considers it expedient to make an examination of the
dead body of any person who has been already interred, in order to discover the cause of
his death, the Magistrate may cause the body to be disinterred and examined.
(5) Where an inquiry is to be held under this section, the Magistrate shall, wherever
practicable, inform the relatives of the deceased whose names and addresses are known,
and shall allow them to remain present at the inquiry.
(6) The Magistrate or the Executive Magistrate or the police officer holding an inquiry
or investigation under sub-section (2) shall, within twenty-four hours of the death of a
person, forward the body with a view to its being examined to the nearest Civil Surgeon or
other qualified medical person appointed in this behalf by the State Government, unless it
is not possible to do so for reasons to be recorded in writing.
Explanation.—In this section, the expression "relative" means parents, children,
brothers, sisters and spouse.
CHAPTER XIV
JURISDICTION OF THE CRIMINAL COURTS IN INQUIRIES AND TRIALS
197. Every offence shall ordinarily be inquired into and tried by a Court within whose
local jurisdiction it was committed.
198. (a) When it is uncertain in which of several local areas an offence was
committed; or
(b) where an offence is committed partly in one local area and partly in another; or
(c) where an offence is a continuing one, and continues to be committed in more local
areas than one; or
(d) where it consists of several acts done in different local areas,
it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas.
199. When an act is an offence by reason of anything which has been done and of a
consequence which has ensued, the offence may be inquired into or tried by a Court within
whose local jurisdiction such thing has been done or such consequence has ensued.
200. When an act is an offence by reason of its relation to any other act which is also
an offence or which would be an offence if the doer were capable of committing an offence,
the first-mentioned offence may be inquired into or tried by a Court within whose local
jurisdiction either act was done.
201. (1) Any offence of dacoity, or of dacoity with murder, of belonging to a gang of
dacoits, or of escaping from custody, may be inquired into or tried by a Court within whose
local jurisdiction the offence was committed or the accused person is found.
(2) Any offence of kidnapping or abduction of a person may be inquired into or tried
by a Court within whose local jurisdiction the person was kidnapped or abducted or was
conveyed or concealed or detained.
(3) Any offence of theft, extortion or robbery may be inquired into or tried by a Court
within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed or the stolen property which is
Ordinary place
of inquiry and
trial.
Place of
inquiry or
trial.
Offence
triable where
act is done or
consequence
ensues.
Place of trial
where act is an
offence by
reason of
relation to
other offence.
Place of trial
in case of
certain
offences.
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the subject of the offence was possessed by any person committing it or by any person
who received or retained such property knowing or having reason to believe it to be stolen
property.
(4) Any offence of criminal misappropriation or of criminal breach of trust may be
inquired into or tried by a Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed
or any part of the property which is the subject of the offence was received or retained, or
was required to be returned or accounted for, by the accused person.
(5) Any offence which includes the possession of stolen property may be inquired
into or tried by a Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed or the
stolen property was possessed by any person who received or retained it knowing or
having reason to believe it to be stolen property.
202. (1) Any offence which includes cheating, may, if the deception is practised by
means of electronic communications or letters or telecommunication messages, be inquired
into or tried by any Court within whose local jurisdiction such electronic communications
or letters or messages were sent or were received; and any offence of cheating and
dishonestly inducing delivery of property may be inquired into or tried by a Court within
whose local jurisdiction the property was delivered by the person deceived or was received
by the accused person.
(2) Any offence punishable under section 82 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
may be inquired into or tried by a Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was
committed or the offender last resided with his or her spouse by the first marriage, or the wife
by the first marriage has taken up permanent residence after the commission of the offence.
203. When an offence is committed whilst the person by or against whom, or the
thing in respect of which, the offence is committed is in the course of performing a journey
or voyage, the offence may be inquired into or tried by a Court through or into whose local
jurisdiction that person or thing passed in the course of that journey or voyage.
204. Where—
(a) the offences committed by any person are such that he may be charged
with, and tried at one trial for, each such offence by virtue of the provisions of
section 242, section 243 or section 244; or
(b) the offence or offences committed by several persons are such that they
may be charged with and tried together by virtue of the provisions of section 246,
the offences may be inquired into or tried by any Court competent to inquire into or try any
of the offences.
205. Notwithstanding anything contained in the preceding provisions of this Chapter,
the State Government may direct that any case or class of cases committed for trial in any
district may be tried in any sessions division:
Provided that such direction is not repugnant to any direction previously issued by
the High Court or the Supreme Court under the Constitution, or under this Sanhita or any
other law for the time being in force.
206. Where two or more Courts have taken cognizance of the same offence and a
question arises as to which of them ought to inquire into or try that offence, the question
shall be decided—
(a) if the Courts are subordinate to the same High Court, by that High Court;
(b) if the Courts are not subordinate to the same High Court, by the High Court
within the local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were
first commenced,
and thereupon all other proceedings in respect of that offence shall be discontinued.
Offences
committed by
means of
electronic
communications,
letters, etc.
Offence
committed on
journey or
voyage.
Place of trial
for offences
triable
together.
Power to
order cases to
be tried in
different
sessions
divisions.
High Court to
decide, in case
of doubt,
district where
inquiry or trial
shall take
place.
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207. (1) When a Magistrate of the first class sees reason to believe that any person
within his local jurisdiction has committed outside such jurisdiction (whether within or
outside India) an offence which cannot, under the provisions of sections 197 to 205 (both
inclusive), or any other law for the time being in force, be inquired into or tried within such
jurisdiction but is under any law for the time being in force triable in India, such Magistrate
may inquire into the offence as if it had been committed within such local jurisdiction and
compel such person in the manner hereinbefore provided to appear before him, and send
such person to the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try such offence, or, if
such offence is not punishable with death or imprisonment for life and such person is
ready and willing to give bail to the satisfaction of the Magistrate acting under this
section, take a bond or bail bond for his appearance before the Magistrate having such
jurisdiction.
(2) When there are more Magistrates than one having such jurisdiction and the
Magistrate acting under this section cannot satisfy himself as to the Magistrate to or before
whom such person should be sent or bound to appear, the case shall be reported for the
orders of the High Court.
208. When an offence is committed outside India—
(a) by a citizen of India, whether on the high seas or elsewhere; or
(b) by a person, not being such citizen, on any ship or aircraft registered in
India,
he may be dealt with in respect of such offence as if it had been committed at any place
within India at which he may be found or where the offence is registered in India:
Provided that notwithstanding anything in any of the preceding sections of this
Chapter, no such offence shall be inquired into or tried in India except with the previous
sanction of the Central Government.
209.When any offence alleged to have been committed in a territory outside India is
being inquired into or tried under the provisions of section 208, the Central Government
may, if it thinks fit, direct that copies of depositions made or exhibits produced, either in
physical form or in electronic form, before a judicial officer, in or for that territory or before
a diplomatic or consular representative of India in or for that territory shall be received as
evidence by the Court holding such inquiry or trial in any case in which such Court might
issue a commission for taking evidence as to the matters to which such depositions or
exhibits relate.
CHAPTER XV
CONDITIONS REQUISITE FOR INITIATION OF PROCEEDINGS
210.(1) Subject to the provisions of this Chapter, any Magistrate of the first class,
and any Magistrate of the second class specially empowered in this behalf under
sub-section (2), may take cognizance of any offence—
(a) upon receiving a complaint of facts, including any complaint filed by a
person authorised under any special law, which constitutes such offence;
(b) upon a police report (submitted in any mode including electronic mode) of
such facts;
(c) upon information received from any person other than a police officer, or
upon his own knowledge, that such offence has been committed.
(2) The Chief Judicial Magistrate may empower any Magistrate of the second class to
take cognizance under sub-section (1) of such offences as are within his competence to
inquire into or try.
Power to issue
summons or
warrant for
offence
committed
beyond local
jurisdiction.
Offence
committed
outside India.
Receipt of
evidence
relating to
offences
committed
outside India.
Cognizance of
offences by
Magistrate.
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211. When a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of
sub-section (1) of section 210, the accused shall, before any evidence is taken, be informed
that he is entitled to have the case inquired into or tried by another Magistrate, and if the
accused or any of the accused, if there be more than one, objects to further proceedings
before the Magistrate taking cognizance, the case shall be transferred to such other Magistrate
as may be specified by the Chief Judicial Magistrate in this behalf.
212. (1) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate may, after taking cognizance of an offence,
make over the case for inquiry or trial to any competent Magistrate subordinate to him.
(2) Any Magistrate of the first class empowered in this behalf by the Chief Judicial
Magistrate may, after taking cognizance of an offence, make over the case for inquiry or trial
to such other competent Magistrate as the Chief Judicial Magistrate may, by general or
special order, specify, and thereupon such Magistrate may hold the inquiry or trial.
213. Except as otherwise expressly provided by this Sanhita or by any other law for
the time being in force, no Court of Session shall take cognizance of any offence as a Court
of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a Magistrate under this
Sanhita.
214. An Additional Sessions Judge shall try such cases as the Sessions Judge of the
division may, by general or special order, make over to him for trial or as the High Court may,
by special order, direct him to try.
215. (1) No Court shall take cognizance—
(a) (i) of any offence punishable under sections 206 to 223 (both inclusive but
excluding section 209) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; or
(ii) of any abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence; or
(iii) of any criminal conspiracy to commit such offence,
except on the complaint in writing of the public servant concerned or of some other public
servant to whom he is administratively subordinate or of some other public servant who is
authorised by the concerned public servant so to do;
(b) (i) of any offence punishable under any of the following sections of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, namely, sections 229 to 233 (both inclusive), 236, 237,
242 to 248 (both inclusive) and 267, when such offence is alleged to have been
committed in, or in relation to, any proceeding in any Court; or
(ii) of any offence described in sub-section (1) of section 336, or punishable
under sub-section (2) of section 340 or section 342 of the said Sanhita, when such
offence is alleged to have been committed in respect of a document produced or
given in evidence in a proceeding in any Court; or
(iii) of any criminal conspiracy to commit, or attempt to commit, or the abetment
of, any offence specified in sub-clause (i) or sub-clause (ii),
except on the complaint in writing of that Court or by such officer of the Court as that Court
may authorise in writing in this behalf, or of some other Court to which that Court is
subordinate.
Transfer on
application of
accused.
Making over
of cases to
Magistrates.
Cognizance of
offences by
Court of
Session.
Additional
Sessions Judges
to try cases
made over to
them.
Prosecution
for contempt
of lawful
authority of
public
servants, for
offences
against public
justice and for
offences
relating to
documents
given in
evidence.
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(2) Where a complaint has been made by a public servant or by some other public
servant who has been authorised to do so by him under clause (a) of sub-section (1), any
authority to which he is administratively subordinate or who has authorised such public
servant, may, order the withdrawal of the complaint and send a copy of such order to the
Court; and upon its receipt by the Court, no further proceedings shall be taken on the
complaint:
Provided that no such withdrawal shall be ordered if the trial in the Court of first
instance has been concluded.
(3) In clause (b) of sub-section (1), the term "Court" means a Civil, Revenue or
Criminal Court, and includes a tribunal constituted by or under a Central or State Act if
declared by that Act to be a Court for the purposes of this section.
(4) For the purposes of clause (b) of sub-section (1), a Court shall be deemed to be
subordinate to the Court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the appealable decrees or
sentences of such former Court, or in the case of a Civil Court from whose decrees no appeal
ordinarily lies, to the Principal Court having ordinary original civil jurisdiction within whose
local jurisdiction such Civil Court is situate:
Provided that—
(a) where appeals lie to more than one Court, the Appellate Court of inferior
jurisdiction shall be the Court to which such Court shall be deemed to be subordinate;
(b) where appeals lie to a Civil and also to a Revenue Court, such Court shall be
deemed to be subordinate to the Civil or Revenue Court according to the nature of the
case or proceeding in connection with which the offence is alleged to have been
committed.
216. A witness or any other person may file a complaint in relation to an offence
under section 232 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
217. (1) No Court shall take cognizance of—
(a) any offence punishable under Chapter VII or under section 196, section 299
or sub-section (1) of section 353 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; or
(b) a criminal conspiracy to commit such offence; or
(c) any such abetment, as is described in section 47 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023,
except with the previous sanction of the Central Government or of the State Government.
(2) No Court shall take cognizance of—
(a) any offence punishable under section 197 or sub-section (2) or
sub-section (3) of section 353 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; or
(b) a criminal conspiracy to commit such offence,
except with the previous sanction of the Central Government or of the State Government or
of the District Magistrate.
(3) No Court shall take cognizance of the offence of any criminal conspiracy punishable
under sub-section (2) of section 61 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, other than a
criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, unless the State Government or
the District Magistrate has consented in writing to the initiation of the proceedings:
Procedure for
witnesses in
case of
threatening,
etc.
Prosecution
for offences
against State
and for
criminal
conspiracy to
commit such
offence.
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Provided that where the criminal conspiracy is one to which the provisions of
section 215 apply, no such consent shall be necessary.
(4) The Central Government or the State Government may, before according sanction
under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) and the District Magistrate may, before according
sanction under sub-section (2) and the State Government or the District Magistrate may,
before giving consent under sub-section (3), order a preliminary investigation by a police
officer not being below the rank of Inspector, in which case such police officer shall have
the powers referred to in sub-section (3) of section 174.
218. (1) When any person who is or was a Judge or Magistrate or a public servant not
removable from his office save by or with the sanction of the Government is accused of any
offence alleged to have been committed by him while acting or purporting to act in the
discharge of his official duty, no Court shall take cognizance of such offence except with the
previous sanction save as otherwise provided in the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013—
(a) in the case of a person who is employed or, as the case may be, was at the
time of commission of the alleged offence employed, in connection with the affairs of
the Union, of the Central Government;
(b) in the case of a person who is employed or, as the case may be, was at the
time of commission of the alleged offence employed, in connection with the affairs of
a State, of the State Government:
Provided that where the alleged offence was committed by a person referred to in
clause (b) during the period while a Proclamation issued under clause (1) of article 356 of the
Constitution was in force in a State, clause (b) will apply as if for the expression "State
Government" occurring therein, the expression "Central Government" were substituted:
Provided further that such Government shall take a decision within a period of one
hundred and twenty days from the date of the receipt of the request for sanction and in case
it fails to do so, the sanction shall be deemed to have been accorded by such Government:
Provided also that no sanction shall be required in case of a public servant accused of
any offence alleged to have been committed under section 64, section 65, section 66,
section 68, section 69, section 70, section 71, section 74, section 75, section 76, section 77,
section 78, section 79, section 143, section 199 or section 200 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
(2) No Court shall take cognizance of any offence alleged to have been committed by
any member of the Armed Forces of the Union while acting or purporting to act in the
discharge of his official duty, except with the previous sanction of the Central Government.
(3) The State Government may, by notification, direct that the provisions of
sub-section (2) shall apply to such class or category of the members of the Forces charged
with the maintenance of public order as may be specified therein, wherever they may be
serving, and thereupon the provisions of that sub-section will apply as if for the expression
"Central Government" occurring therein, the expression "State Government" were
substituted.
(4) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (3), no Court shall take
cognizance of any offence, alleged to have been committed by any member of the Forces
charged with the maintenance of public order in a State while acting or purporting to act in
the discharge of his official duty during the period while a Proclamation issued under
clause (1) of article 356 of the Constitution was in force therein, except with the previous
sanction of the Central Government.
(5) The Central Government or the State Government, may determine the person by
whom, the manner in which, and the offence or offences for which, the prosecution of such
Judge, Magistrate or public servant is to be conducted, and may specify the Court before
which the trial is to be held.
Prosecution of
Judges and
public
servants.
1 of 2014.
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219. (1) No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under sections 81 to
84 (both inclusive) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 except upon a complaint made by
some person aggrieved by the offence:
Provided that—
(a) where such person is a child, or is of unsound mind or is having intellectual
disability requiring higher support needs, or is from sickness or infirmity unable to
make a complaint, or is a woman who, according to the local customs and manners,
ought not to be compelled to appear in public, some other person may, with the leave
of the Court, make a complaint on his or her behalf;
(b) where such person is the husband and he is serving in any of the Armed
Forces of the Union under conditions which are certified by his Commanding Officer
as precluding him from obtaining leave of absence to enable him to make a complaint
in person, some other person authorised by the husband in accordance with the
provisions of sub-section (4) may make a complaint on his behalf;
(c) where the person aggrieved by an offence punishable under section 82 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is the wife, complaint may be made on her behalf
by her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father's or mother's
brother or sister, or, with the leave of the Court, by any other person related to her by
blood, marriage or adoption.
(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), no person other than the husband of the
woman shall be deemed to be aggrieved by any offence punishable under section 84 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(3) When in any case falling under clause (a) of the proviso to sub-section (1), the
complaint is sought to be made on behalf of a child or of a person of unsound mind by a
person who has not been appointed or declared by a competent authority to be the guardian
of the child, or of the person of unsound mind, and the Court is satisfied that there is a
guardian so appointed or declared, the Court shall, before granting the application for
leave, cause notice to be given to such guardian and give him a reasonable opportunity of
being heard.
(4) The authorisation referred to in clause (b) of the proviso to sub-section (1), shall
be in writing, shall be signed or otherwise attested by the husband, shall contain a statement
to the effect that he has been informed of the allegations upon which the complaint is to be
founded, shall be countersigned by his Commanding Officer, and shall be accompanied by
a certificate signed by that Officer to the effect that leave of absence for the purpose of
making a complaint in person cannot for the time being be granted to the husband.
(5) Any document purporting to be such an authorisation and complying with the
provisions of sub-section (4), and any document purporting to be a certificate required by
that sub-section shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed to be genuine and shall
be received in evidence.
(6) No Court shall take cognizance of an offence under section 64 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where such offence consists of sexual intercourse by a man with his
own wife, the wife being under eighteen years of age, if more than one year has elapsed from
the date of the commission of the offence.
Prosecution
for offences
against
marriage.
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(7) The provisions of this section apply to the abetment of, or attempt to commit, an
offence as they apply to the offence.
220. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under section 85 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 except upon a police report of facts which constitute such
offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father,
mother, brother, sister or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or, with the leave of the
Court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.
221. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under section 67 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 where the persons are in a marital relationship, except upon
prima facie satisfaction of the facts which constitute the offence upon a complaint having
been filed or made by the wife against the husband.
222. (1) No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under section 356 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 except upon a complaint made by some person aggrieved
by the offence:
Provided that where such person is a child, or is of unsound mind or is having
intellectual disability or is from sickness or infirmity unable to make a complaint, or is a
woman who, according to the local customs and manners, ought not to be compelled to
appear in public, some other person may, with the leave of the Court, make a complaint on
his or her behalf.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Sanhita, when any offence falling
under section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is alleged to have been committed
against a person who, at the time of such commission, is the President of India, the
Vice-President of India, the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union territory or a
Minister of the Union or of a State or of a Union territory, or any other public servant
employed in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State in respect of his conduct
in the discharge of his public functions, a Court of Session may take cognizance of such
offence, without the case being committed to it, upon a complaint in writing made by the
Public Prosecutor.
(3) Every complaint referred to in sub-section (2) shall set forth the facts which
constitute the offence alleged, the nature of such offence and such other particulars as are
reasonably sufficient to give notice to the accused of the offence alleged to have been
committed by him.
(4) No complaint under sub-section (2) shall be made by the Public Prosecutor except
with the previous sanction—
(a) of the State Government,—
(i) in the case of a person who is or has been the Governor of that State or
a Minister of that Government;
(ii) in the case of any other public servant employed in connection with
the affairs of the State;
(b) of the Central Government, in any other case.
(5) No Court of Session shall take cognizance of an offence under sub-section (2)
unless the complaint is made within six months from the date on which the offence is alleged
to have been committed.
(6) Nothing in this section shall affect the right of the person against whom the
offence is alleged to have been committed, to make a complaint in respect of that offence
before a Magistrate having jurisdiction or the power of such Magistrate to take cognizance
of the offence upon such complaint.
Prosecution of
offences under
section 85 of
Bharatiya
Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
Cognizance of
offence.
Prosecution
for
defamation.
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CHAPTER XVI
COMPLAINTS TO MAGISTRATES
223. (1) A Magistrate having jurisdiction while taking cognizance of an offence on
complaint shall examine upon oath the complainant and the witnesses present, if any, and
the substance of such examination shall be reduced to writing and shall be signed by the
complainant and the witnesses, and also by the Magistrate:
Provided that no cognizance of an offence shall be taken by the Magistrate without
giving the accused an opportunity of being heard:
Provided further that when the complaint is made in writing, the Magistrate need not
examine the complainant and the witnesses—
(a) if a public servant acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official
duties or a Court has made the complaint; or
(b) if the Magistrate makes over the case for inquiry or trial to another Magistrate
under section 212:
Provided also that if the Magistrate makes over the case to another Magistrate under
section 212 after examining the complainant and the witnesses, the latter Magistrate need
not re-examine them.
(2) A Magistrate shall not take cognizance on a complaint against a public servant for
any offence alleged to have been committed in course of the discharge of his official
functions or duties unless—
(a) such public servant is given an opportunity to make assertions as to the
situation that led to the incident so alleged; and
(b) a report containing facts and circumstances of the incident from the officer
superior to such public servant is received.
224. If the complaint is made to a Magistrate who is not competent to take cognizance
of the offence, he shall,—
(a) if the complaint is in writing, return it for presentation to the proper Court
with an endorsement to that effect;
(b) if the complaint is not in writing, direct the complainant to the proper Court.
225. (1) Any Magistrate, on receipt of a complaint of an offence of which he is
authorised to take cognizance or which has been made over to him under section 212, may,
if he thinks fit, and shall, in a case where the accused is residing at a place beyond the area
in which he exercises his jurisdiction, postpone the issue of process against the accused,
and either inquire into the case himself or direct an investigation to be made by a police
officer or by such other person as he thinks fit, for the purpose of deciding whether or not
there is sufficient ground for proceeding:
Provided that no such direction for investigation shall be made,—
(a) where it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable
exclusively by the Court of Session; or
(b) where the complaint has not been made by a Court, unless the complainant
and the witnesses present (if any) have been examined on oath under section 223.
(2) In an inquiry under sub-section (1), the Magistrate may, if he thinks fit, take
evidence of witnesses on oath:
Provided that if it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable
exclusively by the Court of Session, he shall call upon the complainant to produce all his
witnesses and examine them on oath.
(3) If an investigation under sub-section (1) is made by a person not being a police
officer, he shall have for that investigation all the powers conferred by this Sanhita on an
officer in charge of a police station except the power to arrest without warrant.
Examination
of complainant.
Procedure by
Magistrate not
competent to
take
cognizance of
case.
Postponement
of issue of
process.
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226. If, after considering the statements on oath (if any) of the complainant and of the
witnesses and the result of the inquiry or investigation (if any) under section 225, the
Magistrate is of opinion that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding, he shall dismiss
the complaint, and in every such case he shall briefly record his reasons for so doing.
CHAPTER XVII
COMMENCEMENT OF PROCEEDINGS BEFORE MAGISTRATES
227. (1) If in the opinion of a Magistrate taking cognizance of an offence there is
sufficient ground for proceeding, and the case appears to be—
(a) a summons-case, he shall issue summons to the accused for his
attendance; or
(b) a warrant-case, he may issue a warrant, or, if he thinks fit, a summons, for
causing the accused to be brought or to appear at a certain time before such Magistrate
or (if he has no jurisdiction himself) some other Magistrate having jurisdiction:
Provided that summons or warrants may also be issued through electronic means.
(2) No summons or warrant shall be issued against the accused under sub-section (1)
until a list of the prosecution witnesses has been filed.
(3) In a proceeding instituted upon a complaint made in writing, every summons or
warrant issued under sub-section (1) shall be accompanied by a copy of such complaint.
(4) When by any law for the time being in force any process-fees or other fees are
payable, no process shall be issued until the fees are paid and, if such fees are not paid
within a reasonable time, the Magistrate may dismiss the complaint.
(5) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to affect the provisions of section 90.
228. (1) Whenever a Magistrate issues a summons, he may, if he sees reason so to do,
dispense with the personal attendance of the accused and permit him to appear by his
advocate.
(2) But the Magistrate inquiring into or trying the case may, in his discretion, at any
stage of the proceedings, direct the personal attendance of the accused, and, if necessary,
enforce such attendance in the manner hereinbefore provided.
229. (1) If, in the opinion of a Magistrate taking cognizance of a petty offence, the
case may be summarily disposed of under section 283 or section 284, the Magistrate shall,
except where he is, for reasons to be recorded in writing of a contrary opinion, issue
summons to the accused requiring him either to appear in person or by an advocate before
the Magistrate on a specified date, or if he desires to plead guilty to the charge without
appearing before the Magistrate, to transmit before the specified date, by post or by
messenger to the Magistrate, the said plea in writing and the amount of fine specified in the
summons or if he desires to appear by an advocate and to plead guilty to the charge
through such advocate, to authorise, in writing, the advocate to plead guilty to the charge
on his behalf and to pay the fine through such advocate:
Provided that the amount of the fine specified in such summons shall not exceed five
thousand rupees.
(2) For the purposes of this section, "petty offence" means any offence punishable
only with fine not exceeding five thousand rupees, but does not include any offence so
punishable under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, or under any other law which provides for
convicting the accused person in his absence on a plea of guilty.
(3) The State Government may, by notification, specially empower any Magistrate to
exercise the powers conferred by sub-section (1) in relation to any offence which is
compoundable under section 359 or any offence punishable with imprisonment for a term
not exceeding three months, or with fine, or with both where the Magistrate is of opinion
that, having regard to the facts and circumstances of the case, the imposition of fine only
would meet the ends of justice.
Dismissal of
complaint.
Issue of
process.
Magistrate
may dispense
with personal
attendance of
accused.
Special
summons in
cases of petty
offence.
59 of 1988.
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230. In any case where the proceeding has been instituted on a police report, the
Magistrate shall without delay, and in no case beyond fourteen days from the date of
production or appearance of the accused, furnish to the accused and the victim (if represented
by an advocate) free of cost, a copy of each of the following:—
(i) the police report;
(ii) the first information report recorded under section 173;
(iii) the statements recorded under sub-section (3) of section 180 of all persons
whom the prosecution proposes to examine as its witnesses, excluding therefrom any
part in regard to which a request for such exclusion has been made by the police
officer under sub-section (7) of section 193;
(iv) the confessions and statements, if any, recorded under section 183;
(v) any other document or relevant extract thereof forwarded to the Magistrate
with the police report under sub-section (6) of section 193:
Provided that the Magistrate may, after perusing any such part of a statement as is
referred to in clause (iii) and considering the reasons given by the police officer for the
request, direct that a copy of that part of the statement or of such portion thereof as the
Magistrate thinks proper, shall be furnished to the accused:
Provided further that if the Magistrate is satisfied that any such document is
voluminous, he shall, instead of furnishing the accused and the victim (if represented by an
advocate) with a copy thereof, may furnish the copies through electronic means or direct
that he will only be allowed to inspect it either personally or through an advocate in Court:
Provided also that supply of documents in electronic form shall be considered as duly
furnished.
231. Where, in a case instituted otherwise than on a police report, it appears to the
Magistrate issuing process under section 227 that the offence is triable exclusively by the
Court of Session, the Magistrate shall forthwith furnish to the accused, free of cost, a copy
of each of the following:—
(i) the statements recorded under section 223 or section 225, of all persons
examined by the Magistrate;
(ii) the statements and confessions, if any, recorded under section 180 or
section 183;
(iii) any documents produced before the Magistrate on which the prosecution
proposes to rely:
Provided that if the Magistrate is satisfied that any such document is voluminous, he
shall, instead of furnishing the accused with a copy thereof, direct that he will only be
allowed to inspect it either personally or through an advocate in Court:
Provided further that supply of documents in electronic form shall be considered as
duly furnished.
232. When in a case instituted on a police report or otherwise, the accused appears or
is brought before the Magistrate and it appears to the Magistrate that the offence is triable
exclusively by the Court of Session, he shall—
(a) commit, after complying with the provisions of section 230 or section 231
the case to the Court of Session, and subject to the provisions of this Sanhita relating
to bail, remand the accused to custody until such commitment has been made;
(b) subject to the provisions of this Sanhita relating to bail, remand the accused
to custody during, and until the conclusion of, the trial;
(c) send to that Court the record of the case and the documents and articles, if
any, which are to be produced in evidence;
Supply to
accused of
copy of police
report and
other
documents.
Supply of
copies of
statements
and documents
to accused in
other cases
triable by
Court of
Session.
Commitment
of case to Court
of Session when
offence is
triable
exclusively by
it.
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(d) notify the Public Prosecutor of the commitment of the case to the Court of
Session:
Provided that the proceedings under this section shall be completed within a period
of ninety days from the date of taking cognizance, and such period may be extended by the
Magistrate for a period not exceeding one hundred and eighty days for the reasons to be
recorded in writing:
Provided further that any application filed before the Magistrate by the accused or
the victim or any person authorised by such person in a case triable by Court of Session,
shall be forwarded to the Court of Session with the committal of the case.
233. (1) When in a case instituted otherwise than on a police report (hereinafter
referred to as a complaint case), it is made to appear to the Magistrate, during the course of
the inquiry or trial held by him, that an investigation by the police is in progress in relation
to the offence which is the subject-matter of the inquiry or trial held by him, the Magistrate
shall stay the proceedings of such inquiry or trial and call for a report on the matter from the
police officer conducting the investigation.
(2) If a report is made by the investigating police officer under section 193 and on
such report cognizance of any offence is taken by the Magistrate against any person who
is an accused in the complaint case, the Magistrate shall inquire into or try together the
complaint case and the case arising out of the police report as if both the cases were
instituted on a police report.
(3) If the police report does not relate to any accused in the complaint case or if the
Magistrate does not take cognizance of any offence on the police report, he shall proceed
with the inquiry or trial, which was stayed by him, in accordance with the provisions of this
Sanhita.
CHAPTER XVIII
THE CHARGE
A.—Form of charges
234. (1) Every charge under this Sanhita shall state the offence with which the accused
is charged.
(2) If the law which creates the offence gives it any specific name, the offence may be
described in the charge by that name only.
(3) If the law which creates the offence does not give it any specific name, so much of
the definition of the offence must be stated as to give the accused notice of the matter with
which he is charged.
(4) The law and section of the law against which the offence is said to have been
committed shall be mentioned in the charge.
(5) The fact that the charge is made is equivalent to a statement that every legal
condition required by law to constitute the offence charged was fulfilled in the particular
case.
(6) The charge shall be written in the language of the Court.
(7) If the accused, having been previously convicted of any offence, is liable, by
reason of such previous conviction, to enhanced punishment, or to punishment of a different
kind, for a subsequent offence, and it is intended to prove such previous conviction for the
purpose of affecting the punishment which the Court may think fit, to award for the
subsequent offence, the fact, date and place of the previous conviction shall be stated in
the charge; and if such statement has been omitted, the Court may add it at any time before
sentence is passed.
Illustrations.
(a) A is charged with the murder of B. This is equivalent to a statement that A's act fell
within the definition of murder given in sections 100 and 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Procedure to
be followed
when there is
a complaint
case and
police
investigation
in respect of
same offence.
Contents of
charge.
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Sanhita, 2023; that it did not fall within any of the general exceptions of the said Sanhita;
and that it did not fall within any of the five exceptions to section 101 thereof, or that, if it did
fall within Exception 1, one or other of the three provisos to that exception applied to it.
(b) A is charged under sub-section (2) of section 118 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023, with voluntarily causing grievous hurt to B by means of an instrument for
shooting. This is equivalent to a statement that the case was not provided for by
sub-section (2) of section 122 of the said Sanhita, and that the general exceptions did not
apply to it.
(c) A is accused of murder, cheating, theft, extortion, or criminal intimidation, or using
a false property-mark. The charge may state that A committed murder, or
cheating, or theft, or extortion, or criminal intimidation, or that he used a false property-
mark, without reference to the definitions, of those crimes contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023; but the sections under which the offence is punishable must, in each instance
be referred to in the charge.
(d) A is charged under section 219 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, with
intentionally obstructing a sale of property offered for sale by the lawful authority of a
public servant. The charge should be in those words.
235. (1) The charge shall contain such particulars as to the time and place of the
alleged offence, and the person (if any) against whom, or the thing (if any) in respect of
which, it was committed, as are reasonably sufficient to give the accused notice of the
matter with which he is charged.
(2) When the accused is charged with criminal breach of trust or dishonest
misappropriation of money or other movable property, it shall be sufficient to specify the
gross sum or, as the case may be, describe the movable property in respect of which the
offence is alleged to have been committed, and the dates between which the offence is
alleged to have been committed, without specifying particular items or exact dates, and the
charge so framed shall be deemed to be a charge of one offence within the meaning of
section 242:
Provided that the time included between the first and last of such dates shall not
exceed one year.
236. When the nature of the case is such that the particulars mentioned in
sections 234 and 235 do not give the accused sufficient notice of the matter with which he
is charged, the charge shall also contain such particulars of the manner in which the alleged
offence was committed as will be sufficient for that purpose.
Illustrations.
(a) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place. The charge
need not set out the manner in which the theft was effected.
(b) A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place. The charge must set out the
manner in which A cheated B.
(c) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place. The charge must
set out that portion of the evidence given by A which is alleged to be false.
(d) A is accused of obstructing B, a public servant, in the discharge of his public
functions at a given time and place. The charge must set out the manner in which
A obstructed B in the discharge of his functions.
(e) A is accused of the murder of B at a given time and place. The charge need not
state the manner in which A murdered B.
(f) A is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from
punishment. The charge must set out the disobedience charged and the law infringed.
237. In every charge words used in describing an offence shall be deemed to have
been used in the sense attached to them respectively by the law under which such offence
is punishable.
Particulars as
to time, place
and person.
When manner
of committing
offence must
be stated.
Words in charge
taken in sense of
law under which
offence is
punishable.
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238. No error in stating either the offence or the particulars required to be stated in the
charge, and no omission to state the offence or those particulars, shall be regarded at any
stage of the case as material, unless the accused was in fact misled by such error or omission,
and it has occasioned a failure of justice.
Illustrations.
(a) A is charged under section 180 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, with "having
been in possession of counterfeit coin, having known at the time when he became possessed
thereof that such coin was counterfeit," the word "fraudulently" being omitted in the charge.
Unless it appears that A was in fact misled by this omission, the error shall not be regarded
as material.
(b) A is charged with cheating B, and the manner in which he cheated B is not set out
in the charge or is set out incorrectly. A defends himself, calls witnesses and gives his own
account of the transaction. The Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the
manner of the cheating is not material.
(c) A is charged with cheating B, and the manner in which he cheated B is not set out
in the charge. There were many transactions between A and B, and A had no means of
knowing to which of them the charge referred, and offered no defence. The Court may infer
from such facts that the omission to set out the manner of the cheating was, in the case, a
material error.
(d) A is charged with the murder of Khoda Baksh on the 21st January, 2023. In fact, the
murdered person's name was Haidar Baksh, and the date of the murder was
the 20th January, 2023. A was never charged with any murder but one, and had heard the
inquiry before the Magistrate, which referred exclusively to the case of Haidar Baksh. The
Court may infer from these facts that A was not misled, and that the error in the charge was
immaterial.
(e) A was charged with murdering Haidar Baksh on the 20th January, 2023, and
Khoda Baksh (who tried to arrest him for that murder) on the 21st January, 2023. When
charged for the murder of Haidar Baksh, he was tried for the murder of Khoda Baksh. The
witnesses present in his defence were witnesses in the case of Haidar Baksh. The Court
may infer from this that A was misled, and that the error was material.
239. (1) Any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is
pronounced.
(2) Every such alteration or addition shall be read and explained to the accused.
(3) If the alteration or addition to a charge is such that proceeding immediately with
the trial is not likely, in the opinion of the Court, to prejudice the accused in his defence or
the prosecutor in the conduct of the case, the Court may, in its discretion, after such
alteration or addition has been made, proceed with the trial as if the altered or added charge
had been the original charge.
(4) If the alteration or addition is such that proceeding immediately with the trial is
likely, in the opinion of the Court, to prejudice the accused or the prosecutor as aforesaid,
the Court may either direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for such period as may be necessary.
(5) If the offence stated in the altered or added charge is one for the prosecution of
which previous sanction is necessary, the case shall not be proceeded with until such
sanction is obtained, unless sanction has been already obtained for a prosecution on the
same facts as those on which the altered or added charge is founded.
240. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the Court after the commencement
of the trial, the prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed—
(a) to recall or re-summon, and examine with reference to such alteration or
addition, any witness who may have been examined, unless the Court, for reasons to
be recorded in writing, considers that the prosecutor or the accused, as the case may
be, desires to recall or re-examine such witness for the purpose of vexation or delay or
for defeating the ends of justice;
Effect of
errors.
Court may
alter charge.
Recall of
witnesses
when charge
altered.
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(b) also to call any further witness whom the Court may think to be material.
B.—Joinder of charges
241. (1) For every distinct offence of which any person is accused there shall be a
separate charge, and every such charge shall be tried separately:
Provided that where the accused person, by an application in writing, so desires and
the Magistrate is of opinion that such person is not likely to be prejudiced thereby, the
Magistrate may try together all or any number of the charges framed against such person.
(2) Nothing in sub-section (1) shall affect the operation of the provisions of
sections 242, 243, 244 and 246.
Illustration.
A is accused of a theft on one occasion, and of causing grievous hurt on another
occasion. A must be separately charged and separately tried for the theft and causing
grievous hurt.
242. (1) When a person is accused of more offences than one of the same kind
committed within the space of twelve months from the first to the last of such offences,
whether in respect of the same person or not, he may be charged with, and tried at one trial
for, any number of them not exceeding five.
(2) Offences are of the same kind when they are punishable with the same amount of
punishment under the same section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or of any special
or local law:
Provided that for the purposes of this section, an offence punishable under
sub-section (2) of section 303 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 shall be deemed to be
an offence of the same kind as an offence punishable under section 305 of the said Sanhita,
and that an offence punishable under any section of the said Sanhita, or of any special or
local law, shall be deemed to be an offence of the same kind as an attempt to commit such
offence, when such an attempt is an offence.
243. (1) If, in one series of acts so connected together as to form the same transaction,
more offences than one are committed by the same person, he may be charged with, and
tried at one trial for, every such offence.
(2) When a person charged with one or more offences of criminal breach of trust or
dishonest misappropriation of property as provided in sub-section (2) of section 235 or in
sub-section (1) of section 242, is accused of committing, for the purpose of facilitating or
concealing the commission of that offence or those offences, one or more offences of
falsification of accounts, he may be charged with, and tried at one trial for, every such
offence.
(3) If the acts alleged constitute an offence falling within two or more separate definitions
of any law in force for the time being by which offences are defined or punished, the person
accused of them may be charged with, and tried at one trial for, each of such offences.
(4) If several acts, of which one or more than one would by itself or themselves
constitute an offence, constitute when combined a different offence, the person accused of
them may be charged with, and tried at one trial for the offence constituted by such acts
when combined, and for any offence constituted by any one, or more, of such acts.
(5)
Nothing contained in this section shall affect section 9 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Illustrations to sub-section (1)
(a) A rescues B, a person in lawful custody, and in so doing causes grievous hurt to
C, a constable in whose custody B was. A may be charged with, and convicted of, offences
under sub-section (2) of section 121 and section 263 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(b) A commits house-breaking by day with intent to commit rape, and commits, in the
house so entered, rape with B's wife. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of,
offences under section 64 and sub-section (3) of section 331 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
Separate
charges for
distinct
offences.
Offences of
same kind
within year
may be
charged
together.
Trial for more
than one
offence.
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(c) A has in his possession several seals, knowing them to be counterfeit and intending
to use them for the purpose of committing several forgeries punishable under section 337 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, the
possession of each seal under sub-section (2) of section 341 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(d) With intent to cause injury to B, A institutes a criminal proceeding against him,
knowing that there is no just or lawful ground for such proceeding, and also falsely accuses
B of having committed an offence, knowing that there is no just or lawful ground for such
charge. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, two offences under
section 248 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(e) A, with intent to cause injury to B, falsely accuses him of having committed an
offence, knowing that there is no just or lawful ground for such charge. On the trial, A gives
false evidence against B, intending thereby to cause B to be convicted of a capital offence.
A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections 230 and 248
of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(f) A, with six others, commits the offences of rioting, grievous hurt and assaulting a
public servant endeavouring in the discharge of his duty as such to suppress the riot. A
may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sub-section (2) of
section 117, sub-section (2) of section 191 and section 195 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
(g) A threatens B, C and D at the same time with injury to their persons with intent to
cause alarm to them. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, each of the three
offences under sub-sections (2) and (3) of section 351 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
The separate charges referred to in illustrations (a) to (g), respectively, may be tried
at the same time.
Illustrations to sub-section (3)
(h) A wrongfully strikes B with a cane. A may be separately charged with, and convicted
of, offences under sub-section (2) of section 115 and section 131 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
(i) Several stolen sacks of corn are made over to A and B, who knew they are stolen
property, for the purpose of concealing them. A and B thereupon voluntarily assist each
other to conceal the sacks at the bottom of a grain-pit. A and B may be separately charged
with, and convicted of, offences under sub-sections (2) and (5) of section 317 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(j) A exposes her child with the knowledge that she is thereby likely to cause its death.
The child dies in consequence of such exposure. A may be separately charged with, and
convicted of, offences under sections 93 and 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(k) A dishonestly uses a forged document as genuine evidence, in order to convict B,
a public servant, of an offence under section 201 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. A
may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under section 233 and
sub-section (2) of section 340 (read with section 337) of that Sanhita.
Illustration to sub-section (4)
(l) A commits robbery on B, and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. A may be
separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sub-section (2) of section 115
and sub-sections (2) and (4) of section 309 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
244. (1) If a single act or series of acts is of such a nature that it is doubtful which of
several offences the facts which can be proved will constitute, the accused may be charged
with having committed all or any of such offences, and any number of such charges may be
tried at once; or he may be charged in the alternative with having committed someone of the
said offences.
Where it is
doubtful what
offence has
been
committed.
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(2)If in such a case the accused is charged with one offence, and it appears in
evidence that he committed a different offence for which he might have been charged under
the provisions of sub-section (1), he may be convicted of the offence which he is shown to
have committed, although he was not charged with it.
Illustrations.
(a) A is accused of an act which may amount to theft, or receiving stolen property, or
criminal breach of trust or cheating. He may be charged with theft, receiving stolen property,
criminal breach of trust and cheating, or he may be charged with having committed theft, or
receiving stolen property, or criminal breach of trust or cheating.
(b)In the case mentioned, A is only charged with theft. It appears that he committed
the offence of criminal breach of trust, or that of receiving stolen goods. He may be convicted
of criminal breach of trust or of receiving stolen goods (as the case may be), though he was
not charged with such offence.
(c) A states on oath before the Magistrate that he saw B hit C with a club. Before the
Sessions Court A states on oath that B never hit C. A may be charged in the alternative and
convicted of intentionally giving false evidence, although it cannot be proved which of
these contradictory statements was false.
245.(1) When a person is charged with an offence consisting of several particulars,
a combination of some only of which constitutes a complete minor offence, and such
combination is proved, but the remaining particulars are not proved, he may be convicted of
the minor offence, though he was not charged with it.
(2)When a person is charged with an offence and facts are proved which reduce it
to a minor offence, he may be convicted of the minor offence, although he is not charged
with it.
(3)When a person is charged with an offence, he may be convicted of an attempt to
commit such offence although the attempt is not separately charged.
(4)Nothing in this section shall be deemed to authorise a conviction of any minor
offence where the conditions requisite for the initiation of proceedings in respect of that
minor offence have not been satisfied.
Illustrations.
(a) A is charged, under sub-section (3) of section 316 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita,2023, with criminal breach of trust in respect of property entrusted to him as a
carrier. It appears, that he did commit criminal breach of trust under sub-section (2) of
section 316 ofthat Sanhita in respect of the property, but that it was not entrusted to him
as a carrier. Hemay be convicted of criminal breach of trust under the said sub-section (2)
of section 316.
(b) A is charged, under sub-section (2) of section 117 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita,2023, with causing grievous hurt. He proves that he acted on grave and sudden
provocation.He may be convicted under sub-section (2) of section 122 of that Sanhita.
246. The following persons may be charged and tried together, namely:—
(a) persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same
transaction;
(b)persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of, or
attempt to commit, such offence;
(c)persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, within the
meaning of section 242 committed by them jointly within the period of twelve months;
(d)persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same
transaction;
(e)persons accused of an offence which includes theft, extortion, cheating, or
criminal misappropriation, and persons accused of receiving or retaining, or assisting
in the disposal or concealment of, property possession of which is alleged to have
When offence
proved
included in
offence
charged.
What persons
may be
charged
jointly.
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been transferred by any such offence committed by the first-named persons, or of
abetment of or attempting to commit any such last-named offence;
(f) persons accused of offences under sub-sections (2) and (5) of section 317 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or either of those sections in respect of stolen
property the possession of which has been transferred by one offence;
(g) persons accused of any offence under Chapter X of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023 relating to counterfeit coin and persons accused of any other offence
under the said Chapter relating to the same coin, or of abetment of or attempting to
commit any such offence; and the provisions contained in the former part of this
Chapter shall, so far as may be, apply to all such charges:
Provided that where a number of persons are charged with separate offences and
such persons do not fall within any of the categories specified in this section, the Magistrate
or Court of Session may, if such persons by an application in writing, so desire, and if he or
it is satisfied that such persons would not be prejudicially affected thereby, and it is expedient
so to do, try all such persons together.
247. When a charge containing more heads than one is framed against the same
person, and when a conviction has been had on one or more of them, the complainant, or
the officer conducting the prosecution, may, with the consent of the Court, withdraw the
remaining charge or charges, or the Court of its own accord may stay the inquiry into, or trial
of, such charge or charges and such withdrawal shall have the effect of an acquittal on such
charge or charges, unless the conviction be set aside, in which case the said Court (subject
to the order of the Court setting aside the conviction) may proceed with the inquiry into, or
trial of, the charge or charges so withdrawn.
CHAPTER XIX
TRIAL BEFORE A COURT OF SESSION
248. In every trial before a Court of Session, the prosecution shall be conducted by a
Public Prosecutor.
249. When the accused appears or is brought before the Court, in pursuance of a
commitment of the case under section 232, or under any other law for the time being in force,
the prosecutor shall open his case by describing the charge brought against the accused
and stating by what evidence he proposes to prove the guilt of the accused.
250. (1) The accused may prefer an application for discharge within a period of
sixty days from the date of commitment of the case under section 232.
(2) If, upon consideration of the record of the case and the documents submitted
therewith, and after hearing the submissions of the accused and the prosecution in this
behalf, the Judge considers that there is not sufficient ground for proceeding against the
accused, he shall discharge the accused and record his reasons for so doing.
251. (1) If, after such consideration and hearing as aforesaid, the Judge is of opinion
that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence which—
(a) is not exclusively triable by the Court of Session, he may, frame a charge
against the accused and, by order, transfer the case for trial to the
Chief Judicial Magistrate, or any other Judicial Magistrate of the first class and direct
the accused to appear before the Chief Judicial Magistrate, or the Judicial Magistrate
of the first class, on such date as he deems fit, and thereupon such Magistrate shall
try the offence in accordance with the procedure for the trial of warrant-cases instituted
on a police report;
(b) is exclusively triable by the Court, he shall frame in writing a charge against
the accused within a period of sixty days from the date of first hearing on charge.
Withdrawal of
remaining
charges on
conviction on
one of several
charges.
Trial to be
conducted by
Public
Prosecutor.
Opening case
for
prosecution.
Discharge.
Framing of
charge.
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(2) Where the Judge frames any charge under clause (b) of sub-section (1), the
charge shall be read and explained to the accused present either physically or through
audio-video electronic means and the accused shall be asked whether he pleads guilty of
the offence charged or claims to be tried.
252. If the accused pleads guilty, the Judge shall record the plea and may, in his
discretion, convict him thereon.
253. If the accused refuses to plead, or does not plead, or claims to be tried or is not
convicted under section 252, the Judge shall fix a date for the examination of witnesses, and
may, on the application of the prosecution, issue any process for compelling the attendance
of any witness or the production of any document or other thing.
254. (1) On the date so fixed, the Judge shall proceed to take all such evidence as may
be produced in support of the prosecution:
Provided that evidence of a witness under this sub-section may be recorded by
audio-video electronic means.
(2) The deposition of evidence of any public servant may be taken through
audio-video electronic means.
(3) The Judge may, in his discretion, permit the cross-examination of any witness to
be deferred until any other witness or witnesses have been examined or recall any witness
for further cross-examination.
255. If, after taking the evidence for the prosecution, examining the accused and
hearing the prosecution and the defence on the point, the Judge considers that there is no
evidence that the accused committed the offence, the Judge shall record an order of acquittal.
256. (1) Where the accused is not acquitted under section 255, he shall be called
upon to enter on his defence and adduce any evidence he may have in support thereof.
(2) If the accused puts in any written statement, the Judge shall file it with the record.
(3) If the accused applies for the issue of any process for compelling the attendance
of any witness or the production of any document or thing, the Judge shall issue such
process unless he considers, for reasons to be recorded, that such application should be
refused on the ground that it is made for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating
the ends of justice.
257. When the examination of the witnesses (if any) for the defence is complete, the
prosecutor shall sum up his case and the accused or his advocate shall be entitled to reply:
Provided that where any point of law is raised by the accused or his advocate, the
prosecution may, with the permission of the Judge, make his submissions with regard to
such point of law.
258. (1) After hearing arguments and points of law (if any), the Judge shall give a
judgment in the case, as soon as possible, within a period of thirty days from the date of
completion of arguments, which may be extended to a period of forty-five days for reasons
to be recorded in writing.
(2) If the accused is convicted, the Judge shall, unless he proceeds in accordance
with the provisions of section 401, hear the accused on the questions of sentence, and then
pass sentence on him according to law.
259. In a case where a previous conviction is charged under the provisions of
sub-section (7) of section 234, and the accused does not admit that he has been previously
convicted as alleged in the charge, the Judge may, after he has convicted the said accused
under section 252 or section 258, take evidence in respect of the alleged previous conviction,
and shall record a finding thereon:
Conviction on
plea of guilty.
Date for
prosecution
evidence.
Evidence for
prosecution.
Acquittal.
Entering upon
defence.
Arguments.
Judgment of
acquittal or
conviction.
Previous
conviction.
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Provided that no such charge shall be read out by the Judge nor shall the accused be
asked to plead thereto nor shall the previous conviction be referred to by the prosecution
or in any evidence adduced by it, unless and until the accused has been convicted under
section 252 or section 258.
260. (1) A Court of Session taking cognizance of an offence under sub-section (2) of
section 222 shall try the case in accordance with the procedure for the trial of warrant-cases
instituted otherwise than on a police report before a Court of Magistrate:
Provided that the person against whom the offence is alleged to have been committed
shall, unless the Court of Session, for reasons to be recorded, otherwise directs, be examined
as a witness for the prosecution.
(2) Every trial under this section shall be held in camera if either party thereto so
desires or if the Court thinks fit so to do.
(3) If, in any such case, the Court discharges or acquits all or any of the accused and
is of opinion that there was no reasonable cause for making the accusation against them or
any of them, it may, by its order of discharge or acquittal, direct the person against whom
the offence was alleged to have been committed (other than the President, theVice-President
or the Governor of a State or the Administrator of a Union territory) to show cause why he
should not pay compensation to such accused or to each or any of such accused, when
there are more than one.
(4) The Court shall record and consider any cause which may be shown by the person
so directed, and if it is satisfied that there was no reasonable cause for making the accusation,
it may, for reasons to be recorded, make an order that compensation to such amount not
exceeding five thousand rupees, as it may determine, be paid by such person to the accused
or to each or any of them.
(5) Compensation awarded under sub-section (4) shall be recovered as if it were a fine
imposed by a Magistrate.
(6) No person who has been directed to pay compensation under sub-section (4)
shall, by reason of such order, be exempted from any civil or criminal liability in respect of
the complaint made under this section:
Provided that any amount paid to an accused person under this section shall be taken
into account in awarding compensation to such person in any subsequent civil suit relating
to the same matter.
(7) The person who has been ordered under sub-section (4) to pay compensation
may appeal from the order, in so far as it relates to the payment of compensation, to the High
Court.
(8) When an order for payment of compensation to an accused person is made, the
compensation shall not be paid to him before the period allowed for the presentation of the
appeal has elapsed, or, if an appeal is presented, before the appeal has been decided.
CHAPTER XX
TRIAL OF WARRANT-CASES BY MAGISTRATES
A.—Cases instituted on a police report
261. When, in any warrant-case instituted on a police report, the accused appears or
is brought before a Magistrate at the commencement of the trial, the Magistrate shall satisfy
himself that he has complied with the provisions of section 230.
262. (1) The accused may prefer an application for discharge within a period of sixty
days from the date of supply of copies of documents under section 230.
(2) If, upon considering the police report and the documents sent with it under
section 193 and making such examination, if any, of the accused, either physically or through
audio-video electronic means, as the Magistrate thinks necessary and after giving the
prosecution and the accused an opportunity of being heard, the Magistrate considers the
charge against the accused to be groundless, he shall discharge the accused, and record
his reasons for so doing.
Compliance
with section
230.
When accused
shall be
discharged.
Procedure in
cases instituted
under
sub-section (2)
of section 222.
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263. (1) If, upon such consideration, examination, if any, and hearing, the Magistrate
is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence
triable under this Chapter, which such Magistrate is competent to try and which, in his
opinion, could be adequately punished by him, he shall frame in writing a charge against the
accused within a period of sixty days from the date of first hearing on charge.
(2) The charge shall then be read and explained to the accused, and he shall be asked
whether he pleads guilty of the offence charged or claims to be tried.
264. If the accused pleads guilty, the Magistrate shall record the plea and may, in his
discretion, convict him thereon.
265. (1) If the accused refuses to plead or does not plead, or claims to be tried or the
Magistrate does not convict the accused under section 264, the Magistrate shall fix a date
for the examination of witnesses:
Provided that the Magistrate shall supply in advance to the accused, the statement of
witnesses recorded during investigation by the police.
(2) The Magistrate may, on the application of the prosecution, issue a summons to
any of its witnesses directing him to attend or to produce any document or other thing.
(3) On the date so fixed, the Magistrate shall proceed to take all such evidence as may
be produced in support of the prosecution:
Provided that the Magistrate may permit the cross-examination of any witness to be
deferred until any other witness or witnesses have been examined or recall any witness for
further cross-examination:
Provided further that the examination of a witness under this sub-section may be
done by audio-video electronic means at the designated place to be notified by the State
Government.
266. (1) The accused shall then be called upon to enter upon his defence and produce
his evidence; and if the accused puts in any written statement, the Magistrate shall file it
with the record.
(2) If the accused, after he has entered upon his defence, applies to the Magistrate to
issue any process for compelling the attendance of any witness for the purpose of examination
or cross-examination, or the production of any document or other thing, the Magistrate
shall issue such process unless he considers that such application should be refused on
the ground that it is made for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of
justice and such ground shall be recorded by him in writing:
Provided that when the accused has cross-examined or had the opportunity of
cross-examining any witness before entering on his defence, the attendance of such witness
shall not be compelled under this section, unless the Magistrate is satisfied that it is
necessary for the ends of justice:
Provided further that the examination of a witness under this sub-section may be
done by audio-video electronic means at the designated place to be notified by the State
Government.
(3) The Magistrate may, before summoning any witness on an application under
sub-section (2), require that the reasonable expenses incurred by the witness in attending
for the purposes of the trial be deposited in Court.
B.—Cases instituted otherwise than on police report
267. (1) When, in any warrant-case instituted otherwise than on a police report, the
accused appears or is brought before a Magistrate, the Magistrate shall proceed to hear the
prosecution and take all such evidence as may be produced in support of the prosecution.
(2) The Magistrate may, on the application of the prosecution, issue a summons to
any of its witnesses directing him to attend or to produce any document or other thing.
Framing of
charge.
Conviction on
plea of guilty.
Evidence for
prosecution.
Evidence for
defence.
Evidence for
prosecution.
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268. (1) If, upon taking all the evidence referred to in section 267, the Magistrate
considers, for reasons to be recorded, that no case against the accused has been made out
which, if unrebutted, would warrant his conviction, the Magistrate shall discharge him.
(2) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to prevent a Magistrate from discharging
the accused at any previous stage of the case if, for reasons to be recorded by such
Magistrate, he considers the charge to be groundless.
269. (1) If, when such evidence has been taken, or at any previous stage of the case,
the Magistrate is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has
committed an offence triable under this Chapter, which such Magistrate is competent to try
and which, in his opinion, could be adequately punished by him, he shall frame in writing a
charge against the accused.
(2) The charge shall then be read and explained to the accused, and he shall be asked
whether he pleads guilty or has any defence to make.
(3) If the accused pleads guilty, the Magistrate shall record the plea, and may, in his
discretion, convict him thereon.
(4) If the accused refuses to plead, or does not plead or claims to be tried or if the
accused is not convicted under sub-section (3), he shall be required to state, at the
commencement of the next hearing of the case, or, if the Magistrate for reasons to be
recorded in writing so thinks fit, forthwith, whether he wishes to cross-examine any, and, if
so, which, of the witnesses for the prosecution whose evidence has been taken.
(5) If he says he does so wish, the witnesses named by him shall be recalled and, after
cross-examination and re-examination (if any), they shall be discharged.
(6) The evidence of any remaining witnesses for the prosecution shall next be taken,
and after cross-examination and re-examination (if any), they shall also be discharged.
(7) Where, despite giving opportunity to the prosecution and after taking all reasonable
measures under this Sanhita, if the attendance of the prosecution witnesses under
sub-sections (5) and (6) cannot be secured for cross-examination, it shall be deemed that
such witness has not been examined for not being available, and the Magistrate may close
the prosecution evidence for reasons to be recorded in writing and proceed with the case
on the basis of the materials on record.
270. The accused shall then be called upon to enter upon his defence and produce
his evidence; and the provisions of section 266 shall apply to the case.
C.—Conclusion of trial
271. (1) If, in any case under this Chapter in which a charge has been framed, the
Magistrate finds the accused not guilty, he shall record an order of acquittal.
(2) Where, in any case under this Chapter, the Magistrate finds the accused guilty,
but does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 364 or section 401, he
shall, after hearing the accused on the question of sentence, pass sentence upon him
according to law.
(3) Where, in any case under this Chapter, a previous conviction is charged under the
provisions of sub-section (7) of section 234 and the accused does not admit that he has
been previously convicted as alleged in the charge, the Magistrate may, after he has convicted
the said accused, take evidence in respect of the alleged previous conviction, and shall
record a finding thereon:
Provided that no such charge shall be read out by the Magistrate nor shall the
accused be asked to plead thereto nor shall the previous conviction be referred to by the
prosecution or in any evidence adduced by it, unless and until the accused has been
convicted under sub-section (2).
When accused
shall be
discharged.
Procedure
where accused
is not
discharged.
Evidence for
defence.
Acquittal or
conviction.
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272. When the proceedings have been instituted upon complaint, and on any day
fixed for the hearing of the case, the complainant is absent, and the offence may be lawfully
compounded or is not a cognizable offence, the Magistrate may after giving thirty days'
time to the complainant to be present, in his discretion, notwithstanding anything
hereinbefore contained, at any time before the charge has been framed, discharge the
accused.
273. (1) If, in any case instituted upon complaint or upon information given to a
police officer or to a Magistrate, one or more persons is or are accused before a Magistrate
of any offence triable by a Magistrate, and the Magistrate by whom the case is heard
discharges or acquits all or any of the accused, and is of opinion that there was no reasonable
ground for making the accusation against them or any of them, the Magistrate may, by his
order of discharge or acquittal, if the person upon whose complaint or information the
accusation was made is present, call upon him forthwith to show cause why he should not
pay compensation to such accused or to each or any of such accused when there are more
than one; or, if such person is not present, direct the issue of a summons to him to appear
and show cause as aforesaid.
(2) The Magistrate shall record and consider any cause which such complainant or
informant may show, and if he is satisfied that there was no reasonable ground for making
the accusation, may, for reasons to be recorded, make an order that compensation to such
amount, not exceeding the amount of fine he is empowered to impose, as he may determine,
be paid by such complainant or informant to the accused or to each or any of them.
(3) The Magistrate may, by the order directing payment of the compensation under
sub-section (2), further order that, in default of payment, the person ordered to pay such
compensation shall undergo simple imprisonment for a period not exceeding thirty days.
(4) When any person is imprisoned under sub-section (3), the provisions of
sub-section (6) of section 8 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 shall, so far as may be,
apply.
(5) No person who has been directed to pay compensation under this section shall,
by reason of such order, be exempted from any civil or criminal liability in respect of the
complaint made or information given by him:
Provided that any amount paid to an accused person under this section shall be taken
into account in awarding compensation to such person in any subsequent civil suit relating
to the same matter.
(6) A complainant or informant who has been ordered under sub-section (2) by a
Magistrate of the second class to pay compensation exceeding two thousand rupees, may
appeal from the order, as if such complainant or informant had been convicted on a trial held
by such Magistrate.
(7) When an order for payment of compensation to an accused person is made in a
case which is subject to appeal under sub-section (6), the compensation shall not be paid to
him before the period allowed for the presentation of the appeal has elapsed, or, if an appeal
is presented, before the appeal has been decided; and where such order is made in a case
which is not so subject to appeal the compensation shall not be paid before the expiration
of one month from the date of the order.
(8) The provisions of this section apply to summons-cases as well as to
warrant-cases.
CHAPTER XXI
TRIAL OF SUMMONS-CASES BY MAGISTRATES
274. When in a summons-case the accused appears or is brought before the
Magistrate, the particulars of the offence of which he is accused shall be stated to him, and
he shall be asked whether he pleads guilty or has any defence to make, but it shall not be
necessary to frame a formal charge:
Absence of
complainant.
Compensation
for accusation
without
reasonable
cause.
Substance of
accusation to
be stated.
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Provided that if the Magistrate considers the accusation as groundless, he shall, after
recording reasons in writing, release the accused and such release shall have the effect of
discharge.
275. If the accused pleads guilty, the Magistrate shall record the plea as nearly as
possible in the words used by the accused and may, in his discretion, convict him thereon.
276. (1) Where a summons has been issued under section 229 and the accused
desires to plead guilty to the charge without appearing before the Magistrate, he shall
transmit to the Magistrate, by post or by messenger, a letter containing his plea and also the
amount of fine specified in the summons.
(2) The Magistrate may, in his discretion, convict the accused in his absence, on his
plea of guilty and sentence him to pay the fine specified in the summons, and the amount
transmitted by the accused shall be adjusted towards that fine, or where an advocate
authorised by the accused in this behalf pleads guilty on behalf of the accused, the Magistrate
shall record the plea as nearly as possible in the words used by the advocate and may, in his
discretion, convict the accused on such plea and sentence him as aforesaid.
277. (1) If the Magistrate does not convict the accused under section 275 or
section 276, the Magistrate shall proceed to hear the prosecution and take all such evidence
as may be produced in support of the prosecution, and also to hear the accused and take all
such evidence as he produces in his defence.
(2) The Magistrate may, if he thinks fit, on the application of the prosecution or the
accused, issue a summons to any witness directing him to attend or to produce any document
or other thing.
(3) The Magistrate may, before summoning any witness on such application, require
that the reasonable expenses of the witness incurred in attending for the purposes of the
trial be deposited in Court.
278. (1) If the Magistrate, upon taking the evidence referred to in section 277 and
such further evidence, if any, as he may, of his own motion, cause to be produced, finds the
accused not guilty, he shall record an order of acquittal.
(2) Where the Magistrate does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of
section 364 or section 401, he shall, if he finds the accused guilty, pass sentence upon him
according to law.
(3) A Magistrate may, under section 275 or section 278, convict the accused of any
offence triable under this Chapter, which from the facts admitted or proved he appears to
have committed, whatever may be the nature of the complaint or summons, if the Magistrate
is satisfied that the accused would not be prejudiced thereby.
279. (1) If the summons has been issued on complaint, and on the day appointed for
the appearance of the accused, or any day subsequent thereto to which the hearing may be
adjourned, the complainant does not appear, the Magistrate shall, after giving thirty days'
time to the complainant to be present, notwithstanding anything hereinbefore contained,
acquit the accused, unless for some reason he thinks it proper to adjourn the hearing of the
case to some other day:
Provided that where the complainant is represented by an advocate or by the officer
conducting the prosecution or where the Magistrate is of opinion that the personal
attendance of the complainant is not necessary, the Magistrate may, dispense with his
attendance and proceed with the case.
(2) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall, so far as may be, apply also to cases
where the non-appearance of the complainant is due to his death.
280. If a complainant, at any time before a final order is passed in any case under this
Chapter, satisfies the Magistrate that there are sufficient grounds for permitting him to
withdraw his complaint against the accused, or if there be more than one accused, against
all or any of them, the Magistrate may permit him to withdraw the same, and shall thereupon
acquit the accused against whom the complaint is so withdrawn.
Conviction on
plea of guilty.
Conviction on
plea of guilty
in absence of
accused in
petty cases.
Procedure
when not
convicted.
Acquittal or
conviction.
Non-appearance
or death of
complainant.
Withdrawal of
complaint.
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281. In any summons-case instituted otherwise than upon complaint, a Magistrate of
the first class or, with the previous sanction of the Chief Judicial Magistrate, any other
Judicial Magistrate, may, for reasons to be recorded by him, stop the proceedings at any
stage without pronouncing any judgment and where such stoppage of proceedings is made
after the evidence of the principal witnesses has been recorded, pronounce a judgment of
acquittal, and in any other case, release the accused, and such release shall have the effect
of discharge.
282. When in the course of the trial of a summons-case relating to an offence punishable
with imprisonment for a term exceeding six months, it appears to the Magistrate that in the
interests of justice, the offence should be tried in accordance with the procedure for the trial
of warrant-cases, such Magistrate may proceed to re-hear the case in the manner provided
by this Sanhita for the trial of warrant-cases and may recall any witness who may have been
examined.
CHAPTER XXII
SUMMARY TRIALS
283. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Sanhita—
(a) any Chief Judicial Magistrate;
(b) Magistrate of the first class,
shall try in a summary way all or any of the following offences:—
(i) theft, under sub-section (2) of section 303, section 305 or section 306 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 where the value of the property stolen does not exceed
twenty thousand rupees;
(ii) receiving or retaining stolen property, under sub-section (2) of section 317
of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where the value of the property does not
exceed twenty thousand rupees;
(iii) assisting in the concealment or disposal of stolen property under
sub-section (5) of section 317 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where the value
of such property does not exceed twenty thousand rupees;
(iv) offences under sub-sections (2) and (3) of section 331 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(v) insult with intent to provoke a breach of the peace, under section 352, and
criminal intimidation, under sub-sections (2) and (3) of section 351 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023;
(vi) abetment of any of the foregoing offences;
(vii) an attempt to commit any of the foregoing offences, when such attempt is
an offence;
(viii) any offence constituted by an act in respect of which a complaint may be
made under section 20 of the Cattle-trespass Act, 1871.
(2) The Magistrate may, after giving the accused a reasonable opportunity of being
heard, for reasons to be recorded in writing, try in a summary way all or any of the offences
not punishable with death or imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding
three years:
Provided that no appeal shall lie against the decision of a Magistrate to try a case in
a summary way under this sub-section.
(3) When, in the course of a summary trial it appears to the Magistrate that the nature
of the case is such that it is undesirable to try it summarily, the Magistrate shall recall any
witnesses who may have been examined and proceed to re-hear the case in the manner
provided by this Sanhita.
Power to stop
proceedings in
certain cases.
Power of
Court to
convert
summons-
cases into
warrant-cases.
Power to try
summarily.
1 of 1871.
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284. The High Court may confer on any Magistrate invested with the powers of a
Magistrate of the second class power to try summarily any offence which is punishable
only with fine or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months with or without fine,
and any abetment of or attempt to commit any such offence.
285. (1) In trials under this Chapter, the procedure specified in this Sanhita for the trial
of summons-case shall be followed except as hereinafter mentioned.
(2) No sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding three months shall be passed in
the case of any conviction under this Chapter.
286. In every case tried summarily, the Magistrate shall enter, in such form as the
State Government may direct, the following particulars, namely:—
(a) the serial number of the case;
(b) the date of the commission of the offence;
(c) the date of the report or complaint;
(d) the name of the complainant (if any);
(e) the name, parentage and residence of the accused;
(f) the offence complained of and the offence (if any) proved, and in cases
coming under clause (i), clause (ii) or clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 283, the
value of the property in respect of which the offence has been committed;
(g) the plea of the accused and his examination (if any);
(h) the finding;
(i) the sentence or other final order;
(j) the date on which proceedings terminated.
287. In every case tried summarily in which the accused does not plead guilty, the
Magistrate shall record the substance of the evidence and a judgment containing a brief
statement of the reasons for the finding.
288. (1) Every such record and judgment shall be written in the language of the Court.
(2) The High Court may authorise any Magistrate empowered to try offences summarily
to prepare the aforesaid record or judgment or both by means of an officer appointed in this
behalf by the Chief Judicial Magistrate, and the record or judgment so prepared shall be
signed by such Magistrate.
CHAPTER XXIII
PLEA BARGAINING
289. (1) This Chapter shall apply in respect of an accused against whom—
(a) the report has been forwarded by the officer in charge of the police station
under section 193 alleging therein that an offence appears to have been committed by
him other than an offence for which the punishment of death or of imprisonment for
life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years has been provided under the
law for the time being in force; or
(b) a Magistrate has taken cognizance of an offence on complaint, other than an
offence for which the punishment of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment
for a term exceeding seven years, has been provided under the law for the time being
in force, and after examining complainant and witnesses under section 223, issued the
process under section 227,
Summary trial
by Magistrate
of second
class.
Procedure for
summary
trials.
Record in
summary
trials.
Judgment in
cases tried
summarily.
Language of
record and
judgment.
Application of
Chapter.
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but does not apply where such offence affects the socio-economic condition of the country
or has been committed against a woman, or a child.
(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), the Central Government shall, by notification,
determine the offences under the law for the time being in force which shall be the offences
affecting the socio-economic condition of the country.
290. (1) A person accused of an offence may file an application for plea bargaining
within a period of thirty days from the date of framing of charge in the Court in which such
offence is pending for trial.
(2) The application under sub-section (1) shall contain a brief description of the case
relating to which the application is filed including the offence to which the case relates and
shall be accompanied by an affidavit sworn by the accused stating therein that he has
voluntarily preferred, after understanding the nature and extent of punishment provided
under the law for the offence, the plea bargaining in his case and that he has not previously
been convicted by a Court in which he had been charged with the same offence.
(3) After receiving the application under sub-section (1), the Court shall issue notice
to the Public Prosecutor or the complainant of the case and to the accused to appear on the
date fixed for the case.
(4) When the Public Prosecutor or the complainant of the case and the accused
appear on the date fixed under sub-section (3), the Court shall examine the accused
in camera, where the other party in the case shall not be present, to satisfy itself that the
accused has filed the application voluntarily and where—
(a) the Court is satisfied that the application has been filed by the accused
voluntarily, it shall provide time, not exceeding sixty days, to the Public Prosecutor or
the complainant of the case and the accused to work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition of the case which may include giving to the victim by the accused the
compensation and other expenses during the case and thereafter fix the date for
further hearing of the case;
(b) the Court finds that the application has been filed involuntarily by the
accused or he has previously been convicted by a Court in a case in which he had
been charged with the same offence, it shall proceed further in accordance with the
provisions of this Sanhita from the stage such application has been filed under
sub-section (1).
291. In working out a mutually satisfactory disposition under clause (a) of
sub-section (4) of section 290, the Court shall follow the following procedure, namely:—
(a) in a case instituted on a police report, the Court shall issue notice to the
Public Prosecutor, the police officer who has investigated the case, the accused and
the victim of the case to participate in the meeting to work out a satisfactory disposition
of the case:
Provided that throughout such process of working out a satisfactory disposition
of the case, it shall be the duty of the Court to ensure that the entire process is
completed voluntarily by the parties participating in the meeting:
Provided further that the accused, if he so desires, may participate in such
meeting with his advocate, if any, engaged in the case;
(b) in a case instituted otherwise than on police report, the Court shall issue
notice to the accused and the victim of the case to participate in a meeting to work out
a satisfactory disposition of the case:
Provided that it shall be the duty of the Court to ensure, throughout such
process of working out a satisfactory disposition of the case, that it is completed
voluntarily by the parties participating in the meeting:
Application
for plea
bargaining.
Guidelines for
mutually
satisfactory
disposition.
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Provided further that if the victim of the case or the accused so desires, he may
participate in such meeting with his advocate engaged in the case.
292. Where in a meeting under section 291, a satisfactory disposition of the case has
been worked out, the Court shall prepare a report of such disposition which shall be signed
by the presiding officer of the Court and all other persons who participated in the meeting
and if no such disposition has been worked out, the Court shall record such observation
and proceed further in accordance with the provisions of this Sanhita from the stage the
application under sub-section (1) of section 290 has been filed in such case.
293. Where a satisfactory disposition of the case has been worked out under
section 292, the Court shall dispose of the case in the following manner, namely:—
(a) the Court shall award the compensation to the victim in accordance with the
disposition under section 292 and hear the parties on the quantum of the punishment,
releasing of the accused on probation of good conduct or after admonition under
section 401 or for dealing with the accused under the provisions of the Probation of
Offenders Act, 1958 or any other law for the time being in force and follow the procedure
specified in the succeeding clauses for imposing the punishment on the accused;
(b) after hearing the parties under clause (a), if the Court is of the view that
section 401 or the provisions of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 or any other law
for the time being in force are attracted in the case of the accused, it may release the
accused on probation or provide the benefit of any such law;
(c) after hearing the parties under clause (b), if the Court finds that minimum
punishment has been provided under the law for the offence committed by the accused,
it may sentence the accused to half of such minimum punishment, and where the
accused is a first-time offender and has not been convicted of any offence in the past,
it may sentence the accused to one-fourth of such minimum punishment;
(d) in case after hearing the parties under clause (b), the Court finds that the
offence committed by the accused is not covered under clause (b) or clause (c), then,
it may sentence the accused to one-fourth of the punishment provided or extendable
for such offence and where the accused is a first-time offender and has not been
convicted of any offence in the past, it may sentence the accused to one-sixth of the
punishment provided or extendable, for such offence.
294. The Court shall deliver its judgment in terms of section 293 in the open Court and
the same shall be signed by the presiding officer of the Court.
295. The judgment delivered by the Court under this section shall be final and no
appeal (except the special leave petition under article 136 and writ petition under articles 226
and 227 of the Constitution) shall lie in any Court against such judgment.
296. A Court shall have, for the purposes of discharging its functions under this
Chapter, all the powers vested in respect of bail, trial of offences and other matters relating
to the disposal of a case in such Court under this Sanhita.
297. The provisions of section 468 shall apply, for setting off the period of detention
undergone by the accused against the sentence of imprisonment imposed under this Chapter,
in the same manner as they apply in respect of the imprisonment under other provisions of
this Sanhita.
298. The provisions of this Chapter shall have effect notwithstanding anything
inconsistent therewith contained in any other provisions of this Sanhita and nothing in
such other provisions shall be construed to constrain the meaning of any provision of this
Chapter.
Report of
mutually
satisfactory
disposition to
be submitted
before Court.
Disposal of
case.
Judgment of
Court.
Finality of
judgment.
Power of
Court in plea
bargaining.
Period of
detention
undergone by
accused to be
set off against
sentence of
imprisonment.
Savings.
20 of 1958.
20 of 1958.
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Explanation.—For the purposes of this Chapter, the expression "Public Prosecutor"
has the meaning assigned to it under clause (v) of section 2 and includes an Assistant
Public Prosecutor appointed under section 19.
299. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the time being in force, the
statements or facts stated by an accused in an application for plea bargaining filed under
section 290 shall not be used for any other purpose except for the purpose of this Chapter.
300. Nothing in this Chapter shall apply to any juvenile or child as defined in section 2
of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
CHAPTER XXIV
ATTENDANCE OF PERSONS CONFINED OR DETAINED IN PRISONS
301. In this Chapter,—
(a) "detained" includes detained under any law providing for preventive
detention;
(b) "prison" includes,—
(i) any place which has been declared by the State Government, by general
or special order, to be a subsidiary jail;
(ii) any reformatory, Borstal institution or other institution of a like nature.
302. (1) Whenever, in the course of an inquiry, trial or proceeding under this Sanhita,
it appears to a Criminal Court,—
(a) that a person confined or detained in a prison should be brought before the
Court for answering to a charge of an offence, or for the purpose of any proceedings
against him; or
(b) that it is necessary for the ends of justice to examine such person as a
witness,
the Court may make an order requiring the officer in charge of the prison to produce such
person before the Court answering to the charge or for the purpose of such proceeding or
for giving evidence.
(2) Where an order under sub-section (1) is made by a Magistrate of the second class,
it shall not be forwarded to, or acted upon by, the officer in charge of the prison unless it is
countersigned by the Chief Judicial Magistrate, to whom such Magistrate is subordinate.
(3) Every order submitted for countersigning under sub-section (2) shall be
accompanied by a statement of the facts which, in the opinion of the Magistrate, render the
order necessary, and the Chief Judicial Magistrate to whom it is submitted may, after
considering such statement, decline to countersign the order.
303. (1) The State Government or the Central Government, as the case may be, may, at
any time, having regard to the matters specified in sub-section (2), by general or special
order, direct that any person or class of persons shall not be removed from the prison in
which he or they may be confined or detained, and thereupon, so long as the order remains
in force, no order made under section 302, whether before or after the order of the State
Government or the Central Government, shall have effect in respect of such person or class
of persons.
(2) Before making an order under sub-section (1), the State Government or the Central
Government in the cases instituted by its central agency, as the case may be, shall have
regard to the following matters, namely:—
(a) the nature of the offence for which, or the grounds on which, the person or
class of persons has been ordered to be confined or detained in prison;
Statements of
accused not to
be used.
Non-
application of
Chapter.
Definitions.
Power to
require
attendance of
prisoners.
Power of State
Government
or Central
Government
to exclude
certain
persons from
operation of
section 302.
2 of 2016.
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(b) the likelihood of the disturbance of public order if the person or class of
persons is allowed to be removed from the prison;
(c) the public interest, generally.
304. Where the person in respect of whom an order is made under section 302—
(a) is by reason of sickness or infirmity unfit to be removed from the prison; or
(b) is under committal for trial or under remand pending trial or pending a
preliminary investigation; or
(c) is in custody for a period which would expire before the expiration of the time
required for complying with the order and for taking him back to the prison in which
he is confined or detained; or
(d) is a person to whom an order made by the State Government or the Central
Government under section 303 applies,
the officer in charge of the prison shall abstain from carrying out the Court's order and shall
send to the Court a statement of reasons for so abstaining:
Provided that where the attendance of such person is required for giving evidence at
a place not more than twenty-five kilometres distance from the prison, the officer in charge
of the prison shall not so abstain for the reason mentioned in clause (b).
305. Subject to the provisions of section 304, the officer in charge of the prison shall,
upon delivery of an order made under sub-section (1) of section 302 and duly countersigned,
where necessary, under sub-section (2) thereof, cause the person named in the order to be
taken to the Court in which his attendance is required, so as to be present there at the time
mentioned in the order, and shall cause him to be kept in custody in or near the Court until
he has been examined or until the Court authorises him to be taken back to the prison in
which he was confined or detained.
306. The provisions of this Chapter shall be without prejudice to the power of the
Court to issue, under section 319, a commission for the examination, as a witness, of any
person confined or detained in a prison; and the provisions of Part B of Chapter XXV shall
apply in relation to the examination on commission of any such person in the prison as they
apply in relation to the examination on commission of any other person.
CHAPTER XXV
EVIDENCE IN INQUIRIES AND TRIALS
A.—Mode of taking and recording evidence
307. The State Government may determine what shall be, for purposes of this Sanhita,
the language of each Court within the State other than the High Court.
308. Except as otherwise expressly provided, all evidence taken in the course of the
trial or other proceeding shall be taken in the presence of the accused, or, when his personal
attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his advocate including through
audio-video electronic means at the designated place to be notified by the State Government:
Provided that where the evidence of a woman below the age of eighteen years who is
alleged to have been subjected to rape or any other sexual offence, is to be recorded, the
Court may take appropriate measures to ensure that such woman is not confronted by the
accused while at the same time ensuring the right of cross-examination of the accused.
Explanation.—In this section, "accused" includes a person in relation to whom any
proceeding under Chapter IX has been commenced under this Sanhita.
309. (1) In all summons-cases tried before a Magistrate, in all inquiries under sections 164
to 167 (both inclusive), and in all proceedings under section 491 otherwise than in the course
of a trial, the Magistrate shall, as the examination of each witness proceeds, make a
memorandum of the substance of the evidence in the language of the Court:
Officer in
charge of
prison to
abstain from
carrying out
order in
certain
contingencies.
Prisoner to be
brought to
Court in
custody.
Power to issue
commission
for
examination
of witness in
prison.
Language of
Courts.
Evidence to be
taken in
presence of
accused.
Record in
summons-
cases and
inquiries.
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Provided that if the Magistrate is unable to make such memorandum himself, he shall,
after recording the reason of his inability, cause such memorandum to be made in writing or
from his dictation in open Court.
(2) Such memorandum shall be signed by the Magistrate and shall form part of the
record.
310. (1) In all warrant-cases tried before a Magistrate, the evidence of each witness
shall, as his examination proceeds, be taken down in writing either by the Magistrate himself
or by his dictation in open Court or, where he is unable to do so owing to a physical or other
incapacity, under his direction and superintendence, by an officer of the Court appointed
by him in this behalf:
Provided that evidence of a witness under this sub-section may also be recorded by
audio-video electronic means in the presence of the advocate of the person accused of the
offence.
(2) Where the Magistrate causes the evidence to be taken down, he shall record a
certificate that the evidence could not be taken down by himself for the reasons referred to
in sub-section (1).
(3) Such evidence shall ordinarily be taken down in the form of a narrative; but the
Magistrate may, in his discretion take down, or cause to be taken down, any part of such
evidence in the form of question and answer.
(4) The evidence so taken down shall be signed by the Magistrate and shall form part
of the record.
311. (1) In all trials before a Court of Session, the evidence of each witness shall, as
his examination proceeds, be taken down in writing either by the presiding Judge himself or
by his dictation in open Court, or under his direction and superintendence, by an officer of
the Court appointed by him in this behalf.
(2) Such evidence shall ordinarily be taken down in the form of a narrative, but the
presiding Judge may, in his discretion, take down, or cause to be taken down, any part of
such evidence in the form of question and answer.
(3) The evidence so taken down shall be signed by the presiding Judge and shall form
part of the record.
312. In every case where evidence is taken down under section 310 or section 311,—
(a) if the witness gives evidence in the language of the Court, it shall be taken
down in that language;
(b) if he gives evidence in any other language, it may, if practicable, be taken
down in that language, and if it is not practicable to do so, a true translation of the
evidence in the language of the Court shall be prepared as the examination of the
witness proceeds, signed by the Magistrate or presiding Judge, and shall form part of
the record;
(c) where under clause (b) evidence is taken down in a language other than the
language of the Court, a true translation thereof in the language of the Court shall be
prepared as soon as practicable, signed by the Magistrate or presiding Judge, and
shall form part of the record:
Provided that when under clause (b) evidence is taken down in English and a
translation thereof in the language of the Court is not required by any of the parties,
the Court may dispense with such translation.
313. (1) As the evidence of each witness taken under section 310 or section 311 is
completed, it shall be read over to him in the presence of the accused, if in attendance, or of
his advocate, if he appears by an advocate, and shall, if necessary, be corrected.
Record in
warrant-cases.
Record in trial
before Court
of Session.
Language of
record of
evidence.
Procedure in
regard to such
evidence when
completed.
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(2) If the witness denies the correctness of any part of the evidence when the same is
read over to him, the Magistrate or presiding Judge may, instead of correcting the evidence,
make a memorandum thereon of the objection made to it by the witness and shall add such
remarks as he thinks necessary.
(3) If the record of the evidence is in a language different from that in which it has
been given and the witness does not understand that language, the record shall be interpreted
to him in the language in which it was given, or in a language which he understands.
314. (1) Whenever any evidence is given in a language not understood by the accused,
and he is present in Court in person, it shall be interpreted to him in open Court in a
language understood by him.
(2) If he appears by an advocate and the evidence is given in a language other than
the language of the Court, and not understood by the advocate, it shall be interpreted to
such advocate in that language.
(3) When documents are put for the purpose of formal proof, it shall be in the discretion
of the Court to interpret as much thereof as appears necessary.
315. When a presiding Judge or Magistrate has recorded the evidence of a witness,
he shall also record such remarks (if any) as he thinks material respecting the demeanour of
such witness whilst under examination.
316. (1) Whenever the accused is examined by any Magistrate, or by a Court of
Session, the whole of such examination, including every question put to him and every
answer given by him, shall be recorded in full by the presiding Judge or Magistrate himself
or where he is unable to do so owing to a physical or other incapacity, under his direction
and superintendence by an officer of the Court appointed by him in this behalf.
(2) The record shall, if practicable, be in the language in which the accused is examined
or, if that is not practicable, in the language of the Court.
(3) The record shall be shown or read to the accused, or, if he does not understand the
language in which it is written, shall be interpreted to him in a language which he understands,
and he shall be at liberty to explain or add to his answers.
(4) It shall thereafter be signed by the accused and by the Magistrate or presiding
Judge, who shall certify under his own hand that the examination was taken in his presence
and hearing and that the record contains a full and true account of the statement made by
the accused:
Provided that where the accused is in custody and is examined through electronic
communication, his signature shall be taken within seventy-two hours of such examination.
(5) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to apply to the examination of an accused
person in the course of a summary trial.
317. When the services of an interpreter are required by any Criminal Court for the
interpretation of any evidence or statement, he shall be bound to state the true interpretation
of such evidence or statement.
318. Every High Court may, by general rule, prescribe the manner in which the evidence
of witnesses and the examination of the accused shall be taken down in cases coming
before it, and such evidence and examination shall be taken down in accordance with such
rule.
B.—Commissions for the examination of witnesses
319. (1) Whenever, in the course of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this
Sanhita, it appears to a Court or Magistrate that the examination of a witness is necessary
for the ends of justice, and that the attendance of such witness cannot be procured without
an amount of delay, expense or inconvenience which, under the circumstances of the case,
Interpretation
of evidence to
accused or his
advocate.
Remarks
respecting
demeanour of
witness.
Record of
examination
of accused.
Interpreter to
be bound to
interpret
truthfully.
Record in
High Court.
When
attendance of
witness may be
dispensed with
and commission
issued.
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would be unreasonable, the Court or Magistrate may dispense with such attendance and
may issue a commission for the examination of the witness in accordance with the provisions
of this Chapter:
Provided that where the examination of the President or the Vice-President of India or
the Governor of a State or the Administrator of a Union territory as a witness is necessary
for the ends of justice, a commission shall be issued for the examination of such a witness.
(2) The Court may, when issuing a commission for the examination of a witness for the
prosecution, direct that such amount as the Court considers reasonable to meet the expenses
of the accused, including the advocate's fees, be paid by the prosecution.
320. (1) If the witness is within the territories to which this Sanhita extends, the
commission shall be directed to the Chief Judicial Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction
the witness is to be found.
(2) If the witness is in India, but in a State or an area to which this Sanhita does not
extend, the commission shall be directed to such Court or officer as the Central Government
may, by notification, specify in this behalf.
(3) If the witness is in a country or place outside India and arrangements have been
made by the Central Government with the Government of such country or place for taking
the evidence of witnesses in relation to criminal matters, the commission shall be issued in
such form, directed to such Court or officer, and sent to such authority for transmission as
the Central Government may, by notification, prescribe in this behalf.
321. Upon receipt of the commission, the Chief Judicial Magistrate or such Magistrate
as he may appoint in this behalf, shall summon the witness before him or proceed to the
place where the witness is, and shall take down his evidence in the same manner, and may
for this purpose exercise the same powers, as in trials of warrant-cases under this Sanhita.
322. (1) The parties to any proceeding under this Sanhita in which a commission is
issued may respectively forward any interrogatories in writing which the Court or Magistrate
directing the commission may think relevant to the issue, and it shall be lawful for the
Magistrate, Court or officer to whom the commission, is directed, or to whom the duty of
executing it is delegated, to examine the witness upon such interrogatories.
(2) Any such party may appear before such Magistrate, Court or Officer by an advocate,
or if not in custody, in person, and may examine, cross-examine and re-examine the said
witness.
323. (1) After any commission issued under section 319 has been duly executed, it
shall be returned, together with the deposition of the witness examined thereunder, to the
Court or Magistrate issuing the commission; and the commission, the return thereto and
the deposition shall be open at all reasonable times to inspection of the parties, and may,
subject to all just exceptions, be read in evidence in the case by either party, and shall form
part of the record.
(2) Any deposition so taken, if it satisfies the conditions specified by section 27 of
the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, may also be received in evidence at any subsequent
stage of the case before another Court.
324. In every case in which a commission is issued under section 319, the inquiry, trial
or other proceeding may be adjourned for a specified time reasonably sufficient for the
execution and return of the commission.
325. (1) The provisions of section 321 and so much of section 322 and section 323 as
relate to the execution of a commission and its return shall apply in respect of commissions
issued by any of the Courts, Judges or Magistrates hereinafter mentioned as they apply to
commissions issued under section 319.
Commission
to whom to be
issued.
Execution of
commissions.
Parties may
examine
witnesses.
Return of
commission.
Adjournment
of proceeding.
Execution of
foreign
commissions.
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(2) The Courts, Judges and Magistrates referred to in sub-section (1) are—
(a) any such Court, Judge or Magistrate exercising jurisdiction within an area in
India to which this Sanhita does not extend, as the Central Government may, by
notification, specify in this behalf;
(b) any Court, Judge or Magistrate exercising jurisdiction in any such country
or place outside India, as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this
behalf, and having authority, under the law in force in that country or place, to issue
commissions for the examination of witnesses in relation to criminal matters.
326. (1) The deposition of a civil surgeon or other medical witness, taken and attested
by a Magistrate in the presence of the accused, or taken on commission under this Chapter,
may be given in evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita,
although the deponent is not called as a witness.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, and shall, on the application of the prosecution or
the accused, summon and examine any such deponent as to the subject-matter of his
deposition.
327. (1) Any document purporting to be a report of identification under the hand of
an Executive Magistrate in respect of a person or property may be used as evidence in any
inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita, although such Magistrate is not called
as a witness:
Provided that where such report contains a statement of any suspect or witness to
which the provisions of section 19, section 26, section 27, section 158 or section 160 of the
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, apply, such statement shall not be used under this
sub-section except in accordance with the provisions of those sections.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, and shall, on the application of the prosecution or of
the accused, summon and examine such Magistrate as to the subject-matter of the said
report.
328. (1) Any document purporting to be a report under the hand of a gazetted officer
of any Mint or of any Note Printing Press or of any Security Printing Press (including the
officer of the Controller of Stamps and Stationery) or of any Forensic Department or Division
of Forensic Science Laboratory or any Government Examiner of Questioned Documents or
any State Examiner of Questioned Documents as the Central Government may, by
notification, specify in this behalf, upon any matter or thing duly submitted to him for
examination and report in the course of any proceeding under this Sanhita, may be used as
evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita, although such officer
is not called as a witness.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, summon and examine any such officer as to the
subject-matter of his report:
Provided that no such officer shall be summoned to produce any records on which
the report is based.
(3) Without prejudice to the provisions of sections 129 and 130 of the Bharatiya
Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no such officer shall, except with the permission of the General
Manager or any officer in charge of any Mint or of any Note Printing Press or of any
Security Printing Press or of any Forensic Department or any officer in charge of the Forensic
Science Laboratory or of the Government Examiner of Questioned Documents Organisation
or of the State Examiner of Questioned Documents Organisation be permitted—
(a) to give any evidence derived from any unpublished official records on
which the report is based; or
Deposition of
medical
witness.
Identification
report of
Magistrate.
Evidence of
officers of
Mint.
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(b) to disclose the nature or particulars of any test applied by him in the course
of the examination of the matter or thing.
329. (1) Any document purporting to be a report under the hand of a Government
scientific expert to whom this section applies, upon any matter or thing duly submitted to
him for examination or analysis and report in the course of any proceeding under this
Sanhita, may be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, summon and examine any such expert as to the
subject-matter of his report.
(3) Where any such expert is summoned by a Court, and he is unable to attend
personally, he may, unless the Court has expressly directed him to appear personally, depute
any responsible officer working with him to attend the Court, if such officer is conversant
with the facts of the case and can satisfactorily depose in Court on his behalf.
(4) This section applies to the following Government scientific experts, namely:—
(a) any Chemical Examiner or Assistant Chemical Examiner to Government;
(b) the Chief Controller of Explosives;
(c) the Director of the Finger Print Bureau;
(d) the Director, Haffkeine Institute, Bombay;
(e) the Director, Deputy Director or Assistant Director of a Central Forensic
Science Laboratory or a State Forensic Science Laboratory;
(f) the Serologist to the Government;
(g) any other scientific expert specified or certified, by notification, by the State
Government or the Central Government for this purpose.
330. (1) Where any document is filed before any Court by the prosecution or the
accused, the particulars of every such document shall be included in a list and the prosecution
or the accused or the advocate for the prosecution or the accused, if any, shall be called
upon to admit or deny the genuineness of each such document soon after supply of such
documents and in no case later than thirty days after such supply:
Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, relax the time limit with reasons to be
recorded in writing:
Provided further that no expert shall be called to appear before the Court unless the
report of such expert is disputed by any of the parties to the trial.
(2) The list of documents shall be in such form as the State Government may, by rules,
provide.
(3) Where the genuineness of any document is not disputed, such document may be
read in evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita without proof of
the signature of the person by whom it purports to be signed:
Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, require such signature to be proved.
331. When any application is made to any Court in the course of any inquiry, trial or
other proceeding under this Sanhita, and allegations are made therein respecting any public
servant, the applicant may give evidence of the facts alleged in the application by affidavit,
and the Court may, if it thinks fit, order that evidence relating to such facts be so given.
332. (1) The evidence of any person whose evidence is of a formal character may be
given by affidavit and may, subject to all just exceptions, be read in evidence in any inquiry,
trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita.
(2) The Court may, if it thinks fit, and shall, on the application of the prosecution or
the accused, summon and examine any such person as to the facts contained in his affidavit.
Reports of
certain
Government
scientific
experts.
No formal
proof of
certain
documents.
Evidence of
formal
character on
affidavit.
Affidavit in
proof of
conduct of
public
servants.
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333. (1) Affidavits to be used before any Court under this Sanhita may be sworn or
affirmed before—
(a) any Judge or Judicial or Executive Magistrate; or
(b) any Commissioner of Oaths appointed by a High Court or Court of Session; or
(c) any notary appointed under the Notaries Act, 1952.
(2) Affidavits shall be confined to, and shall state separately, such facts as the deponent
is able to prove from his own knowledge and such facts as he has reasonable ground to
believe to be true, and in the latter case, the deponent shall clearly state the grounds of such
belief.
(3) The Court may order any scandalous and irrelevant matter in the affidavit to be
struck out or amended.
334. In any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Sanhita, a previous conviction
or acquittal may be proved, in addition to any other mode provided by any law for the time
being in force,—
(a) by an extract certified under the hand of the officer having the custody of
the records of the Court in which such conviction or acquittal was held, to be a copy
of the sentence or order; or
(b) in case of a conviction, either by a certificate signed by the officer in charge
of the jail in which the punishment or any part thereof was undergone, or by production
of the warrant of commitment under which the punishment was suffered,
together with, in each of such cases, evidence as to the identity of the accused person with
the person so convicted or acquitted.
335. (1) If it is proved that an accused person has absconded, and that there is no
immediate prospect of arresting him, the Court competent to try, or commit for trial, such
person for the offence complained of may, in his absence, examine the witnesses (if any)
produced on behalf of the prosecution, and record their depositions and any such deposition
may, on the arrest of such person, be given in evidence against him on the inquiry into, or
trial for, the offence with which he is charged, if the deponent is dead or incapable of giving
evidence or cannot be found or his presence cannot be procured without an amount of
delay, expense or inconvenience which, under the circumstances of the case, would be
unreasonable.
(2) If it appears that an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life has
been committed by some person or persons unknown, the High Court or the Sessions
Judge may direct that any Magistrate of the first class shall hold an inquiry and examine any
witnesses who can give evidence concerning the offence and any depositions so taken
may be given in evidence against any person who is subsequently accused of the offence,
if the deponent is dead or incapable of giving evidence or beyond the limits of India.
336. Where any document or report prepared by a public servant, scientific expert or
medical officer is purported to be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding
under this Sanhita, and—
(i) such public servant, expert or officer is either transferred, retired, or died; or
(ii) such public servant, expert or officer cannot be found or is incapable of
giving deposition; or
(iii) securing presence of such public servant, expert or officer is likely to cause
delay in holding the inquiry, trial or other proceeding,
the Court shall secure presence of successor officer of such public servant, expert, or
officer who is holding that post at the time of such deposition to give deposition on such
document or report:
Provided that no public servant, scientific expert or medical officer shall be called to
appear before the Court unless the report of such public servant, scientific expert or medical
officer is disputed by any of the parties of the trial or other proceedings:
Authorities
before whom
affidavits may
be sworn.
Previous
conviction or
acquittal how
proved.
Evidence of
public
servants,
experts, police
officers in
certain cases.
Record of
evidence in
absence of
accused.
53 of 1952.
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Provided further that the deposition of such successor public servant, expert or
officer may be allowed through audio-video electronic means.
CHAPTER XXVI
GENERAL PROVISIONS AS TO INQUIRIES AND TRIALS
337. (1) A person who has once been tried by a Court of competent jurisdiction for an
offence and convicted or acquitted of such offence shall, while such conviction or acquittal
remains in force, not be liable to be tried again for the same offence, nor on the same facts
for any other offence for which a different charge from the one made against him might have
been made under sub-section (1) of section 244, or for which he might have been convicted
under sub-section (2) thereof.
(2) A person acquitted or convicted of any offence may be afterwards tried, with the
consent of the State Government, for any distinct offence for which a separate charge might
have been made against him at the former trial under sub-section (1) of section 243.
(3) A person convicted of any offence constituted by any act causing consequences
which, together with such act, constituted a different offence from that of which he was
convicted, may be afterwards tried for such last-mentioned offence, if the consequences
had not happened, or were not known to the Court to have happened, at the time when he
was convicted.
(4) A person acquitted or convicted of any offence constituted by any acts may,
notwithstanding such acquittal or conviction, be subsequently charged with, and tried for,
any other offence constituted by the same acts which he may have committed if the Court
by which he was first tried was not competent to try the offence with which he is subsequently
charged.
(5) A person discharged under section 281 shall not be tried again for the same
offence except with the consent of the Court by which he was discharged or of any other
Court to which the first-mentioned Court is subordinate.
(6) Nothing in this section shall affect the provisions of section 26 of the General
Clauses Act, 1897 or of section 208 of this Sanhita.
Explanation.—The dismissal of a complaint, or the discharge of the accused, is not
an acquittal for the purposes of this section.
Illustrations.
(a) A is tried upon a charge of theft as a servant and acquitted. He cannot afterwards,
while the acquittal remains in force, be charged with theft as a servant, or, upon the same
facts, with theft simply, or with criminal breach of trust.
(b) A is tried for causing grievous hurt and convicted. The person injured afterwards
dies. A may be tried again for culpable homicide.
(c) A is charged before the Court of Session and convicted of the culpable homicide
of B. A may not afterwards be tried on the same facts for the murder of B.
(d) A is charged by a Magistrate of the first class with, and convicted by him of,
voluntarily causing hurt to B. A may not afterwards be tried for voluntarily causing grievous
hurt to B on the same facts, unless the case comes within sub-section (3) of this section.
(e) A is charged by a Magistrate of the second class with, and convicted by him of,
theft of property from the person of B. A may subsequently be charged with, and tried for,
robbery on the same facts.
(f) A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of the first class with, and convicted by him of,
robbing D. A, B and C may afterwards be charged with, and tried for, dacoity on the same facts.
338. (1) The Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may
appear and plead without any written authority before any Court in which that case is under
inquiry, trial or appeal.
Person once
convicted or
acquitted not
to be tried for
same offence.
10 of 1897.
Appearance
by Public
Prosecutors.
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(2) If in any such case any private person instructs his advocate to prosecute any
person in any Court, the Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of the
case shall conduct the prosecution, and the advocate so instructed shall act therein under
the directions of the Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor, and may, with the
permission of the Court, submit written arguments after the evidence is closed
in the case.
339. (1) Any Magistrate inquiring into or trying a case may permit the prosecution to
be conducted by any person other than a police officer below the rank of inspector; but no
person, other than the Advocate-General or Government Advocate or a Public Prosecutor
or Assistant Public Prosecutor, shall be entitled to do so without such permission:
Provided that no police officer shall be permitted to conduct the prosecution if he has
taken part in the investigation into the offence with respect to which the accused is being
prosecuted.
(2) Any person conducting the prosecution may do so personally or by an advocate.
340. Any person accused of an offence before a Criminal Court, or against whom
proceedings are instituted under this Sanhita, may of right be defended by an advocate of
his choice.
341. (1) Where, in a trial or appeal before a Court, the accused is not represented by
an advocate, and where it appears to the Court that the accused has not sufficient means to
engage an advocate, the Court shall assign an advocate for his defence at the expense of
the State.
(2) The High Court may, with the previous approval of the State Government, make
rules providing for—
(a) the mode of selecting advocates for defence under sub-section (1);
(b) the facilities to be allowed to such advocates by the Courts;
(c) the fees payable to such advocates by the Government, and generally, for
carrying out the purposes of sub-section (1).
(3) The State Government may, by notification, direct that, as from such date as may
be specified in the notification, the provisions of sub-sections (1) and (2) shall apply in
relation to any class of trials before other Courts in the State as they apply in relation to
trials before Courts of Session.
342. (1) In this section, "corporation" means an incorporated company or other body
corporate, and includes a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
(2) Where a corporation is the accused person or one of the accused persons in an
inquiry or trial, it may appoint a representative for the purpose of the inquiry or trial and
such appointment need not be under the seal of the corporation.
(3) Where a representative of a corporation appears, any requirement of this Sanhita
that anything shall be done in the presence of the accused or shall be read or stated or
explained to the accused, shall be construed as a requirement that that thing shall be done
in the presence of the representative or read or stated or explained to the representative,
and any requirement that the accused shall be examined shall be construed as a requirement
that the representative shall be examined.
(4) Where a representative of a corporation does not appear, any such requirement as
is referred to in sub-section (3) shall not apply.
Permission to
conduct
prosecution.
Right of
person against
whom
proceedings
are instituted
to be
defended.
Legal aid to
accused at
State expense
in certain
cases.
Procedure
when
corporation or
registered
society is an
accused.
21 of 1860.
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(5) Where a statement in writing purporting to be signed by the managing director of
the corporation or by any person duly authorised by him (by whatever name called) having,
or being one of the persons having the management of the affairs of the corporation to the
effect that the person named in the statement has been appointed as the representative of
the corporation for the purposes of this section, is filed, the Court shall, unless the contrary
is proved, presume that such person has been so appointed.
(6) If a question arises as to whether any person, appearing as the representative of
a corporation in an inquiry or trial before a Court is or is not such representative, the
question shall be determined by the Court.
343. (1) With a view to obtaining the evidence of any person supposed to have been
directly or indirectly concerned in or privy to an offence to which this section applies, the
Chief Judicial Magistrate at any stage of the investigation or inquiry into, or the trial of, the
offence, and the Magistrate of the first class inquiring into or trying the offence, at any
stage of the inquiry or trial, may tender a pardon to such person on condition of his making
a full and true disclosure of the whole of the circumstances within his knowledge relative to
the offence and to every other person concerned, whether as principal or abettor, in the
commission thereof.
(2) This section applies to—
(a) any offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session or by the Court of a
Special Judge appointed under any other law for the time being in force;
(b) any offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years
or with a more severe sentence.
(3) Every Magistrate who tenders a pardon under sub-section (1) shall record—
(a) his reasons for so doing;
(b) whether the tender was or was not accepted by the person to whom it was
made,
and shall, on application made by the accused, furnish him with a copy of such record free
of cost.
(4) Every person accepting a tender of pardon made under sub-section (1)—
(a) shall be examined as a witness in the Court of the Magistrate taking cognizance
of the offence and in the subsequent trial, if any;
(b) shall, unless he is already on bail, be detained in custody until the termination
of the trial.
(5) Where a person has accepted a tender of pardon made under sub-section (1) and
has been examined under sub-section (4), the Magistrate taking cognizance of the offence
shall, without making any further inquiry in the case—
(a) commit it for trial—
(i) to the Court of Session if the offence is triable exclusively by that
Court or if the Magistrate taking cognizance is the Chief Judicial Magistrate;
(ii) to a Court of Special Judge appointed under any other law for the time
being in force, if the offence is triable exclusively by that Court;
(b) in any other case, make over the case to the Chief Judicial Magistrate who
shall try the case himself.
344. At any time after commitment of a case but before judgment is passed, the Court
to which the commitment is made may, with a view to obtaining at the trial the evidence of
any person supposed to have been directly or indirectly concerned in, or privy to, any such
offence, tender a pardon on the same condition to such person.
Tender of
pardon to
accomplice.
Power to
direct tender
of pardon.
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345. (1) Where, in regard to a person who has accepted a tender of pardon made
under section 343 or section 344, the Public Prosecutor certifies that in his opinion such
person has, either by wilfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not
complied with the condition on which the tender was made, such person may be tried for the
offence in respect of which the pardon was so tendered or for any other offence of which he
appears to have been guilty in connection with the same matter, and also for the offence of
giving false evidence:
Provided that such person shall not be tried jointly with any of the other accused:
Provided further that such person shall not be tried for the offence of giving false
evidence except with the sanction of the High Court, and nothing contained in section 215
or section 379 shall apply to that offence.
(2) Any statement made by such person accepting the tender of pardon and recorded
by a Magistrate under section 183 or by a Court under sub-section (4) of section 343 may be
given in evidence against him at such trial.
(3) At such trial, the accused shall be entitled to plead that he has complied with the
condition upon which such tender was made; in which case it shall be for the prosecution
to prove that the condition has not been complied with.
(4) At such trial, the Court shall—
(a) if it is a Court of Session, before the charge is read out and explained to the
accused;
(b) if it is the Court of a Magistrate, before the evidence of the witnesses for the
prosecution is taken,
ask the accused whether he pleads that he has complied with the conditions on which the
tender of pardon was made.
(5) If the accused does so plead, the Court shall record the plea and proceed with the
trial and it shall, before passing judgment in the case, find whether or not the accused has
complied with the conditions of the pardon, and, if it finds that he has so complied, it shall,
notwithstanding anything contained in this Sanhita, pass judgment of acquittal.
346. (1) In every inquiry or trial the proceedings shall be continued from day-to-day
basis until all the witnesses in attendance have been examined, unless the Court finds the
adjournment of the same beyond the following day to be necessary for reasons to be
recorded:
Provided that when the inquiry or trial relates to an offence under section 64,
section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 70 or section 71 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the inquiry or trial shall be completed within a period of two months
from the date of filing of the chargesheet.
(2) If the Court, after taking cognizance of an offence, or commencement of trial, finds
it necessary or advisable to postpone the commencement of, or adjourn, any inquiry or trial,
it may, from time to time, for reasons to be recorded, postpone or adjourn the same on such
terms as it thinks fit, for such time as it considers reasonable, and may by a warrant remand
the accused if in custody:
Provided that no Court shall remand an accused person to custody under this
section for a term exceeding fifteen days at a time:
Provided further that when witnesses are in attendance, no adjournment or
postponement shall be granted, without examining them, except for special reasons to be
recorded in writing:
Provided also that no adjournment shall be granted for the purpose only of enabling
the accused person to show cause against the sentence proposed to be imposed on him:
Trial of
person not
complying
with
conditions of
pardon.
Power to
postpone or
adjourn
proceedings.
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Provided also that—
(a) no adjournment shall be granted at the request of a party, except where the
circumstances are beyond the control of that party;
(b) where the circumstances are beyond the control of a party, not more than
two adjournments may be granted by the Court after hearing the objections of the
other party and for the reasons to be recorded in writing;
(c) the fact that the advocate of a party is engaged in another Court, shall not be
a ground for adjournment;
(d) where a witness is present in Court but a party or his advocate is not present
or the party or his advocate though present in Court, is not ready to examine or
cross-examine the witness, the Court may, if thinks fit, record the statement of the
witness and pass such orders as it thinks fit dispensing with the examination-in-chief
or cross-examination of the witness, as the case may be.
Explanation 1.—If sufficient evidence has been obtained to raise a suspicion that
the accused may have committed an offence, and it appears likely that further evidence may
be obtained by a remand, this is a reasonable cause for a remand.
Explanation 2.—The terms on which an adjournment or postponement may be granted
include, in appropriate cases, the payment of costs by the prosecution or the accused.
347. (1) Any Judge or Magistrate may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other
proceeding, after due notice to the parties, visit and inspect any place in which an offence
is alleged to have been committed, or any other place which it is in his opinion necessary to
view for the purpose of properly appreciating the evidence given at such inquiry or trial,
and shall without unnecessary delay record a memorandum of any relevant facts observed
at such inspection.
(2) Such memorandum shall form part of the record of the case and if the prosecutor,
complainant or accused or any other party to the case, so desires, a copy of the memorandum
shall be furnished to him free of cost.
348. Any Court may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this
Sanhita, summon any person as a witness, or examine any person in attendance, though not
summoned as a witness, or re-call and re-examine any person already examined; and the
Court shall summon and examine or re-call and re-examine any such person if his evidence
appears to it to be essential to the just decision of the case.
349. If a Magistrate of the first class is satisfied that, for the purposes of any
investigation or proceeding under this Sanhita, it is expedient to direct any person, including
an accused person, to give specimen signatures or finger impressions or handwriting or
voice sample, he may make an order to that effect and in that case the person to whom the
order relates shall be produced or shall attend at the time and place specified in such order
and shall give his specimen signatures or finger impressions or handwriting or voice sample:
Provided that no order shall be made under this section unless the person has at some
time been arrested in connection with such investigation or proceeding:
Provided further that the Magistrate may, for the reasons to be recorded in writing,
order any person to give such specimen or sample without him being arrested.
350. Subject to any rules made by the State Government, any Criminal Court may, if it
thinks fit, order payment, on the part of the Government, of the reasonable expenses of any
complainant or witness attending for the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding
before such Court under this Sanhita.
Local
inspection.
Power to
summon
material
witness, or
examine
person
present.
Power of
Magistrate to
order person
to give
specimen
signatures or
handwriting,
etc.
Expenses of
complainants
and witnesses.
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351. (1) In every inquiry or trial, for the purpose of enabling the accused personally
to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him, the Court—
(a) may at any stage, without previously warning the accused put such questions
to him as the Court considers necessary;
(b) shall, after the witnesses for the prosecution have been examined and before
he is called on for his defence, question him generally on the case:
Provided that in a summons case, where the Court has dispensed with the
personal attendance of the accused, it may also dispense with his examination under
clause (b).
(2) No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined under
sub-section (1).
(3) The accused shall not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer
such questions, or by giving false answers to them.
(4) The answers given by the accused may be taken into consideration in such
inquiry or trial, and put in evidence for or against him in any other inquiry into, or trial for,
any other offence which such answers may tend to show he has committed.
(5) The Court may take help of Prosecutor and Defence Counsel in preparing relevant
questions which are to be put to the accused and the Court may permit filing of written
statement by the accused as sufficient compliance of this section.
352. (1) Any party to a proceeding may, as soon as may be, after the close of his
evidence, address concise oral arguments, and may, before he concludes the oral arguments,
if any, submit a memorandum to the Court setting forth concisely and under distinct headings,
the arguments in support of his case and every such memorandum shall form part of the
record.
(2) A copy of every such memorandum shall be simultaneously furnished to the
opposite party.
(3) No adjournment of the proceedings shall be granted for the purpose of filing the
written arguments unless the Court, for reasons to be recorded in writing, considers it
necessary to grant such adjournment.
(4) The Court may, if it is of opinion that the oral arguments are not concise or
relevant, regulate such arguments.
353. (1) Any person accused of an offence before a Criminal Court shall be a competent
witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath in disproof of the charges made
against him or any person charged together with him at the same trial:
Provided that—
(a) he shall not be called as a witness except on his own request in writing;
(b) his failure to give evidence shall not be made the subject of any comment by
any of the parties or the Court or give rise to any presumption against himself or any
person charged together with him at the same trial.
(2) Any person against whom proceedings are instituted in any Criminal Court under
section 101, or section 126, or section 127, or section 128, or section 129, or under
Chapter X or under Part B, Part C or Part D of Chapter XI, may offer himself as a witness in
such proceedings:
Provided that in proceedings under section 127, section 128, or section 129, the
failure of such person to give evidence shall not be made the subject of any comment by
any of the parties or the Court or give rise to any presumption against him or any other
person proceeded against together with him at the same inquiry.
Power to
examine
accused.
Oral
arguments and
memorandum
of arguments.
Accused
person to be
competent
witness.
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354. Except as provided in sections 343 and 344, no influence, by means of any
promise or threat or otherwise, shall be used to an accused person to induce him to disclose
or withhold any matter within his knowledge.
355. (1) At any stage of an inquiry or trial under this Sanhita, if the Judge or Magistrate
is satisfied, for reasons to be recorded, that the personal attendance of the accused before
the Court is not necessary in the interests of justice, or that the accused persistently
disturbs the proceedings in Court, the Judge or Magistrate may, if the accused is represented
by an advocate, dispense with his attendance and proceed with such inquiry or trial in his
absence, and may, at any subsequent stage of the proceedings, direct the personal attendance
of such accused.
(2) If the accused in any such case is not represented by an advocate, or if the Judge
or Magistrate considers his personal attendance necessary, he may, if he thinks fit and for
reasons to be recorded by him, either adjourn such inquiry or trial, or order that the case of
such accused be taken up or tried separately.
Explanation.—For the purpose of this section, personal attendance of the accused
includes attendance through audio-video electronic means.
356. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Sanhita or in any other law for
the time being in force, when a person declared as a proclaimed offender, whether or not
charged jointly, has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting
him, it shall be deemed to operate as a waiver of the right of such person to be present and
tried in person, and the Court shall, after recording reasons in writing, in the interest of
justice, proceed with the trial in the like manner and with like effect as if he was present,
under this Sanhita and pronounce the judgment:
Provided that the Court shall not commence the trial unless a period of ninety days
has lapsed from the date of framing of the charge.
(2) The Court shall ensure that the following procedure has been complied with
before proceeding under sub-section (1), namely:—
(i) issuance of two consecutive warrants of arrest within the interval of at least
thirty days;
(ii) publish in a national or local daily newspaper circulating in the place of his
last known address of residence, requiring the proclaimed offender to appear before
the Court for trial and informing him that in case he fails to appear within thirty days
from the date of such publication, the trial shall commence in his absence;
(iii) inform his relative or friend, if any, about the commencement of the
trial; and
(iv) affix information about the commencement of the trial on some conspicuous
part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides and display in
the police station of the district of his last known address of residence.
(3) Where the proclaimed offender is not represented by any advocate, he shall be
provided with an advocate for his defence at the expense of the State.
(4) Where the Court, competent to try the case or commit for trial, has examined any
witnesses for prosecution and recorded their depositions, such depositions shall be given
in evidence against such proclaimed offender on the inquiry into, or in trial for, the offence
with which he is charged:
Provided that if the proclaimed offender is arrested and produced or appears before
the Court during such trial, the Court may, in the interest of justice, allow him to examine any
evidence which may have been taken in his absence.
No influence
to be used to
induce
disclosure.
Provision for
inquiries and
trial being held
in absence of
accused in
certain cases.
Inquiry, trial
or judgment in
absentia of
proclaimed
offender.
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(5) Where a trial is related to a person under this section, the deposition and
examination of the witness, may, as far as practicable, be recorded by audio-video electronic
means preferably mobile phone and such recording shall be kept in such manner as the
Court may direct.
(6) In prosecution for offences under this Sanhita, voluntary absence of accused
after the trial has commenced under sub-section (1) shall not prevent continuing the trial
including the pronouncement of the judgment even if he is arrested and produced or appears
at the conclusion of such trial.
(7) No appeal shall lie against the judgment under this section unless the proclaimed
offender presents himself before the Court of appeal:
Provided that no appeal against conviction shall lie after the expiry of three years
from the date of the judgment.
(8) The State may, by notification, extend the provisions of this section to any
absconder mentioned in sub-section (1) of section 84.
357. If the accused, though not a person of unsound mind, cannot be made to
understand the proceedings, the Court may proceed with the inquiry or trial; and, in the
case of a Court other than a High Court, if such proceedings result in a conviction, the
proceedings shall be forwarded to the High Court with a report of the circumstances of the
case, and the High Court shall pass thereon such order as it thinks fit.
358. (1) Where, in the course of any inquiry into, or trial of, an offence, it appears from
the evidence that any person not being the accused has committed any offence for which
such person could be tried together with the accused, the Court may proceed against such
person for the offence which he appears to have committed.
(2) Where such person is not attending the Court, he may be arrested or summoned,
as the circumstances of the case may require, for the purpose aforesaid.
(3) Any person attending the Court, although not under arrest or upon a summons,
may be detained by such Court for the purpose of the inquiry into, or trial of, the offence
which he appears to have committed.
(4) Where the Court proceeds against any person under sub-section (1), then—
(a) the proceedings in respect of such person shall be commenced afresh, and
the witnesses re-heard;
(b) subject to the provisions of clause (a), the case may proceed as if such
person had been an accused person when the Court took cognizance of the offence
upon which the inquiry or trial was commenced.
359. (1) The offences punishable under the sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023 specified in the first two columns of the Table next following may be
compounded by the persons mentioned in the third column of that Table:—
TABLE
Offence
Section of the Bharatiya
Person by whom offence
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applicable
may be compounded
1
2
3
Enticing or taking away or
84
The husband of the woman
detaining with criminal
and the woman.
intent a married woman.
Procedure
where accused
does not
understand
proceedings.
Power to
proceed
against other
persons
appearing to
be guilty of
offence.
Compounding
of offences.
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Voluntarily causing hurt.
115(2)
The person to whom the hurt
is caused.
Voluntarily causing hurt on
122(1)
The person to whom the hurt
provocation.
is caused.
Voluntarily causing grievous
122(2)
The person to whom the hurt
hurt on grave and sudden
is caused.
provocation.
Wrongfully restraining or
126(2), 127(2)
The person restrained or
confining any person.
confined.
Wrongfully confining a
127(3)
The person confined.
person for three days or
more.
Wrongfully confining a
127(4)
The person confined.
person for ten days or more.
Wrongfully confining a
127(6)
The person confined.
person in secret.
Assault or use of criminal
131, 133,136
The person assaulted or to
force.
whom criminal force is used.
Uttering words, etc., with
302
The person whose religious
deliberate intent to wound
feelings are intended to be
the religious feelings of
wounded.
any person.
Theft.
303(2)
The owner of the property
stolen.
Dishonest misappropriation
314
The owner of the property
of property.
misappropriated.
Criminal breach of trust by
316(3)
The owner of the property in
a carrier, wharfinger, etc.
respect of which the breach
of trust has been committed.
Dishonestly receiving stolen
317(2)
The owner of the property
property knowing it to be
stolen.
stolen.
Assisting in the concealment
317(5)
The owner of the property
or disposal of stolen property,
stolen.
knowing it to be stolen.
Cheating.
318(2)
The person cheated.
Cheating by personation.
319(2)
The person cheated.
Fraudulent removal or
320
The creditors who are
concealment of property,
affected thereby.
etc., to prevent distribution
among creditors.
Fraudulently preventing
321
The creditors who are
from being made available
affected thereby.
for his creditors a debt or
demand due to the offender.
Fraudulent execution of
322
The person affected thereby.
deed of transfer containing
false statement of
consideration.
1
2
3
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Fraudulent removal or
323
The person affected thereby.
concealment of property.
Mischief, when the only
324(2), 324(4)
The person to whom the loss
loss or damage caused is
or damage is caused.
loss or damage to a private
person.
Mischief by killing or
325
The owner of the animal.
maiming animal.
Mischief by injury to
326(a)
The person to whom the loss
works of irrigation by
or damage is caused.
wrongfully diverting
water when the only
loss or damage caused
is loss or damage to
private person.
Criminal trespass.
329(3)
The person in possession of
the property trespassed upon.
House-trespass.
329(4)
The person in possession of
the property trespassed upon.
House-trespass to commit
332(c)
The person in possession of
an offence (other than theft)
the house trespassed upon.
punishable with imprisonment.
Using a false trade or property mark.
345(3)
The person to whom loss or
injury is caused by such use.
Counterfeiting a property
347(1)
The person to whom loss or
mark used by another.
injury is caused by such use.
Selling goods marked with
349
The person to whom loss or
a counterfeit property mark.
injury is caused by such use.
Criminal intimidation.
351(2), 351(3)
The person intimidated.
Insult intended to provoke
352
The person insulted.
a breach of peace.
Inducing person to believe
354
The person induced.
himself an object of divine
displeasure.
Defamation, except such
356(2)
The person defamed.
cases as are specified against
section 356(2) of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
column 1 of the Table under
sub-section (2).
Printing or engraving matter,
356(3)
The person defamed.
knowing it to be defamatory.
Sale of printed or engraved
356(4)
The person defamed.
substance containing
defamatory matter, knowing
it to contain such matter.
Criminal breach of contract
357
The person with whom the
of service.
offender has contracted.
1
2
3
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(2) The offences punishable under the sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
specified in the first two columns of the Table next following may, with the permission of the
Court before which any prosecution for such offence is pending, be compounded by the
persons mentioned in the third column of that Table:—
Table
Offence
Section of the Bharatiya
Person by whom offence
Nyaya Sanhita applicable
may be compounded
1
2
3
Word, gesture or act
79
The woman whom it was
intended to insult the
intended to insult or whose
modesty of a woman.
privacy was intruded upon.
Marrying again during the
82(1)
The husband or wife of the
life-time of a husband or wife.
person so marrying.
Causing miscarriage.
88
The woman to whom
miscarriage is caused.
Voluntarily causing grievous
117(2)
The person to whom hurt is
hurt.
caused.
Causing hurt by doing an
125(a)
The person to whom hurt is
act so rashly and negligently
caused.
as to endanger human life
or the personal safety of others.
Causing grievous hurt by
125(b)
The person to whom hurt is
doing an act so rashly and
caused.
negligently as to endanger
human life or the personal
safety of others.
Assault or criminal force in
135
The person assaulted or to
attempting wrongfully to
whom the force was used.
confine a person.
Theft, by clerk or servant
306
The owner of the property
of property in possession
stolen.
of master.
Criminal breach of trust.
316(2)
The owner of the property in
respect of which breach of
trust has been committed.
Criminal breach of trust by
316(4)
The owner of the property in
a clerk or servant.
respect of which the breach
of trust has been committed.
Cheating a person whose
318(3)
The person cheated.
interest the offender was
bound, either by law or by
legal contract, to protect.
Cheating and dishonestly
318(4)
The person cheated.
inducing delivery of
property or the making,
alteration or destruction
of a valuable security.
Defamation against the
356(2)
The person defamed.
President or the Vice-President
or the Governor of the State
or the Administrator of the
Union territory or a
Minister in respect of his
public functions when
instituted upon a complaint
made by the public prosecutor.
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(3) When an offence is compoundable under this section, the abetment of such
offence or an attempt to commit such offence (when such attempt is itself an offence) or
where the accused is liable under sub-section (5) of section 3 or section 190 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, may be compounded in like manner.
(4) (a) When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence
under this section is a child or of unsound mind, any person competent to contract on his
behalf may, with the permission of the Court, compound such offence;
(b) When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence
under this section is dead, the legal representative, as defined in the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908 of such person may, with the consent of the Court, compound such offence.
(5) When the accused has been committed for trial or when he has been convicted
and an appeal is pending, no composition for the offence shall be allowed without the leave
of the Court to which he is committed, or, as the case may be, before which the appeal is to
be heard.
(6) A High Court or Court of Session acting in the exercise of its powers of revision
under section 442 may allow any person to compound any offence which such person is
competent to compound under this section.
(7) No offence shall be compounded if the accused is, by reason of a previous
conviction, liable either to enhanced punishment or to a punishment of a different kind for
such offence.
(8) The composition of an offence under this section shall have the effect of an
acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded.
(9) No offence shall be compounded except as provided by this section.
360. The Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may,
with the consent of the Court, at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw
from the prosecution of any person either generally or in respect of any one or more of the
offences for which he is tried; and, upon such withdrawal,—
(a) if it is made before a charge has been framed, the accused shall be discharged
in respect of such offence or offences;
(b) if it is made after a charge has been framed, or when under this Sanhita no
charge is required, he shall be acquitted in respect of such offence or offences:
Provided that where such offence—
(i) was against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the
Union extends; or
(ii) was investigated under any Central Act; or
(iii) involved the misappropriation or destruction of, or damage to, any property
belonging to the Central Government; or
(iv) was committed by a person in the service of the Central Government while
acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty,
and the Prosecutor in charge of the case has not been appointed by the Central Government,
he shall not, unless he has been permitted by the Central Government to do so, move the
Court for its consent to withdraw from the prosecution and the Court shall, before according
consent, direct the Prosecutor to produce before it the permission granted by the Central
Government to withdraw from the prosecution:
Provided further that no Court shall allow such withdrawal without giving an
opportunity of being heard to the victim in the case.
5 of 1908.
Withdrawal
from
prosecution.
112
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361. (1) If, in the course of any inquiry into an offence or a trial before a Magistrate in
any district, the evidence appears to him to warrant a presumption—
(a) that he has no jurisdiction to try the case or commit it for trial; or
(b) that the case is one which should be tried or committed for trial by some
other Magistrate in the district; or
(c) that the case should be tried by the Chief Judicial Magistrate,
he shall stay the proceedings and submit the case, with a brief report explaining its nature,
to the Chief Judicial Magistrate or to such other Magistrate, having jurisdiction, as the
Chief Judicial Magistrate directs.
(2) The Magistrate to whom the case is submitted may, if so empowered, either try the
case himself, or refer it to any Magistrate subordinate to him having jurisdiction, or commit
the accused for trial.
362. If, in any inquiry into an offence or a trial before a Magistrate, it appears to him
at any stage of the proceedings before signing the judgment that the case is one which
ought to be tried by the Court of Session, he shall commit it to that Court under the
provisions hereinbefore contained and thereupon the provisions of Chapter XIX shall
apply to the commitment so made.
363. (1) Where a person, having been convicted of an offence punishable under
Chapter X or Chapter XVII of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, with imprisonment for a
term of three years or upwards, is again accused of any offence punishable under either of
those Chapters with imprisonment for a term of three years or upwards, and the Magistrate
before whom the case is pending is satisfied that there is ground for presuming that such
person has committed the offence, he shall be sent for trial to the Chief Judicial Magistrate
or committed to the Court of Session, unless the Magistrate is competent to try the case and
is of opinion that he can himself pass an adequate sentence if the accused is convicted.
(2) When any person is sent for trial to the Chief Judicial Magistrate or committed to
the Court of Session under sub-section (1), any other person accused jointly with him in the
same inquiry or trial shall be similarly sent or committed, unless the Magistrate discharges
such other person under section 262 or section 268, as the case may be.
364. (1) Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for the
prosecution and the accused, that the accused is guilty, and that he ought to receive a
punishment different in kind from, or more severe than, that which such Magistrate is
empowered to inflict, or, being a Magistrate of the second class, is of opinion that the
accused ought to be required to execute a bond or bail bond under section 125, he may
record the opinion and submit his proceedings, and forward the accused, to the Chief
Judicial Magistrate to whom he is subordinate.
(2) When more accused persons than one are being tried together, and the Magistrate
considers it necessary to proceed under sub-section (1), in regard to any of such accused,
he shall forward all the accused, who are in his opinion guilty, to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(3) The Chief Judicial Magistrate to whom the proceedings are submitted may, if he
thinks fit, examine the parties and recall and examine any witness who has already given
evidence in the case and may call for and take any further evidence and shall pass such
judgment, sentence or order in the case as he thinks fit, and is according to law.
365. (1) Whenever any Judge or Magistrate, after having heard and recorded the
whole or any part of the evidence in any inquiry or a trial, ceases to exercise jurisdiction
therein and is succeeded by another Judge or Magistrate who has and who exercises such
jurisdiction, the Judge or Magistrate so succeeding may act on the evidence so recorded by
his predecessor, or partly recorded by his predecessor and partly recorded by himself:
Procedure in
cases which
Magistrate
cannot dispose
of.
Procedure
when after
commencement
of inquiry or
trial,
Magistrate
finds case
should be
committed.
Trial of
persons
previously
convicted of
offences
against
coinage,
stamp-law or
property.
Procedure
when
Magistrate
cannot pass
sentence
sufficiently
severe.
Conviction or
commitment
on evidence
partly recorded
by one
Magistrate and
partly by
another.
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Provided that if the succeeding Judge or Magistrate is of the opinion that further
examination of any of the witnesses whose evidence has already been recorded is necessary
in the interests of justice, he may re-summon any such witness, and after such further
examination, cross-examination and re-examination, if any, as he may permit, the witness
shall be discharged.
(2) When a case is transferred under the provisions of this Sanhita from one Judge to
another Judge or from one Magistrate to another Magistrate, the former shall be deemed to
cease to exercise jurisdiction therein, and to be succeeded by the latter, within the meaning
of sub-section (1).
(3) Nothing in this section applies to summary trials or to cases in which proceedings
have been stayed under section 361 or in which proceedings have been submitted to a
superior Magistrate under section 364.
366. (1) The place in which any Criminal Court is held for the purpose of inquiring into
or trying any offence shall be deemed to be an open Court, to which the public generally
may have access, so far as the same can conveniently contain them:
Provided that the presiding Judge or Magistrate may, if he thinks fit, order at any
stage of any inquiry into, or trial of, any particular case, that the public generally, or any
particular person, shall not have access to, or be or remain in, the room or building used by
the Court.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), the inquiry into and trial
of rape or an offence under section 64, section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68,
section 70 or section 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or under sections 4, 6, 8 or
section 10 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 shall be conducted
in camera:
Provided that the presiding Judge may, if he thinks fit, or on an application made by
either of the parties, allow any particular person to have access to, or be or remain in, the
room or building used by the Court:
Provided further that in camera trial shall be conducted as far as practicable by a
woman Judge or Magistrate.
(3) Where any proceedings are held under sub-section (2), it shall not be lawful for
any person to print or publish any matter in relation to any such proceedings except with
the previous permission of the Court:
Provided that the ban on printing or publication of trial proceedings in relation to an
offence of rape may be lifted, subject to maintaining confidentiality of name and address of
the parties.
CHAPTER XXVII
PROVISIONS AS TO ACCUSED PERSONS OF UNSOUND MIND
367. (1) When a Magistrate holding an inquiry has reason to believe that the person
against whom the inquiry is being held is a person of unsound mind and consequently
incapable of making his defence, the Magistrate shall inquire into the fact of such
unsoundness of mind, and shall cause such person to be examined by the civil surgeon of
the district or such other medical officer as the State Government may direct, and thereupon
shall examine such surgeon or other medical officer as a witness, and shall reduce the
examination to writing.
(2) If the civil surgeon finds the accused to be a person of unsound mind, he shall
refer such person to a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist of Government hospital or
Government medical college for care, treatment and prognosis of the condition and the
psychiatrist or clinical psychologist, as the case may be, shall inform the Magistrate whether
the accused is suffering from unsoundness of mind or intellectual disability:
Court to be
open.
Procedure in
case of
accused being
person of
unsound mind.
32 of 2012.
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Provided that if the accused is aggrieved by the information given by the psychiatric
or clinical psychologist, as the case may be, to the Magistrate, he may prefer an appeal
before the Medical Board which shall consist of—
(a) head of psychiatry unit in the nearest Government hospital; and
(b) a faculty member in psychiatry in the nearest Government medical college.
(3) Pending such examination and inquiry, the Magistrate may deal with such person
in accordance with the provisions of section 369.
(4) If the Magistrate is informed that the person referred to in sub-section (2) is a
person of unsound mind, the Magistrate shall further determine whether the unsoundness
of mind renders the accused incapable of entering defence and if the accused is found so
incapable, the Magistrate shall record a finding to that effect, and shall examine the record
of evidence produced by the prosecution and after hearing the advocate of the accused but
without questioning the accused, if he finds that no prima facie case is made out against
the accused, he shall, instead of postponing the enquiry, discharge the accused and deal
with him in the manner provided under section 369:
Provided that if the Magistrate finds that a prima facie case is made out against the
accused in respect of whom a finding of unsoundness of mind is arrived at, he shall postpone
the proceeding for such period, as in the opinion of the psychiatrist or clinical psychologist,
is required for the treatment of the accused, and order the accused to be dealt with as
provided under section 369.
(5) If the Magistrate is informed that the person referred to in sub-section (2) is a
person with intellectual disability, the Magistrate shall further determine whether the
intellectual disability renders the accused incapable of entering defence, and if the accused
is found so incapable, the Magistrate shall order closure of the inquiry and deal with the
accused in the manner provided under section 369.
368. (1) If at the trial of any person before a Magistrate or Court of Session, it appears
to the Magistrate or Court that such person is of unsound mind and consequently incapable
of making his defence, the Magistrate or Court shall, in the first instance, try the fact of such
unsoundness of mind and incapacity, and if the Magistrate or Court, after considering such
medical and other evidence as may be produced before him or it, is satisfied of the fact, he
or it shall record a finding to that effect and shall postpone further proceedings in the case.
(2) If during trial, the Magistrate or Court of Session finds the accused to be of
unsound mind, he or it shall refer such person to a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist for
care and treatment, and the psychiatrist or clinical psychologist, as the case may be, shall
report to the Magistrate or Court whether the accused is suffering from unsoundness of
mind:
Provided that if the accused is aggrieved by the information given by the psychiatrist
or clinical psychologist, as the case may be, to the Magistrate, he may prefer an appeal
before the Medical Board which shall consist of—
(a) head of psychiatry unit in the nearest Government hospital; and
(b) a faculty member in psychiatry in the nearest Government medical college.
(3) If the Magistrate or Court is informed that the person referred to in sub-section (2)
is a person of unsound mind, the Magistrate or Court shall further determine whether the
unsoundness of mind renders the accused incapable of entering defence and if the accused
is found so incapable, the Magistrate or Court shall record a finding to that effect and shall
examine the record of evidence produced by the prosecution and after hearing the advocate
of the accused but without questioning the accused, if the Magistrate or Court finds that no
prima facie case is made out against the accused, he or it shall, instead of postponing the
trial, discharge the accused and deal with him in the manner provided under section 369:
Procedure in
case of person
of unsound
mind tried
before Court.
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Provided that if the Magistrate or Court finds that a prima facie case is made out
against the accused in respect of whom a finding of unsoundness of mind is arrived at, he
shall postpone the trial for such period, as in the opinion of the psychiatrist or clinical
psychologist, is required for the treatment of the accused.
(4) If the Magistrate or Court finds that a prima facie case is made out against the
accused and he is incapable of entering defence by reason of intellectual disability, he or it
shall not hold the trial and order the accused to be dealt with in accordance with section 369.
369. (1) Whenever a person if found under section 367 or section 368 to be incapable
of entering defence by reason of unsoundness of mind or intellectual disability, the
Magistrate or Court, as the case may be, shall, whether the case is one in which bail may be
taken or not, order release of such person on bail:
Provided that the accused is suffering from unsoundness of mind or intellectual
disability which does not mandate in-patient treatment and a friend or relative undertakes to
obtain regular out-patient psychiatric treatment from the nearest medical facility and to
prevent from doing injury to himself or to any other person.
(2) If the case is one in which, in the opinion of the Magistrate or Court, as the case
may be, bail cannot be granted or if an appropriate undertaking is not given, he or it shall
order the accused to be kept in such a place where regular psychiatric treatment can be
provided, and shall report the action taken to the State Government:
Provided that no order for the detention of the accused in a public mental health
establishment shall be made otherwise than in accordance with such rules as the State
Government may have made under the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.
(3) Whenever a person is found under section 367 or section 368 to be incapable of
entering defence by reason of unsoundness of mind or intellectual disability, the Magistrate
or Court, as the case may be, shall keeping in view the nature of the act committed and the
extent of unsoundness of mind or intellectual disability, further determine if the release of
the accused can be ordered:
Provided that—
(a) if on the basis of medical opinion or opinion of a specialist, the Magistrate
or Court, as the case may be, decide to order discharge of the accused, as provided
under section 367 or section 368, such release may be ordered, if sufficient security is
given that the accused shall be prevented from doing injury to himself or to any other
person;
(b) if the Magistrate or Court, as the case may be, is of the opinion that discharge
of the accused cannot be ordered, the transfer of the accused to a residential facility
for persons with unsoundness of mind or intellectual disability may be ordered wherein
the accused may be provided care and appropriate education and training.
370. (1) Whenever an inquiry or a trial is postponed under section 367 or section 368,
the Magistrate or Court, as the case may be, may at any time after the person concerned has
ceased to be of unsound mind, resume the inquiry or trial and require the accused to appear
or be brought before such Magistrate or Court.
(2) When the accused has been released under section 369, and the sureties for his
appearance produce him to the officer whom the Magistrate or Court appoints in this
behalf, the certificate of such officer that the accused is capable of making his defence shall
be receivable in evidence.
371. (1) If, when the accused appears or is again brought before the Magistrate or
Court, as the case may be, the Magistrate or Court considers him capable of making his
defence, the inquiry or trial shall proceed.
(2) If the Magistrate or Court considers the accused to be still incapable of making his
defence, the Magistrate or Court shall act according to the provisions of section 367 or
section 368, as the case may be, and if the accused is found to be of unsound mind and
consequently incapable of making his defence, shall deal with such accused in accordance
with the provisions of section 369.
Release of
person of
unsound mind
pending
investigation
or trial.
Resumption of
inquiry or
trial.
Procedure on
accused
appearing
before
Magistrate or
Court.
10 of 2017.
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372. When the accused appears to be of sound mind at the time of inquiry or trial, and
the Magistrate is satisfied from the evidence given before him that there is reason to believe
that the accused committed an act, which, if he had been of sound mind, would have been
an offence, and that he was, at the time when the act was committed, by reason of
unsoundness of mind, incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it was wrong or
contrary to law, the Magistrate shall proceed with the case, and, if the accused ought to be
tried by the Court of Session, commit him for trial before the Court of Session.
373. Whenever any person is acquitted upon the ground that, at the time at which he
is alleged to have committed an offence, he was, by reason of unsoundness of mind,
incapable of knowing the nature of the act alleged as constituting the offence, or that it was
wrong or contrary to law, the finding shall state specifically whether he committed the act or
not.
374. (1) Whenever the finding states that the accused person committed the act
alleged, the Magistrate or Court before whom or which the trial has been held, shall, if such
act would, but for the incapacity found, have constituted an offence,—
(a) order such person to be detained in safe custody in such place and manner
as the Magistrate or Court thinks fit; or
(b) order such person to be delivered to any relative or friend of such person.
(2) No order for the detention of the accused in a public mental health establishment
shall be made under clause (a) of sub-section (1) otherwise than in accordance with such
rules as the State Government may have made under the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.
(3) No order for the delivery of the accused to a relative or friend shall be made under
clause (b) of sub-section (1) except upon the application of such relative or friend and on
his giving security to the satisfaction of the Magistrate or Court that the person delivered
shall—
(a) be properly taken care of and prevented from doing injury to himself or to
any other person;
(b) be produced for the inspection of such officer, and at such times and places,
as the State Government may direct.
(4) The Magistrate or Court shall report to the State Government the action taken
under sub-section (1).
375. The State Government may empower the officer in charge of the jail in which a
person is confined under the provisions of section 369 or section 374 to discharge all or any
of the functions of the Inspector-General of Prisons under section 376 or section 377.
376. If a person is detained under the provisions of sub-section (2) of section 369,
and in the case of a person detained in a jail, the Inspector-General of Prisons, or, in the case
of a person detained in a public mental health establishment, the Mental Health Review
Board constituted under the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, shall certify that, in his or their
opinion, such person is capable of making his defence, he shall be taken before the Magistrate
or Court, as the case may be, at such time as the Magistrate or Court appoints, and the
Magistrate or Court shall deal with such person under the provisions of section 371; and
the certificate of such Inspector-General or visitors as aforesaid shall be receivable as
evidence.
377. (1) If a person is detained under the provisions of sub-section (2) of section 369,
or section 374, and such Inspector-General or visitors shall certify that, in his or their
judgment, he may be released without danger of his doing injury to himself or to any other
person, the State Government may thereupon order him to be released, or to be detained in
custody, or to be transferred to a public mental health establishment if he has not been
already sent to such establishment; and, in case it orders him to be transferred to a public
mental health establishment, may appoint a Commission, consisting of a Judicial and two
medical officers.
When accused
appears to
have been of
sound mind.
Judgment of
acquittal on
ground of
unsoundness
of mind.
Person
acquitted on
ground of
unsoundness
of mind to be
detained in
safe custody.
Power of State
Government
to empower
officer in
charge to
discharge.
Procedure
where prisoner
of unsound
mind is
reported
capable of
making his
defence.
Procedure
where person
of unsound
mind detained
is declared fit
to be released.
10 of 2017.
10 of 2017.
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(2) Such Commission shall make a formal inquiry into the state of mind of such
person, take such evidence as is necessary, and shall report to the State Government, which
may order his release or detention as it thinks fit.
378. (1) Whenever any relative or friend of any person detained under the provisions
of section 369 or section 374 desires that he shall be delivered to his care and custody, the
State Government may, upon the application of such relative or friend and on his giving
security to the satisfaction of such State Government, that the person delivered shall—
(a) be properly taken care of and prevented from doing injury to himself or to
any other person;
(b) be produced for the inspection of such officer, and at such times and places,
as the State Government may direct;
(c) in the case of a person detained under sub-section (2) of section 369, be
produced when required before such Magistrate or Court,
order such person to be delivered to such relative or friend.
(2) If the person so delivered is accused of any offence, the trial of which has been
postponed by reason of his being of unsound mind and incapable of making his defence,
and the inspecting officer referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1), certifies at any time to
the Magistrate or Court that such person is capable of making his defence, such Magistrate
or Court shall call upon the relative or friend to whom such accused was delivered to
produce him before the Magistrate or Court; and, upon such production the Magistrate or
Court shall proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 371, and the certificate of
the inspecting officer shall be receivable as evidence.
CHAPTER XXVIII
PROVISIONS AS TO OFFENCES AFFECTING THE ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE
379. (1) When, upon an application made to it in this behalf or otherwise, any Court
is of opinion that it is expedient in the interests of justice that an inquiry should be made
into any offence referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 215, which appears to
have been committed in or in relation to a proceeding in that Court or, as the case may be, in
respect of a document produced or given in evidence in a proceeding in that Court, such
Court may, after such preliminary inquiry, if any, as it thinks necessary,—
(a) record a finding to that effect;
(b) make a complaint thereof in writing;
(c) send it to a Magistrate of the first class having jurisdiction;
(d) take sufficient security for the appearance of the accused before such
Magistrate, or if the alleged offence is non-bailable and the Court thinks it necessary
so to do, send the accused in custody to such Magistrate; and
(e) bind over any person to appear and give evidence before such Magistrate.
(2) The power conferred on a Court by sub-section (1) in respect of an offence may,
in any case where that Court has neither made a complaint under sub-section (1) in respect
of that offence nor rejected an application for the making of such complaint, be exercised by
the Court to which such former Court is subordinate within the meaning of sub-section (4)
of section 215.
(3) A complaint made under this section shall be signed,—
(a) where the Court making the complaint is a High Court, by such officer of the
Court as the Court may appoint;
(b) in any other case, by the presiding officer of the Court or by such officer of
the Court as the Court may authorise in writing in this behalf.
(4) In this section, "Court" has the same meaning as in section 215.
Delivery of
person of
unsound mind
to care of
relative or
friend.
Procedure in
cases
mentioned in
section 215.
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380. (1) Any person on whose application any Court other than a High Court has
refused to make a complaint under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 379, or
against whom such a complaint has been made by such Court, may appeal to the Court to
which such former Court is subordinate within the meaning of sub-section (4) of
section 215, and the superior Court may thereupon, after notice to the parties concerned,
direct the withdrawal of the complaint, or, as the case may be, making of the complaint which
such former Court might have made under section 379, and, if it makes such complaint, the
provisions of that section shall apply accordingly.
(2) An order under this section, and subject to any such order, an order under
section 379, shall be final, and shall not be subject to revision.
381. Any Court dealing with an application made to it for filing a complaint under
section 379 or an appeal under section 380, shall have power to make such order as to costs
as may be just.
382. (1) A Magistrate to whom a complaint is made under section 379 or section 380
shall, notwithstanding anything contained in Chapter XVI, proceed, as far as may be, to
deal with the case as if it were instituted on a police report.
(2) Where it is brought to the notice of such Magistrate, or of any other Magistrate to
whom the case may have been transferred, that an appeal is pending against the decision
arrived at in the judicial proceeding out of which the matter has arisen, he may, if he thinks
fit, at any stage, adjourn the hearing of the case until such appeal is decided.
383. (1) If, at the time of delivery of any judgment or final order disposing of any
judicial proceeding, a Court of Session or Magistrate of the first class expresses an opinion
to the effect that any witness appearing in such proceeding had knowingly or wilfully given
false evidence or had fabricated false evidence with the intention that such evidence should
be used in such proceeding, it or he may, if satisfied that it is necessary and expedient in the
interest of justice that the witness should be tried summarily for giving or fabricating, as the
case may be, false evidence, take cognizance of the offence and may, after giving the
offender a reasonable opportunity of showing cause why he should not be punished for
such offence, try such offender summarily and sentence him to imprisonment for a term
which may extend to three months, or to fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or
with both.
(2) In every such case the Court shall follow, as nearly as may be practicable, the
procedure prescribed for summary trials.
(3) Nothing in this section shall affect the power of the Court to make a complaint
under section 379 for the offence, where it does not choose to proceed under this section.
(4) Where, after any action is initiated under sub-section (1), it is made to appear to
the Court of Session or Magistrate of the first class that an appeal or an application for
revision has been preferred or filed against the judgment or order in which the opinion
referred to in that sub-section has been expressed, it or he shall stay further proceedings of
the trial until the disposal of the appeal or the application for revision, as the case may be,
and thereupon the further proceedings of the trial shall abide by the results of the appeal or
application for revision.
384. (1) When any such offence as is described in section 210, section 213,
section 214, section 215 or section 267 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is committed in
the view or presence of any Civil, Criminal, or Revenue Court, the Court may cause the
offender to be detained in custody, and may, at any time before the rising of the Court on the
same day, take cognizance of the offence and, after giving the offender a reasonable
opportunity of showing cause why he should not be punished under this section, sentence
the offender to fine not exceeding one thousand rupees, and, in default of payment of fine,
to simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, unless such fine be
sooner paid.
Appeal.
Power to
order costs.
Procedure of
Magistrate
taking
cognizance.
Summary
procedure for
trial for giving
false evidence.
Procedure in
certain cases
of contempt.
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(2) In every such case the Court shall record the fact constituting the offence, with
the statement (if any) made by the offender, as well as the finding and sentence.
(3) If the offence is under section 267 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the record
shall show the nature and stage of the judicial proceeding in which the Court interrupted or
insulted was sitting, and the nature of the interruption or insult.
385. (1) If the Court in any case considers that a person accused of any of the
offences referred to in section 384 and committed in its view or presence should be imprisoned
otherwise than in default of payment of fine, or that a fine exceeding two hundred rupees
should be imposed upon him, or such Court is for any other reason of opinion that the case
should not be disposed of under section 384, such Court, after recording the facts
constituting the offence and the statement of the accused as hereinbefore provided, may
forward the case to a Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the same, and may require
security to be given for the appearance of such person before such Magistrate, or if sufficient
security is not given, shall forward such person in custody to such Magistrate.
(2) The Magistrate to whom any case is forwarded under this section shall proceed to
deal with, as far as may be, as if it were instituted on a police report.
386. When the State Government so directs, any Registrar or any Sub-Registrar
appointed under the Registration Act, 1908, shall be deemed to be a Civil Court within the
meaning of sections 384 and 385.
387. When any Court has under section 384 adjudged an offender to punishment, or
has under section 385 forwarded him to a Magistrate for trial, for refusing or omitting to do
anything which he was lawfully required to do or for any intentional insult or interruption,
the Court may, in its discretion, discharge the offender or remit the punishment on his
submission to the order or requisition of such Court, or on apology being made to its
satisfaction.
388. If any witness or person called to produce a document or thing before a Criminal
Court refuses to answer such questions as are put to him or to produce any document or
thing in his possession or power which the Court requires him to produce, and does not,
after a reasonable opportunity has been given to him so to do, offer any reasonable excuse
for such refusal, such Court may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, sentence him to
simple imprisonment, or by warrant under the hand of the Presiding Magistrate or Judge
commit him to the custody of an officer of the Court for any term not exceeding seven days,
unless in the meantime, such person consents to be examined and to answer, or to produce
the document or thing and in the event of his persisting in his refusal, he may be dealt with
according to the provisions of section 384 or section 385.
389. (1) If any witness being summoned to appear before a Criminal Court is legally
bound to appear at a certain place and time in obedience to the summons and without just
excuse neglects or refuses to attend at that place or time or departs from the place where he
has to attend before the time at which it is lawful for him to depart, and the Court before
which the witness is to appear is satisfied that it is expedient in the interests of justice that
such a witness should be tried summarily, the Court may take cognizance of the offence and
after giving the offender an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be punished
under this section, sentence him to fine not exceeding five hundred rupees.
(2) In every such case the Court shall follow, as nearly as may be practicable, the
procedure prescribed for summary trials.
390. (1) Any person sentenced by any Court other than a High Court under section 383,
section 384, section 388, or section 389 may, notwithstanding anything contained in this
Sanhita appeal to the Court to which decrees or orders made in such Court are ordinarily
appealable.
Procedure
where Court
considers that
case should
not be dealt
with under
section 384.
When
Registrar or
Sub-Registrar
to be deemed a
Civil Court.
Discharge of
offender on
submission of
apology.
Imprisonment
or committal
of person
refusing to
answer or
produce
document.
Summary
procedure for
punishment
for non-
attendance by
a witness in
obedience to
summons.
Appeals from
convictions
under sections
383, 384, 388
and 389.
16 of 1908.
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(2) The provisions of Chapter XXXI shall, so far as they are applicable, apply to
appeals under this section, and the Appellate Court may alter or reverse the finding, or
reduce or reverse the sentence appealed against.
(3) An appeal from such conviction by a Court of Small Causes shall lie to the Court
of Session for the sessions division within which such Court is situate.
(4) An appeal from such conviction by any Registrar or Sub-Registrar deemed to be a
Civil Court by virtue of a direction issued under section 386 shall lie to the Court of Session
for the sessions division within which the office of such Registrar or Sub-Registrar is
situate.
391. Except as provided in sections 383, 384, 388 and 389, no Judge of a Criminal Court
(other than a Judge of a High Court) or Magistrate shall try any person for any offence
referred to in section 215, when such offence is committed before himself or in contempt of
his authority, or is brought under his notice as such Judge or Magistrate in the course of a
judicial proceeding.
CHAPTER XXIX
THE JUDGMENT
392. (1) The judgment in every trial in any Criminal Court of original jurisdiction shall
be pronounced in open Court by the presiding officer immediately after the termination of
the trial or at some subsequent time not later than forty-five days of which notice shall be
given to the parties or their advocates,—
(a) by delivering the whole of the judgment; or
(b) by reading out the whole of the judgment; or
(c) by reading out the operative part of the judgment and explaining the substance
of the judgment in a language which is understood by the accused or his advocate.
(2) Where the judgment is delivered under clause (a) of sub-section (1), the presiding
officer shall cause it to be taken down in short-hand, sign the transcript and every page
thereof as soon as it is made ready, and write on it the date of the delivery of the judgment
in open Court.
(3) Where the judgment or the operative part thereof is read out under clause (b) or
clause (c) of sub-section (1), as the case may be, it shall be dated and signed by the
presiding officer in open Court, and if it is not written with his own hand, every page of the
judgment shall be signed by him.
(4) Where the judgment is pronounced in the manner specified in clause (c) of
sub-section (1), the whole judgment or a copy thereof shall be immediately made available
for the perusal of the parties or their advocates free of cost:
Provided that the Court shall, as far as practicable, upload the copy of the judgment
on its portal within a period of seven days from the date of judgment.
(5) If the accused is in custody, he shall be brought up to hear the judgment pronounced
either in person or through audio-video electronic means.
(6) If the accused is not in custody, he shall be required by the Court to attend to hear
the judgment pronounced, except where his personal attendance during the trial has been
dispensed with and the sentence is one of fine only or he is acquitted:
Provided that where there are more accused persons than one, and one or more of
them do not attend the Court on the date on which the judgment is to be pronounced, the
presiding officer may, in order to avoid undue delay in the disposal of the case, pronounce
the judgment notwithstanding their absence.
Certain Judges
and
Magistrates
not to try
certain
offences when
committed
before
themselves.
Judgment.
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(7) No judgment delivered by any Criminal Court shall be deemed to be invalid by
reason only of the absence of any party or his advocate on the day or from the place
notified for the delivery thereof, or of any omission to serve, or defect in serving, on the
parties or their advocates, or any of them, the notice of such day and place.
(8) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in any way the extent of the
provisions of section 511.
393. (1) Except as otherwise expressly provided by this Sanhita, every judgment
referred to in section 392,—
(a) shall be written in the language of the Court;
(b) shall contain the point or points for determination, the decision thereon and
the reasons for the decision;
(c) shall specify the offence (if any) of which, and the section of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or other law under which, the accused is convicted, and the
punishment to which he is sentenced;
(d) if it be a judgment of acquittal, shall state the offence of which the accused
is acquitted and direct that he be set at liberty.
(2) When the conviction is under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and it is doubtful
under which of two sections, or under which of two parts of the same section, of that
Sanhita the offence falls, the Court shall distinctly express the same, and pass judgment in
the alternative.
(3) When the conviction is for an offence punishable with death or, in the alternative,
with imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of years, the judgment shall state the
reasons for the sentence awarded, and, in the case of sentence of death, the special reasons
for such sentence.
(4) When the conviction is for an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of
one year or more, but the Court imposes a sentence of imprisonment for a term of less than
three months, it shall record its reasons for awarding such sentence, unless the sentence is
one of imprisonment till the rising of the Court or unless the case was tried summarily under
the provisions of this Sanhita.
(5) When any person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall direct that he be
hanged by the neck till he is dead.
(6) Every order under section 136 or sub-section (2) of section 157 and every final
order made under section 144, section 164 or section 166 shall contain the point or points for
determination, the decision thereon and the reasons for the decision.
394. (1) When any person, having been convicted by a Court in India of an offence
punishable with imprisonment for a term of three years, or upwards, is again convicted of
any offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of three years or upwards by any
Court other than that of a Magistrate of the second class, such Court may, if it thinks fit, at
the time of passing a sentence of imprisonment on such person, also order that his residence
and any change of, or absence from, such residence after release be notified as
hereinafter provided for a term not exceeding five years from the date of the expiration of
such sentence.
(2) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall also apply to criminal conspiracies to
commit such offences and to the abetment of such offences and attempts to commit them.
(3) If such conviction is set aside on appeal or otherwise, such order shall become
void.
Language and
contents of
judgment.
Order for
notifying
address of
previously
convicted
offender.
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(4) An order under this section may also be made by an Appellate Court or by the
High Court or Court of Session when exercising its powers of revision.
(5) The State Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions
of this section relating to the notification of residence or change of, or absence from,
residence by released convicts.
(6) Such rules may provide for punishment for the breach thereof and any person
charged with a breach of any such rule may be tried by a Magistrate of competent jurisdiction
in the district in which the place last notified by him as his place of residence is situated.
395. (1) When a Court imposes a sentence of fine or a sentence (including a sentence
of death) of which fine forms a part, the Court may, when passing judgment, order the whole
or any part of the fine recovered to be applied—
(a) in defraying the expenses properly incurred in the prosecution;
(b) in the payment to any person of compensation for any loss or injury caused
by the offence, when compensation is, in the opinion of the Court, recoverable by
such person in a Civil Court;
(c) when any person is convicted of any offence for having caused the death of
another person or of having abetted the commission of such an offence, in paying
compensation to the persons who are, under the Fatal Accidents Act, 1855, entitled to
recover damages from the person sentenced for the loss resulting to them from such
death;
(d) when any person is convicted of any offence which includes theft, criminal
misappropriation, criminal breach of trust, or cheating, or of having dishonestly
received or retained, or of having voluntarily assisted in disposing of, stolen property
knowing or having reason to believe the same to be stolen, in compensating any
bona fide purchaser of such property for the loss of the same if such property is
restored to the possession of the person entitled thereto.
(2) If the fine is imposed in a case which is subject to appeal, no such payment shall
be made before the period allowed for presenting the appeal has elapsed, or, if an appeal be
presented, before the decision of the appeal.
(3) When a Court imposes a sentence, of which fine does not form a part, the Court
may, when passing judgment, order the accused person to pay, by way of compensation,
such amount as may be specified in the order to the person who has suffered any loss or
injury by reason of the act for which the accused person has been so sentenced.
(4) An order under this section may also be made by an Appellate Court or by the
High Court or Court of Session when exercising its powers of revision.
(5) At the time of awarding compensation in any subsequent civil suit relating to the
same matter, the Court shall take into account any sum paid or recovered as compensation
under this section.
396. (1) Every State Government in co-ordination with the Central Government shall
prepare a scheme for providing funds for the purpose of compensation to the victim or his
dependents who have suffered loss or injury as a result of the crime and who require
rehabilitation.
(2) Whenever a recommendation is made by the Court for compensation, the District
Legal Service Authority or the State Legal Service Authority, as the case may be, shall
decide the quantum of compensation to be awarded under the scheme referred to in
sub-section (1).
(3) If the trial Court, at the conclusion of the trial, is satisfied, that the compensation
awarded under section 395 is not adequate for such rehabilitation, or where the cases end
Order to pay
compensation.
13 of 1855.
Victim
compensation
scheme.
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in acquittal or discharge and the victim has to be rehabilitated, it may make recommendation
for compensation.
(4) Where the offender is not traced or identified, but the victim is identified, and
where no trial takes place, the victim or his dependents may make an application to the State
or the District Legal Services Authority for award of compensation.
(5) On receipt of such recommendations or on the application under sub-section (4),
the State or the District Legal Services Authority shall, after due enquiry award adequate
compensation by completing the enquiry within two months.
(6) The State or the District Legal Services Authority, as the case may be, to alleviate
the suffering of the victim, may order for immediate first-aid facility or medical benefits to be
made available free of cost on the certificate of the police officer not below the rank of the
officer in charge of the police station or a Magistrate of the area concerned, or any other
interim relief as the appropriate authority deems fit.
(7) The compensation payable by the State Government under this section shall be in
addition to the payment of fine to the victim under section 65, section 70 and
sub-section (1) of section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
397. All hospitals, public or private, whether run by the Central Government, the
State Government, local bodies or any other person, shall immediately, provide the first-aid
or medical treatment, free of cost, to the victims of any offence covered under section 64,
section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 70, section 71 or sub-section (1) of
section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or under sections 4, 6, 8 or section 10 of
the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, and shall immediately inform the
police of such incident.
398. Every State Government shall prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme
for the State with a view to ensure protection of the witnesses.
399. (1) Whenever any person causes a police officer to arrest another person, if it
appears to the Magistrate by whom the case is heard that there was no sufficient ground for
causing such arrest, the Magistrate may award such compensation, not exceeding one
thousand rupees, to be paid by the person so causing the arrest to the person so arrested,
for his loss of time and expenses in the matter, as the Magistrate thinks fit.
(2) In such cases, if more persons than one are arrested, the Magistrate may, in like
manner, award to each of them such compensation, not exceeding one thousand rupees, as
such Magistrate thinks fit.
(3) All compensation awarded under this section may be recovered as if it were a fine,
and, if it cannot be so recovered, the person by whom it is payable shall be sentenced to
simple imprisonment for such term not exceeding thirty days as the Magistrate directs,
unless such sum is sooner paid.
400. (1) Whenever any complaint of a non-cognizable offence is made to a Court, the
Court, if it convicts the accused, may, in addition to the penalty imposed upon him, order
him to pay to the complainant, in whole or in part, the cost incurred by him in the prosecution,
and may further order that in default of payment, the accused shall suffer simple imprisonment
for a period not exceeding thirty days and such costs may include any expenses incurred in
respect of process-fees, witnesses and advocate's fees which the Court may consider
reasonable.
(2) An order under this section may also be made by an Appellate Court or by the
High Court or Court of Session when exercising its powers of revision.
401. (1) When any person not under twenty-one years of age is convicted of an
offence punishable with fine only or with imprisonment for a term of seven years or less, or
when any person under twenty-one years of age or any woman is convicted of an offence
Treatment of
victims.
Witness
protection
scheme.
Compensation
to persons
groundlessly
arrested.
Order to pay
costs in non-
cognizable
cases.
Order to release
on probation of
good conduct or
after
admonition.
32 of 2012.
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not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, and no previous conviction is proved
against the offender, if it appears to the Court before which he is convicted, regard being
had to the age, character or antecedents of the offender, and to the circumstances in which
the offence was committed, that it is expedient that the offender should be released on
probation of good conduct, the Court may, instead of sentencing him at once to any
punishment, direct that he be released on his entering into a bond or bail bond to appear and
receive sentence when called upon during such period (not exceeding three years) as the
Court may direct, and in the meantime to keep the peace and be of good behavior:
Provided that where any first offender is convicted by a Magistrate of the second
class not specially empowered by the High Court, and the Magistrate is of opinion that the
powers conferred by this section should be exercised, he shall record his opinion to that
effect, and submit the proceedings to a Magistrate of the first class, forwarding the accused
to, or taking bail for his appearance before, such Magistrate, who shall dispose of the case
in the manner provided by sub-section (2).
(2) Where proceedings are submitted to a Magistrate of the first class as provided by
sub-section (1), such Magistrate may thereupon pass such sentence or make such order as
he might have passed or made if the case had originally been heard by him, and, if he thinks
further inquiry or additional evidence on any point to be necessary, he may make such
inquiry or take such evidence himself or direct such inquiry or evidence to be made or taken.
(3) In any case in which a person is convicted of theft, theft in a building, dishonest
misappropriation, cheating or any offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
punishable with not more than two years’ imprisonment or any offence punishable with fine
only and no previous conviction is proved against him, the Court before which he is so
convicted may, if it thinks fit, having regard to the age, character, antecedents or physical or
mental condition of the offender and to the trivial nature of the offence or any extenuating
circumstances under which the offence was committed, instead of sentencing him to any
punishment, release him after due admonition.
(4) An order under this section may be made by any Appellate Court or by the High
Court or Court of Session when exercising its powers of revision.
(5) When an order has been made under this section in respect of any offender, the
High Court or Court of Session may, on appeal when there is a right of appeal to such Court,
or when exercising its powers of revision, set aside such order, and in lieu thereof pass
sentence on such offender according to law:
Provided that the High Court or Court of Session shall not under this sub-section
inflict a greater punishment than might have been inflicted by the Court by which the
offender was convicted.
(6) The provisions of sections 140, 143 and 414 shall, so far as may be, apply in the
case of sureties offered in pursuance of the provisions of this section.
(7) The Court, before directing the release of an offender under sub-section (1), shall
be satisfied that an offender or his surety (if any) has a fixed place of abode or regular
occupation in the place for which the Court acts or in which the offender is likely to live
during the period named for the observance of the conditions.
(8) If the Court which convicted the offender, or a Court which could have dealt with
the offender in respect of his original offence, is satisfied that the offender has failed to
observe any of the conditions of his recognizance, it may issue a warrant for his apprehension.
(9) An offender, when apprehended on any such warrant, shall be brought forthwith
before the Court issuing the warrant, and such Court may either remand him in custody until
the case is heard or admit him to bail with a sufficient surety conditioned on his appearing
for sentence and such Court may, after hearing the case, pass sentence.
(10) Nothing in this section shall affect the provisions of the Probation of Offenders
Act, 1958, or the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 or any other
law for the time being in force for the treatment, training or rehabilitation of youthful offenders.
20 of 1958.
2 of 2016.
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402. Where in any case the Court could have dealt with,—
(a) an accused person under section 401 or under the provisions of the Probation
of Offenders Act, 1958; or
(b) a youthful offender under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015 or any other law for the time being in force for the treatment,
training or rehabilitation of youthful offenders,
but has not done so, it shall record in its judgment the special reasons for not having done
so.
403. Save as otherwise provided by this Sanhita or by any other law for the time being
in force, no Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, shall
alter or review the same except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error.
404. (1) When the accused is sentenced to imprisonment, a copy of the judgment
shall, immediately after the pronouncement of the judgment, be given to him free of cost.
(2) On the application of the accused, a certified copy of the judgment, or when he so
desires, a translation in his own language if practicable or in the language of the Court, shall
be given to him without delay, and such copy shall, in every case where the judgment is
appealable by the accused, be given free of cost:
Provided that where a sentence of death is passed or confirmed by the High Court, a
certified copy of the judgment shall be immediately given to the accused free of cost
whether or not he applies for the same.
(3) The provisions of sub-section (2) shall apply in relation to an order under
section 136 as they apply in relation to a judgment which is appealable by the accused.
(4) When the accused is sentenced to death by any Court and an appeal lies from
such judgment as of right, the Court shall inform him of the period within which, if he wishes
to appeal, his appeal should be preferred.
(5) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), any person affected by a judgment
or order passed by a Criminal Court shall, on an application made in this behalf and on
payment of the prescribed charges, be given a copy of such judgment or order or of any
deposition or other part of the record:
Provided that the Court may, if it thinks fit for some special reason, give it to him free
of cost:
Provided further that the Court may, on an application made in this behalf by the
Prosecuting Officer, provide to the Government, free of cost, a certified copy of such
judgment, order, deposition or record.
(6) The High Court may, by rules, provide for the grant of copies of any judgment or
order of a Criminal Court to any person who is not affected by a judgment or order, on
payment, by such person, of such fees, and subject to such conditions, as the High Court
may, by such rules, provide.
405. The original judgment shall be filed with the record of the proceedings and
where the original is recorded in a language different from that of the Court, and if either
party so requires, a translation thereof into the language of the Court shall be added to such
record.
406. In cases tried by the Court of Session or a Chief Judicial Magistrate, the Court or
such Magistrate, as the case may be, shall forward a copy of its or his finding and sentence
(if any) to the District Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the trial was held.
20 of 1958.
2 of 2016.
Special
reasons to be
recorded in
certain cases.
Court not to
alter
judgment.
Copy of
judgment to be
given to
accused and
other persons.
Judgment
when to be
translated.
Court of
Session to
send copy of
finding and
sentence to
District
Magistrate.
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CHAPTER XXX
SUBMISSION OF DEATH SENTENCES FOR CONFIRMATION
407. (1) When the Court of Session passes a sentence of death, the proceedings shall
forthwith be submitted to the High Court, and the sentence shall not be executed unless it
is confirmed by the High Court.
(2) The Court passing the sentence shall commit the convicted person to jail custody
under a warrant.
408. (1) If, when such proceedings are submitted, the High Court thinks that a further
inquiry should be made into, or additional evidence taken upon, any point bearing upon the
guilt or innocence of the convicted person, it may make such inquiry or take such evidence
itself, or direct it to be made or taken by the Court of Session.
(2) Unless the High Court otherwise directs, the presence of the convicted person
may be dispensed with when such inquiry is made or such evidence is taken.
(3) When the inquiry or evidence (if any) is not made or taken by the High Court, the
result of such inquiry or evidence shall be certified to such Court.
409. In any case submitted under section 407, the High Court—
(a) may confirm the sentence, or pass any other sentence warranted by law; or
(b) may annul the conviction, and convict the accused of any offence of which
the Court of Session might have convicted him, or order a new trial on the same or an
amended charge; or
(c) may acquit the accused person:
Provided that no order of confirmation shall be made under this section until the
period allowed for preferring an appeal has expired, or, if an appeal is presented within such
period, until such appeal is disposed of.
410. In every case so submitted, the confirmation of the sentence, or any new sentence
or order passed by the High Court, shall, when such Court consists of two or more Judges,
be made, passed and signed by at least two of them.
411. Where any such case is heard before a Bench of Judges and such Judges are
equally divided in opinion, the case shall be decided in the manner provided by section 433.
412. In cases submitted by the Court of Session to the High Court for the confirmation
of a sentence of death, the proper officer of the High Court shall, without delay, after the
order of confirmation or other order has been made by the High Court, send either physically,
or through electronic means, a copy of the order, under the seal of the High Court and
attested with his official signature, to the Court of Session.
CHAPTER XXXI
APPEALS
413. No appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of a Criminal Court except as
provided for by this Sanhita or by any other law for the time being in force:
Provided that the victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order
passed by the Court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing
inadequate compensation, and such appeal shall lie to the Court to which an appeal ordinarily
lies against the order of conviction of such Court.
Sentence of
death to be
submitted by
Court of
Session for
confirmation.
Power to
direct further
inquiry to be
made or
additional
evidence to be
taken.
Power of High
Court to
confirm
sentence or
annul
conviction.
Confirmation
or new
sentence to be
signed by two
Judges.
Procedure in
case of
difference of
opinion.
Procedure in
cases
submitted to
High Court for
confirmation.
No appeal to
lie unless
otherwise
provided.
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414. Any person,—
(i) who has been ordered under section 136 to give security for keeping the
peace or for good behaviour; or
(ii) who is aggrieved by any order refusing to accept or rejecting a surety under
section 140,
may appeal against such order to the Court of Session:
Provided that nothing in this section shall apply to persons the proceedings against
whom are laid before a Sessions Judge in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (2)
or sub-section (4) of section 141.
415. (1) Any person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary
original criminal jurisdiction may appeal to the Supreme Court.
(2) Any person convicted on a trial held by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions
Judge or on a trial held by any other Court in which a sentence of imprisonment for more
than seven years has been passed against him or against any other person convicted at the
same trial, may appeal to the High Court.
(3) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), any person,—
(a) convicted on a trial held by Magistrate of the first class, or of the second
class; or
(b) sentenced under section 364; or
(c) in respect of whom an order has been made or a sentence has been passed
under section 401 by any Magistrate,
may appeal to the Court of Session.
(4) When an appeal has been filed against a sentence passed under section 64,
section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 70 or section 71 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the appeal shall be disposed of within a period of six months from the
date of filing of such appeal.
416. Notwithstanding anything in section 415, where an accused person has pleaded
guilty and has been convicted on such plea, there shall be no appeal,—
(i) if the conviction is by a High Court; or
(ii) if the conviction is by a Court of Session or Magistrate of the first or second
class, except as to the extent or legality of the sentence.
417. Notwithstanding anything in section 415, there shall be no appeal by a convicted
person in any of the following cases, namely:—
(a) where a High Court passes only a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three months or of fine not exceeding one thousand rupees, or of both
such imprisonment and fine;
(b) where a Court of Session passes only a sentence of imprisonment for a term
not exceeding three months or of fine not exceeding two hundred rupees, or of both
such imprisonment and fine;
(c) where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not
exceeding one hundred rupees; or
(d) where, in a case tried summarily, a Magistrate empowered to act under
section 283 passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding two hundred rupees:
Provided that an appeal may be brought against any such sentence if any other punishment
is combined with it, but such sentence shall not be appealable merely on the ground—
Appeal from
orders
requiring
security or
refusal to
accept or
rejecting
surety for
keeping peace
or good
behaviour.
Appeals from
convictions.
No appeal in
certain cases
when accused
pleads guilty.
No appeal in
petty cases.
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(i) that the person convicted is ordered to furnish security to keep the peace; or
(ii) that a direction for imprisonment in default of payment of fine is included in
the sentence; or
(iii) that more than one sentence of fine is passed in the case, if the total amount
of fine imposed does not exceed the amount hereinbefore specified in respect of the
case.
418. (1) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), the State Government may, in
any case of conviction on a trial held by any Court other than a High Court, direct the Public
Prosecutor to present an appeal against the sentence on the ground of its inadequacy—
(a) to the Court of Session, if the sentence is passed by the Magistrate; and
(b) to the High Court, if the sentence is passed by any other Court.
(2) If such conviction is in a case in which the offence has been investigated by any
agency empowered to make investigation into an offence under any Central Act other than
this Sanhita, the Central Government may also direct the Public Prosecutor to present an
appeal against the sentence on the ground of its inadequacy—
(a) to the Court of Session, if the sentence is passed by the Magistrate; and
(b) to the High Court, if the sentence is passed by any other Court.
(3) When an appeal has been filed against the sentence on the ground of its
inadequacy, the Court of Session or, as the case may be, the High Court shall not enhance
the sentence except after giving to the accused a reasonable opportunity of showing cause
against such enhancement and while showing cause, the accused may plead for his acquittal
or for the reduction of the sentence.
(4) When an appeal has been filed against a sentence passed under section 64,
section 65, section 66, section 67, section 68, section 70 or section 71 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the appeal shall be disposed of within a period of six months from the
date of filing of such appeal.
419. (1) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), and subject to the provisions
of sub-sections (3) and (5),—
(a) the District Magistrate may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to
present an appeal to the Court of Session from an order of acquittal passed by a
Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
(b) the State Government may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to
present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal
passed by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a) or
an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
(2) If such an order of acquittal is passed in a case in which the offence has been
investigated by any agency empowered to make investigation into an offence under any
Central Act other than this Sanhita, the Central Government may, subject to the provisions
of sub-section (3), also direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal—
(a) to the Court of Session, from an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate in
respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
(b) to the High Court from an original or appellate order of an acquittal passed
by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a) or an order
of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
(3) No appeal to the High Court under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) shall be
entertained except with the leave of the High Court.
(4) If such an order of acquittal is passed in any case instituted upon complaint and
the High Court, on an application made to it by the complainant in this behalf, grants special
Appeal by
State
Government
against
sentence.
Appeal in case
of acquittal.
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leave to appeal from the order of acquittal, the complainant may present such an appeal to
the High Court.
(5) No application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave to appeal from
an order of acquittal shall be entertained by the High Court after the expiry of six months,
where the complainant is a public servant, and sixty days in every other case, computed
from the date of that order of acquittal.
(6) If, in any case, the application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave
to appeal from an order of acquittal is refused, no appeal from that order of acquittal shall lie
under sub-section (1) or under sub-section (2).
420. Where the High Court has, on appeal, reversed an order of acquittal of an
accused person and convicted him and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for life
or to imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, he may appeal to the Supreme Court.
421. Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, when more persons than one are
convicted in one trial, and an appealable judgment or order has been passed in respect of
any of such persons, all or any of the persons convicted at such trial shall have a right of
appeal.
422. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), an appeal to the Court of
Session or Sessions Judge shall be heard by the Sessions Judge or by an Additional
Sessions Judge:
Provided that an appeal against a conviction on a trial held by a Magistrate of the
second class may be heard and disposed of by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(2) An Additional Sessions Judge or a Chief Judicial Magistrate shall hear only such
appeals as the Sessions Judge of the division may, by general or special order, make over to
him or as the High Court may, by special order, direct him to hear.
423. Every appeal shall be made in the form of a petition in writing presented by the
appellant or his advocate, and every such petition shall (unless the Court to which it is
presented otherwise directs) be accompanied by a copy of the judgment or order appealed
against.
424. If the appellant is in jail, he may present his petition of appeal and the copies
accompanying the same to the officer in charge of the jail, who shall thereupon forward
such petition and copies to the proper Appellate Court.
425. (1) If upon examining the petition of appeal and copy of the judgment received
under section 423 or section 424, the Appellate Court considers that there is no sufficient
ground for interfering, it may dismiss the appeal summarily:
Provided that—
(a) no appeal presented under section 423 shall be dismissed unless the appellant
or his advocate has had a reasonable opportunity of being heard in support of the
same;
(b) no appeal presented under section 424 shall be dismissed except after giving
the appellant a reasonable opportunity of being heard in support of the same, unless
the Appellate Court considers that the appeal is frivolous or that the production of
the accused in custody before the Court would involve such inconvenience as would
be disproportionate in the circumstances of the case;
(c) no appeal presented under section 424 shall be dismissed summarily until
the period allowed for preferring such appeal has expired.
(2) Before dismissing an appeal under this section, the Court may call for the record of
the case.
Appeal against
conviction by
High Court in
certain cases.
Special right
of appeal in
certain cases.
Appeal to
Court of
Session how
heard.
Petition of
appeal.
Procedure
when appellant
in jail.
Summary
dismissal of
appeal.
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(3) Where the Appellate Court dismissing an appeal under this section is a Court of
Session or of the Chief Judicial Magistrate, it shall record its reasons for doing so.
(4) Where an appeal presented under section 424 has been dismissed summarily
under this section and the Appellate Court finds that another petition of appeal duly presented
under section 423 on behalf of the same appellant has not been considered by it, that Court
may, notwithstanding anything contained in section 434, if satisfied that it is necessary in
the interests of justice so to do, hear and dispose of such appeal in accordance with law.
426. (1) If the Appellate Court does not dismiss the appeal summarily, it shall cause
notice of the time and place at which such appeal will be heard to be given—
(i) to the appellant or his advocate;
(ii) to such officer as the State Government may appoint in this behalf;
(iii) if the appeal is from a judgment of conviction in a case instituted upon
complaint, to the complainant;
(iv) if the appeal is under section 418 or section 419, to the accused, and shall
also furnish such officer, complainant and accused with a copy of the grounds of
appeal.
(2) The Appellate Court shall then send for the record of the case, if such record is not
already available in that Court, and hear the parties:
Provided that if the appeal is only as to the extent or the legality of the sentence, the
Court may dispose of the appeal without sending for the record.
(3) Where the only ground for appeal from a conviction is the alleged severity of the
sentence, the appellant shall not, except with the leave of the Court, urge or be heard in
support of any other ground.
427. After perusing such record and hearing the appellant or his advocate, if he
appears, and the Public Prosecutor if he appears, and in case of an appeal under section 418
or section 419, the accused, if he appears, the Appellate Court may, if it considers that there
is no sufficient ground for interfering, dismiss the appeal, or may—
(a) in an appeal from an order of acquittal, reverse such order and direct that
further inquiry be made, or that the accused be re-tried or committed for trial, as the
case may be, or find him guilty and pass sentence on him according to law;
(b) in an appeal from a conviction—
(i) reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused,
or order him to be re-tried by a Court of competent jurisdiction subordinate to
such Appellate Court or committed for trial; or
(ii) alter the finding, maintaining the sentence; or
(iii) with or without altering the finding, alter the nature or the extent, or
the nature and extent, of the sentence, but not so as to enhance the same;
(c) in an appeal for enhancement of sentence—
(i) reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused
or order him to be re-tried by a Court competent to try the offence; or
(ii) alter the finding maintaining the sentence; or
(iii) with or without altering the finding, alter the nature or the extent, or,
the nature and extent, of the sentence, so as to enhance or reduce the same;
(d) in an appeal from any other order, alter or reverse such order;
(e) make any amendment or any consequential or incidental order that may be
just or proper:
Procedure for
hearing
appeals not
dismissed
summarily.
Powers of
Appellate
Court.
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Provided that the sentence shall not be enhanced unless the accused has had an
opportunity of showing cause against such enhancement:
Provided further that the Appellate Court shall not inflict greater punishment for the
offence which in its opinion the accused has committed, than might have been inflicted for
that offence by the Court passing the order or sentence under appeal.
428. The rules contained in Chapter XXIX as to the judgment of a Criminal Court of
original jurisdiction shall apply, so far as may be practicable, to the judgment in appeal of a
Court of Session or Chief Judicial Magistrate:
Provided that, unless the Appellate Court otherwise directs, the accused shall not be
brought up, or required to attend, to hear judgment delivered.
429. (1) Whenever a case is decided on appeal by the High Court under this Chapter,
it shall certify its judgment or order to the Court by which the finding, sentence or order
appealed against was recorded or passed and if such Court is that of a Judicial Magistrate
other than the Chief Judicial Magistrate, the High Court's judgment or order shall be sent
through the Chief Judicial Magistrate, and if such Court is that of an Executive Magistrate,
the High Court's judgment or order shall be sent through the District Magistrate.
(2) The Court to which the High Court certifies its judgment or order shall thereupon
make such orders as are conformable to the judgment or order of the High Court; and if
necessary, the record shall be amended in accordance therewith.
430. (1) Pending any appeal by a convicted person, the Appellate Court may, for
reasons to be recorded by it in writing, order that the execution of the sentence or order
appealed against be suspended and, also, if he is in confinement, that he be released on bail,
or on his own bond or bail bond:
Provided that the Appellate Court shall, before releasing on his own bond or bail
bond a convicted person who is convicted of an offence punishable with death or
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, shall give
opportunity to the Public Prosecutor for showing cause in writing against such release:
Provided further that in cases where a convicted person is released on bail it shall be
open to the Public Prosecutor to file an application for the cancellation of the bail.
(2) The power conferred by this section on an Appellate Court may be exercised also
by the High Court in the case of an appeal by a convicted person to a Court subordinate
thereto.
(3) Where the convicted person satisfies the Court by which he is convicted that he
intends to present an appeal, the Court shall,—
(i) where such person, being on bail, is sentenced to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding three years; or
(ii) where the offence of which such person has been convicted is a bailable
one, and he is on bail,
order that the convicted person be released on bail, unless there are special reasons for
refusing bail, for such period as will afford sufficient time to present the appeal and obtain
the orders of the Appellate Court under sub-section (1); and the sentence of imprisonment
shall, so long as he is so released on bail, be deemed to be suspended.
(4) When the appellant is ultimately sentenced to imprisonment for a term or to
imprisonment for life, the time during which he is so released shall be excluded in computing
the term for which he is so sentenced.
431. When an appeal is presented under section 419, the High Court may issue a
warrant directing that the accused be arrested and brought before it or any subordinate
Court, and the Court before which he is brought may commit him to prison pending the
disposal of the appeal or admit him to bail.
Judgments of
subordinate
Appellate
Court.
Order of High
Court on
appeal to be
certified to
lower Court.
Suspension of
sentence
pending
appeal; release
of appellant
on bail.
Arrest of
accused in
appeal from
acquittal.
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432. (1) In dealing with any appeal under this Chapter, the Appellate Court, if it thinks
additional evidence to be necessary, shall record its reasons and may either take such
evidence itself, or direct it to be taken by a Magistrate or, when the Appellate Court is a High
Court, by a Court of Session or a Magistrate.
(2) When the additional evidence is taken by the Court of Session or the Magistrate,
it or he shall certify such evidence to the Appellate Court, and such Court shall thereupon
proceed to dispose of the appeal.
(3) The accused or his advocate shall have the right to be present when the additional
evidence is taken.
(4) The taking of evidence under this section shall be subject to the provisions of
Chapter XXV, as if it were an inquiry.
433. When an appeal under this Chapter is heard by a High Court before a Bench of
Judges and they are divided in opinion, the appeal, with their opinions, shall be laid before
another Judge of that Court, and that Judge, after such hearing as he thinks fit, shall deliver
his opinion, and the judgment or order shall follow that opinion:
Provided that if one of the Judges constituting the Bench, or, where the appeal is laid
before another Judge under this section, that Judge, so requires, the appeal shall be
re-heard and decided by a larger Bench of Judges.
434. Judgments and orders passed by an Appellate Court upon an appeal shall be
final, except in the cases provided for in section 418, section 419, sub-section (4) of
section 425 or Chapter XXXII:
Provided that notwithstanding the final disposal of an appeal against conviction in
any case, the Appellate Court may hear and dispose of, on the merits,—
(a) an appeal against acquittal under section 419, arising out of the same
case; or
(b) an appeal for the enhancement of sentence under section 418, arising out of
the same case.
435. (1) Every appeal under section 418 or section 419 shall finally abate on the death
of the accused.
(2) Every other appeal under this Chapter (except an appeal from a sentence of fine)
shall finally abate on the death of the appellant:
Provided that where the appeal is against a conviction and sentence of death or of
imprisonment, and the appellant dies during the pendency of the appeal, any of his near
relatives may, within thirty days of the death of the appellant, apply to the Appellate Court
for leave to continue the appeal; and if leave is granted, the appeal shall not abate.
Explanation.—In this section, "near relative" means a parent, spouse, lineal
descendant, brother or sister.
CHAPTER XXXII
REFERENCE AND REVISION
436. (1) Where any Court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question
as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation or of any provision contained in an
Act, Ordinance or Regulation, the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of
the case, and is of opinion that such Act, Ordinance, Regulation or provision is invalid or
inoperative, but has not been so declared by the High Court to which that Court is subordinate
or by the Supreme Court, the Court shall state a case setting out its opinion and the reasons
therefor, and refer the same for the decision of the High Court.
Appellate
Court may
take further
evidence or
direct it to be
taken.
Procedure
where Judges
of Court of
appeal are
equally
divided.
Finality of
judgments and
orders on
appeal.
Abatement of
appeals.
Reference to
High Court.
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Explanation.—In this section, "Regulation" means any Regulation as defined in the
General Clauses Act, 1897, or in the General Clauses Act of a State.
(2) A Court of Session may, if it thinks fit in any case pending before it to which the
provisions of sub-section (1) do not apply, refer for the decision of the High Court any
question of law arising in the hearing of such case.
(3) Any Court making a reference to the High Court under sub-section (1) or
sub-section (2) may, pending the decision of the High Court thereon, either commit the
accused to jail or release him on bail to appear when called upon.
437. (1) When a question has been so referred, the High Court shall pass such order
thereon as it thinks fit, and shall cause a copy of such order to be sent to the Court by which
the reference was made, which shall dispose of the case conformably to the said order.
(2) The High Court may direct by whom the costs of such reference shall be paid.
438. (1) The High Court or any Sessions Judge may call for and examine the record of
any proceeding before any inferior Criminal Court situate within its or his local jurisdiction
for the purpose of satisfying itself or himself as to the correctness, legality or propriety of
any finding, sentence or order, recorded or passed, and as to the regularity of any
proceedings of such inferior Court, and may, when calling, for such record, direct that the
execution of any sentence or order be suspended, and if the accused is in confinement that
he be released on his own bond or bail bond pending the examination of the record.
Explanation.—All Magistrates, whether Executive or Judicial, and whether exercising
original or appellate jurisdiction, shall be deemed to be inferior to the Sessions Judge for the
purposes of this sub-section and of section 439.
(2) The powers of revision conferred by sub-section (1) shall not be exercised in
relation to any interlocutory order passed in any appeal, inquiry, trial or other proceeding.
(3) If an application under this section has been made by any person either to the
High Court or to the Sessions Judge, no further application by the same person shall be
entertained by the other of them.
439. On examining any record under section 438 or otherwise, the High Court or the
Sessions Judge may direct the Chief Judicial Magistrate by himself or by any of the
Magistrates subordinate to him to make, and the Chief Judicial Magistrate may himself
make or direct any subordinate Magistrate to make, further inquiry into any complaint
which has been dismissed under section 226 or sub-section (4) of section 227, or into the
case of any person accused of an offence who has been discharged:
Provided that no Court shall make any direction under this section for inquiry into the
case of any person who has been discharged unless such person has had an opportunity of
showing cause why such direction should not be made.
440. (1) In the case of any proceeding the record of which has been called for by
himself, the Sessions Judge may exercise all or any of the powers which may be exercised by
the High Court under sub-section (1) of section 442.
(2) Where any proceeding by way of revision is commenced before a Sessions Judge
under sub-section (1), the provisions of sub-sections (2), (3), (4) and (5) of section 442
shall, so far as may be, apply to such proceeding and references in the said sub-sections to
the High Court shall be construed as references to the Sessions Judge.
(3) Where any application for revision is made by or on behalf of any person before
the Sessions Judge, the decision of the Sessions Judge thereon in relation to such person
shall be final and no further proceeding by way of revision at the instance of such person
shall be entertained by the High Court or any other Court.
441. An Additional Sessions Judge shall have and may exercise all the powers of a
Sessions Judge under this Chapter in respect of any case which may be transferred to him
by or under any general or special order of the Sessions Judge.
Disposal of
case according
to decision of
High Court.
Calling for
records to
exercise
powers of
revision.
Power to
order inquiry.
Sessions
Judge's powers
of revision.
Power of
Additional
Sessions Judge.
10 of 1897.
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442. (1) In the case of any proceeding the record of which has been called for by itself
or which otherwise comes to its knowledge, the High Court may, in its discretion, exercise
any of the powers conferred on a Court of Appeal by sections 427, 430, 431 and 432 or on a
Court of Session by section 344, and, when the Judges composing the Court of revision are
equally divided in opinion, the case shall be disposed of in the manner provided by
section 433.
(2) No order under this section shall be made to the prejudice of the accused or other
person unless he has had an opportunity of being heard either personally or by advocate in
his own defence.
(3) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to authorise a High Court to convert a
finding of acquittal into one of conviction.
(4) Where under this Sanhita an appeal lies and no appeal is brought, no proceeding
by way of revision shall be entertained at the instance of the party who could have
appealed.
(5) Where under this Sanhita an appeal lies but an application for revision has been
made to the High Court by any person and the High Court is satisfied that such application
was made under the erroneous belief that no appeal lies thereto and that it is necessary in
the interests of justice so to do, the High Court may treat the application for revision as a
petition of appeal and deal with the same accordingly.
443. (1) Whenever one or more persons convicted at the same trial makes or make
application to a High Court for revision and any other person convicted at the same trial
makes an application to the Sessions Judge for revision, the High Court shall decide,
having regard to the general convenience of the parties and the importance of the questions
involved, which of the two Courts should finally dispose of the applications for revision
and when the High Court decides that all the applications for revision should be disposed
of by itself, the High Court shall direct that the applications for revision pending before the
Sessions Judge be transferred to itself and where the High Court decides that it is not
necessary for it to dispose of the applications for revision, it shall direct that the applications
for revision made to it be transferred to the Sessions Judge.
(2) Whenever any application for revision is transferred to the High Court, that Court
shall deal with the same as if it were an application duly made before itself.
(3) Whenever any application for revision is transferred to the Sessions Judge, that
Judge shall deal with the same as if it were an application duly made before himself.
(4) Where an application for revision is transferred by the High Court to the Sessions
Judge, no further application for revision shall lie to the High Court or to any other Court at
the instance of the person or persons whose applications for revision have been disposed
of by the Sessions Judge.
444. Save as otherwise expressly provided by this Sanhita, no party has any right to
be heard either personally or by an advocate before any Court exercising its powers of
revision; but the Court may, if it thinks fit, when exercising such powers, hear any party
either personally or by an advocate.
445. When a case is revised under this Chapter by the High Court or a Sessions
Judge, it or he shall, in the manner provided by section 429, certify its decision or order to
the Court by which the finding, sentence or order revised was recorded or passed, and the
Court to which the decision or order is so certified shall thereupon make such orders as are
conformable to the decision so certified, and, if necessary, the record shall be amended in
accordance therewith.
High Court's
powers of
revision.
Power of High
Court to
withdraw or
transfer
revision cases.
Option of
Court to hear
parties.
High Court's
order to be
certified to
lower Court.
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CHAPTER XXXIII
TRANSFER OF CRIMINAL CASES
446. (1) Whenever it is made to appear to the Supreme Court that an order under this
section is expedient for the ends of justice, it may direct that any particular case or appeal be
transferred from one High Court to another High Court or from a Criminal Court subordinate
to one High Court to another Criminal Court of equal or superior jurisdiction subordinate to
another High Court.
(2) The Supreme Court may act under this section only on the application of the
Attorney-General of India or of a party interested, and every such application shall be made
by motion, which shall, except when the applicant is the Attorney-General of India or the
Advocate-General of the State, be supported by affidavit or affirmation.
(3) Where any application for the exercise of the powers conferred by this section is
dismissed, the Supreme Court may, if it is of opinion that the application was frivolous or
vexatious, order the applicant to pay by way of compensation to any person who has
opposed the application such sum as it may consider appropriate in the circumstances of
the case.
447. (1) Whenever it is made to appear to the High Court—
(a) that a fair and impartial inquiry or trial cannot be had in any Criminal Court
subordinate thereto; or
(b) that some question of law of unusual difficulty is likely to arise; or
(c) that an order under this section is required by any provision of this Sanhita,
or will tend to the general convenience of the parties or witnesses, or is expedient for
the ends of justice,
it may order—
(i) that any offence be inquired into or tried by any Court not qualified under
sections 197 to 205 (both inclusive), but in other respects competent to inquire into or
try such offence;
(ii) that any particular case or appeal, or class of cases or appeals, be transferred
from a Criminal Court subordinate to its authority to any other such Criminal Court of
equal or superior jurisdiction;
(iii) that any particular case be committed for trial to a Court of Session; or
(iv) that any particular case or appeal be transferred to and tried before itself.
(2) The High Court may act either on the report of the lower Court, or on the application
of a party interested, or on its own initiative:
Provided that no application shall lie to the High Court for transferring a case from
one Criminal Court to another Criminal Court in the same sessions division, unless an
application for such transfer has been made to the Sessions Judge and rejected by him.
(3) Every application for an order under sub-section (1) shall be made by motion,
which shall, except when the applicant is the Advocate-General of the State, be supported
by affidavit or affirmation.
(4) When such application is made by an accused person, the High Court may direct
him to execute a bond or bail bond for the payment of any compensation which the High
Court may award under sub-section (7).
(5) Every accused person making such application shall give to the Public Prosecutor
notice in writing of the application, together with a copy of the grounds on which it is made;
and no order shall be made on the merits of the application unless at least twenty-four hours
have elapsed between the giving of such notice and the hearing of the application.
Power of
Supreme Court
to transfer
cases and
appeals.
Power of High
Court to
transfer cases
and appeals.
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(6) Where the application is for the transfer of a case or appeal from any subordinate
Court, the High Court may, if it is satisfied that it is necessary so to do in the interest of
justice, order that, pending the disposal of the application the proceedings in the subordinate
Court shall be stayed, on such terms as the High Court may think fit to impose:
Provided that such stay shall not affect the subordinate Court's power of remand
under section 346.
(7) Where an application for an order under sub-section (1) is dismissed, the High
Court may, if it is of opinion that the application was frivolous or vexatious, order the
applicant to pay by way of compensation to any person who has opposed the application
such sum as it may consider proper in the circumstances of the case.
(8) When the High Court orders under sub-section (1) that a case be transferred from
any Court for trial before itself, it shall observe in such trial the same procedure which that
Court would have observed if the case had not been so transferred.
(9) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to affect any order of the Government
under section 218.
448. (1) Whenever it is made to appear to a Sessions Judge that an order under this
sub-section is expedient for the ends of justice, he may order that any particular case be
transferred from one Criminal Court to another Criminal Court in his sessions division.
(2) The Sessions Judge may act either on the report of the lower Court, or on the
application of a party interested, or on his own initiative.
(3) The provisions of sub-sections (3), (4), (5), (6), (7) and (9) of section 447 shall
apply in relation to an application to the Sessions Judge for an order under sub-section (1)
as they apply in relation to an application to the High Court for an order under
sub-section (1) of section 447, except that sub-section (7) of that section shall so apply as
if for the word "sum" occurring therein, the words "sum not exceeding ten thousand rupees"
were substituted.
449. (1) A Sessions Judge may withdraw any case or appeal from, or recall any case or
appeal which he has made over to a Chief Judicial Magistrate subordinate to him.
(2) At any time before the trial of the case or the hearing of the appeal has commenced
before the Additional Sessions Judge, a Sessions Judge may recall any case or appeal
which he has made over to any Additional Sessions Judge.
(3) Where a Sessions Judge withdraws or recalls case or appeal under sub-section (1)
or sub-section (2), he may either try the case in his own Court or hear the appeal himself, or
make it over in accordance with the provisions of this Sanhita to another Court for trial or
hearing, as the case may be.
450. (1) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate may withdraw any case from, or recall any case
which he has made over to, any Magistrate subordinate to him, and may inquire into or try
such case himself, or refer it for inquiry or trial to any other such Magistrate competent to
inquire into or try the same.
(2) Any Judicial Magistrate may recall any case made over by him under
sub-section (2) of section 212 to any other Magistrate and may inquire into or try such
cases himself.
451. Any District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate may—
(a) make over, for disposal, any proceeding which has been started before him,
to any Magistrate subordinate to him;
(b) withdraw any case from, or recall any case which he has made over to, any
Magistrate subordinate to him, and dispose of such proceeding himself or refer it for
disposal to any other Magistrate.
Power of
Sessions Judge
to transfer
cases and
appeals.
Withdrawal of
cases and
appeals by
Sessions
Judges.
Withdrawal of
cases by
Judicial
Magistrates.
Making over
or withdrawal
of cases by
Executive
Magistrates.
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452. A Sessions Judge or Magistrate making an order under section 448, section 449,
section 450 or section 451 shall record his reasons for making it.
CHAPTER XXXIV
EXECUTION, SUSPENSION, REMISSION AND COMMUTATION OF SENTENCES
A.—Death sentences
453. When in a case submitted to the High Court for the confirmation of a sentence of
death, the Court of Session receives the order of confirmation or other order of the High
Court thereon, it shall cause such order to be carried into effect by issuing a warrant or
taking such other steps as may be necessary.
454. When a sentence of death is passed by the High Court in appeal or in revision,
the Court of Session shall, on receiving the order of the High Court, cause the sentence to
be carried into effect by issuing a warrant.
455. (1) Where a person is sentenced to death by the High Court and an appeal from
its judgment lies to the Supreme Court under sub-clause (a) or sub-clause (b) of clause (1)
of article 134 of the Constitution, the High Court shall order the execution of the sentence to
be postponed until the period allowed for preferring such appeal has expired, or if, an appeal
is preferred within that period, until such appeal is disposed of.
(2) Where a sentence of death is passed or confirmed by the High Court, and the
person sentenced makes an application to the High Court for the grant of a certificate under
article 132 or under sub-clause (c) of clause (1) of article 134 of the Constitution, the High
Court shall order the execution of the sentence to be postponed until such application is
disposed of by the High Court, or if a certificate is granted on such application, until the
period allowed for preferring an appeal to the Supreme Court on such certificate has expired.
(3) Where a sentence of death is passed or confirmed by the High Court, and the High
Court is satisfied that the person sentenced intends to present a petition to the Supreme
Court for the grant of special leave to appeal under article 136 of the Constitution, the High
Court shall order the execution of the sentence to be postponed for such period as it
considers sufficient to enable him to present such petition.
456. If a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, the High Court shall
commute the sentence to imprisonment for life.
B.—Imprisonment
457. (1) Except when otherwise provided by any law for the time being in force, the
State Government may direct in what place any person liable to be imprisoned or committed
to custody under this Sanhita shall be confined.
(2) If any person liable to be imprisoned or committed to custody under this Sanhita
is in confinement in a civil jail, the Court or Magistrate ordering the imprisonment or committal
may direct that the person be removed to a criminal jail.
(3) When a person is removed to a criminal jail under sub-section (2), he shall, on
being released therefrom, be sent back to the civil jail, unless either—
(a) three years have elapsed since he was removed to the criminal jail, in which
case he shall be deemed to have been released from the civil jail under section 58 of
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; or
(b) the Court which ordered his imprisonment in the civil jail has certified to the
officer in charge of the criminal jail that he is entitled to be released under section 58
of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Reasons to be
recorded.
Execution of
order passed
under section
409.
Execution of
sentence of
death passed
by High Court.
Postponement
of execution
of sentence of
death in case
of appeal to
Supreme
Court.
Commutation
of sentence of
death on
pregnant
woman.
Power to
appoint place
of
imprisonment.
5 of 1908.
5 of 1908.
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458. (1) Where the accused is sentenced to imprisonment for life or to imprisonment
for a term in cases other than those provided for by section 453, the Court passing the
sentence shall forthwith forward a warrant to the jail or other place in which he is, or is to be,
confined, and, unless the accused is already confined in such jail or other place, shall
forward him to such jail or other place, with the warrant:
Provided that where the accused is sentenced to imprisonment till the rising of the
Court, it shall not be necessary to prepare or forward a warrant to a jail, and the accused may
be confined in such place as the Court may direct.
(2) Where the accused is not present in Court when he is sentenced to such
imprisonment as is mentioned in sub-section (1), the Court shall issue a warrant for his
arrest for the purpose of forwarding him to the jail or other place in which he is to be
confined; and in such case, the sentence shall commence on the date of his arrest.
459. Every warrant for the execution of a sentence of imprisonment shall be directed
to the officer in charge of the jail or other place in which the prisoner is, or is to be, confined.
460. When the prisoner is to be confined in a jail, the warrant shall be lodged with the
jailor.
C.—Levy of fine
461. (1) When an offender has been sentenced to pay a fine, but no such payment
has been made, the Court passing the sentence may take action for the recovery of the fine
in either or both of the following ways, that is to say, it may—
(a) issue a warrant for the levy of the amount by attachment and sale of any
movable property belonging to the offender;
(b) issue a warrant to the Collector of the district, authorising him to realise the
amount as arrears of land revenue from the movable or immovable property, or both,
of the defaulter:
Provided that, if the sentence directs that in default of payment of the fine, the
offender shall be imprisoned, and if such offender has undergone the whole of such
imprisonment in default, no Court shall issue such warrant unless, for special reasons to be
recorded in writing, it considers it necessary so to do, or unless it has made an order for the
payment of expenses or compensation out of the fine under section 395.
(2) The State Government may make rules regulating the manner in which warrants
under clause (a) of sub-section (1) are to be executed, and for the summary determination of
any claims made by any person other than the offender in respect of any property attached
in execution of such warrant.
(3) Where the Court issues a warrant to the Collector under clause (b) of
sub-section (1), the Collector shall realise the amount in accordance with the law relating to
recovery of arrears of land revenue, as if such warrant were a certificate issued under such law:
Provided that no such warrant shall be executed by the arrest or detention in prison of
the offender.
462. A warrant issued under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 461 by any Court
may be executed within the local jurisdiction of such Court, and it shall authorise the
attachment and sale of any such property outside such jurisdiction, when it is endorsed by
the District Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction such property is found.
463. Notwithstanding anything in this Sanhita or in any other law for the time being
in force, when an offender has been sentenced to pay a fine by a Criminal Court in any
territory to which this Sanhita does not extend and the Court passing the sentence issues
a warrant to the Collector of a district in the territories to which this Sanhita extends,
authorising him to realise the amount as if it were an arrear of land revenue, such warrant
shall be deemed to be a warrant issued under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 461 by
Execution of
sentence of
imprisonment.
Direction of
warrant for
execution.
Warrant with
whom to be
lodged.
Warrant for
levy of fine.
Effect of such
warrant.
Warrant for
levy of fine
issued by a
Court in any
territory to
which this
Sanhita does
not extend.
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a Court in the territories to which this Sanhita extends, and the provisions of sub-section (3)
of the said section as to the execution of such warrant shall apply accordingly.
464. (1) When an offender has been sentenced to fine only and to imprisonment in
default of payment of the fine, and the fine is not paid forthwith, the Court may—
(a) order that the fine shall be payable either in full on or before a date not more
than thirty days from the date of the order, or in two or three installments, of which the
first shall be payable on or before a date not more than thirty days from the date of the
order and the other or others at an interval or at intervals, as the case may be, of not
more than thirty days;
(b) suspend the execution of the sentence of imprisonment and release the
offender, on the execution by the offender of a bond or bail bond, as the Court thinks
fit, conditioned for his appearance before the Court on the date or dates on or before
which payment of the fine or the installments thereof, as the case may be, is to be
made; and if the amount of the fine or of any installment, as the case may be, is not
realised on or before the latest date on which it is payable under the order, the Court
may direct the sentence of imprisonment to be carried into execution at once.
(2) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall be applicable also in any case in which an
order for the payment of money has been made on non-recovery of which imprisonment
may be awarded and the money is not paid forthwith; and, if the person against whom the
order has been made, on being required to enter into a bond such as is referred to in that
sub-section, fails to do so, the Court may at once pass sentence of imprisonment.
D.—General provisions regarding execution
465. Every warrant for the execution of a sentence may be issued either by the Judge
or Magistrate who passed the sentence, or by his successor-in-office.
466. (1) When a sentence of death, imprisonment for life or fine is passed under this
Sanhita on an escaped convict, such sentence shall, subject to the provisions hereinbefore
contained, take effect immediately.
(2) When a sentence of imprisonment for a term is passed under this Sanhita on an
escaped convict,—
(a) if such sentence is severer in kind than the sentence which such convict
was undergoing when he escaped, the new sentence shall take effect immediately;
(b) if such sentence is not severer in kind than the sentence which such convict
was undergoing when he escaped, the new sentence shall take effect after he has
suffered imprisonment for a further period equal to that which, at the time of his
escape, remained unexpired of his former sentence.
(3) For the purposes of sub-section (2), a sentence of rigorous imprisonment shall be
deemed to be severer in kind than a sentence of simple imprisonment.
467. (1) When a person already undergoing a sentence of imprisonment is sentenced
on a subsequent conviction to imprisonment or imprisonment for life, such imprisonment or
imprisonment for life shall commence at the expiration of the imprisonment to which he has
been previously sentenced, unless the Court directs that the subsequent sentence shall
run concurrently with such previous sentence:
Provided that where a person who has been sentenced to imprisonment by an order
under section 141 in default of furnishing security is, whilst undergoing such sentence,
sentenced to imprisonment for an offence committed prior to the making of such order, the
latter sentence shall commence immediately.
(2) When a person already undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for life is sentenced
on a subsequent conviction to imprisonment for a term or imprisonment for life, the
subsequent sentence shall run concurrently with such previous sentence.
Suspension of
execution of
sentence of
imprisonment.
Who may
issue warrant.
Sentence on
escaped
convict when
to take effect.
Sentence on
offender
already
sentenced for
another
offence.
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468. Where an accused person has, on conviction, been sentenced to imprisonment
for a term, not being imprisonment in default of payment of fine, the period of detention, if
any, undergone by him during the investigation, inquiry or trial of the same case and before
the date of such conviction, shall be set off against the term of imprisonment imposed on
him on such conviction, and the liability of such person to undergo imprisonment on such
conviction shall be restricted to the remainder, if any, of the term of imprisonment imposed
on him:
Provided that in cases referred to in section 475, such period of detention shall be set
off against the period of fourteen years referred to in that section.
469. (1) Nothing in section 466 or section 467 shall be held to excuse any person from
any part of the punishment to which he is liable upon his former or subsequent conviction.
(2) When an award of imprisonment in default of payment of a fine is annexed to a
substantive sentence of imprisonment and the person undergoing the sentence is after its
execution to undergo a further substantive sentence or further substantive sentences of
imprisonment, effect shall not be given to the award of imprisonment in default of payment
of the fine until the person has undergone the further sentence or sentences.
470. When a sentence has been fully executed, the officer executing it shall return the
warrant to the Court from which it is issued, with an endorsement under his hand certifying
the manner in which the sentence has been executed.
471. Any money (other than a fine) payable by virtue of any order made under this
Sanhita, and the method of recovery of which is not otherwise expressly provided for, shall
be recoverable as if it were a fine:
Provided that section 461 shall, in its application to an order under section 400, by
virtue of this section, be construed as if in the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 461,
after the words and figures "under section 395", the words and figures "or an order for
payment of costs under section 400" had been inserted.
E.—Suspension, remission and commutation of sentences
472. (1) A convict under the sentence of death or his legal heir or any other relative
may, if he has not already submitted a petition for mercy, file a mercy petition before the
President of India under article 72 or the Governor of the State under article 161 of the
Constitution within a period of thirty days from the date on which the Superintendent of the
jail,—
(i) informs him about the dismissal of the appeal, review or special leave to
appeal by the Supreme Court; or
(ii) informs him about the date of confirmation of the sentence of death by the
High Court and the time allowed to file an appeal or special leave in the Supreme Court
has expired.
(2) The petition under sub-section (1) may, initially be made to the Governor and on
its rejection or disposal by the Governor, the petition shall be made to the President within
a period of sixty days from the date of rejection or disposal of such petition.
(3) The Superintendent of the jail or officer in charge of the jail shall ensure, that
every convict, in case there are more than one convict in a case, also files the mercy petition
within a period of sixty days and on non-receipt of such petition from the other convicts,
Superintendent of the jail shall send the names, addresses, copy of the record of the case
and all other details of the case to the Central Government or the State Government for
consideration along with the said mercy petition.
(4) The Central Government shall, on receipt of the mercy petition seek the comments
of the State Government and consider the petition along with the records of the case and
Period of
detention
undergone by
accused to be
set off against
sentence
of
imprisonment.
Return of
warrant on
execution of
sentence.
Money
ordered to be
paid
recoverable as
a fine.
Mercy
petition in
death sentence
cases.
Saving.
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make recommendations to the President in this behalf, as expeditiously as possible, within
a period of sixty days from the date of receipt of comments of the State Government and
records from Superintendent of the Jail.
(5) The President may, consider, decide and dispose of the mercy petition and, in case
there are more than one convict in a case, the petitions shall be decided by the President
together in the interests of justice.
(6) Upon receipt of the order of the President on the mercy petition, the Central
Government shall within forty-eight hours, communicate the same to the Home Department
of the State Government and the Superintendent of the jail or officer in charge of the jail.
(7) No appeal shall lie in any Court against the order of the President or of the
Governor made under article 72 or article 161 of the Constitution and it shall be final, and any
question as to the arriving of the decision by the President or the Governor shall not be
inquired into in any Court.
473. (1) When any person has been sentenced to punishment for an offence, the
appropriate Government may, at any time, without conditions or upon any conditions which
the person sentenced accepts, suspend the execution of his sentence or remit the whole or
any part of the punishment to which he has been sentenced.
(2) Whenever an application is made to the appropriate Government for the suspension
or remission of a sentence, the appropriate Government may require the presiding Judge of
the Court before or by which the conviction was had or confirmed, to state his opinion as to
whether the application should be granted or refused, together with his reasons for such
opinion and also to forward with the statement of such opinion a certified copy of the
record of the trial or of such record thereof as exists.
(3) If any condition on which a sentence has been suspended or remitted is, in the
opinion of the appropriate Government, not fulfilled, the appropriate Government may cancel
the suspension or remission, and thereupon the person in whose favour the sentence has
been suspended or remitted may, if at large, be arrested by any police officer, without
warrant and remanded to undergo the unexpired portion of the sentence.
(4) The condition on which a sentence is suspended or remitted under this section
may be one to be fulfilled by the person in whose favour the sentence is suspended or
remitted, or one independent of his will.
(5) The appropriate Government may, by general rules or special orders, give directions
as to the suspension of sentences and the conditions on which petitions should be presented
and dealt with:
Provided that in the case of any sentence (other than a sentence of fine) passed on a
person above the age of eighteen years, no such petition by the person sentenced or by
any other person on his behalf shall be entertained, unless the person sentenced is in jail,
and—
(a) where such petition is made by the person sentenced, it is presented through
the officer in charge of the jail; or
(b) where such petition is made by any other person, it contains a declaration
that the person sentenced is in jail.
(6) The provisions of the above sub-sections shall also apply to any order passed by
a Criminal Court under any section of this Sanhita or of any other law, which restricts the
liberty of any person or imposes any liability upon him or his property.
(7) In this section and in section 474, the expression "appropriate Government"
means,—
(a) in cases where the sentence is for an offence against, or the order referred to
in sub-section (6) is passed under, any law relating to a matter to which the executive
power of the Union extends, the Central Government;
Power to
suspend or
remit
sentences.
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(b) in other cases, the Government of the State within which the offender is
sentenced or the said order is passed.
474. The appropriate Government may, without the consent of the person sentenced,
commute—
(a) a sentence of death, for imprisonment for life;
(b) a sentence of imprisonment for life, for imprisonment for a term not less than
seven years;
(c) a sentence of imprisonment for seven years or more, for imprisonment for a
term not less than three years;
(d) a sentence of imprisonment for less than seven years, for fine;
(e) a sentence of rigorous imprisonment, for simple imprisonment for any term
to which that person might have been sentenced.
475. Notwithstanding anything contained in section 473, where a sentence of
imprisonment for life is imposed on conviction of a person for an offence for which death is
one of the punishments provided by law, or where a sentence of death imposed on a person
has been commuted under section 474 into one of imprisonment for life, such person shall
not be released from prison unless he had served at least fourteen years of imprisonment.
476. The powers conferred by sections 473 and 474 upon the State Government may,
in the case of sentences of death, also be exercised by the Central Government.
477. (1) The powers conferred by sections 473 and 474 upon the State Government to
remit or commute a sentence, in any case where the sentence is for an offence—
(a) which was investigated by any agency empowered to make investigation
into an offence under any Central Act other than this Sanhita; or
(b) which involved the misappropriation or destruction of, or damage to, any
property belonging to the Central Government; or
(c) which was committed by a person in the service of the Central Government
while acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty,
shall not be exercised by the State Government except after concurrence with the Central
Government.
(2) No order of suspension, remission or commutation of sentences passed by the State
Government in relation to a person, who has been convicted of offences, some of which relate to
matters to which the executive power of the Union extends, and who has been sentenced to
separate terms of imprisonment which are to run concurrently, shall have effect unless an order
for the suspension, remission or commutation, as the case may be, of such sentences has also
been made by the Central Government in relation to the offences committed by such person
with regard to matters to which the executive power of the Union extends.
CHAPTER XXXV
PROVISIONS AS TO BAIL AND BONDS
478. (1) When any person other than a person accused of a non-bailable offence is
arrested or detained without warrant by an officer in charge of a police station, or appears
Power to
commute
sentence.
Restriction on
powers of
remission or
commutation
in certain
cases.
Concurrent
power of
Central
Government
in case of
death
sentences.
State
Government
to act after
concurrence
with Central
Government
in certain
cases.
In what cases
bail to be
taken.
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or is brought before a Court, and is prepared at any time while in the custody of such officer
or at any stage of the proceeding before such Court to give bail, such person shall be
released on bail:
Provided that such officer or Court, if he or it thinks fit, may, and shall, if such person
is indigent and is unable to furnish surety, instead of taking bail bond from such person,
discharge him on his executing a bond for his appearance as hereinafter provided.
Explanation.—Where a person is unable to give bail bond within a week of the date
of his arrest, it shall be a sufficient ground for the officer or the Court to presume that he is
an indigent person for the purposes of this proviso:
Provided further that nothing in this section shall be deemed to affect the provisions
of sub-section (3) of section 135 or section 492.
(2) Notwithstanding anything in sub-section (1), where a person has failed to comply
with the conditions of the bond or bail bond as regards the time and place of attendance, the
Court may refuse to release him on bail, when on a subsequent occasion in the same case he
appears before the Court or is brought in custody and any such refusal shall be without
prejudice to the powers of the Court to call upon any person bound by such bond or bail
bond to pay the penalty thereof under section 491.
479. (1) Where a person has, during the period of investigation, inquiry or trial under
this Sanhita of an offence under any law (not being an offence for which the punishment of
death or life imprisonment has been specified as one of the punishments under that law)
undergone detention for a period extending up to one-half of the maximum period of
imprisonment specified for that offence under that law, he shall be released by the Court on
bail:
Provided that where such person is a first-time offender (who has never been convicted
of any offence in the past) he shall be released on bond by the Court, if he has undergone
detention for the period extending up to one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment
specified for such offence under that law:
Provided further that the Court may, after hearing the Public Prosecutor and for
reasons to be recorded by it in writing, order the continued detention of such person for a
period longer than one-half of the said period or release him on bail bond instead of his
bond:
Provided also that no such person shall in any case be detained during the period of
investigation, inquiry or trial for more than the maximum period of imprisonment provided
for the said offence under that law.
Explanation.—In computing the period of detention under this section for granting
bail, the period of detention passed due to delay in proceeding caused by the accused shall
be excluded.
(2) Notwithstanding anything in sub-section (1), and subject to the third proviso
thereof, where an investigation, inquiry or trial in more than one offence or in multiple cases
are pending against a person, he shall not be released on bail by the Court.
(3) The Superintendent of jail, where the accused person is detained, on completion
of one-half or one-third of the period mentioned in sub-section (1), as the case may be, shall
forthwith make an application in writing to the Court to proceed under sub-section (1) for
the release of such person on bail.
480. (1) When any person accused of, or suspected of, the commission of any
non-bailable offence is arrested or detained without warrant by an officer in charge of a
police station or appears or is brought before a Court other than the High Court or Court of
Session, he may be released on bail, but—
(i) such person shall not be so released if there appear reasonable grounds for
Maximum
period for
which
undertrial
prisoner can
be detained.
When bail
may be taken
in case of
non-bailable
offence.
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believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment
for life;
(ii) such person shall not be so released if such offence is a cognizable offence
and he had been previously convicted of an offence punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for seven years or more, or he had been
previously convicted on two or more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable
with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years:
Provided that the Court may direct that a person referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii)
be released on bail if such person is a child or is a woman or is sick or infirm:
Provided further that the Court may also direct that a person referred to in clause (ii)
be released on bail if it is satisfied that it is just and proper so to do for any other special
reason:
Provided also that the mere fact that an accused person may be required for being
identified by witnesses during investigation or for police custody beyond the first fifteen
days shall not be sufficient ground for refusing to grant bail if he is otherwise entitled to be
released on bail and gives an undertaking that he shall comply with such directions as may
be given by the Court:
Provided also that no person shall, if the offence alleged to have been committed by
him is punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for seven years or
more, be released on bail by the Court under this sub-section without giving an opportunity
of hearing to the Public Prosecutor.
the execution by him of a bond for his appearance as hereinafter provided.
(3) When a person accused or suspected of the commission of an offence punishable
with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or more or of an offence under
Chapter VI, Chapter VII or Chapter XVII of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 or abetment
of, or conspiracy or attempt to commit, any such offence, is released on bail under
sub-section (1), the Court shall impose the conditions,—
(a) that such person shall attend in accordance with the conditions of the bond
executed under this Chapter;
(b) that such person shall not commit an offence similar to the offence of which
he is accused, or suspected, of the commission of which he is suspected; and
(c) that such person shall not directly or indirectly make any inducement, threat
or promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so as to dissuade him
from disclosing such facts to the Court or to any police officer or tamper with the
evidence,
and may also impose, in the interests of justice, such other conditions as it considers
necessary.
(4) An officer or a Court releasing any person on bail under sub-section (1) or
sub-section (2), shall record in writing his or its reasons or special reasons for so doing.
(5) Any Court which has released a person on bail under sub-section (1) or
sub-section (2), may, if it considers it necessary so to do, direct that such person be
arrested and commit him to custody.
(2) If it appears to such officer or Court at any stage of the investigation, inquiry or
trial, as the case may be, that there are not reasonable grounds for believing that the
accused has committed a non-bailable offence, but that there are sufficient grounds for
further inquiry into his guilt, the accused shall, subject to the provisions of section 492 and
pending such inquiry, be released on bail, or, at the discretion of such officer or Court, o
n
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(6) If, in any case triable by a Magistrate, the trial of a person accused of any
non-bailable offence is not concluded within a period of sixty days from the first date fixed
for taking evidence in the case, such person shall, if he is in custody during the whole of the
said period, be released on bail to the satisfaction of the Magistrate, unless for reasons to
be recorded in writing, the Magistrate otherwise directs.
(7) If, at any time, after the conclusion of the trial of a person accused of a
non-bailable offence and before judgment is delivered, the Court is of opinion that there are
reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty of any such offence, it shall
release the accused, if he is in custody, on the execution by him of a bond for his appearance
to hear judgment delivered.
481. (1) Before conclusion of the trial and before disposal of the appeal, the Court
trying the offence or the Appellate Court, as the case may be, shall require the accused to
execute a bond or bail bond, to appear before the higher Court as and when such Court
issues notice in respect of any appeal or petition filed against the judgment of the respective
Court and such bond shall be in force for six months.
(2) If such accused fails to appear, the bond stand forfeited and the procedure under
section 491 shall apply.
482. (1) When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an
accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or
the Court of Session for a direction under this section; and that Court may, if it thinks fit,
direct that in the event of such arrest, he shall be released on bail.
(2) When the High Court or the Court of Session makes a direction under
sub-section (1), it may include such conditions in such directions in the light of the facts of
the particular case, as it may think fit, including—
(i) a condition that the person shall make himself available for interrogation by
a police officer as and when required;
(ii) a condition that the person shall not, directly or indirectly, make any
inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so
as to dissuade him from disclosing such facts to the Court or to any police officer;
(iii) a condition that the person shall not leave India without the previous
permission of the Court;
(iv) such other condition as may be imposed under sub-section (3) of
section 480, as if the bail were granted under that section.
(3) If such person is thereafter arrested without warrant by an officer in charge of a
police station on such accusation, and is prepared either at the time of arrest or at any time
while in the custody of such officer to give bail, he shall be released on bail; and if a
Magistrate taking cognizance of such offence decides that a warrant should be issued in
the first instance against that person, he shall issue a bailable warrant in conformity with the
direction of the Court under sub-section (1).
(4) Nothing in this section shall apply to any case involving the arrest of any person
on accusation of having committed an offence under section 65 and sub-section (2) of
section 70 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
483. (1) A High Court or Court of Session may direct,—
(a) that any person accused of an offence and in custody be released on bail,
and if the offence is of the nature specified in sub-section (3) of section 480, may
impose any condition which it considers necessary for the purposes mentioned in
that sub-section;
Bail to require
accused to
appear before
next Appellate
Court.
Direction for
grant of bail
to person
apprehending
arrest.
Special powers
of High Court
or Court of
Session
regarding bail.
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(b) that any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on
bail be set aside or modified:
Provided that the High Court or the Court of Session shall, before granting bail to a
person who is accused of an offence which is triable exclusively by the Court of Session or
which, though not so triable, is punishable with imprisonment for life, give notice of the
application for bail to the Public Prosecutor unless it is, for reasons to be recorded in
writing, of opinion that it is not practicable to give such notice:
Provided further that the High Court or the Court of Session shall, before granting
bail to a person who is accused of an offence triable under section 65 or sub-section (2) of
section 70 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, give notice of the application for bail to the
Public Prosecutor within a period of fifteen days from the date of receipt of the notice of
such application.
(2) The presence of the informant or any person authorised by him shall be obligatory
at the time of hearing of the application for bail to the person under section 65 or
sub-section (2) of section 70 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(3) A High Court or Court of Session may direct that any person who has been
released on bail under this Chapter be arrested and commit him to custody.
484. (1) The amount of every bond executed under this Chapter shall be fixed with
due regard to the circumstances of the case and shall not be excessive.
(2) The High Court or the Court of Session may direct that the bail required by a police
officer or Magistrate be reduced.
485. (1) Before any person is released on bond or bail bond, a bond for such sum of
money as the police officer or Court, as the case may be, thinks sufficient shall be executed
by such person, and, when he is released on bond or bail bond, by one or more sufficient
sureties conditioned that such person shall attend at the time and place mentioned in the
bond, and shall continue so to attend until otherwise directed by the police officer or Court,
as the case may be.
(2) Where any condition is imposed for the release of any person on bail, the bond or
bail bond shall also contain that condition.
(3) If the case so requires, the bond or bail bond shall also bind the person released
on bail to appear when called upon at the High Court, Court of Session or other Court to
answer the charge.
(4) For the purpose of determining whether the sureties are fit or sufficient, the Court
may accept affidavits in proof of the facts contained therein relating to the sufficiency or
fitness of the sureties, or, if it considers necessary, may either hold an enquiry itself or cause
an inquiry to be made by a Magistrate subordinate to the Court, as to such sufficiency or
fitness.
486. Every person standing surety to an accused person for his release on bail, shall
make a declaration before the Court as to the number of persons to whom he has stood
surety including the accused, giving therein all the relevant particulars.
487. (1) As soon as the bond or bail bond has been executed, the person for whose
appearance it has been executed shall be released; and, when he is in jail, the court admitting
him to bail shall issue an order of release to the officer in charge of the jail, and such officer
on receipt of the orders shall release him.
(2) Nothing in this section, section 478 or section 480, shall be deemed to require the
release of any person liable to be detained for some matter other than that in respect of
which the bond or bail bond was executed.
Amount of
bond and
reduction
thereof.
Bond of
accused and
sureties.
Declaration by
sureties.
Discharge
from custody.
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488. If, through mistake, fraud or otherwise, insufficient sureties have been accepted,
or if they afterwards become insufficient, the Court may issue a warrant of arrest directing
that the person released on bail be brought before it and may order him to find sufficient
sureties, and, on his failing so to do, may commit him to jail.
489. (1) All or any sureties for the attendance and appearance of a person released on
bail may at any time apply to a Magistrate to discharge the bond, either wholly or so far as
relates to the applicants.
(2) On such application being made, the Magistrate shall issue his warrant of arrest
directing that the person so released be brought before him.
(3) On the appearance of such person pursuant to the warrant, or on his voluntary
surrender, the Magistrate shall direct the bond to be discharged either wholly or so far as
relates to the applicants, and shall call upon such person to find other sufficient sureties,
and, if he fails to do so, may commit him to jail.
490. When any person is required by any Court or officer to execute a bond or bail
bond, such Court or officer may, except in the case of a bond for good behaviour, permit him
to deposit a sum of money or Government promissory notes to such amount as the Court or
officer may fix in lieu of executing such bond.
491. (1) Where,—
(a) a bond under this Sanhita is for appearance, or for production of property,
before a Court and it is proved to the satisfaction of that Court, or of any Court to
which the case has subsequently been transferred, that the bond has been forfeited; or
(b) in respect of any other bond under this Sanhita, it is proved to the satisfaction
of the Court by which the bond was taken, or of any Court to which the case has
subsequently been transferred, or of the Court of any Magistrate of the first class,
that the bond has been forfeited,
the Court shall record the grounds of such proof, and may call upon any person bound by
such bond to pay the penalty thereof or to show cause why it should not be paid.
Explanation.—A condition in a bond for appearance, or for production of property,
before a Court shall be construed as including a condition for appearance, or as the case
may be, for production of property, before any Court to which the case may subsequently
be transferred.
(2) If sufficient cause is not shown and the penalty is not paid, the Court may proceed
to recover the same as if such penalty were a fine imposed by it under this Sanhita:
Provided that where such penalty is not paid and cannot be recovered in the manner
aforesaid, the person so bound as surety shall be liable, by order of the Court ordering the
recovery of the penalty, to imprisonment in civil jail for a term which may extend to six
months.
(3) The Court may, after recording its reasons for doing so, remit any portion of the
penalty mentioned and enforce payment in part only.
(4) Where a surety to a bond dies before the bond is forfeited, his estate shall be
discharged from all liability in respect of the bond.
(5) Where any person who has furnished security under section 125 or section 136 or
section 401 is convicted of an offence the commission of which constitutes a breach of the
conditions of his bond, or of a bond executed in lieu of his bond under section 494, a
certified copy of the judgment of the Court by which he was convicted of such offence may
be used as evidence in proceedings under this section against his surety or sureties, and,
if such certified copy is so used, the Court shall presume that such offence was committed
by him unless the contrary is proved.
Power to
order
sufficient bail
when that first
taken is
insufficient.
Discharge of
sureties.
Deposit
instead of
recognizance.
Procedure
when bond has
been forfeited.
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492. Without prejudice to the provisions of section 491, where a bond or bail bond
under this Sanhita is for appearance of a person in a case and it is forfeited for breach of a
condition,—
(a) the bond executed by such person as well as the bond, if any, executed by
one or more of his sureties in that case shall stand cancelled; and
(b) thereafter no such person shall be released only on his own bond in that
case, if the police officer or the Court, as the case may be, for appearance before
whom the bond was executed, is satisfied that there was no sufficient cause for the
failure of the person bound by the bond to comply with its condition:
Provided that subject to any other provisions of this Sanhita he may be released in
that case upon the execution of a fresh personal bond for such sum of money and bond by
one or more of such sureties as the police officer or the Court, as the case may be, thinks
sufficient.
493. When any surety to a bail bond under this Sanhita becomes insolvent or dies,
or when any bond is forfeited under the provisions of section 491, the Court by whose order
such bond was taken, or a Magistrate of the first class may order the person from whom
such security was demanded to furnish fresh security in accordance with the directions of
the original order, and if such security is not furnished, such Court or Magistrate may
proceed as if there had been a default in complying with such original order.
494. When the person required by any Court, or officer to execute a bond is a child,
such Court or officer may accept, in lieu thereof, a bond executed by a surety or sureties
only.
495. All orders passed under section 491 shall be appealable,—
(i) in the case of an order made by a Magistrate, to the Sessions Judge;
(ii) in the case of an order made by a Court of Session, to the Court to which an
appeal lies from an order made by such Court.
496. The High Court or Court of Session may direct any Magistrate to levy the
amount due on a bond for appearance or attendance at such High Court or Court of Session.
CHAPTER XXXVI
DISPOSAL OF PROPERTY
497. (1) When any property is produced before any Criminal Court or the Magistrate
empowered to take cognizance or commit the case for trial during any investigation, inquiry
or trial, the Court or the Magistrate may make such order as it thinks fit for the proper
custody of such property pending the conclusion of the investigation, inquiry or trial, and,
if the property is subject to speedy and natural decay, or if it is otherwise expedient so to do,
the Court or the Magistrate may, after recording such evidence as it thinks necessary, order
it to be sold or otherwise disposed of.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "property" includes—
(a) property of any kind or document which is produced before the Court or
which is in its custody;
(b) any property regarding which an offence appears to have been committed
or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence.
(2) The Court or the Magistrate shall, within a period of fourteen days from the
production of the property referred to in sub-section (1) before it, prepare a statement of
such property containing its description in such form and manner as the State Government
may, by rules, provide.
(3) The Court or the Magistrate shall cause to be taken the photograph and if necessary,
Cancellation
of bond and
bail bond.
Procedure in
case of
insolvency or
death of
surety or when
a bond is
forfeited.
Bond required
from child.
Appeal from
orders under
section 491.
Power to
direct levy of
amount due on
certain
recognizances.
Order for
custody and
disposal of
property
pending trial
in certain
cases.
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videograph on mobile phone or any electronic media, of the property referred to in
sub-section (1).
(4) The statement prepared under sub-section (2) and the photograph or the
videography taken under sub-section (3) shall be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or
other proceeding under the Sanhita.
(5) The Court or the Magistrate shall, within a period of thirty days after the statement
has been prepared under sub-section (2) and the photograph or the videography has been
taken under sub-section (3), order the disposal, destruction, confiscation or delivery of the
property in the manner specified hereinafter.
498. (1) When an investigation, inquiry or trial in any criminal case is concluded, the
Court or the Magistrate may make such order as it thinks fit for the disposal, by destruction,
confiscation or delivery to any person claiming to be entitled to possession thereof or
otherwise, of any property or document produced before it or in its custody, or regarding
which any offence appears to have been committed, or which has been used for the
commission of any offence.
(2) An order may be made under sub-section (1) for the delivery of any property to
any person claiming to be entitled to the possession thereof, without any condition or on
condition that he executes a bond, with or without securities, to the satisfaction of the
Court or the Magistrate, engaging to restore such property to the Court if the order made
under sub-section (1) is modified or set aside on appeal or revision.
(3) A Court of Session may, instead of itself making an order under sub-section (1),
direct the property to be delivered to the Chief Judicial Magistrate, who shall thereupon
deal with it in the manner provided in sections 503, 504 and 505.
(4) Except where the property is livestock or is subject to speedy and natural decay,
or where a bond has been executed in pursuance of sub-section (2), an order made under
sub-section (1) shall not be carried out for two months, or when an appeal is presented,
until such appeal has been disposed of.
(5) In this section, the term "property" includes, in the case of property regarding
which an offence appears to have been committed, not only such property as has been
originally in the possession or under the control of any party, but also any property into or
for which the same may have been converted or exchanged, and anything acquired by such
conversion or exchange, whether immediately or otherwise.
499. When any person is convicted of any offence which includes, or amounts to,
theft or receiving stolen property, and it is proved that any other person bought the stolen
property from him without knowing or having reason to believe that the same was stolen,
and that any money has on his arrest been taken out of the possession of the convicted
person, the Court may, on the application of such purchaser and on the restitution of the
stolen property to the person entitled to the possession thereof, order that out of such
money a sum not exceeding the price paid by such purchaser be delivered to him within six
months from the date of such order.
500. (1) Any person aggrieved by an order made by a Court or Magistrate under
section 498 or section 499, may appeal against it to the Court to which appeals ordinarily lie
from convictions by the former Court.
(2) On such appeal, the Appellate Court may direct the order to be stayed pending
disposal of the appeal, or may modify, alter or annul the order and make any further orders
that may be just.
(3) The powers referred to in sub-section (2) may also be exercised by a Court of
appeal, confirmation or revision while dealing with the case in which the order referred to in
sub-section (1) was made.
501. (1) On a conviction under section 294, section 295, or sub-sections (3) and (4) of
section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Court may order the destruction of all
the copies of the thing in respect of which the conviction was had, and which are in the
custody of the Court or remain in the possession or power of the person convicted.
Order for
disposal of
property at
conclusion of
trial.
Payment to
innocent
purchaser of
money found
on accused.
Appeal against
orders under
section 498 or
section 499.
Destruction of
libellous and
other matter.
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(2) The Court may, in like manner, on a conviction under section 274, section 275,
section 276 or section 277 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, order the food, drink, drug
or medical preparation in respect of which the conviction was had, to be destroyed.
502. (1) When a person is convicted of an offence by use of criminal force or show of
force or by criminal intimidation, and it appears to the Court that, by such use of force or
show of force or intimidation, any person has been dispossessed of any immovable property,
the Court may, if it thinks fit, order that possession of the same be restored to that person
after evicting by force, if necessary, any other person who may be in possession of the
property:
Provided that no such order shall be made by the Court more than one month after the
date of the conviction.
(2) Where the Court trying the offence has not made an order under sub-section (1),
the Court of appeal, confirmation or revision may, if it thinks fit, make such order while
disposing of the appeal, reference or revision, as the case may be.
(3) Where an order has been made under sub-section (1), the provisions of
section 500 shall apply in relation thereto as they apply in relation to an order under section 499.
(4) No order made under this section shall prejudice any right or interest to or in such
immovable property which any person may be able to establish in a civil suit.
503. (1) Whenever the seizure of property by any police officer is reported to a
Magistrate under the provisions of this Sanhita, and such property is not produced before
a Criminal Court during an inquiry or trial, the Magistrate may make such order as he thinks
fit respecting the disposal of such property or the delivery of such property to the person
entitled to the possession thereof, or if such person cannot be ascertained, respecting the
custody and production of such property.
(2) If the person so entitled is known, the Magistrate may order the property to be
delivered to him on such conditions (if any) as the Magistrate thinks fit and if such person
is unknown, the Magistrate may detain it and shall, in such case, issue a proclamation
specifying the articles of which such property consists, and requiring any person who may
have a claim thereto, to appear before him and establish his claim within six months from the
date of such proclamation.
504. (1) If no person within such period establishes his claim to such property, and if
the person in whose possession such property was found is unable to show that it was
legally acquired by him, the Magistrate may by order direct that such property shall be at
the disposal of the State Government and may be sold by that Government and the proceeds
of such sale shall be dealt with in such manner as the State Government may, by rules,
provide.
(2) An appeal shall lie against any such order to the Court to which appeals ordinarily
lie from convictions by the Magistrate.
505. If the person entitled to the possession of such property is unknown or absent
and the property is subject to speedy and natural decay, or if the Magistrate to whom its
seizure is reported is of opinion that its sale would be for the benefit of the owner, or that the
value of such property is less than ten thousand rupees, the Magistrate may at any time
direct it to be sold; and the provisions of sections 503 and 504 shall, as nearly as may be
practicable, apply to the net proceeds of such sale.
CHAPTER XXXVII
IRREGULAR PROCEEDINGS
506. If any Magistrate not empowered by law to do any of the following things,
namely:—
(a) to issue a search-warrant under section 97;
(b) to order, under section 174, the police to investigate an offence;
Power to
restore
possession of
immovable
property.
Procedure by
police upon
seizure of
property.
Procedure
where no
claimant
appears within
six months.
Power to sell
perishable
property.
Irregularities
which do not
vitiate
proceedings.
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(c) to hold an inquest under section 196;
(d) to issue process under section 207, for the apprehension of a person within
his local jurisdiction who has committed an offence outside the limits of such
jurisdiction;
(e) to take cognizance of an offence under clause (a) or clause (b) of
sub-section (1) of section 210;
(f) to make over a case under sub-section (2) of section 212;
(g) to tender a pardon under section 343;
(h) to recall a case and try it himself under section 450; or
(i) to sell property under section 504 or section 505,
erroneously in good faith does that thing, his proceedings shall not be set aside merely on
the ground of his not being so empowered.
507. If any Magistrate, not being empowered by law in this behalf, does any of the
following things, namely:—
(a) attaches and sells property under section 85;
(b) issues a search-warrant for a document, parcel or other things in the custody
of a postal authority;
(c) demands security to keep the peace;
(d) demands security for good behaviour;
(e) discharges a person lawfully bound to be of good behaviour;
(f) cancels a bond to keep the peace;
(g) makes an order for maintenance;
(h) makes an order under section 152 as to a local nuisance;
(i) prohibits, under section 162, the repetition or continuance of a public
nuisance;
(j) makes an order under Part C or Part D of Chapter XI;
(k) takes cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of
section 210;
(l) tries an offender;
(m) tries an offender summarily;
(n) passes a sentence, under section 364, on proceedings recorded by another
Magistrate;
(o) decides an appeal;
(p) calls, under section 438, for proceedings; or
(q) revises an order passed under section 491,
his proceedings shall be void.
508. No finding, sentence or order of any Criminal Court shall be set aside merely on
the ground that the inquiry, trial or other proceedings in the course of which it was arrived
at or passed, took place in a wrong sessions division, district, sub-division or other local
area, unless it appears that such error has in fact occasioned a failure of justice.
Irregularities
which vitiate
proceedings.
Proceedings in
wrong place.
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509. (1) If any Court before which a confession or other statement of an accused
person recorded, or purporting to be recorded under section 183 or section 316, is tendered,
or has been received, in evidence finds that any of the provisions of either of such sections
have not been complied with by the Magistrate recording the statement, it may,
notwithstanding anything contained in section 94 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam,
2023, take evidence in regard to such non-compliance, and may, if satisfied that such
non-compliance has not injured the accused in his defence on the merits and that he duly
made the statement recorded, admit such statement.
(2) The provisions of this section apply to Courts of appeal, reference and revision.
510. (1) No finding, sentence or order by a Court of competent jurisdiction shall be
deemed invalid merely on the ground that no charge was framed or on the ground of any
error, omission or irregularity in the charge including any misjoinder of charges, unless, in
the opinion of the Court of appeal, confirmation or revision, a failure of justice has in fact
been occasioned thereby.
(2) If the Court of appeal, confirmation or revision, is of opinion that a failure of
justice has in fact been occasioned, it may,—
(a) in the case of an omission to frame a charge, order that a charge be framed,
and that the trial be recommenced from the point immediately after the framing of the
charge;
(b) in the case of an error, omission or irregularity in the charge, direct a new trial
to be had upon a charge framed in whatever manner it thinks fit:
Provided that if the Court is of opinion that the facts of the case are such that no valid
charge could be preferred against the accused in respect of the facts proved, it shall quash
the conviction.
511. (1) Subject to the provisions hereinbefore contained, no finding, sentence or
order passed by a Court of competent jurisdiction shall be reversed or altered by a Court of
appeal, confirmation of revision on account of any error, omission or irregularity in the
complaint, summons, warrant, proclamation, order, judgment or other proceedings before or
during trial or in any inquiry or other proceedings under this Sanhita, or any error, or
irregularity in any sanction for the prosecution, unless in the opinion of that Court, a failure
of justice has in fact been occasioned thereby.
(2) In determining whether any error, omission or irregularity in any proceeding under
this Sanhita, or any error, or irregularity in any sanction for the prosecution has occasioned
a failure of justice, the Court shall have regard to the fact whether the objection could and
should have been raised at an earlier stage in the proceedings.
512. No attachment made under this Sanhita shall be deemed unlawful, nor shall any
person making the same be deemed a trespasser, on account of any defect or want of form
in the summons, conviction, writ of attachment or other proceedings relating thereto.
CHAPTER XXXVIII
LIMITATION FOR TAKING COGNIZANCE OF CERTAIN OFFENCES
513. For the purposes of this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires, "period
of limitation" means the period specified in section 514 for taking cognizance of an offence.
514. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this Sanhita, no Court shall take cognizance
of an offence of the category specified in sub-section (2), after the expiry of the period of
limitation.
(2) The period of limitation shall be—
(a) six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only;
(b) one year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one year;
Non-
compliance
with provisions
of section 183
or section 316.
Effect of
omission to
frame, or
absence of, or
error in,
charge.
Finding or
sentence when
reversible by
reason of
error,
omission or
irregularity.
Defect or
error not to
make
attachment
unlawful.
Definitions.
Bar to taking
cognizance
after lapse of
period of
limitation.
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(c) three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding one year but not exceeding three years.
(3) For the purposes of this section, the period of limitation, in relation to offences
which may be tried together, shall be determined with reference to the offence which is
punishable with the more severe punishment or, as the case may be, the most severe
punishment.
Explanation.—For the purpose of computing the period of limitation, the relevant
date shall be the date of filing complaint under section 223 or the date of recording of
information under section 173.
515. (1) The period of limitation, in relation to an offender, shall commence,—
(a) on the date of the offence; or
(b) where the commission of the offence was not known to the person aggrieved
by the offence or to any police officer, the first day on which such offence comes to
the knowledge of such person or to any police officer, whichever is earlier; or
(c) where it is not known by whom the offence was committed, the first day on
which the identity of the offender is known to the person aggrieved by the offence or
to the police officer making investigation into the offence, whichever is earlier.
(2) In computing the said period, the day from which such period is to be computed
shall be excluded.
516. (1) In computing the period of limitation, the time during which any person has
been prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution, whether in a Court of first instance
or in a Court of appeal or revision, against the offender, shall be excluded:
Provided that no such exclusion shall be made unless the prosecution relates to the
same facts and is prosecuted in good faith in a Court which from defect of jurisdiction or
other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it.
(2) Where the institution of the prosecution in respect of an offence has been stayed
by an injunction or order, then, in computing the period of limitation, the period of the
continuance of the injunction or order, the day on which it was issued or made, and the day
on which it was withdrawn, shall be excluded.
(3) Where notice of prosecution for an offence has been given, or where, under any
law for the time being in force, the previous consent or sanction of the Government or any
other authority is required for the institution of any prosecution for an offence, then, in
computing the period of limitation, the period of such notice or, as the case may be, the time
required for obtaining such consent or sanction shall be excluded.
Explanation.—In computing the time required for obtaining the consent or sanction
of the Government or any other authority, the date on which the application was made for
obtaining the consent or sanction and the date of receipt of the order of the Government or
other authority shall both be excluded.
(4) In computing the period of limitation, the time during which the offender—
(a) has been absent from India or from any territory outside India which is
under the administration of the Central Government; or
(b) has avoided arrest by absconding or concealing himself,
shall be excluded.
517. Where the period of limitation expires on a day when the Court is closed, the
Court may take cognizance on the day on which the Court reopens.
Explanation.—A Court shall be deemed to be closed on any day within the meaning
of this section, if, during its normal working hours, it remains closed on that day.
Commencement
of period of
limitation.
Exclusion of
time in
certain cases.
Exclusion of
date on which
Court is closed.
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518. In the case of a continuing offence, a fresh period of limitation shall begin to run
at every moment of the time during which the offence continues.
519. Notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter,
any Court may take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of the period of limitation, if it
is satisfied on the facts and in the circumstances of the case that the delay has been
properly explained or that it is necessary so to do in the interests of justice.
CHAPTER XXXIX
MISCELLANEOUS
520. When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than under section 447, it
shall, in the trial of the offence, observe the same procedure as a Court of Sessions would
observe if it were trying the case.
521. (1) The Central Government may make rules consistent with this Sanhita and the
Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950, the Navy Act, 1957, and any other law, relating to
the Armed Forces of the Union, for the time being in force, as to cases in which persons
subject to army, naval or air-force law, or such other law, shall be tried by a Court to which
this Sanhita applies, or by a Court-martial; and when any person is brought before a Magistrate
and charged with an offence for which he is liable to be tried either by a Court to which this
Sanhita applies or by a Court-martial, such Magistrate shall have regard to such rules, and
shall in proper cases deliver him, together with a statement of the offence of which he is
accused, to the commanding officer of the unit to which he belongs, or to the commanding
officer of the nearest army, naval or air-force station, as the case may be, for the purpose of
being tried by a Court-martial.
Explanation.—In this section—
(a) "unit" includes a regiment, corps, ship, detachment, group, battalion or
company;
(b) "Court-martial" includes any Tribunal with the powers similar to those of a
Court-martial constituted under the relevant law applicable to the Armed Forces of
the Union.
(2) Every Magistrate shall, on receiving a written application for that purpose by the
commanding officer of any unit or body of soldiers, sailors or airmen stationed or employed
at any such place, use his utmost endeavours to apprehend and secure any person accused
of such offence.
(3) A High Court may, if it thinks fit, direct that a prisoner detained in any jail situate
within the State be brought before a Court-martial for trial or to be examined touching any
matter pending before the Court-martial.
522. Subject to the power conferred by article 227 of the Constitution, the forms set
forth in the Second Schedule, with such variations as the circumstances of each case
require, may be used for the respective purposes therein mentioned, and if used shall be
sufficient.
523. (1) Every High Court may, with the previous approval of the State Government,
make rules—
(a) as to the persons who may be permitted to act as petition-writers in the
Criminal Courts subordinate to it;
(b) regulating the issue of licences to such persons, the conduct of business by
them, and the scale of fees to be charged by them;
(c) providing a penalty for a contravention of any of the rules so made and
determining the authority by which such contravention may be investigated and the
penalties imposed;
(d) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, provided by rules made
by the State Government.
Continuing
offence.
Extension of
period of
limitation in
certain cases.
Trials before
High Courts.
Delivery to
commanding
officers of
persons liable
to be tried by
Court-martial.
Forms.
Power of High
Court to make
rules.
45 of 1950.
46 of 1950.
62 of 1957.
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(2) All rules made under this section shall be published in the Official Gazette.
524. If the Legislative Assembly of a State by a resolution so permits, the State
Government may, after consultation with the High Court, by notification, direct that references
in sections 127, 128, 129, 164 and 166 to an Executive Magistrate shall be construed as
references to a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
525. No Judge or Magistrate shall, except with the permission of the Court to which
an appeal lies from his Court, try or commit for trial any case to or in which he is a party, or
personally interested, and no Judge or Magistrate shall hear an appeal from any judgment
or order passed or made by himself.
Explanation.—A Judge or Magistrate shall not be deemed to be a party to, or
personally interested in, any case by reason only that he is concerned therein in a public
capacity, or by reason only that he has viewed the place in which an offence is alleged to
have been committed, or any other place in which any other transaction material to the case
is alleged to have occurred, and made an inquiry in connection with the case.
526. No advocate who practices in the Court of any Magistrate shall sit as a Magistrate
in that Court or in any Court within the local jurisdiction of that Court.
527. A public servant having any duty to perform in connection with the sale of any
property under this Sanhita shall not purchase or bid for the property.
528. Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect the inherent powers of
the High Court to make such orders as may be necessary to give effect to any order under
this Sanhita, or to prevent abuse of the process of any Court or otherwise to secure the
ends of justice.
529. Every High Court shall so exercise its superintendence over the Courts of Session
and Courts of Judicial Magistrates subordinate to it as to ensure that there is an expeditious
and proper disposal of cases by the Judges and Magistrates.
530. All trials, inquires and proceedings under this Sanhita, including—
(i) issuance, service and execution of summons and warrant;
(ii) examination of complainant and witnesses;
(iii) recording of evidence in inquiries and trials; and
(iv) all appellate proceedings or any other proceeding,
may be held in electronic mode, by use of electronic communication or use of audio-video
electronic means.
531. (1) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal—
(a) if, immediately before the date on which this Sanhita comes into force, there
is any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation pending, then, such appeal,
application, trial, inquiry or investigation shall be disposed of, continued, held or
made, as the case may be, in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal
Power to alter
functions
allocated to
Executive
Magistrate in
certain cases.
Cases in which
Judge or
Magistrate is
personally
interested.
Practising
advocate not
to sit as
Magistrate in
certain Courts.
Public servant
concerned in
sale not to
purchase or
bid for
property.
Saving of
inherent
powers of
High Court.
Duty of High
Court to
exercise
continuous
superintendence
over Courts.
Trial and
proceedings to
be held in
electronic
mode.
Repeal and
savings.
2 of 1974.
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Procedure, 1973, as in force immediately before such commencement (hereinafter
referred to as the said Code), as if this Sanhita had not come into force;
(b) all notifications published, proclamations issued, powers conferred, forms
provided by rules, local jurisdictions defined, sentences passed and orders, rules and
appointments, not being appointments as Special Magistrates, made under the said
Code and which are in force immediately before the commencement of this Sanhita,
shall be deemed, respectively, to have been published, issued, conferred, specified,
defined, passed or made under the corresponding provisions of this Sanhita;
(c) any sanction accorded or consent given under the said Code in pursuance
of which no proceeding was commenced under that Code, shall be deemed to have
been accorded or given under the corresponding provisions of this Sanhita and
proceedings may be commenced under this Sanhita in pursuance of such sanction or
consent.
(3) Where the period specified for an application or other proceeding under the said
Code had expired on or before the commencement of this Sanhita, nothing in this Sanhita
shall be construed as enabling any such application to be made or proceeding to be
commenced under this Sanhita by reason only of the fact that a longer period therefor is
specified by this Sanhita or provisions are made in this Sanhita for the extension of time.
2 of 1974.
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THE FIRST SCHEDULE
CLASSIFICATION OF OFFENCES
EXPLANATORY NOTES:
(1) In regard to offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the entries in the second and
third columns against a section the number of which is given in the first column are not
intended as the definition of, and the punishment prescribed for, the offence in the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, but merely as indication of the substance of the section.
(2) In this Schedule, (i) the expression "Magistrate of the first class" and "any Magistrate"
does not include Executive Magistrates; (ii) the word "cognizable" stands for "a police officer
may arrest without warrant"; and (iii) the word "non-cognizable" stands for "a police officer
shall not arrest without warrant".
I.—OFFENCES UNDER THE BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA
Section
Offence
Punishment
Cognizable or Non-
Bailable or Non-
By what Court
cognizable
bailable
triable
1
2
3
4
5
6
49
Abetment of any offence,
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
if the act abetted is
abetted.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
committed in consequence,
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
and where no express
provision is made for its
punishment.
50
Abetment of any offence,
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
if the person abetted does
abetted.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
act with different intention
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
from that of abettor.
51
Abetment of any offence,
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
when one act is abetted and intended to be abetted.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
a different act is done;
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
subject to the proviso.
52
Abettor when liable to
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
cumulative punishment
abetted.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
for act abetted and for
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
act done.
53
Abetment of any offence,
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
when an effect is caused by committed.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
the act abetted different
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
from that intended by the
abettor.
54
Abetment of any offence,
Same as for offence
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
if abettor present when
committed.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
offence is committed.
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
55
Abetment of an offence,
Imprisonment for 7 years According as offence
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
punishable with death or
and fine.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
imprisonment for life,
or non-cognizable.
if the offence be not
committed in consequence
of the abetment.
If an act which causes harm Imprisonment for 14 years According as offence
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
to be done in consequence
and fine.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
of the abetment.
or non-cognizable.
56
Abetment of an offence,
Imprisonment extending
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
punishable with imprisonment, to one-fourth of the
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
if the offence be not
longest term provided for or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
committed in consequence
the offence, or fine,
of the abetment.
or both.
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If the abettor or the person Imprisonment extending
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
abetted be a public servant
to one-half of the longest abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
whose duty it is to prevent
term provided for the
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
the offence.
offence, or fine, or both.
57
Abetting commission of an Imprisonment which may According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
offence by the public or by extend to 7 years and
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
more than ten persons.
fine.
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
58 (a)
Concealing design to
Imprisonment for 7 years According as offence
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
commit offence punishable and fine.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
with death or imprisonment
or non-cognizable.
for life, if the offence be
committed.
58(b)
If offence be not committed. Imprisonment for 3 years According as offence
Bailable.
Court by which offence
and fine.
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
or non-cognizable.
59(a)
A public servant concealing Imprisonment extending
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
a design to commit an
to one-half of the longest abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
offence which it is his duty term provided for the
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
to prevent, if the offence
offence, or fine, or both.
be committed.
59(b)
If the offence be punishable Imprisonment for 10 years. According as offence
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
with death or imprisonment
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
for life.
or non-cognizable.
59(c)
If the offence be not
Imprisonment extending
According as offence
Bailable.
Court by which offence
committed.
to one-fourth of the
abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
longest term provided
or non-cognizable.
for the offence, or fine,
or both.
60(a)
Concealing a design to
Imprisonment extending
According as offence
According as offence
Court by which offence
commit an offence
to one-fourth of the
abetted is cognizable
abetted is bailable or
abetted is triable.
punishable with
longest term provided
or non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
imprisonment, if offence
for the offence, or fine,
be committed.
or both.
60(b)
If the offence be not
Imprisonment extending
According as offence
Bailable.
Court by which offence
committed.
to one-eighth part of the abetted is cognizable
abetted is triable.
longest term provided for or non-cognizable.
the offence, or fine,
or both.
61(2)(a) Criminal conspiracy to
Same as for abetment of
According as the offence According as offence
Court by which abetment
commit an offence
the offence which is the
which is the object of
which is object of
of the offence which is
punishable with death,
object of the conspiracy.
conspiracy is cognizable conspiracy is bailable
the object of conspiracy
imprisonment for life or
or non-cognizable.
or non-bailable.
is triable.
rigorous imprisonment for
a term of 2 years or
upwards.
61(2)(b) Any other criminal
Imprisonment for 6
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
conspiracy.
months, or fine, or both.
class.
62
Attempting to commit
One half of the imprison- According as the
According as the
The court by which the
offence punishable with
ment for life, or imprison- offence is cognizable
offence attempted by
offence attempted is
imprisonment for life,
ment not exceeding one-
or non-cognizable.
the offender is bailable triable.
or imprisonment, and in
half of the longest term,
or non-bailable.
such attempt doing any act provided for the offence,
towards the commission of or fine, or both.
the offence.
64(1)
Rape.
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
for not less than 10 years
but which may extend to
imprisonment for life,
and fine.
1
2
3
4
5
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2
3
4
5
6
64(2)
Rape by a police officer or
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
a public servant or member for not less than 10 years
of armed forces or a person but which may extend to
being on the management
imprisonment for life
or on the staff of a jail,
which shall mean the
remand home or other
remainder of that person's
place of custody or
natural life and fine.
women's or children's
institution or by a person
on the management or on
the staff of a hospital, and
rape committed by a person
in a position of trust or
authority towards the person
raped or by a near relative
of the person raped.
65(1)
Persons committing offence Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of rape on a woman under
not less than 20 years but
sixteen years of age.
which may extend to
imprisonment for life,
which shall mean
imprisonment for the
remainder of that person's
natural life and fine.
65(2)
Persons committing offence
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of rape on a woman under
for not less than 20 years
twelve years of age.
but which may extend to
imprisonment for life
which shall mean
imprisonment for the
remainder of that person's
natural life and with
fine or death.
66
Person committing an
Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
offence of rape and
not less than 20 years but
inflicting injury which
which may extend to
causes death or causes
imprisonment for life
the woman to be in a
which shall mean
persistent vegetative state. imprisonment for the
remainder of that person's
natural life or death.
67
Sexual intercourse by
Imprisonment for not
Cognizable (only
Bailable.
Court of Session.
husband upon his wife
less than 2 years but
on the complaint
during separation.
which may extend to
of the victim).
7 years and fine.
68
Sexual intercourse by a
Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
person in authority, etc.
not less than 5 years,
but which may extend to
10 years and fine.
69
Sexual intercourse by
Imprisonment which may
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
employing deceitful
extend to 10 years and
means, etc.
fine.
70(1)
Gang rape.
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
for not less than 20 years
but which may extend to
imprisonment for life
which shall mean
imprisonment for the
remainder of that person's
natural life and fine.
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1
2
3
4
5
6
70(2)
Gang rape on a woman
Imprisonment for life which
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
under eighteen years of age.
shall mean imprisonment
for the remainder of that
person's natural life and
with fine or with death.
71
Repeat offenders.
Imprisonment for life
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
which shall mean
imprisonment for the
remainder of that person's
natural life or with death.
72(1)
Disclosure of identity of
Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
the victim of certain
and fine.
offences, etc.
73
Printing or publication of
Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
a proceeding without prior
and fine.
permission of court.
74
Assault or use of criminal
Imprisonment for 1 year
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
force to woman with intent which may extend to
to outrage her modesty.
5 years and fine.
75(2)
Sexual harassment and
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
punishment for sexual
with 3 years, or fine,
harassment specified in
or both.
clause (i) or clause (ii) or
clause (iii) of sub-section (1).
75(3)
Sexual harassment and
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
punishment for sexual
or fine, or both.
harassment specified in
clause (iv) of sub-section (1).
76
Assault or use of criminal
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
force to woman with intent than 3 years but which
to disrobe.
may extend to 7 years
and fine.
77
Voyeurism.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Court of Session.
than 1 year but which may
extend to 3 years and fine.
Second or subsequent
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
conviction.
than 3 years but which may
extend to 7 years and fine.
78(2)
Stalking.
Imprisonment up to
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
3 years and fine.
Second or subsequent
Imprisonment up to
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
conviction.
5 years and fine.
79
Uttering any word or
Simple imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
making any gesture
3 years and fine.
intended to insult the
modesty of a woman, etc.
80(2)
Dowry death.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
than 7 years but which
may extend to imprisonment
for life.
81
A man by deceit causing
Imprisonment for 10 years
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the
a woman not lawfully
and fine.
first class.
married to him to believe,
that she is lawfully married
to him and to cohabit with
him in that belief.
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82(1)
Marrying again during the
Imprisonment for 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
life time of a husband or
and fine.
class.
wife.
82(2)
Same offence with
Imprisonment for 10 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
concealment of the former and fine.
class.
marriage from the person
with whom subsequent
marriage is contracted.
83
A person with fraudulent
Imprisonment up to 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
intention going through
and fine.
class.
the ceremony of being
married, knowing that he
is not thereby lawfully
married.
84
Enticing or taking away or
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
detaining with a criminal
or fine, or both.
intent a married woman.
85
Punishment for subjecting
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable if information
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
a married woman to cruelty.
and fine.
relating to the
class.
commission of the
offence is given to an
officer in charge of a
police station by the
person aggrieved by the
offence or by any
person related to her by
blood, marriage or
adoption or if there is
no such relative, by any
public servant belonging
to such class or category
as may be notified by
the State Government
in this behalf.
87
Kidnapping, abducting or
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
inducing woman to compel and fine.
her marriage, etc.
88
Causing miscarriage.
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
or fine, or both.
class.
If the woman be quick
Imprisonment for 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
with child.
and fine.
class.
89
Causing miscarriage without
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
women's consent.
imprisonment for 10 years
and fine.
90(1)
Death caused by an act done Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
with intent to cause
and fine.
miscarriage.
90(2)
If act done without
Imprisonment for life,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
women's consent.
or as above.
91
Act done with intent to
Imprisonment for 10 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
prevent a child being born
or fine, or both.
alive, or to cause it to die
after its birth.
92
Causing death of a quick
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
unborn child by an act
and fine.
amounting to culpable
homicide.
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93
Exposure of a child under
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the
12 years of age by parent
or fine, or both.
first class.
or person having care of it
with intention of wholly
abandoning it.
94
Concealment of birth by
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the
secret disposal of dead
or fine, or both.
first class.
body.
95
Hiring, employing or
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the
engaging a child to commit than 3 years but which may
first class.
an offence.
extend to 10 years
and fine.
If offence be committed.
Same as for the offence
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
committed.
committed is triable.
96
Procuration of child.
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
and fine.
97
Kidnapping or abducting a
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
child under ten years with
and fine.
class.
intent to steal from
its person.
98
Selling child for purposes
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of prostitution, etc.
and fine.
99
Buying child for purposes
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of prostitution, etc.
than 7 years but which may
extend to 14 years and fine.
103(1)
Murder.
Death or imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
life and fine.
103(2)
Murder by group of five
Death or with imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
or more persons.
for life and fine.
104
Murder by life-convict.
Death or imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
life, which shall mean the
remainder of that person's
natural life.
105
Culpable homicide not
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
amounting to murder, if act Imprisonment for not less
by which the death is
than 5 years but which
caused is done with
may extend to 10 years
intention of causing death,
and fine.
etc.
If act be done with
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
knowledge that it is
and with fine.
likely to cause death, but
without any intention to
cause death, etc.
106(1)
Causing death by
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
negligence.
and fine.
class.
Causing death by negligence Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
by registered medical
and fine
class.
practitioner.
106(2)
Causing death by rash and
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
negligent driving of
and fine.
class.
vehicle and escaping.
107
Abetment of suicide of
Death, or imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
child or person of unsound
for life, or imprisonment
mind, etc.
for 10 years and fine.
108
Abetment of suicide.
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
and fine.
109(1)
Attempt to murder.
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
and fine.
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If such act causes hurt to
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
any person.
as above.
109(2)
Attempt by life-convict to Death, or imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
murder, if hurt is caused.
for life which shall mean
the remainder of that
person's natural life.
110
Attempt to commit culpable Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
homicide.
or fine, or both.
If such act causes hurt to
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
any person.
or fine, or both.
111(2)(a) Organised crime resulting
Death or imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
in death of any person.
life and fine of not less
than 10 lakh rupees.
111(2)(b) In any other case.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
than 5 years but which may
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine of not less
than 5 lakh rupees.
111(3)
Abetting, attempting,
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
conspiring or knowingly
than 5 years but which may
facilitating the commission extend to imprisonment
of organised crime.
for life and fine of not less
than 5 lakh rupees.
111(4)
Being a member of an
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
organised crime syndicate.
than 5 years but which may
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine of not less
than 5 lakh rupees.
111(5)
Intentionally harbouring or Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
concealing any person who than 3 years but which may
committed offence of
extend to imprisonment
organised crime.
for life and fine of not less
than 5 lakh rupees.
111(6)
Possessing property derived, Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
or obtained from the
than 3 years but which may
commission of organised
extend to imprisonment
crime.
for life and fine of
not less than 2 lakh rupees.
111(7)
Possessing property on
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
behalf of a member of an
than 3 years but which may
organised crime syndicate.
extend to imprisonment
for 10 years and fine of
not less than 1 lakh
rupees.
112
Petty Organised crime.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
than 1 year but which may
class.
extend to 7 years and fine.
113(2)(a) Terrorist act resulting in
Death or imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the death of any person.
for life and fine.
113(2)(b) In any other case.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
than 5 years but which may
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine.
113(3)
Conspiring, attempting,
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
abetting, etc., or knowingly than 5 years but which may
facilitating the commission extend to imprisonment
of terrorist act.
for life and fine.
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113(4)
Organising camps, training, Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
etc., for commission of
than 5 years but which may
terrorist act.
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine.
113(5)
Being a member of an
Imprisonment for life and
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
organisation involved in
fine.
terrorist act.
113(6)
Harbouring, concealing,
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
etc., of any person who
than 3 years but which may
committed a terrorist act.
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine.
113(7)
Possessing property derived Imprisonment for life
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
or obtained from commission and fine.
of terrorist act.
115(2)
Voluntarily causing hurt.
Imprisonment for 1 year
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine of 10,000 rupees,
or both.
117(2)
Voluntarily causing grievous
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
hurt.
and fine.
117(3)
If hurt to results in
Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
permanent disability or
not less than 10 years but
persistent vegetative state. which may extend to
imprisonment for life
which shall mean the
remainder of that person's
natural life.
117(4)
Grievous hurt caused by a
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
group of 5 or more persons. and fine.
118(1)
Voluntarily causing hurt by
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
dangerous weapons or
or fine of 20,000 rupees,
means.
or both.
118(2)
Voluntarily causing grievous Imprisonment for life or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
hurt by dangerous weapons
imprisonment of not less
class.
or means [except as
than 1 year but which may
provided in section 122(2)]. extend to 10 years and fine.
119(1)
Voluntarily causing hurt to
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
extort property, or to
and fine.
class.
constrain to an illegal act.
119(2)
Voluntarily causing grievous Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
hurt for any purpose
imprisonment for 10 years
referred to in sub-section (1).
and fine.
120(1)
Voluntarily causing hurt to
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
extort confession or
and fine.
class.
information, or to compel
restoration of property, etc.
120(2)
Voluntarily causing grievous Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
hurt to extort confession or and fine.
information, or to compel
restoration of property, etc.
121(1)
Voluntarily causing hurt to
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
deter public servant from
or fine, or both.
class.
his duty.
121(2)
Voluntarily causing grievous Imprisonment not less than
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
hurt to deter public servant 1 year, or imprisonment
from his duty.
for 10 years and fine.
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122(1)
Voluntarily causing hurt on Imprisonment for 1 month,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
grave and sudden provocation, or fine of 5,000 rupees, or
not intending to hurt any
both.
other than the person who
gave the provocation.
122(2)
Causing grievous hurt on
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
grave and sudden
or fine of 10,000 rupees,
class.
provocation, not intending or both.
to hurt any other than the
person who gave the
provocation.
123
Causing hurt by means of
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
poison, etc., with intent to and fine.
commit an offence.
124(1)
Voluntarily causing grievous Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
hurt by use of acid, etc.
than 10 years but which may
extend to imprisonment
for life and fine.
124(2)
Voluntarily throwing or
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
attempting to throw acid.
but which may extend to
7 years and fine.
125
Doing any act endangering
Imprisonment for 3 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
human life or personal
or fine of 2,500 rupees,
safety of others.
or both.
125(a)
Where hurt is caused.
Imprisonment for 6 months, Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine of 5,000 rupees,
or both.
125(b)
Where grievous hurt is
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
caused.
or fine of 10,000 rupees,
or both.
126(2)
Wrongfully restraining any Simple imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
person.
1 month, or fine of 5,000
rupees, or both.
127(2)
Wrongfully confining any
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
person.
or fine of 5,000 rupees,
or both.
127(3)
Wrongfully confining for
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
three or more days.
or fine of 10,000 rupees,
or both.
127(4)
Wrongfully confining for
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
10 or more days.
and fine of 10,000 rupees.
class.
127(5)
Keeping any person in
Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of
wrongful confinement,
in addition to any term of
the first class.
knowing that a writ has
imprisonment to under
been issued for his liberation.
any other section and fine.
127(6)
Wrongful confinement in
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
secret.
in addition to other
class.
punishment which he is
liable to and fine.
127(7)
Wrongful confinement for
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
the purpose of extorting
and fine.
property, or constraining to
an illegal act, etc.
127(8)
Wrongful confinement for
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
the purpose of extorting
and fine.
confession or information,
or for compelling restoration
of property, etc.
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Assault or criminal force
Imprisonment for 3 months,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
otherwise than on grave
or fine of 1,000 rupees,
provocation.
or both.
132
Assault or use of criminal
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
force to deter public servant or fine, or both.
from discharge of his duty.
133
Assault or criminal force
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
with intent to dishonour a
or fine, or both.
person, otherwise than on
grave and sudden
provocation.
134
Assault or criminal force
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
in attempt to commit theft or fine, or both.
of property worn or carried
by a person.
135
Assault or use of criminal
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
force in attempt wrongfully or fine of 5,000 rupees,
to confine a person.
or both.
136
Assault or use of criminal
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
force on grave and sudden
one month, or fine of
provocation.
1,000 rupees, or both.
137(2)
Kidnapping.
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
and fine.
class.
139(1)
Kidnapping a child for
Rigorous imprisonment not
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
purposes of begging.
be less than 10 years but
class.
which may extend to
imprisonment for life, and
fine.
139(2)
Maiming a child for purposes
Imprisonment not be less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of begging.
than 20 years which may
extend to remainder of
that person's natural life,
and fine.
140(1)
Kidnapping or abducting in Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
order to murder.
rigorous imprisonment for
10 years and fine.
140(2)
Kidnapping for ransom,
Death, or imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
etc.
life and fine.
140(3)
Kidnapping or abducting
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
with intent secretly and
and fine.
class.
wrongfully to confine a
person.
140(4)
Kidnapping or abducting in Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
order to subject a person to and fine.
grievous hurt, slavery, etc.
141
Importation of a girl or boy
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
from foreign country.
and fine.
142
Wrongfully concealing or
Punishment for kidnapping
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court by which the
keeping in confinement,
or abduction.
kidnapping or abduction
kidnapped or abducted
is triable.
person.
143(2)
Trafficking of person.
Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
not less than 7 years but
which may extend to
10 years and fine.
143(3)
Trafficking of more than
Rigorous imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
one person.
not less than 10 years but
which may extend to
imprisonment for life and
fine.
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143(4)
Trafficking of a child.
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
for not less than 10 years
but which may extend to
imprisonment for life and
fine.
143(5)
Trafficking of more than
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
one child.
for not less than 14 years
but which may extend to
imprisonment for life and
fine.
143(6)
Person convicted of offence Imprisonment for life
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
of trafficking of child on
which shall mean the
more than one occasion.
remainder of that person's
natural life and fine.
143(7)
Public servant or a police
Imprisonment for life
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
officer involved in
which shall mean the
trafficking of child.
remainder of that person's
natural life and fine.
144(1)
Exploitation of a trafficked Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
child.
for not less than 5 years
but which may extend to
10 years and fine.
144(2)
Exploitation of a trafficked Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
person.
for not less than 3 years
but which may extend to
7 years and fine.
145
Habitual dealing in slaves.
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
imprisonment for 10 years
and fine.
146
Unlawful compulsory
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
labour.
or fine, or both.
147
Waging or attempting to
Death, or imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
wage war, or abetting the
for life and fine.
waging of war, against the
Government of India.
148
Conspiring to commit
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
certain offences against the imprisonment for 10 years
State.
and fine.
149
Collecting arms, etc., with
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the intention of waging war imprisonment for 10 years
against the Government of and fine.
India.
150
Concealing with intent to
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
facilitate a design to wage
and fine.
war.
151
Assaulting President,
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
Governor, etc., with intent and fine.
to compel or restrain the
exercise of any lawful power.
152
Act endangering sovereignty,
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
unity and integrity of
imprisonment for 7 years
India.
and fine.
153
Waging war against
Imprisonment for life and
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
Government of any
fine, or imprisonment for
foreign State at peace with
7 years and fine, or fine.
the Government of India.
154
Committing depredation on Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the territories of any foreign
and fine, and forfeiture of
state at peace with the
certain property.
Government of India.
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155
Receiving property taken
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
by war or depredation
and fine, and forfeiture of
mentioned in sections 153
certain property.
and 154.
156
Public servant voluntarily
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
allowing prisoner of state
imprisonment for 10 years
or war in his custody to
and fine.
escape.
157
Public servant negligently
Simple imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
suffering prisoner of State
3 years and fine.
class.
or war in his custody to
escape.
158
Aiding escape of, rescuing
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
or harbouring such prisoner. imprisonment for 10 years
and fine.
159
Abetting mutiny, or
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
attempting to seduce an
imprisonment for 10 years
officer, soldier, sailor or
and fine.
airman from his allegiance
or duty.
160
Abetment of mutiny, if
Death, or imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
mutiny is committed in
for life, or imprisonment
consequence thereof.
for 10 years and fine.
161
Abetment of assault by an
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
officer, soldier, sailor or
and fine.
class.
airman on his superior
officer, when in execution
of his office.
162
Abetment of such assault,
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
if the assault committed.
and fine.
class.
163
Abetment of the desertion
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
of an officer, soldier, sailor or fine, or both.
or airman.
164
Harbouring deserter.
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
165
Deserter concealed on
Fine of 3,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
board merchant vessel
through negligence of
master or person in charge
thereof.
166
Abetment of act of
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
insubordination by an
or fine, or both.
officer, soldier, sailor or
airman if the offence be
committed in consequence.
168
Wearing garb or carrying
Imprisonment for 3 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
token used by soldier, sailor or fine of 2,000 rupees, or
or airman.
both.
173
Bribery.
Imprisonment for 1 year
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
or fine, or both, or if
class.
treating only, fine only.
174
Undue influence or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
personation at an election. or fine, or both.
class.
175
False statement in connection Fine.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
with an election.
class.
176
Illegal payments in
Fine of 10,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
connection with elections.
class.
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177
Failure to keep election
Fine of 5,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
accounts.
class.
178
Counterfeiting coins,
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
government stamps,
imprisonment for 10 years
currency-notes or
and fine.
bank-notes.
179
Using as genuine forged or
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
counterfeit coin, Government imprisonment for 10 years
stamp currency-notes or
and fine.
bank-notes.
180
Possession of forged or
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
counterfeit coin, Government or fine, or both.
stamp, currency-notes or
bank-notes.
181
Making, buying, selling or
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
possessing machinery,
imprisonment for 10 years
instrument or material for
and fine.
forging or counterfeiting
coins, Government stamp,
currency-notes or
bank-notes.
182(1)
Making or using documents Fine of 300 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
resembling currency-notes
or bank-notes.
182(2)
On refusal to disclose the
Fine of 600 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
name and address of the
printer.
183
Effacing any writing from a Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
substance bearing a
or fine, or both.
class.
Government stamp, removing
from a document a stamp
used for it, with intent to
cause a loss to Government.
184
Using a Government stamp Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
known to have been before or fine, or both.
used.
185
Erasure of mark denoting
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
that stamps have been used. or fine, or both.
class.
186
Fictitious stamps.
Fine of 200 rupees.
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
187
Person employed in a Mint Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
causing coin to be of a
and fine.
class.
different weight or
composition from that
fixed by law.
188
Unlawfully taking from a
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
Mint any coining
and fine.
class.
instrument.
189(2)
Being member of an
Imprisonment for 6 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
unlawful assembly.
or fine, or both.
189(3)
Joining or continuing in an Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
unlawful assembly, knowing or fine, or both.
that it has been commanded
to disperse.
189(4)
Joining an unlawful assembly Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
armed with any deadly
or fine, or both.
weapon.
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189(5)
Knowingly joining or
Imprisonment for 6 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
continuing in any assembly or fine, or both.
of five or more persons
after it has been commanded
to disperse.
189(6)
Hiring, engaging or
The same as for a member
Cognizable.
According as
The Court by which the
employing persons to take
of such assembly, and for
offence is bailable
offence is triable.
part in an unlawful assembly.
any offence committed by
or non-bailable.
any member of such
assembly.
189(7)
Harbouring persons hired
Imprisonment for 6 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
for an unlawful assembly.
or fine, or both.
189(8)
Being hired to take part in
Imprisonment for 6 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
an unlawful assembly or
or fine, or both.
riot.
189(9)
Or to go armed.
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
190
Every member of unlawful
The same as for the
According as offence
According as
The Court by which the
assembly guilty of offence
offence.
is cognizable or non-
offence is bailable
offence is triable.
committed in prosecution
cognizable.
or non-bailable.
of common object.
191(2)
Rioting.
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
191(3)
Rioting, armed with a
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
deadly weapon.
or fine, or both.
class.
192
Wantonly giving
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
provocation with
or fine, or both.
intent to cause riot, if
rioting be committed.
If not committed.
Imprisonment for 6 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
193(1)
Owner or occupier of land
Fine of 1,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
not giving information of
riot, etc.
193(2)
Person for whose benefit
Fine.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or on whose behalf a riot
takes place not using all
lawful means to prevent it.
193(3)
Agent of owner or occupier Fine.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
for whose benefit a riot is
committed not using all
lawful means to prevent it.
194(2)
Committing affray.
Imprisonment for one
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
month, or fine of
1,000 rupees, or both.
195(1)
Assaulting or obstructing
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of
public servant when
or fine not less than
the first class.
suppressing riot, etc.
25,000 rupees, or both.
195(2)
Threatening to assault or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
attempting to obstruct
or fine, or both.
public servant when
suppressing riot, etc.
196(1)
Promoting enmity between Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
different groups on ground
or fine, or both.
class.
of religion, race, place of
birth, residence, language,
etc., and doing acts
prejudicial to maintenance
of harmony.
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196(2)
Promoting enmity between Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
classes in place of worship, and fine.
class.
etc.
197(1)
Imputations, assertions
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
prejudicial to national
or fine, or both.
class.
integration.
197(2)
If committed in a place of
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
public worship, etc.
and fine.
class.
198
Public servant disobeying
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
direction of the law with
1 year, or fine, or both.
class.
intent to cause injury to
any person.
199
Public servant disobeying
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
direction under law.
for not less than 6 months
class.
which may extend to
2 years and fine.
200
Non-treatment of victim
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
by hospital.
or fine, or both.
class.
201
Public servant framing an
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
incorrect document with
or fine, or both.
class.
intent to cause injury.
202
Public servant unlawfully
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
engaging in trade.
1 year, or fine, or both,
class.
or community service.
203
Public servant unlawfully
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
buying or bidding for
2 years, or fine, or both
class.
property.
and confiscation of
property, if purchased.
204
Personating a public servant.
Imprisonment for not less
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
than 6 months but which
may extend to 3 years
and fine.
205
Wearing garb or carrying
Imprisonment for 3 months,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
token used by public
or fine of 5,000 rupees, or
servant with fraudulent
both.
intent.
206(a)
Absconding to avoid service Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
of summons or other
1 month, or fine of
proceeding from a public
5,000 rupees, or both.
servant.
206(b)
If summons or notice
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
require attendance in person,
6 months, or fine of
etc., in a Court.
10,000 rupees, or both.
207(a)
Preventing service of
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
summons or other
1 month, or fine of
proceeding, or preventing
5,000 rupees, or both.
publication thereof.
207(b)
If summons, etc., require
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
attendance in person, etc.,
6 months, or fine of
in a Court.
10,000 rupees, or both.
208(a)
Non-attendance in obedience
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
to an order from public
1 month, or fine of
servant.
5,000 rupees, or both.
208(b)
If the order requires personal
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
attendance, etc., in a Court. 6 months, or fine of
10,000 rupees, or both.
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209
Non-appearance in response
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
to a proclamation under
or fine, or both,
class.
section 84 of this Sanhita.
or community service.
In a case where declaration Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
has been made under
and fine.
class.
sub-section (4) of
section 84 of this Sanhita
pronouncing a person as
proclaimed offender.
210(a)
Omission to produce
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
document to public
1 month, or fine of
offence is committed,
servant by person legally
5,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the provisions
bound to produce or deliver
of Chapter XXVIII; or,
it.
if not committed, in a
Court, any Magistrate.
210(b)
If the document is required
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
to be produced in or
6 months, or fine of
offence is committed,
delivered to a Court.
10,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the provisions
of Chapter XXVIII; or,
if not committed, in a
Court, any Magistrate.
211(a)
Intentional omission to
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
give notice or information
1 month, or fine of
to public servant by person 5,000 rupees, or both.
legally bound to give it.
211(b)
If the notice or information
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
required respects the
6 months, or fine of
commission of an offence,
10,000 rupees, or both.
etc.
211(c)
If the notice or information Imprisonment for 6 months,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
is required by an order
or fine of 1,000 rupees,
passed under sub-section (1) or both.
of section 394 of this
Sanhita.
212(a)
Knowingly furnishing false
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
information to public
6 months, or fine of
servant.
5,000 rupees, or both.
212(b)
If the information required Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respects the commission
or fine, or both.
of an offence, etc.
213
Refusing oath when duly
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
required to take oath by a
6 months, or fine of
offence is committed,
public servant.
5,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the provisions
of Chapter XXVIII; or,
if not committed, in a
Court, any Magistrate.
214
Being legally bound to state Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
truth, and refusing to
6 months, or fine of
offence is committed,
answer public servant
5,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the provisions
authorised to question.
of Chapter XXVIII; or,
if not committed, in a
Court, any Magistrate.
215
Refusing to sign a statement
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
made to a public servant
3 months, or fine of
offence is committed,
when legally required to
3,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the provisions
do so.
of Chapter XXVIII; or,
if not committed, in a
Court, any Magistrate.
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216
Knowingly stating to a
Imprisonment for 3 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
public servant on oath as
and fine.
class.
true that which is false.
217
Giving false information to Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
a public servant in order to or with fine of
cause him to use his lawful
10,000 rupees, or both.
power to the injury or
annoyance of any person.
218
Resistance to the taking of Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
property by the lawful
6 months, or fine of
authority of a public servant.
10,000 rupees, or both.
219
Obstructing sale of property Imprisonment for 1 month,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
offered for sale by authority or fine of 5,000 rupees,
of a public servant.
or both.
220
Illegal purchase or bid for
Imprisonment for 1 month,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
property offered for sale by or fine of 200 rupees,
authority of public servant. or both.
221
Obstructing public servant
Imprisonment for 3 months,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
in discharge of his public
or fine of 2,500 rupees,
functions.
or both.
222(a)
Omission to assist public
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
servant when bound by law
1 month, or fine of
to give such assistance.
2,500 rupees, or both.
222(b)
Wilfully neglecting to aid a Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
public servant who demands 6 months, or fine of
aid in the execution of
5,000 rupees, or both.
process, the prevention of
offences, etc.
223(a)
Disobedience to an order
Simple imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
lawfully promulgated by a
6 months, or fine of
public servant, if such
2,500 rupees, or both.
disobedience causes
obstruction, annoyance or
injury to persons lawfully
employed.
223(b)
If such disobedience causes
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
danger to human life, health
or fine of 5,000 rupees,
or safety, or causes or tends or both.
to cause a riot or affray.
224
Threat of injury to public
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
servant, etc.
or fine, or both.
225
Threat of injury to induce
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
person to refrain from
or fine, or both.
applying for protection to
public servant.
226
Attempt to commit suicide Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
to compel or restraint
or fine, or both, or
exercise of lawful power.
community service.
229(1)
Intentionally giving or
Imprisonment for 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
fabricating false evidence
and 10,000 rupees.
class.
in a judicial proceeding.
229(2)
Giving or fabricating false
Imprisonment for 3 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
evidence in any other case. and 5,000 rupees.
230(1)
Giving or fabricating false
Imprisonment for life, or
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
evidence with intent to
rigorous imprisonment
cause any person to be
for 10 years and
convicted of capital offence. 50,000 rupees.
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230(2)
If innocent person be
Death, or as above.
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
thereby convicted and
executed.
231
Giving or fabricating false
The same as for the offence.
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
evidence with intent to
procure conviction of an
offence punishable with
imprisonment for life or
with imprisonment for
7 years, or upwards.
232(1)
Threatening any person to Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
give false evidence.
or fine, or both.
of giving false evidence
is triable.
232(2)
If innocent person is
The same as for the
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court by which offence
convicted and sentenced in offence.
of giving false evidence
consequence of false
is triable.
evidence with death, or
imprisonment for more
than 7 years.
233
Using in a judicial
The same as for giving or
Non-cognizable.
According as offence
Court by which offence
proceeding evidence known fabricating false evidence.
of giving such
of giving or fabricating
to be false or fabricated.
evidence is bailable
false evidence is triable.
or non-bailable.
234
Knowingly issuing or signing The same as for giving
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court by which offence
a false certificate relating
false evidence.
of giving false evidence
to any fact of which such
is triable.
certificate is by law
admissible in evidence.
235
Using as a true certificate
The same as for giving
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court by which offence
one known to be false in a
false evidence.
of giving false evidence
material point.
is triable.
236
False statement made in any The same as for giving
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court by which offence
declaration which is by law
false evidence.
of giving false evidence
receivable as evidence.
is triable.
237
Using as true any such
The same as for giving
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court by which offence
declaration known to be
false evidence.
of giving false evidence
false.
is triable.
238(a)
Causing disappearance of
Imprisonment for 7 years
According as the
Bailable.
Court of Session.
evidence of an offence
and fine.
offence in relation to
committed, or giving false
which disappearance
information touching it to
of evidence is caused
screen the offender, if a
is cognizable or non-
capital offence.
cognizable.
238(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
and fine.
class.
imprisonment for 10 years.
238(c)
If punishable with less than Imprisonment for one-
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court by which the
10 years' imprisonment.
fourth of the longest term
offence is triable.
provided for the offence,
or fine, or both.
239
Intentional omission to
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
give information of an
6 months, or fine of
offence by a person legally 5,000 rupees, or both.
bound to inform.
240
Giving false information
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respecting an offence
or fine, or both.
committed.
241
Secreting or destroying any Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
document to prevent its
or fine of 5,000 rupees,
class.
production as evidence.
or both.
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242
False personation for the
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
purpose of any act or
or fine, or both.
class.
proceeding in a suit or
criminal prosecution, or
for becoming bail or
security.
243
Fraudulent removal or
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
concealment, etc., of
or fine, of 5,000 rupees,
property to prevent its
or both.
seizure as a forfeiture or
in satisfaction of a fine
under sentence, or in
execution of a decree.
244
Claiming property without
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
right, or practising deception or fine, or both.
touching any right to it, to
prevent its being taken as a
forfeiture, or in satisfaction
of a fine under sentence, or
in execution of a decree.
245
Fraudulently suffering a
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
decree to pass for a sum
or fine, or both.
class.
not due, or suffering decree
to be executed after it has
been satisfied.
246
False claim in a Court.
Imprisonment for 2 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
and fine.
class.
247
Fraudulently obtaining a
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
decree for a sum not due,
or fine, or both.
class.
or causing a decree to be
executed after it has been
satisfied.
248(a)
False charge of offence
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
made with intent to injure.
or fine of 2 lakh rupees,
class.
or both.
248(b)
Criminal proceeding
Imprisonment for 10 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court of Session.
instituted on a false charge
and fine.
of an offence punishable
with death, imprisonment
for life, or imprisonment
for ten years or upwards.
249(a)
Harbouring an offender, if
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
the offence is punishable
and fine.
class.
with death.
249(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
and fine.
class.
with imprisonment for
10 years.
249(c)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for one-
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for 1 year
fourth of the longest term,
class.
and not for 10 years.
and of the descriptions,
provided for the offence,
or fine, or both.
250(a)
Taking gift, etc., to screen
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
an offender from
and fine.
class.
punishment if the offence
is punishable with death.
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250(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
and fine.
class.
with imprisonment for
10 years.
250(c)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for one-
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for less than fourth of the longest term
class.
10 years.
provided for the offence,
or fine, or both.
251(a)
Offering gift or restoration Imprisonment for 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
of property in consideration and fine.
class.
of screening offender if the
offence is punishable with
death.
251(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
and fine.
class.
with imprisonment for
10 years.
251(c)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for one-
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for less
fourth of the longest term,
class.
than 10 years.
provided for the offence,
or fine, or both.
252
Taking gift to help to
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
recover movable property
or fine, or both.
class.
of which a person has been
deprived by an offence
without causing apprehension
of offender.
253(a)
Harbouring an offender who Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
has escaped from custody,
and fine.
class.
or whose apprehension has
been ordered, if the offence
is punishable with death.
253(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
with or without fine.
class.
with imprisonment for
10 years.
253(c)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for one-
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for 1 year
fourth of the longest term
class.
and not for 10 years.
provided for the offence,
or fine, or both.
254
Harbouring robbers or
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
dacoits.
for 7 years and fine.
class.
255
Public servant disobeying a Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
direction of law with intent or fine, or both.
to save person from
punishment, or property
from forfeiture.
256
Public servant framing an
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
incorrect record or writing
or fine, or both.
class.
with intent to save person
from punishment, or
property from forfeiture.
257
Public servant in a judicial
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
proceeding corruptly making or fine, or both.
class.
and pronouncing an order,
report, etc. contrary to law.
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258
Commitment for trial or
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
confinement by a person
or fine, or both.
class.
having authority, who
knows that he is acting
contrary to law.
259(a)
Intentional omission to
Imprisonment for 7 years,
According as the
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
apprehend on the part of
with or without fine.
offence in relation to
class.
a public servant bound by
which such omission
law to apprehend an
has been made is
offender, if the offence
cognizable or non-
is punishable with death.
cognizable.
259(b)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
with or without fine.
class.
imprisonment for 10 years.
259(c)
If punishable with
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for less
with or without fine.
class.
than 10 years.
260(a)
Intentional omission to
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
apprehend on the part of a imprisonment for 14 years,
public servant bound by
with or without fine.
law to apprehend person
under sentence of a Court
if under sentence of death.
260(b)
If under sentence of
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for life or
with or without fine.
class.
imprisonment for 10 years,
or upwards.
260(c)
If under sentence of
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
imprisonment for less than or fine, or both.
class.
10 years or lawfully
committed to custody.
261
Escape from confinement
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
negligently suffered by a
2 years, or fine, or both.
public servant.
262
Resistance or obstruction
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
by a person to his lawful
or fine, or both.
apprehension.
263(a)
Resistance or obstruction
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
to the lawful apprehension
or fine, or both.
of any person, or rescuing
him from lawful custody.
263(b)
If charged with an offence
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
punishable with imprison-
and fine.
class.
ment for life or imprison-
ment for 10 years.
263(c)
If charged with offence
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
punishable with death.
and fine.
class.
263(d)
If the person is sentenced
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
to imprisonment for life,
and fine.
class.
or imprisonment for
10 years, or upwards.
263(e)
If under sentence of death.
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
imprisonment for 10 years
and fine.
264
Omission to apprehend, or
sufferance of escape on part
of public servant, in cases
not otherwise provided for:—
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(a) in case of intentional
Imprisonment for 3 years, Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
omission or sufferance;
or fine, or both.
class.
(b) in case of negligent
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
omission or sufferance.
2 years, or fine, or both.
265
Resistance or obstruction to Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
lawful apprehension, or
6 months, or fine, or both.
escape or rescue in cases
not otherwise provided for.
266
Violation of condition of
Punishment of original
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
The Court by which the
remission of punishment.
sentence, or if part of the
original offence was
punishment has been
triable.
undergone, the residue.
267
Intentional insult or
Simple imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
The Court in which the
interruption to a public
6 months, or fine of
offence is committed,
servant sitting in any stage 5,000 rupees, or both.
subject to the
of a judicial proceeding.
provisions of Chapter
XXVIII; or, if not
committed, in a Court,
any Magistrate.
268
Personation of an assessor. Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
or fine, or both.
class.
269
Failure by person released
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
on bond or bail bond to
or fine, or both.
appear in Court.
271
Negligently doing any act
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
known to be likely to spread 6 months, or fine, or both.
infection of any disease
dangerous to life.
272
Malignantly doing any act
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
known to be likely to spread or fine, or both.
infection of any disease
dangerous to life.
273
Knowingly disobeying any
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
quarantine rule.
6 months, or fine, or both.
274
Adulterating food or drink
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
intended for sale, so as to
6 months, or fine of
make the same noxious.
5,000 rupees, or both.
275
Selling any food or drink as Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
food and drink, knowing
6 months, or fine of
the same to be noxious.
5,000 rupees, or both.
276
Adulterating any drug or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
medical preparation intended or fine of 5,000 rupees,
for sale so as to lessen its
or both.
efficacy, or to change its
operation, or to make it
noxious.
277
Sale of adulterated drugs.
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
6 months, or fine of
5,000 rupees, or both.
278
Knowingly selling of drug
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
as a different drug or
6 months, or fine of
preparation.
5,000 rupees, or both.
279
Fouling water of public
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
spring or reservoir.
6 months, or fine of
5,000 rupees, or both.
280
Making atmosphere
Fine of 1,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
noxious to health.
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281
Rash driving or riding on
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
a public way.
6 months, or fine of
1,000 rupees, or both.
282
Rash navigation of vessel.
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
6 months, or fine of
10,000 rupees, or both.
283
Exhibition of a false light,
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
mark or buoy.
and fine which shall not
class.
be less than 10,000 rupees.
284
Conveying person by water Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
for hire in unsafe or
6 months, or fine of
overloaded vessel.
5,000 rupees, or both.
285
Causing danger or
Fine of 5,000 rupees.
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
obstruction in public way
or line of navigation.
286
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to poisonous
6 months, or fine of
substance.
5,000 rupees, or both.
287
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to fire or
6 months, or fine of
combustible matter.
2,000 rupees, or both.
288
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to explosive
6 months, or fine of
substance.
5,000 rupees, or both.
289
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to machinery.
6 months, or fine of
5,000 rupees, or both.
290
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to pulling down,
6 months, or fine of
repairing or constructing
5,000 rupees, or both.
buildings, etc.
291
Negligent conduct with
Imprisonment for 6
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
respect to animal.
months, or fine of 5,000
rupees, or both.
292
Committing public nuisance Fine of 1,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
in cases not otherwise
provided for.
293
Continuance of nuisance
Simple imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
after injunction to
6 months, or fine of
discontinue.
5,000 rupees, or both.
294(2)
Sale, etc., of obscene
On first conviction, with
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
books, etc.
imprisonment for 2 years,
and with fine of
5,000 rupees, and, in the
event of second or
subsequent conviction,
with imprisonment for
5 years, and with fine
of 10,000 rupees.
295
Sale, etc., of obscene
On first conviction, with
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
objects to child.
imprisonment for 3 years,
and with fine of
2,000 rupees, and in the
event of second or
subsequent conviction,
with imprisonment for
7 years, and with fine of
5,000 rupees.
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296
Obscene acts and songs.
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
3 months, or fine of
1,000 rupees, or both.
297(1)
Keeping a lottery office.
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
6 months, or fine, or
both.
297(2)
Publishing proposals
Fine of 5,000 rupees.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
relating to lotteries.
298
Defiling, etc., place of
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
worship, with intent to
2 years, or fine, or both.
insult the religion of any
class.
299
Deliberate and malicious
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
acts, intended to outrage
3 years, or fine, or both.
class.
religious feelings of any
class by insulting its religion
or religious beliefs.
300
Disturbing religious
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
assembly.
or fine, or both.
301
Trespassing on burial
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
places, etc.
or fine, or both.
302
Uttering words, etc., with
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
deliberate intent to wound
or fine, or both.
religious feelings.
303(2)
Theft.
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
Rigorous imprisonment
for not be less than
1 year but which may
extend to 5 years and fine.
Where value of property
Upon return of the value
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
is less than 5,000 rupees.
of property or restoration
of the stolen property,
shall be punished with
community service.
304(2)
Snatching.
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
3 years and fine.
305
Theft in a dwelling house,
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or means of transportation 7 years and fine.
or place of worship, etc.
306
Theft by clerk or servant
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
of property in possession
7 years and fine.
of master or employer.
307
Theft after preparation
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
made for causing death,
for 10 years and fine.
class.
hurt or restraint in order
to the committing of theft.
308(2)
Extortion.
Imprisonment for 7
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
years, or fine, or both.
class.
308(3)
Putting or attempting to
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
put in fear of injury, in
or fine, or both.
order to commit extortion.
308(4)
Putting or attempting to
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
put a person in fear of
7 years and fine.
class.
death or grievous hurt in
order to commit extortion.
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308(5)
Extortion by putting a
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
person in fear of death or
10 years and fine.
class.
grievous hurt.
308(6)
Putting a person in fear
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
of accusation of an offence 10 years and fine.
class.
punishable with death,
imprisonment for life, or
imprisonment for 10 years
in order to commit
extortion.
308(7)
Extortion by threat of
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
accusation of an offence
10 years and fine.
class.
punishable with death,
imprisonment for life, or
imprisonment for 10 years.
309(4)
Robbery.
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
for 10 years and fine.
class.
If robbery committed on
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
highway between sunset
for 14 years.
class.
and sunrise.
309(5)
Attempt to commit
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
robbery.
for 7 years and fine.
class.
309(6)
Causing hurt.
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
rigorous imprisonment
class.
for 10 years and fine.
310(2)
Dacoity.
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
rigorous imprisonment
for 10 years and fine.
310(3)
Murder in dacoity.
Death, imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
life, or rigorous
imprisonment for not less
than 10 years and fine.
310(4)
Making preparation to
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
commit dacoity.
for 10 years and fine.
310(5)
Being one of five or more
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
persons assembled for the
for 7 years and fine.
purpose of committing
dacoity.
310(6)
Belonging to a gang of
Imprisonment for life,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
persons associated for the
or rigorous imprisonment
purpose of habitually
for 10 years and fine.
committing dacoity.
311
Robbery or dacoity, with
Imprisonment for not
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
attempt to cause death or
less than 7 years.
grievous hurt.
312
Attempt to commit robbery Imprisonment for not
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
or dacoity when armed
less than 7 years.
with deadly weapon.
313
Belonging to a wandering
Rigorous imprisonment
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
gang of persons associated
for 7 years and fine.
class.
for the purpose of habitually
committing thefts.
314
Dishonest misappropriation Imprisonment of not less
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
of movable property, or
than 6 months but which
converting it to one's
may extend to 2 years
own use.
and fine.
315
Dishonest misappropriation Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
of property possessed by
3 years and fine.
class.
deceased person at the time
of his death.
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If by clerk or person
Imprisonment for 7 years.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
employed by deceased.
class.
316(2)
Criminal breach of trust.
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
or fine, or both.
class.
316(3)
Criminal breach of trust by Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
a carrier, wharfinger, etc.
and fine.
class.
316(4)
Criminal breach of trust by Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
a clerk or servant.
and fine.
class.
316(5)
Criminal breach of trust by Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
public servant or by banker, imprisonment for 10 years
class.
merchant or agent, etc.
and fine.
317(2)
Dishonestly receiving
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
stolen property knowing
or fine, or both.
it to be stolen.
317(3)
Dishonestly receiving
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
stolen property, knowing
rigorous imprisonment
that it was obtained by
for 10 years and fine.
dacoity.
317(4)
Habitually dealing in stolen Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
property.
imprisonment for 10 years
and fine.
317(5)
Assisting in concealment or Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
disposal of stolen property, or fine, or both.
knowing it to be stolen.
318(2)
Cheating.
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
318(3)
Cheating a person whose
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
interest the offender was
or fine, or both.
bound, either by law or by
legal contract, to protect.
318(4)
Cheating and dishonestly
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
inducing delivery of
and fine.
class.
property.
319(2)
Cheating by personation.
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or with fine, or with both.
320
Fraudulent removal or
Imprisonment of not be
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
concealment of property,
less than 6 months but
etc., to prevent distribution which may extend to
among creditors.
2 years, or fine, or both.
321
Dishonest or fraudulently
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
preventing from being
or fine, or both.
made available for his
creditors a debt or demand
due to the offender.
322
Dishonest or fraudulent
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
execution of deed of
or fine, or both.
transfer containing a false
statement of consideration.
323
Fraudulent removal or
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
concealment of property,
or fine, or both.
of himself or any other
person or assisting in the
doing thereof, or dishonestly
releasing any demand or
claim to which he is entitled.
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324(2)
Mischief.
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
6 months, or fine, or both.
324(3)
Mischief causing loss or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
damage to any property
or fine, or both.
including property of
Government or Local
Authority.
324(4)
Mischief causing loss or
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
damage to the amount of
or fine, or both.
twenty thousand rupees but
less than 2 lakh rupees.
324(5)
Mischief causing loss or
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
damage to the amount of
or fine, or both.
class.
one lakh rupees or upwards.
324(6)
Mischief with preparation
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
for causing to any person
and fine.
class.
death, or hurt, or wrongful
restraint, or fear of death,
or of hurt, or of wrongful
restraint.
325
Mischief by killing or
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
maiming animal.
or fine, or both.
class.
326(a)
Mischief by causing
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
diminution of supply of
or fine, or both.
class.
water for agricultural
purposes, etc.
326(b)
Mischief by injury to public Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
road, bridge, navigable river, or fine, or both.
class.
or navigable channel, and
rendering it impassable or
less safe for travelling or
conveying property.
326(c)
Mischief by causing
Imprisonment for 5 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
inundation or obstruction
or with fine, or with both.
class.
to public drainage attended
with damage.
326(d)
Mischief by destroying or
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
moving or rendering less
or fine, or both.
class.
useful a lighthouse or
seamark, or by exhibiting
false lights.
326(e)
Mischief by destroying or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
moving, etc., a landmark
or fine, or both.
fixed by public authority.
326(f)
Mischief by fire or explosive Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
substance with intent to
and fine.
class.
cause damage.
326(g)
Mischief by fire or explosive Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
substance with intent to
imprisonment for 10 years
destroy a house, etc.
and fine.
327(1)
Mischief with intent to
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
destroy or make unsafe a
and fine.
decked vessel or a vessel
of 20 tonnes burden.
327(2)
The mischief described in
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the last section when
imprisonment for 10 years
committed by fire or any
and fine.
explosive substance.
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328
Running vessel with intent
Imprisonment for 10 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
to commit theft, etc.
and fine.
329(3)
Criminal trespass.
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
3 months, or fine of
5,000 rupees, or both.
329(4)
House-trespass.
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or fine of 5,000 rupees,
or both.
331(1)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
house-breaking.
and fine.
331(2)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
house-breaking by night.
and fine.
331(3)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
house-breaking in order to
and fine.
the commission of an
offence punishable with
imprisonment.
If the offence be theft.
Imprisonment for 10 years.
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
class.
331(4)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for 5 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
house-breaking by night
and fine.
in order to the commission
of an offence punishable
with imprisonment.
If the offence be theft.
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
14 years.
class.
331(5)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
house-breaking after
10 years and fine.
class.
preparation made for
causing hurt, assault, etc.
331(6)
Lurking house-trespass or
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
house-breaking by night,
14 years and fine.
class.
after preparation made for
causing hurt, etc.
331(7)
Grievous hurt caused whilst Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
committing lurking house-
imprisonment for 10 years
trespass or house-breaking. and fine.
331(8)
Death or grievous hurt
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
caused by one of several
imprisonment for 10 years
persons jointly concerned
and fine.
in house-breaking by night,
etc.
332(a)
House-trespass in order to
Imprisonment for life, or
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the commission of an
rigorous imprisonment for
offence punishable with
10 years and fine.
death.
332(b)
House-trespass in order to
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
the commission of an
10 years and fine.
offence punishable with
imprisonment for life.
332(c)
House-trespass in order to
Imprisonment for 2 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
the commission of an
and fine.
offence punishable with
imprisonment.
If the offence is theft.
Imprisonment for 7 years.
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
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333
House-trespass, having
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
made preparation for
and fine.
causing hurt, assault, etc.
334(1)
Dishonestly breaking open
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
or unfastening any closed
or fine, or both.
receptacle containing or
supposed to contain
property.
334(2)
Being entrusted with any
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
closed receptacle containing or fine, or both.
or supposed to contain any
property, and fraudulently
opening the same.
336(2)
Forgery.
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
or fine, or both.
class.
336(3)
Forgery for the purpose of
Imprisonment for 7 years
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
cheating.
and fine.
class.
336(4)
Forgery for the purpose of
Imprisonment for 3 years
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
harming the reputation of
and fine.
class.
any person or knowing that
it is likely to be used for
that purpose.
337
Forgery of a record of a
Imprisonment for 7 years
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
Court or of a Registrar of
and fine
class.
Births, etc., kept by a
public servant.
338
Forgery of a valuable
Imprisonment for life,
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
security, will, or authority
or imprisonment for
class.
to make or transfer any
10 years and fine.
valuable security, or to
receive any money, etc.
When the valuable security Imprisonment for life,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
is a promissory note of the or imprisonment for
class.
Central Government.
10 years and fine.
339
Having possession of a
Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
document, knowing it to be 7 years and fine.
class.
forged, with intent to use it
as genuine; if the document
is one of the description
mentioned in section 337.
If the document is one of
Imprisonment for life,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
the description mentioned
or imprisonment for
class.
in section 338.
7 years and fine.
340(2)
Using as genuine a forged
Punishment for forgery
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
document which is known
of such document.
class.
to be forged.
341(1)
Making or counterfeiting a Imprisonment for life,
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
seal, plate, etc., with intent or imprisonment for
class.
to commit a forgery
7 years and fine.
punishable under section 338
or possessing with like
intent any such seal, plate,
etc., knowing the same to
be counterfeit.
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341(2)
Making or counterfeiting a Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
seal, plate, etc., with intent 7 years and fine.
class.
to commit a forgery
punishable otherwise than
under section 338 or
possessing with like intent
any such seal, plate, etc.,
knowing the same to be
counterfeit.
341(3)
Possesses any seal, plate or Imprisonment for
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
other instrument knowing
3 years and fine.
class.
the same to be counterfeit.
341(4)
Fraudulently or dishonestly Same as if he had made
Cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
uses as genuine any seal,
or counterfeited such
class.
plate or other instrument
seal, plate or other
knowing or having reason
instrument.
to believe the same to be
counterfeit.
342(1)
Counterfeiting a device or
Imprisonment for life, or
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
mark used for authenticating imprisonment for
class.
documents described in
7 years and fine.
section 338 or possessing
counterfeit marked material.
342(2)
Counterfeiting a device or
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
mark used for authenticating 7 years and fine.
class.
documents other than those
described in section 338 or
possessing counterfeit
marked material.
343
Fraudulently destroying or
Imprisonment for life,
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of the first
defacing, or attempting to
or imprisonment for
class.
destroy or deface, or
7 years and fine.
secreting, a will, etc.
344
Falsification of accounts.
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
7 years, or fine, or both.
class.
345(3)
Using a false property
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
mark with intent to
or fine, or both.
deceive or injure any
person.
346
Removing, destroying or
Imprisonment for 1 year,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
defacing property mark
or fine, or both.
with intent to cause injury.
347(1)
Counterfeiting a property
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
mark used by another, with or fine, or both.
intent to cause damage or
injury.
347(2)
Counterfeiting a property
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
mark used by a public
3 years and fine.
class.
servant, or any mark used
by him to denote the
manufacture, quality, etc.,
of any property.
348
Fraudulently making or
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
having possession of any
3 years, or fine, or both.
class.
die, plate or other
instrument for
counterfeiting any public
or private property mark.
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349
Knowingly selling goods
Imprisonment for
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
marked with a counterfeit
1 year, or fine, or both.
property mark.
350(1)
Fraudulently making a
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
false mark upon any
or fine, or both.
package or receptacle
containing goods, with
intent to cause it to be
believed that it contains
goods, which it does not
contain, etc.
350(2)
Making use of any such
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
false mark.
or fine, or both.
351(2)
Criminal intimidation.
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable
Bailable
Any Magistrate.
or fine, or both.
351(3)
If threat be to cause death
Imprisonment for 7 years,
Non-cognizable
Bailable
Magistrate of the first
or grievous hurt, etc.
or fine, or both.
class.
351(4)
Criminal intimidation by
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
anonymous communication in addition to the
class.
or having taken precaution
punishment under
to conceal whence the
section 351(1).
threat comes.
352
Insult intended to provoke
Imprisonment for 2 years,
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
breach of the peace.
or fine, or both.
353(1)
False statement, rumour,
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Non-cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
etc., circulated with intent
or fine, or both.
to cause mutiny or offence
against the public peace.
353(2)
False statement, rumour,
Imprisonment for 3 years,
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
etc., with intent to create
or fine, or both.
enmity, hatred or ill-will
between different classes.
353(3)
False statement, rumour,
etc., made in place of
worship, etc., with intent
to create enmity, hatred or
ill-will.
354
Act caused by inducing a
person to believe that he
will be rendered an object
of Divine displeasure.
355
Appearing in a public
place, etc., in a state of
intoxication, and causing
annoyance to any person.
356(2)
Defamation against the
President or the Vice-
President or the Governor
of a State or Administrator
of a Union territory or a
Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of
his public functions when
instituted upon a
complaint made by the
Public Prosecutor.
Defamation in any other
case.
Imprisonment for 5 years
and fine.
Imprisonment for 1 year,
or fine, or both.
Simple imprisonment for
24 hours, or fine of 1,000
rupees, or both or with
community service.
Simple imprisonment for 2
years, or fine or both, or
community service.
Simple imprisonment for 2
years, or fine or both or
community service.
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Any Magistrate.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court of Session.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
class.
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356(3)
Printing or engraving
matter knowing it to be
defamatory against the
President or the Vice-
President or the Governor
of a State or Administrator
of a Union territory or a
Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of
his public functions when
instituted upon a
complaint made by the
Public Prosecutor.
Printing or engraving
matter knowing it to be
defamatory, in any other
case.
356(4)
Sale of printed or engraved
substance containing
defamatory matter,
knowing it to contain such
matter against the
President or the Vice-
President or the Governor
of a State or Administrator
of a Union territory or a
Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of
his public functions when
instituted upon a
complaint made by the
Public Prosecutor.
Sale of printed or engraved
substance containing
defamatory matter,
knowing it to contain such
matter in any other case.
357
Being bound to attend on
or supply the wants of a
person who is helpless
from youth, unsoundness
of mind or disease, and
voluntarily omitting to do
so.
Simple imprisonment for
2 years, or fine, or both.
Simple imprisonment for
2 years, or fine, or both.
Simple imprisonment for
2 years, or fine, or both.
Simple imprisonment for
2 years, or fine, or both.
Imprisonment for 3
months, or fine of 5,000
rupees, or both.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court of Session.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
class.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Court of Session.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Magistrate of the first
class.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
II.—CLASSIFICATION OF OFFENCES AGAINST OTHER LAWS
Offence
Cognizable or
Bailable or
By what court
non-cognizable.
non-bailable.
triable.
1
2
3
4
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Court of Session.
Cognizable.
Non-bailable.
Magistrate of
the first class.
If punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment
for more than 7 years.
If punishable with imprisonment for 3 years and upwards but notmore
than 7 years.
If punishable with imprisonment for less than 3 years or with fine only.
Non-cognizable.
Bailable.
Any Magistrate.
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THE SECOND SCHEDULE
(See section 522)
FORM No.1
NOTICE FOR APPEARANCE BY THE POLICE
[See section 35(3)]
Serial No…….
Police Station………
To,
.................................
[Name of the Accused/Noticee]
.................................
[Last known Address]
.................................
[Phone No./Email ID (if any)]
In pursuance of sub-section (3) of section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
Sanhita, 2023, I hereby inform you that during the investigation of FIR/
Case No ………………….. dated …………… u/s ………………………………… registered at
Police Station ……………………………………………..., it is revealed that there are reasonable
grounds to question you to ascertain facts and circumstances from you, in relation to the
present investigation. Hence you are directed to appear before me at ………..........…… AM/
PM on……………………... at
Police Station.
Name and Designation of the Officer In charge
(Seal)
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190 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 2
SUMMONS TO AN ACCUSED PERSON
(See section 63)
To..............................................(name of accused) of ..............................................(address)
WHEREAS your attendance is necessary to answer to a charge of..........................................
..............................................(state shortly the offence charged), you are hereby required to
appear in person (or by an advocate, before the (Magistrate) of..............................................,
on the..............................................day............................................... Herein fail not.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 191
FORM No. 3
WARRANT OF ARREST
(See section 72)
To .............................................. (name and designation of the person or persons who is or
are to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS (name of accused) of (address) stands charged with the offence of
...................................................... (state the offence), you are hereby directed to arrest the said
......................................................, and to produce him before me. Herein fail not.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
(See section 73)
This warrant may be endorsed as follows:—
If the said.............................................................. shall give bail himself in the sum of
rupees.............................................. with one surety in the sum of rupees..............................................
(or two sureties each in the sum of rupees.............................................. ) to attend before me on
the.............................................. day of.............................................. and to continue so to attend
until otherwise directed by me, he may be released.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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192 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 4
BOND AND BAIL-BOND AFTER ARREST UNDER A WARRANT
(See section 83)
I, ............................................................(name), of..........................................................., being
brought before the District Magistrate of...........................................................(or as the case
may be) under a warrant issued to compel my appearance to answer to the charge
of..........................................................., do hereby bind myself to attend in the Court
of.................................................................on the..................................day of
...........................................................next, to answer to the said charge, and to continue so to
attend until otherwise directed by the Court; and, in case of my making default herein, I bind
myself to forfeit, to Government, the sum of rupees..................................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Signature)
I do hereby declare myself surety for the above-named..............................................
of.......................................................... that he shall attend before in the Court of
on the.............................................. day of.............................................. next, to answer to the
charge on which he has been arrested, and shall continue so to attend until otherwise
directed by the Court; and, in case of his making default therein, I bind myself to forfeit, to
Government, the sum of rupees..............................................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............. .
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 193
FORM No. 5
PROCLAMATION REQUIRING THE APPEARANCE OF A PERSON ACCUSED
(See section 84)
WHEREAS a complaint has been made before me that................................................... (name,
description and address) has committed (or is suspected to have committed) the offence of
.............................................. , punishable under section..............................................
of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and it has been returned to a warrant of arrest thereupon
issued that the said.............................................. (name) cannot be found, and whereas it has
been shown to my satisfaction that the said.............................................. (name) has absconded
(or is concealing himself to avoid the service of the said warranty);
Proclamation is hereby made that the said..............................................
of.............................................. is required to appear at.............................................. (place) before
this Court (or before me) to answer the said complaint on the.............................................. day
of..............................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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194 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 6
PROCLAMATION REQUIRING THE ATTENDANCE OF A WITNESS
(See sections 84, 90 and 93)
WHEREAS complaint has been made before me that..............................................(name,
description and address) has committed (or is suspected to have committed) the offence of
..............................................(mention the offence concisely) and a warrant has been
issued to compel the attendance of..............................................(name, description and
address of the witness) before this Court to be examined touching the
matter of the said complaint; and whereas it has been returned to the said warrant that the
said..............................................(name of witness) cannot be served, and it has been shown to
my satisfaction that he has absconded (or is concealing himself to avoid the service of the
said warrant);
Proclamation is hereby made that the said..............................................(name) is required
to appear at..............................................(place) before the Court..............................................on
the........................................day of.........................................next at..............................................o'clock
to be examined touching..............................................the offence complained of.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 195
FORM No. 7
ORDER OF ATTACHMENT TO COMPEL THE ATTENDANCE OF A WITNESS
(See section 85)
To the officer in charge of the police station at..............................................
WHEREAS a warrant has been duly issued to compel the attendance
of..............................................(name, description and address) to testify concerning a complaint
pending before this Court, and it has been returned to the said warrant that it cannot be
served; and whereas it has been shown to my satisfaction that he has absconded (or is
concealing himself to avoid the service of the said warrant); and thereupon a Proclamation
has been or is being duly issued and published requiring the said..............................................to
appear and give evidence at the time and place mentioned therein;
This is to authorise and require you to attach by seizure the movable property belonging
to the said..............................................to the value of rupees..............................................which
you may find within the District..............................................of..............................................and
to hold the said property under attachment pending the further order of this Court, and to
return this warrant with an endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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196 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 8
ORDER OF ATTACHMENT TO COMPEL THE APPEARANCE OF A PERSON ACCUSED
(See section 85)
To..............................................(name and designation of the person or persons who is or are
to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS complaint has been made before me that..............................................(name,
description and address) has committed (or is suspected to have committed) the
offence of..............................................punishable under section..............................................of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and it has been returned to a warrant of arrest thereupon
issued that the said..............................................(name) cannot be found; and whereas it has
been shown to my satisfaction that the said..............................................(name) has absconded
(or is concealing himself to avoid the service of the said warrant) and thereupon a
Proclamation has been or is being duly issued and published requiring the
said..............................................to appear to answer the said charge
within..............................................days; and whereas the said..............................................is
possessed of the following property, other than land paying revenue to Government, in the
village (or town), of.............................................., in the District of ..............................................,
viz.,.............................................., and an order has been made for the attachment thereof;
You are hereby required to attach the said property in the manner specified in
clause (a), or clause (c), or both*, of sub-section (3) of section 85, and to hold the same under
attachment pending further order of this Court, and to return this warrant with an endorsement
certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
*Strike out the one which is not applicable, depending on the nature of the property to be attached.
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 197
FORM No. 9
ORDER AUTHORISING AN ATTACHMENT BY THE DISTRICT MAGISTRATE
OR COLLECTOR
(See section 85)
To the District Magistrate/Collector of the District of..............................................
WHEREAS complaint has been made before me that..............................................
(name, description and address) has committed (or is suspected to have committed) the
offence of .............................................., punishable under section..............................................of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and it has been returned to a warrant of arrest thereupon
issued that the said..............................................(name) cannot be found; and whereas it has
been shown to my satisfaction that the said..............................................(name) has absconded
(or is concealing himself to avoid the service of the said warrant) and thereupon a Proclamation
has been or is being duly issued and published requiring the said .......................................
(name) to appear to answer the said charge within.........................................days; and whereas
the said..............................................is possessed of certain land paying revenue to Government
in the village (or town) of.............................................., in the District of..............................................;
You are hereby authorised and requested to cause the said land to be attached, in the
manner specified in clause (a), or clause (c), or both*, of sub-section (4) of section 85, and to
be held under attachment pending the further order of this Court, and to certify without delay
what you may have done in pursuance of this order.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
*Strike out the one which is not desired.
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198 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 10
WARRANT IN THE FIRST INSTANCE TO BRING UP A WITNESS
(See section 90)
To..............................................(name and designation of the police officer or other person or
persons who is or are to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS complaint has been made before me that..............................................(name
and description of accused) of..............................................(address) has (or is suspected to
have) committed the offence of ..............................................(mention the offence concisely),
and it appears likely that..............................................(name and description of witness) can
give evidence concerning the said complaint, and whereas I have good and sufficient reason
to believe that he will not attend as a witness on the hearing of the said complaint unless
compelled to do so;
This is to authorise and require you to arrest the said..............................................(name
of witness), and on the..............................................day of..............................................to bring
him before this Court.............................................., to be examined touching the offence
complained of.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 199
FORM No. 11
WARRANT TO SEARCH AFTER INFORMATION OF A PARTICULAR OFFENCE
(See section 96)
To..............................................(name and designation of the police officer or other person or
persons who is or are to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS information has been laid..............................................(or complaint has been
made) before me of the commission..............................................(or suspected commission) of
the offence of..............................................(mention the offence concisely), and it has been
made to appear to me that the production of ..............................................(specify the thing
clearly) is essential to the inquiry now being made (or about to be made) into the said
offence (or suspected offence);
This is to authorise and require you to search for the said..............................................(the
thing specified) in the..............................................(describe the house or place or part thereof
to which the search is to be confined), and, if found, to produce the same forthwith before
this Court, returning this warrant, with an endorsement certifying what you have done under
it, immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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200 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 12
WARRANT TO SEARCH SUSPECTED PLACE OF DEPOSIT
(See section 97)
To..............................................
(name and designation of the police officer above the rank of a constable).
WHEREAS information has been laid before me, and on due inquiry thereupon had, I
have been led to believe that the..............................................(describe the house or other
place) is used as a place for the deposit (or sale) of stolen property (or if for either of the
other purposes expressed in the section, state the purpose in the words of the section);
This is to authorise and require you to enter the said house (or other place) with such
assistance as shall be required, and to use, if necessary, reasonable force for that purpose,
and to search every part of the said house (or other place, or if the search is to be confined
to a part, specify the part clearly), and to seize and take possession of any property (or
documents, or stamps, or seals, or coins, or obscene objects, as the case may be) (add,
when the case requires it) and also of any instruments and materials which you may reasonably
believe to be kept for the manufacture of forged documents, or counterfeit stamps, or false
seals, or counterfeit coins or counterfeit currency notes (as the case may be), and forthwith
to bring before this Court such of the said things as may be taken possession of, returning
this warrant, with an endorsement certifying what you have done under it, immediately upon
its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 201
FORM No. 13
BOND TO KEEP THE PEACE
(See sections 125 and 126)
WHEREAS I,.................................................................(name), inhabitant of
..............................................(place), have been called upon to enter into a bond to keep the
peace for the term of..............................................or until the completion of the inquiry in the
matter of..............................................now pending in the Court of.............................................., I
hereby bind myself not to commit a breach of the peace, or do any act that may probably
occasion a breach of the peace, during the said term or until the completion of the said
inquiry and, in case of my making default therein, I hereby bind myself to forfeit, to Government,
the sum of rupees.............................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Signature)
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202 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 14
BOND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
(See sections 127, 128 and 129)
WHEREAS I,......................................................................(name), inhabitant
of..............................................(place), have been called upon to enter into a bond to be of
good behaviour to Government and all the citizens of India for the term of
..............................................(state the period) or until the completion of the inquiry in the
matter of .............................................. now pending in the Court of ..............................................,
I hereby bind myself to be of good behaviour to Government and all the citizens of India
during the said term or until the completion of the said inquiry; and, in case of my making
default therein, I hereby bind myself to forfeit to Government the sum of rupees...................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
(Where a bond with sureties is to be executed, add)
We do hereby declare ourselves sureties for the above-named........................................that
he will be of good behaviour to Government and all the citizens of India during the said term
or until the completion of the said inquiry; and, in case of his making default therein, we bind
ourselves, jointly and severally, to forfeit to Government the sum of rupees................................
.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 203
FORM No. 15
SUMMONS ON INFORMATION OF A PROBABLE BREACH OF THE PEACE
(See section 132)
To..............................................of..............................................
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me by credible information that................................
(state the substance of the information), and that you are likely to commit a breach of the
peace (or by which act a breach of the peace will probably be occasioned), you are hereby
required to attend in person (or by a duly authorised agent) at the office of the Magistrate
of..............................................on the ..............................................day of
..............................................20..........., at ten o'clock in the forenoon, to show cause why you
should not be required to enter into a bond for rupees..............................................[when sureties
are required, add, and also to give security by the bond of one (or two, as the case may be)
surety (or sureties) in the sum of rupees..............................................(each if more than one)],
that you will keep the peace for the term of..............................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ........... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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204 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 16
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT ON FAILURE TO FIND SECURITY TO KEEP THE PEACE
(See section 141)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name and address) appeared before me in person
(or by his authorised agent) on the..............................................day of..............................................
in obedience to a summons calling upon him to show cause why he should not enter into a
bond for rupees..............................................with one surety (or a bond with two sureties each
in rupees..............................................), that he, the said..............................................(name) would
keep the peace for the period of months; and whereas an order was then made requiring the
said..............................................(name) to enter into and find such security.........................................
(state the security ordered when it differs from that mentioned in the summons), and he has
failed to comply with the said order;
This is to authorise and require you to receive the said..............................................(name)
into your custody, together with this warrant, and him safely to keep in the said Jail
for the said period of..............................................(term of imprisonment) unless he shall in
the meantime be lawfully ordered to be released, and to return this warrant with an endorsement
certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ........... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 205
FORM No. 17
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT ON FAILURE TO FIND SECURITY FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
(See section 141)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that ..............................................
(name and description) has been concealing his presence within the district of
.............................................. and that there is reason to believe that he is doing so with a view
to committing a cognizable offence;
or
WHEREAS evidence of the general character of..............................................(name
and description) has been adduced before me and recorded, from which it appears that he is
an habitual robber (or house-breaker, etc., as the case may be);
AND WHEREAS an order has been recorded stating the same and requiring the said
(name) to furnish security for his good behaviour for the term of (state the period) by
entering into a bond with one surety (or two or more sureties, as the case may be), himself for
rupees.............................................. and the said surety (or each of the said sureties)
rupees ..............................................and the said..............................................(name) has failed to
comply with the said order and for such default has been adjudged imprisonment for (state
the term) unless the said security be sooner furnished;
This is to authorise and require you receive the said..............................................( name)
into your custody, together with this warrant and him safely to keep in the Jail, or if he is
already in prison, be detained therein, for the said period of (term of imprisonment) unless he
shall in the meantime be lawfully ordered to be released, and to return this warrant with an
endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ........... .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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206 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 18
WARRANT TO DISCHARGE A PERSON IMPRISONED ON FAILURE TO GIVE SECURITY
(See sections 141 and 142)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................(or other officer in whose
custody the person is).
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description of prisoner) was committed
to your custody under warrant of the Court, dated the..............................................
day of ..............................................20..............................................; and has since duly given
security under section .............................................. of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
Sanhita, 2023.
or
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description of prisoner) was committed
to your custody under warrant of the Court, dated the.........................................................
day of ..............................................20.................; and there have appeared to me sufficient
grounds for the opinion that he can be released without hazard to the community;
This is to authorise and require you forthwith to discharge the said
.............................................. (name) from your custody unless he is liable to be detained for
some other cause.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 207
FORM No. 19
WARRANT OF IMPRISONMENT ON FAILURE TO PAY MAINTENANCE
(See section 144)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name, description and address) has
been proved before me to be possessed of sufficient means to maintain his wife
..............................................(name) [or his child..............................................(name) orhis father
or mother..............................................(name), who is by reason of (state the reason) unable to
maintain herself (or himself)] and to have neglected (or refused) to do so, and an order has
been duly made requiring the said......................................................( name) to allow to his said
..............................................wife (or child or father or mother) for maintenance the monthly
sum of rupees..............................................; and whereas it has been further proved that the
said..............................................(name) in wilful disregard of the said order has failed to pay
rupees.............................................., being the amount of the allowance for the month (ormonths)
of..............................................;
And thereupon an order was made adjudging him to undergo imprisonment in the said
Jail for the period of..............................................;
This is to authorise and require you receive the said..............................................(name)
into your custody in the said Jail, together with this warrant, and there carry the said order
into execution according to law, returning this warrant with an endorsement certifying the
manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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208 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 20
WARRANT TO ENFORCE THE PAYMENT OF MAINTENANCE BY ATTACHMENT AND SALE
(See section 144)
To.............................................................................................................................................. ..........
(name and designation of the police officer or other person to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS an order has been duly made requiring..............................................(name) to
allow to his said wife (or child or father or mother) for maintenance the monthly sum of
rupees.............................................., and whereas the said..............................................(name) in
wilful disregard of the said order has failed to pay rupees.............................................., being
the amount of the allowance for the month (or months) of..............................................
This is to authorise and require you to attach any movable property belonging
to the said..............................................(name) which may be found within the district
of.............................................., and if within..............................................(state the number of days
or hours allowed) next after such attachment the said sum shall not be paid (or forthwith), to
sell the movable property attached, or so much thereof as shall be sufficient to satisfy the
said sum, returning this warrant, with an endorsement certifying what you have done under
it, immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 21
ORDER FOR THE REMOVAL OF NUISANCES
(See section 152)
To..............................................(name, description and address).
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that you have caused an
obstruction (or nuisance) to persons using the public roadway (or other public place) which,
etc., (describe the road or public place) ........................................................... by, etc.,
..............................................(state what it is that causes the obstruction or nuisance), and
that such obstruction (or nuisance) still exists;
or
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that you are carrying on, as owner, or
manager, the trade or occupation of ..............................................(state the particular trade or
occupation and the place where it is carried on), and that the same is injurious to the public
health (or comfort) by reason..............................................(state briefly in what manner the
injurious effects are caused), and should be suppressed or removed to different place;
or
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that you are the owner (or are in possession
of or have the control over) a certain tank (or well or excavation) adjacent to the public way
..............................................(describe the thoroughfare), and that the safety of the public is
endangered by reason of the said tank (or well or excavation) being without a fence
orinsecurely fenced);
or
WHEREAS , etc., etc., (as the case may be);
I do hereby direct and require you within..............................................(state the time
allowed) (state what is required to be done to abate the nuisance) .............................................
or to appear at..............................................in the ............................................. Court
of..............................................on
the
..............................................day
of..............................................next, and to show cause why this order should not be enforced;
or
I do hereby direct and require you within..............................................(state the time
allowed) to cease carrying on the said trade or occupation at the said place, and not again to
carry on the same, or to remove the said trade from the place where it is now carried on, or to
appear, etc.;
or
I do hereby direct and require you within..............................................(state the time
allowed) to put up a sufficient fence (state the kind of fence and the part to be fenced); or to
appear, etc.;
or
I do hereby direct and require you, etc., etc. (as the case may be).
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 22
MAGISTRATE'S NOTICE AND PEREMPTORY ORDER
(See section 160)
To..............................................(name, description and address).
I HEREBY give you notice that it has been found that the order issued on the
..............................................day of..............................................requiring you
..............................................(state substantially the requisition in the order) is reasonable
and proper. Such order has been made absolute, and I hereby direct and require you to obey
the said order within (state the time allowed), on peril of the penalty provided by the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 for disobedience thereto.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 23
INJUNCTION TO PROVIDE AGAINST IMMINENT DANGER PENDING INQUIRY
(See section 161)
To..............................................(name, description and address).
WHEREAS the inquiry into the conditional order issued by me on
the..............................................day of .............................................., 20..............................................,
is pending, and it has been made to appear to me that the nuisance mentioned in the said
order is attended with such imminent danger or injury of a serious kind to the public as to
render necessary immediate measures to prevent such danger or injury, I do hereby, under
the provisions of section 161 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, direct and
enjoin you forthwith to .............................................. (state plainly what is required to be done
as a temporary safeguard), pending the result of the inquiry.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 24
MAGISTRATE'S ORDER PROHIBITING THE REPETITION, ETC., OF A NUISANCE
(See section 162)
To..............................................(name, description and address).
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that, etc. ..............................................(state
the proper recital, guided by Form No. 21 or Form No. 25, as the case may be);
I do hereby strictly order and enjoin you not to repeat or continue, the said nuisance.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 25
MAGISTRATE'S ORDER TO PREVENT OBSTRUCTION, RIOT, ETC.
(See section 163)
To..............................................(name, description and address).
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that you are in possession (or have the
management) of ..............................................(describe clearly the property), and that, in digging
a drain on the said land, you are about to throw or place a portion of the earth and stones
dug-up upon the adjoining public road, so as to occasion risk of obstruction to persons
using the road;
or
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that you and a number of other persons
(mention the class of persons) are about to meet and proceed in a procession along the
public street, etc., (as the case may be) and that such procession is likely to lead to a riot or
an affray;
or
WHEREAS, etc., etc., (as the case may be);
I do hereby order you not to place or permit to be placed any of the earth or stones
dug fromland on any part of the said road;
or
I do hereby prohibit the procession passing along the said street, and strictly
warn andenjoin you not to take any part in such procession (or as the case recited may
require).
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 26
MAGISTRATE'S ORDER DECLARING PARTY ENTITLED TO RETAIN POSSESSION OF LAND, ETC., IN
DISPUTE
(See section 164)
It appears to me, on the grounds duly recorded, that a dispute, likely to induce a breach
of the peace, existed between..............................................(describe the parties by name and
residence or residence only if the dispute be between bodies of villagers) concerning
certain..............................................(state concisely the subject of dispute), situate within my
local jurisdiction, all the said parties were called upon to give in a written statement of their
respective claims as to the fact of actual possession of the said..............................................(the
subject of dispute), and being satisfied by due inquiry had thereupon, without reference to
the merits of the claim of either of the said parties to the legal right of possession, that the
claim of actual possession by the said..............................................(name or names or
description) is true; I do decide and declare that he is (or they are) in possession of the
said..............................................(the subject of dispute) and entitled to retain such possession
until ousted by due course of law, and do strictly forbid any disturbance of his (or their)
possession in the meantime.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 27
WARRANT OF ATTACHMENT IN THE CASE OF A DISPUTE AS TO THE POSSESSION OF
LAND, ETC.
(See section 165)
To the officer in charge of the police station at..............................................
(or, To the Collector of..............................................).
WHEREAS it has been made to appear to me that a dispute likely to induce a breach of
the peace, existed between..............................................(describe the parties concerned by
name and residence, or residence only if the dispute be between bodies of villagers)
concerning certain..............................................(state concisely the subject of dispute)
situate within the limits of my jurisdiction, and the said parties were thereupon duly called
upon to state in writing their respective claims as to the fact of actual possession of the said
..............................................(the subject of dispute), and whereas, upon due inquiry into the
said claims, I have decided that neither of the said parties was in possession of the
said..............................................(the subject of dispute) (or I am unable to satisfy myself as to
which of the said parties was in possession as aforesaid);
This is to authorise and require you to attach the said..............................................(the
subject of dispute) by taking and keeping possession thereof, and to hold the same under
attachment until the decree or order of a competent Court determining the rights of the
parties, or the claim to possession, shall have been obtained, and to return this warrant with
an endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 28
MAGISTRATE'S ORDER PROHIBITING THE DOING OF ANYTHING ON LAND OR WATER
(See section 166)
A dispute having arisen concerning the right of use of..............................................(state
concisely the subject of dispute) situate within my local jurisdiction, the possession of which
land (or water) is claimed exclusively by..............................................(describe the person or
persons), and it appears to me, on due inquiry into the same, that the said land (or water) has
been open to the enjoyment of such use by the public (or if by an individual or a class of
persons, describe him or them) and (if the use can be enjoyed throughout the year) that the
said use has been enjoyed within three months of the institution of the said inquiry (or if the
use is enjoyable only at a particular season, say, "during the last of the seasons at which the
same is capable of being enjoyed");
I do order that the said..............................................(the claimant or claimants of
possession) or any one in their interest, shall not take (or retain) possession of the said land
(or water) to the exclusion of the enjoyment of the right of use aforesaid, until he (or they)
shall obtain the decree or order of a competent Court adjudging him (or them) to be entitled
to exclusive possession.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 29
BOND AND BAIL-BOND ON A PRELIMINARY INQUIRY BEFORE A POLICE OFFICER
(See section 189)
I,..............................................(name), of.............................................., being charged with
the offence of.............................................., and after inquiry required to appear before the
Magistrate of..............................................
or
and after inquiry called upon to enter into my own recognizance to appear when
required, do hereby bind myself to appear at.............................................., in the Court
of........................................., on the..............................................day of..............................................next
(or on such day as I may hereafter be required to attend) to answer further to the said charge,
and in case of my making default herein. I bind myself to forfeit to Government, the sum of
rupees..............................................;
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
I hereby declare myself (or we jointly and severally declare ourselves and each of us)
surety (or sureties) for the above said .............................................. (name) that he shall attend
at..............................................in the Court of.............................................., on
the..............................................day of..............................................next (or on such day as he
may hereafter be required to attend), further to answer to the charge pending against him,
and, in case of his making default therein, I hereby bind myself (or we hereby bind ourselves)
to forfeit to Government the sum of rupees.....................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 30
BOND TO PROSECUTE OR GIVE EVIDENCE
(See section 190)
I,..............................................(name) of ............................................. (place), do hereby bind
myself to attend at.................................................in the Court of....................................................
at..............................................o'clock on the..............................................day
of..............................................next and then and there to prosecute (or to prosecute and give
evidence) (or to give evidence) in the matter of a charge of..............................................against
one A. B., and, in case of making default herein, I bind myself to forfeit to Government the
sum of rupees..................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Signature)
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FORM No. 31
SPECIAL SUMMONS TO A PERSON ACCUSED OF A PETTY OFFENCE
(See section 229)
To, .......................................................................................................
(Name of the accused)
of..............................................(address)
WHEREAS your attendance is necessary to answer a charge of a petty offence
..............................................(state shortly the offence charged), you are hereby required to
appear in person (or by an advocate) before..............................................(Magistrate)
of..............................................on the..............................................day of..............................................
20.............................................., or if you desire to plead guilty to the charge without appearing
before the Magistrate, to transmit before the aforesaid date the plea of guilty in writing and
the sum of ............................ rupees as fine, or if you desire to appear by an advocate and to
plead guilty through such an advocate, to authorise such advocate in writing to make such
a plea of guilty on your behalf and to pay the fine through such advocate. Herein fail not.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
(Note.—The amount of fine specified in this summons shall not exceed five thousand rupees.)
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FORM No. 32
NOTICE OF COMMITMENT BY MAGISTRATE TO PUBLIC PROSECUTOR
(See section 232)
The Magistrate of..............................................hereby gives notice that he has committed
one..............................................for trial at the next Sessions; and the Magistrate hereby instructs
the Public Prosecutor to conduct the prosecution of the said case.
The charge against the accused is that,.............................................. etc. (state the offence
as in the charge)
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 33
CHARGES
(See sections 234, 235 and 236)
I. CHARGES WITH ONE-HEAD
(1)(a) I,..............................................(name and office of Magistrate, etc.), hereby charge
you..............................................(name of accused person) as follows:—
(b) On section 147.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., waged war against the Government
of India and thereby committed an offence punishable under section 147 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of this Court.
(c) And I hereby direct that you be tried by this Court on the said charge.
(Signature and seal of the Magistrate)
[To be substituted for (b)]:—
(2)On section 151.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., with the intention of inducing the
President of India [or, as the case may be, the Governor of ..............................................(name
of State)] to refrain from exercising a lawful power as such President (or, as the case may be,
the Government) assaulted President (or, as the case may be, the Governor), and thereby
committed an offence punishable under section 151 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
and within the cognizance of this Court.
(3)On section 198.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., did (or omitted to do, as the case
may be) ............................................. , such conduct being contrary to the provisions
of..............................................Act .............................................., section..............................................,
and known by you to be prejudicial to.............................................., and thereby committed an
offence punishable under section 198 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and within the
cognizance of this Court.
(4)On section 229.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., in the course of the trial of
..............................................before.............................................., stated in evidence that
“..............................................” which statement you either knew or believed to be false, or did
not believe to be true, and thereby committed an offence punishable under section 229 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and within the cognizance of this Court.
(5)On section 105.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., committed culpable homicide not
amounting to murder, causing the death of.............................................., and thereby committed
an offence punishable under section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and within
the cognizance of this Court.
(6)On section 108.—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of......................................................, at.......................................................,
abetted the commission of suicide by A.B., a person in a state of intoxication, and thereby
committed an offence punishable under section 108 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
and within the cognizance of this Court.
(7)On section 117(2).—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., voluntarily caused grievous hurt
to................................., and thereby committed an offence punishable under section
of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and within the cognizance of this Court.
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(8)On section 309(2).—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., robbed..............................................
(state the name), and thereby committed an offence punishable under section 309(2) of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and within the cognizance of this Court.
(9)On section 310(2).—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., committed dacoity, an offence
punishable under section 310(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the
cognizance of this Court.
II. CHARGES WITH TWO OR MORE HEADS
(1)(a) I,..............................................(name and office of Magistrate, etc.), hereby charge
you..............................................(name of accused person) as follows:—
(b) On section 179.—First—That you, on or about the..............................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., knowing a coin to be counterfeit,
delivered the same to another person, by name, A. B., as genuine, and thereby committed an
offence punishable under section 179 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the
cognizance of the Court of Session.
Secondly—That you, on or about the...............................................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., knowing a coin to be counterfeit
attempted to induce another person, by name, A.B., to receive it as genuine, and thereby
committed an offence punishable under section 179 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
and within the cognizance of the Court of Session.
(c) And I hereby direct that you be tried by the said Court on the said charge.
(Signature and seal of the Magistrate)
[To be substituted for (b)]:—
(2)On sections 103 and 105.—First—That you, on or about the.....................................
day of.............................................., at.............................................., committed murder by causing
the death of.............................................., and thereby committed an offence punishable under
section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the Court of
Session.
Secondly—That you, on or about the......................................day of........................................,
at.............................................., by causing the death of.............................................., committed
culpable homicide not amounting to murder, and thereby committed an offence punishable
under section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the
Court of Session.
(3)On sections 303(2) and 307.—First—That you, on or about the.....................................
day of................................, at, committed theft, and thereby committed an offence punishable
under section 303(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the
Court of Session.
Secondly—That you, on or about the...............................................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., committed theft, having made
preparation for causing death to a person in order to the committing of such theft, and
thereby committed an offence punishable under section 307 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita,2023 and within the cognizance of the Court of Session.
Thirdly—That you, on or about the........................................................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., committed theft, having made
preparation for causing restraint to a person in order to the effecting of your escape after the
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committing of such theft, and thereby committed an offence punishable under section 307 of
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the Court of Session.
Fourthly—That you, on or about the.................................................................day
of.............................................., at.............................................., committed theft, having made
preparation for causing fear of hurt to a person in order to the restraining of property taken
by such theft and thereby committed an offence punishable under section 307 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the Court of Session.
(4)Alternative charge on section 229.—That you, on or about the......................................
day of......................................., at......................................., in the course of the inquiry
into.............................................., before.............................................., stated in evidence that
‘‘..............................................’’, and that you, on or about the..............................................day of
.............................................., at.............................................., in the course of the trial of,
....................................... before, stated in the evidence that ‘‘..............................................’’, one
of which statements you either knew or believed to be false, did not believe to be
true, andthereby committed an offence punishable under section 229 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita,2023 and within the cognizance of the Court of Session.
(In cases tried by Magistrates substitute ‘‘within my cognizance’’ for ‘‘within the cognizance
of the Court of Session’’.)
III. CHARGES FOR THEFT AFTER PREVIOUS CONVICTION
I,..................................................(name and office of Magistrate, etc.) hereby charge you
..............................................(name of accused person) DVIROORZV:—
That you, on or about the..............................................day of..............................................,
at.............................................., committed theft, and thereby committed an offence punishable
under section 303(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and within the cognizance of the
Court of Session (or Magistrate, as the case may be).
And you, the said ................................................................(name of accused), stand further
charged that you, before the committing of the said offence, that is to say, on
the...................................................... day of.............................................., had been convicted by
the..................................................(state Court by which conviction was had)
at..............................................of an offence punishable under Chapter XVII of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 with imprisonment for a term of three years, that is to say, the offence of
house-breaking by night..............................................(describe the offence in the words used
in the section under which the accused was convicted), which conviction is still in full force
and effect, and that you are thereby liable to enhanced punishment under section 13 of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
And I hereby direct that you be tried, etc.
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FORM No. 34
SUMMONS TO WITNESS
(See sections 63 and 267)
To..............................................of..............................................
WHEREAS complaint has been made before me that..............................................(name of
the accused) of
..............................................(address) has (or is suspected to have)
committed the offence of..............................................(state the offence concisely with time
and place), and it appears to me that you are likely to give material evidence or to produce
any document or other thing for the prosecution.
You are hereby summoned to appear before this Court on the..............................................
day of..............................................next at ten o'clock in the forenoon, to produce such document
or thing or to testify what you know concerning the matter of the said complaint, and not to
depart thence without leave of the Court; and you are hereby warned that, if you shall
without just excuse neglect or refuse to appear on the said date, a warrant will be issued to
compel your attendance.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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FORM No. 35
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT ON A SENTENCE OF IMPRISONMENT OR
FINE IF PASSED BY A COURT
(See sections 258, 271 and 278)
To the Officer in charge of Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS on the..............................................day of ..............................................,
..............................................(name of the prisoner), the (1st, 2nd, 3rd, as the case may be)
prisoner in case No. ..............................................of the Calendar for 20 ........... ,
was convicted before me..............................................(name and official designation) of the
offence of..............................................(mention the offence or offences concisely) under section
(or sections) .............................................. of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (or
of..............................................Act ...........), and was sentenced to..............................................(state
the punishment fully and distinctly).
This is to authorise and require you to receive the said..............................................
(prisoner's name) into your custody in the said Jail, together with this warrant, and thereby
carry the aforesaid sentence into execution according to law.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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226 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 36
WARRANT OF IMPRISONMENT ON FAILURE TO PAY COMPENSATION
(See section 273)
To the Officer in charge of Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description) has brought
against..............................................(name and description of the accused person) the complaint
that..............................................(mention it concisely) and the same has been dismissed on
the ground that there was no reasonable ground for making the accusation against the
said..............................................( name) and the order of dismissal awards payment by the
said..............................................(name of complainant) of the sum of
rupees..............................................as compensation; and whereas the said sum has not been
paid and an order has been made for his simple imprisonment in Jail for the period
of..............................................days, unless the aforesaid sum be sooner paid;
This is to authorise and require you to receive the said..............................................(name)
into your custody, together with this warrant, and him safely to keep in the said Jail for the
said period of .......................................................................(term of imprisonment), subject to
the provisions of section 8(6)(b) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, unless the said sum
be sooner paid, and on the receipt thereof, forthwith to set him at liberty, returning this
warrant with an endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 227
FORM No. 37
ORDER REQUIRING PRODUCTION IN COURT OF PERSON IN PRISON FOR ANSWERING TO
CHARGE OF OFFENCE
(See section 302)
To the Officer in charge of Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS the attendance of..............................................(name of prisoner) at present
confined/detained in the above-mentioned prison, is required in this Court to answer to a
charge of..............................................(state shortly the offence charged) or for the purpose of
a proceeding..............................................(state shortly the particulars of the proceeding).
You are hereby required to produce the said..............................................under safe and
sure conduct before this Court at..............................................on the..............................................day
of.............................................., 20......... , by..............................................A. M. there to answer to
the said charge, or for the purpose of the said proceeding, and after this Court has dispensed
with his further attendance, cause him to be conveyed under safe and sure conduct back to
the said prison.
And you are further required to inform the said..............................................of the contents
of this order and deliver to him the attached copy thereof.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
Countersigned.
(Seal)
(Signature)
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228 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 38
ORDER REQUIRING PRODUCTION IN COURT OF PERSON IN PRISON FOR GIVING EVIDENCE
(See section 302)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS complaint has been made before this Court that..............................................
(name of the accused) of has committed the offence of..............................................(state offence
concisely with time and place) and it appears that..............................................(name of prisoner)
at present confined/detained in the above-mentioned prison, is likely to give material evidence
for the prosecution/defence.
You are hereby required to produce the said..............................................under safe and
sure conduct before this Court at..............................................on the..............................................day
of.............................................., 20............, by A. M. there to give evidence in the matter now
pending before this Court, and after this Court has dispensed with his further attendance,
cause him to be conveyed under safe and sure conduct back to the said prison.
And you are further required to inform the said..............................................of the contents
of this order and deliver to him the attached copy thereof.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
Countersigned.
(Seal)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 229
FORM No. 39
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT IN CERTAIN CASES OF CONTEMPT WHEN A FINE IS IMPOSED
(See section 384)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS at a Court held before me on this day..............................................(name and
description of the offender) in the presence (or view) of the Court committed wilful contempt.
And whereas for such contempt the said..............................................(name of the offender)
has been adjudged by the Court to pay a fine of rupees.............................................., or in
default to suffer simple imprisonment for the period of..............................................(state the
number of months or days).
This is to authorise and require you to receive the said..............................................(name
of the offender) into your custody, together with this warrant, and him safely to keep in the
said Jail for the said period of..............................................(term of imprisonment), unless the
said fine be sooner paid; and, on the receipt thereof, forthwith to set him at liberty, returning
this warrant with an endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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230 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 40
MAGISTRATE'S OR JUDGE'S WARRANT OF COMMITMENT OF WITNESS REFUSING TO ANSWER OR
TO PRODUCE DOCUMENT
(See section 388)
To..............................................
(name and designation of officer of Court)
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description), being summoned (or
brought before this Court) as a witness and this day required to give evidence on an inquiry
into an alleged offence, refused to answer a certain question (or certain questions) put to him
touching the said alleged offence, and duly recorded, or having been called upon to produce
any document has refused to produce such document, without alleging any just excuse for
such refusal, and for his refusal has been ordered to be detained in custody
for..............................................(term of detention adjudged);
This is to authorise and require you to take the said..............................................(name)
into custody, and him safely to keep in your custody for the period
of..............................................days, unless in the meantime he shall consent to be examined
and to answer the questions asked of him, or to produce the document called for from him,
and on the last of the said days, or forthwith on such consent being known, to bring him
before this Court to be dealt with according to law, returning this warrant with an endorsement
certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 231
FORM No. 41
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT UNDER SENTENCE OF DEATH
(See section 407)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS at the session held before me on the..............................................day
of.............................................., 20..............................................,..............................................(name
of prisoner), the (1st, 2nd, 3rd, as the case may be), prisoner in case No. ................. of the
Calendar for 20.............. at the said Session, was duly convicted of the offence of culpable
homicide amounting to murder under section ..............................................of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and sentenced to death, subject to the confirmation of the said sentence
by the..............................................Court of........................................................................
This is to authorise and require you to receive the said..............................................
(prisoner's name) into your custody in the said Jail, together with this warrant, and him there
safely to keep until you shall receive the further warrant or order of this Court, carrying into
effect the order of the said .......................................................................Court.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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232 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 42
WARRANT AFTER A COMMUTATION OF A SENTENCE
(See sections 427, 453 and 456)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS at a Session held on the................................................................day
of.............................................., 20.......... , ..............................................(name of the prisoner), the
(1st, 2nd, 3rd, as the case may be), prisoner in case No. ............ of the Calendar for 20.......... ,
at the said Session, was convicted of the offence of.............................................. , punishable
under section..............................................of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and was
sentenced to..................... and thereupon committed to your custody; and whereas by the
order of the .............................................. Court of ............................................. order of
the .............................................(a duplicate of which is hereunto annexed) the punishment
adjudged by the said sentence has been commuted to the punishment of imprisonment for
life;
This is to authorise and require you safely to keep the said..............................................
(prisoner's name) in your custody in the said Jail, as by law is required, until he shall be
delivered over by you to the proper authority and custody for the purpose of his undergoing
the punishment of imprisonment for life under the said order,
or
if the mitigated sentence is one of imprisonment, say, after the words "custody in the said
Jail", "and there to carry into execution the punishment of imprisonment under the said order
according to law".
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 233
FORM No. 43
WARRANT OF EXECUTION OF A SENTENCE OF DEATH
(See sections 453 and 454)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name of the prisoner), the (1st, 2nd, 3rd, as the
case may be) prisoner in case No. ............ of the Calendar for 20............ at the Session held
before me on the..............................................day of .............................................., 20 .............. ,
has been by a warrant of the Court, dated the.................... day of .............................................. ,
committed to your custody under sentence of death; .............................................. and whereas
the order of the High Court at ..............................................confirming the said sentence has
been received by this Court.
This is to authorise and require you to carry the said sentence into execution by
causing the said..............................................to be hanged by the neck until he be dead,
at..............................................(time and place of execution), and to return this warrant to the
Court with an endorsement certifying that the sentence has been executed.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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234 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 44
WARRANT TO LEVY A FINE BY ATTACHMENT AND SALE
(See section 461)
To..............................................
(name and designation of the police officer or other person or persons who is or are
to execute the warrant).
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description of the offender) was on
the..............................................day of.............................................., 20......... , convicted before
me of the offence of..............................................(mention the offence concisely), and sentenced
to pay a fine of rupees..............................................; and whereas the
said..............................................(name), although required to pay the said fine, has not paid
the same or any part thereof;
This is to authorise and require you to attach any movable property belonging to the
said ..............................................(name), which may be found within the district
of..............................................; and, if within..............................................(state the number of
days or hours allowed) next after such attachment the said sum shall not be paid (or forthwith),
to sell the movable property attached, or so much thereof as shall be sufficient to satisfy the
said fine, returning this warrant, with an endorsement certifying what you have done under
it, immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............. .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 235
FORM No. 45
WARRANT FOR RECOVERY OF FINE
(See section 461)
To the Collector of the district of..............................................
WHEREAS.............................................. (name, address and description of the offender)
was on the..............................................day of.............................................., 20.......... , convicted
before me of the offence of..............................................(mention the offence concisely), and
sentenced to pay a fine of rupees..............................................; and
WHEREAS the said..............................................(name), although require to pay the said
fine, has not paid the same or any part of thereof;
You are hereby authorised and requested to realise the amount of the said fine as
arrears of land revenue from the movable or immovable property, or both, of the
said..............................................(name) and to certify without delay what you have done in
pursuance of this order.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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236 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 46
BOND FOR APPEARANCE OF OFFENDER RELEASED PENDING REALISATION OF FINE
[See section 464 (1) (b)]
WHEREAS I,..............................................(name) inhabitant of..............................................
(place), have been sentenced to pay a fine of rupees..............................................and in default
of payment thereof to undergo imprisonment for..............................................; and whereas the
Court has been pleased to order my release on condition of my executing a bond for my
appearance on the following date (or dates), namely:—
I hereby bind myself to appear before the Court of..............................................
at.............................................. o'clock on the following date (or dates), namely:—
and, in case of making default herein, I bind myself to forfeit to Government the sum of
rupees..............................................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
WHERE A BOND WITH SURETIES IS TO BE EXECUTED, ADD—
We do hereby declare ourselves sureties for the above-named that he will appear
before the Court of ..............................................on the following date (or dates), namely:—
And, in case of his making default therein, we bind ourselves jointly and severally to
forfeit to Government the sum of rupees...............................................
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 237
FORM No. 47
BOND AND BAIL-BOND FOR ATTENDANCE BEFORE OFFICER IN CHARGE OF POLICE STATION OR
COURT
[See sections 478, 479, 480, 481, 482(3) and 485]
I,..............................................(name), of..............................................(place), having been
arrested or detained without warrant by the Officer in charge of..............................................police
station (or having been brought before the Court of..............................................), charged
with the offence of.............................................., and required to give security for my attendance
before such Officer of Court on condition that I shall attend such Officer or Court on every
day on which any investigation or trial is held with regard to such charge, and in case of my
making default herein, I bind myself to forfeit to Government the sum of rupees.............................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Signature)
I hereby declare myself (or we jointly and severally declare ourselves and each of us)
surety (or sureties) for the above said..............................................(name) that he shall attend
the Officer in charge of..............................................police station or the Court
of..............................................on every day on which any investigation into the charge is
made or any trial on such charge is held, that he shall be, and appear, before such Officer or
Court for the purpose of such investigation or to answer the charge against him (as the case
may be), and, in case of his making default herein, I hereby bind myself (or we, hereby bind
ourselves) to forfeit to Government the sum of rupees...............................
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Signature)
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238 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 48
WARRANT TO DISCHARGE A PERSON IMPRISONED ON FAILURE TO GIVE SECURITY
(See section 487)
To the Officer in charge of the Jail at..............................................
(or other officer in whose custody the person is)
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description of prisoner) was committed
to your custody under warrant of this Court, dated the..............................................day
of.............................................. , and has since with his surety (or sureties) duly executed a
bond under section 485 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023;
This is to authorise and require you forthwith to discharge the said.......................................
(name) from your custody, unless he is liable to be detained for some other matter.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 239
FORM No. 49
WARRANT OF ATTACHMENT TO ENFORCE A BOND
(See section 491)
To the Police Officer in charge of the police station at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name, description and address of person) has
failed to appear on..............................................(mention the occasion) pursuant to his
recognizance, and has by default forfeited to Government the sum of
rupees..............................................(the penalty in the bond); and whereas the
said..............................................(name of person) has, on due notice to him, failed to pay the
said sum or show any sufficient cause why payment should not be enforced against him;
This is to authorise and require you to attach any movable property of the said
..............................................(name) that you may find within the district of ............................... ,
by seizure and detention, and, if the said amount be not paid within......................................... ,
days to sell the property so attached or so much of it as may be sufficient to realise the
amount aforesaid, and to make return of what you have done under this warrant immediately
upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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240 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 50
NOTICE TO SURETY ON BREACH OF A BOND
(See section 491)
To .............................................. of ..............................................
WHEREAS on the..............................................day of.............................................. ,
20 ........................., you became surety for..............................................(name)
of..............................................(place) that he should appear before this Court on
the..............................................day of ..............................................and bound yourself in default
thereof to forfeit the sum of rupees..................to Government; and whereas the
said..............................................(name) has failed to appear before this Court and by reason of
such default you have forfeited the aforesaid sum of rupees.
You are hereby required to pay the said penalty or show cause,
within..............................................days from this date, why payment of the said sum should
not be enforced against you.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 241
FORM No. 51
NOTICE TO SURETY OF FORFEITURE OF BOND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
(See section 491)
To.............................................. of..............................................
WHEREAS on the..............................................day of ............................ , 20................... , you
became surety by a bond for..............................................(name) of..............................................
(place) that he would be of good behaviour for the period of..............................................and
bound yourself in default thereof to forfeit the sum of rupees.................... to Government; and
whereas the said..............................................(name) has been convicted of the offence
of.............................................. (mention the offence concisely) committed since you became
such surety, whereby your security bond has become forfeited;
You are hereby required to pay the said penalty of rupees .................... or to show cause
within .............................................. days why it should not be paid.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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242 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 52
WARRANT OF ATTACHMENT AGAINST A SURETY
(See section 491)
To..............................................of..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name, description and address) has bound himself
as surety for the appearance of .............................................. (mention the condition of the
bond) and the said .............................................. (name) has made default, and thereby forfeited
to Government the sum of rupees ........................ (the penalty in the bond);
This is to authorise and require you to attach any movable property of the said
..............................................(name) which you may find within .............................................. the
district of .............................................. , by seizure and detention; and, if the said amount be
not paid within days, to sell the property so attached, or so much of it as may be sufficient
to realise the amount aforesaid, and make return of what you have done under this warrant
immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 243
FORM No. 53
WARRANT OF COMMITMENT OF THE SURETY OF AN ACCUSED PERSON ADMITTED TO BAIL
(See section 491)
To the Superintendent (or Keeper) of the Civil Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description of surety) has bound himself
as a surety for the appearance of.............................................. (state the condition of the bond)
and the said..............................................(name) has therein made default whereby the penalty
mentioned in the said bond has been forfeited to Government; and whereas the
said..............................................(name of surety) has, on due notice to him, failed to pay the
said sum or show any sufficient cause why payment should not be enforced against him, and
the same cannot be recovered by attachment and sale of his movable property, and an order
has been made for his imprisonment in the Civil Jail for..................................(Specify the period);
This is to authorise and require you, the said Superintendent (or Keeper) to receive the
said..............................................(name) into your custody with the warrant and to keep him
safely in the said Jail for the said..............................................(term of imprisonment), and to
return this warrant with an endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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244 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 54
NOTICE TO THE PRINCIPAL OF FORFEITURE OF BOND TO KEEP THE PEACE
(See section 491)
To..............................................(name, description and address)
WHEREAS on the..............................................day of.............................................., 20................,
you entered into a bond not to commit, etc., ..............................................(as in the bond), and
proof of the forfeiture of the same has been given before me and duly recorded;
You are hereby called upon to pay the said penalty of rupees.................... or to show
cause before me within..............................................days why payment of the same should not
be enforced against you.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 245
FORM No. 55
WARRANT TO ATTACH THE PROPERTY OF THE PRINCIPAL ON BREACH OF A BOND TO KEEP
THE PEACE
(See section 491)
To..............................................
(name and designation of police officer), at the police station of..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name and description) did, on
the..............................................day of.............................................., 20........................ , enter into a
bond for the sum of rupees..............................................binding himself not to commit a breach
of the peace, etc., (as in the bond), and proof of the forfeiture of the said bond has been given
before me and duly recorded; and whereas notice has been given to the said
..............................................(name) calling upon him to show cause why the said sum should
not be paid, and he has failed to do so or to pay the said sum;
This is to authorise and require you to attach by seizure movable property belonging
to the said..............................................(name) to the value of rupees.............. , which you may
find within the district of.............................................., and, if the said sum be not paid
within.............................................. , to sell the property so attached, or so much of it as may be
sufficient to realise the same; and to make return of what you have done under this warrant
immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
————
246
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[Part II—
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246 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
FORM No. 56
WARRANT OF IMPRISONMENT ON BREACH OF A BOND TO KEEP THE PEACE
(See section 491)
To the Superintendent (or Keeper) of the Civil Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS proof has been given before me and duly recorded that................................
(name and description) has committed a breach of the bond entered into by him to keep the
peace, whereby he has forfeited to Government the sum of rupees.................. ; and whereas
the said..............................................(name) has failed to pay the said sum or to show cause
why the said sum should not be paid, although duly called upon to do so, and payment
thereof cannot be enforced by attachment of his movable property, and an order has been
made for the imprisonment of the said..............................................(name) in the Civil Jail of the
period of..............................................(term of imprisonment);
This is to authorise and require you, the said Superintendent (or Keeper) of the said
Civil Jail to receive the said..............................................(name) into your custody, together
with this warrant, and to keep his safely in the said Jail for the said period of
..............................................(term of imprisonment), and to return this warrant with an
endorsement certifying the manner of its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
————
Sec. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
247
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No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 247
FORM No. 57
WARRANT OF ATTACHMENT AND SALE ON FORFEITURE OF BOND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
(See section 491)
To the Police Officer in charge of the police station at..............................................
WHEREAS ..............................................(name, description and address) did, on
the..............................................day of.............................................., 20.................., give security
by bond in the sum of rupees................... for the good behaviour
of..............................................(name, etc., of the principal), and proof has been given before
me and duly recorded of the commission by the said..............................................(name) of the
offence of ..............................................whereby the said bond has been forfeited; and whereas
notice has been given to the said..............................................(name) calling upon him to show
cause why the said sum should not be paid, and he has failed to do so to pay the said sum;
This is to authorise and require you to attach by seizure movable property belonging
to the said..............................................(name) to the value of rupees......................which you
may find within the district of.............................................. , and, if the said sum be not paid
within.............................................. , to sell the property so attached, or so much of it as may be
sufficient to realise the same, and to make return of what you have done under this warrant
immediately upon its execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
————
248
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[Part II—
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248 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-96
—————
DIWAKAR SINGH,
Joint Secretary & Legislative Counsel to the Govt. of India.
FORM No. 58
WARRANT OF IMPRISONMENT ON FORFEITURE OF BOND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
(See section 491)
To the Superintendent (or Keeper) of the Civil Jail at..............................................
WHEREAS..............................................(name, description and address) did, on
the .............................................. day of.............................................., 20.................. , give security
by bond in the sum of rupees........................for the good behaviour of...................................(name,
etc., of the principal), and proof of the breach of the said bond has been given before me and
duly recorded, whereby the said..............................................(name) has forfeited to Government
the sum of rupees.................. , and whereas he has failed to pay the said sum or to show
cause why the said sum should not be paid although duly called upon to do so, and payment
thereof cannot be enforced by attachment of his movable property, and an order has been
made for the imprisonment of the said..............................................(name) in the Civil Jail for
the period of..............................................(term of imprisonment);
This is to authorise and require you, the Superintendent (or Keeper), to receive the
said..............................................(name) into your custody, together with this warrant, and to
keep him safely in the said Jail for the said period of..............................................(term of
imprisonment), returning this warrant with an endorsement certifying the manner of its
execution.
Dated, this.............................................. day of.............................................. , 20 ............ .
(Seal of the Court)
(Signature)
Sd/-
No. 11-96] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 249
THE BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023
NO. 47 OF 2023
[25th December, 2023.]
An Act to consolidate and to provide for general rules and principles of evidence
for fair trial.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
PART I
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
(2) It applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court, including Courts-martial,
but not to affidavits presented to any Court or officer, nor to proceedings before an arbitrator.
Short title,
application and
commencement.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 25th December, 2023/Pausha 4, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
25th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-97
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
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THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
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44 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-97
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No. 11-97] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 45
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THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[Part II—
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________________
46 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-97
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
47
PART B
(To be filled by the Expert)
I, ____________________ (Name), Son/daughter/spouse of _____________________
residing/employed at _________________________ do hereby solemnly affirm and
sincerely state and submit as follows:—
The produced electronic record/output of the digital record are obtained from the following
device/digital record source (tick mark):—
Computer / Storage Media
DVR
Mobile
Flash Drive
CD/DVD
Server
Cloud
Other
Other: ________________________________________
Make & Model: _______________ Color: _______________
Serial Number: _______________
IMEI/UIN/UID/MAC/Cloud ID_____________________ (as applicable)
and any other relevant information, if any, about the device/digital record_______(specify).
I state that the HASH value/s of the electronic/digital record/s is _____________________,
obtained through the following algorithm:—
SHA1:
SHA256:
MD5:
Other__________________ (Legally acceptable standard)
(Hash report to be enclosed with the certificate)
(Name, designation and signature)
Date (DD/MM/YYYY): _____
Time (IST): ________hours (In 24 hours format)
Place: ____________
—————
DIWAKAR SINGH,
Joint Secretary & Legislative Counsel to the Govt. of India.
Sd/-
No. 11-97] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 47
THE PROVISIONAL COLLECTION OF TAXES ACT, 2023
NO. 50 OF 2023
[28th December, 2023.]
An Act to provide for the immediate effect for a limited period of provisions in
Bills relating to the imposition or increase of duties of customs or excise.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
1. This Act may be called the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 2023.
2. In this Act, a “declared provision” means a provision in a Bill in respect of which
a declaration has been made under section 3.
Short title.
Definition.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 29th December, 2023/Pausha 8, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
28th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-100
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
3. Where a Bill to be introduced in Parliament on behalf of the Government provides
for the imposition or increase of a duty of customs or excise with or without change in tariff
classification, the Central Government may cause to be inserted in the Bill a declaration that
it is expedient in the public interest that any provision of the Bill relating to such imposition
or increase shall have immediate effect under this Act.
4. (1) A declared provision shall have the force of law immediately on the expiry of
the day on which the Bill containing it is introduced.
(2) A declared provision shall cease to have the force of law under the provisions of
this Act—
(a) when it comes into operation as an enactment, with or without amendment;
(b) when the Central Government, in pursuance of a motion passed by Parliament,
directs, by notification in the Official Gazette, that it shall cease to have the force of
law; or
(c) if it has not already ceased to have the force of law under clause (a) or
clause (b), then on the expiry of the seventy-fifth day after the day on which the Bill
containing it was introduced.
5. (1) Where a declared provision comes into operation as an enactment in an amended
form before the expiry of the seventy-fifth day after the day on which the Bill containing it
was introduced, refunds shall be made of all duties collected which would not have been
collected if the provision adopted in the enactment had been the declared provision:
Provided that the rate at which refunds of any duty may be made under this sub-section
shall not exceed the difference between the rate of such duty proposed in the declared
provision and the rate of such duty in force when the Bill was introduced.
(2) Where a declared provision ceases to have the force of law under clause (b) or
clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 4, refunds shall be made of all duties collected which
would not have been collected if the declaration in respect of it had not been made.
6. The Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 1931 is hereby repealed.
Power of
Central
Government
to make
declaration.
Effect of
declarations
under this
Act, and
duration
thereof.
Refunds to be
made in
certain cases.
Repeal.
16 of 1931.
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
Sd/-
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-100
THE PRESS AND REGISTRATION OF PERIODICALS ACT, 2023
NO. 51 OF 2023
[28th December, 2023.]
An Act to provide for press, registration of periodicals and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as
follows:—
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023.
(2) It extends to the whole of India.
(3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification
in the Official Gazette, appoint.
Short title,
extent and
commencement.
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 29th December, 2023/Pausha 8, 1945 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
28th December, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—
———————————————————————————————
Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-101
———————————————————————————————
PART IV
Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.
______________________________________________________________
_____
EXTRAORDINARY
REGD NO. JK–33
2
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) “facsimile edition” of a publication means an exact reproduction of the original
edition of a foreign publication in English or an Indian language included in the Eighth
Schedule to the Constitution;
(b) “journal” means a periodical publication, other than a magazine, which
primarily carries academic, scientific or technical content related to a particular discipline
or profession;
(c) “keeper” means a person who manages the day-to-day operations of a printing
press, the owner of which is a non-individual entity;
(d) “newspaper” means a periodical of loose-folded sheets usually printed on
newsprint and brought out daily or at least once in a week, containing information on
current events, public news or comments on public news;
(e) “notification” means a notification published in the Gazette of India or the
Official Gazette of a State, as the case may be, and the expression “notify” with its
grammatical variation and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly;
(f) “owner” means an individual, firm or any such legal entity owning a periodical;
(g) “periodical” means any publication, including a newspaper, which is
published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or comments on
public news, but does not include a book, or a journal including a book or journal of
scientific, technical and academic nature;
(h) “prescribed” means prescribed by rules made under this Act;
(i) “Press Registrar General” means the Press Registrar General of India, appointed
by the Central Government under sub-section (1) of section 5;
(j) “printer” means the owner or keeper of a printing press;
(k) “printing” means reproduction of a periodical through any technology
involving mass production of copies, but does not include photocopying;
(l) “publication” means newspapers, magazines, journals or newsletters printed
periodically and published in India, and shall include its reproduction in electronic
form or any syndication, facsimile edition, for public distribution or access;
(m) “publish” means the process of making a work available to the public by
issuing or causing to be issued the copies thereof or in any other manner, whether for
a price or free of charge, and the word “publishing” shall be construed accordingly;
(n) “publisher” means a person responsible to publish any periodical;
(o) “register” means the register of periodicals maintained under clause (b) of
sub-section (3) of section 5;
(p) “specified authority” means a District Magistrate or Collector or such other
officer as the State Government or, as the case may be, Union territory Administration
may, by notification, specify;
(q) “title”, in relation to a periodical, means the name of such periodical as may
be verified by the Press Registrar General, printed prominently and legibly as the
masthead on the front page of that periodical by which it shall be known or be identified.
Definitions.
2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-101
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
3
CHAPTER II
PRINTING PRESS AND PERIODICAL
3. Every printer of a periodical shall furnish an intimation in the online portal to the
Press Registrar General and the specified authority within whose local jurisdiction his printing
press is situated with such particulars and in such manner, as may be prescribed.
4. (1) Every citizen of India or a person, being an entity incorporated and registered in
India under any law for the time being in force, may bring out a periodical:
Provided that no person who has been convicted by any court for an offence—
(a) involving terrorist act or unlawful activity; or
(b) for having done anything against the security of the State,
shall bring out a periodical.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expressions "terrorist act" and
"unlawful activity" shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in clauses (k)
and (o) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967.
(2) Every periodical printed in India shall have printed on it legibly the name of the
printer, place of printing, name of editor, publisher and place of publication.
Explanation.––For the purposes of this sub-section, “editor” means a person who
decides the matter that is to be published in a periodical.
(3) A facsimile edition of a foreign periodical may be printed in India only with the
previous approval of the Central Government in accordance with the guidelines made in this
regard, and the registration of such facsimile edition shall be made with the Press Registrar
General in such manner as may be prescribed.
Explanation.––For the purposes of this sub-section, “foreign periodical” means any
periodical printed and published in a country outside India.
CHAPTER III
AUTHORITIES
5. (1) The Central Government may, by order, appoint a Press Registrar General of India
for carrying out the purposes of this Act.
(2) The Central Government may, by general or special order, appoint such other
officers under the general superintendence and control of the Press Registrar General, as
may be necessary, for the purpose of performing the functions assigned to the Press Registrar
General by or under this Act and may, by such order provide for the distribution or allocation
of functions to be performed by them under this Act.
(3) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provisions,
the Press Registrar General shall perform the following functions, namely:—
(a) issue a certificate of registration to a periodical;
(b) maintain a register of registered periodicals;
(c) make guidelines for admissibility and availability of title of a periodical;
(d) collect fees, as may be applicable, with regard to applications received by him
under this Act;
(e) receive funds from the Central Government and disburse the same for
implementation of the provisions of this Act;
(f) prepare and publish an annual report containing information in respect of the
periodicals in India;
(g) any function incidental to, or connected with, clauses (a) to (f); and
(h) any other function as may be assigned to it by the Central Government for
the effective implementation of the provisions of this Act.
6. The Press Registrar General shall—
(a) obtain annual statements of a periodical;
(b) verify the circulation figure of such class of periodicals in such manner and for
such purpose, as may be prescribed, and shall have access to any relevant record or
Printer to
furnish
intimation.
Publication of
periodical.
Press Registrar
General and
other officers.
Powers of
Press Registrar
General.
37 of 1967.
No. 11-101] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3
4
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
document relating to a periodical in the possession of the owner of such periodical or
printer thereof, and enter any premises where the business of such periodical is carried
on at any reasonable time to inspect or take copies of the relevant records or documents
or ask any question necessary for obtaining any information required to be furnished;
(c) revise, suspend or cancel registration of a periodical;
(d) requisition the services of an authorised person and such other person as
may be specified by him for undertaking verification of circulation figure of a periodical.
Explanation.––For the removal of doubts, it is clarified that an “authorised
person” means a Gazetted Officer of the Central Government, subordinate to the Press
Registrar General, and authorised by the Press Registrar General in writing to function
as his representative for discharging such functions as he may assign to such
representative;
(e) call for records, documents and such other information in respect of a printing
press or a periodical as may be required in discharge of his duties;
(f) call for information from a State Government or Union territory Administration
or a specified authority regarding a periodical; and
(g) impose penalty.
CHAPTER IV
REGISTRATION OF PERIODICAL
7. (1) A periodical shall be printed or published in India only in accordance with the
provisions of this Act.
(2) Every publisher of a periodical shall, with the authorisation of the owner of such
periodical, obtain a certificate of registration from the Press Registrar General by making an
online application to the Press Registrar General and the specified authority within whose
local jurisdiction such periodical is proposed to be published, in such manner and on payment
of such fee, with such documents and particulars, as may be prescribed.
(3) The application referred to in sub-section (2) shall contain the title, which the
publisher intends to assign to the periodical, and for that purpose the publisher may suggest
one or more names for the title, in an order of preference, which is not the same or similar to
a title already held by any other owner of a periodical either in the same language anywhere
in India or in any other language in the same State, and which conforms to the guidelines
made by the Press Registrar General for this purpose.
(4) The specified authority referred to in sub-section (2) shall, either furnish its no-objection
or comments on the application to the Press Registrar General within a period of sixty days:
Provided that no-objection of the specified authority shall not be required, where the
application referred to in sub-section (2) is for registration of a periodical proposed to be
published by the Central Government or a State Government or any authority under such
Government.
(5) On receipt of an application referred to in sub-section (2), if the Press Registrar
General is satisfied with its correctness and completeness and after taking into account the
comments, if any, received from the specified authority within the period referred to in
sub-section (4) and the guidelines relating to admissibility of titles, he shall issue a certificate
of registration containing particulars of its periodicity, language, place of publication, details
of the owner and the title of the periodical, in such form as may be prescribed:
Provided that the Press Registrar General may, after giving an opportunity of being
heard and for reasons to be recorded in writing, refuse to issue the certificate of registration.
(6) The publisher of the periodical shall, on receipt of the certificate of registration,
commence publication of the periodical:
Provided that if the publisher of the periodical fails to publish the periodical within
twelve months from the end of the month in which the certificate of registration was issued,
the Press Registrar General may cancel the certificate of registration and withdraw the title.
Registration
of periodical.
4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-101
SEC. 1]
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
5
8. (1) A publisher of a periodical may make an application to the Press Registrar General
for revision of particulars of the certificate of registration, or for revision of title, in such
manner and with such particulars as may be prescribed.
(2) The Press Registrar General may, on being satisfied with the particulars of the
revision applied for under sub-section (1), issue a revised certificate of registration or a
revised title, to the publisher and intimate the same to the specified authority.
9. (1) The transfer of ownership of every periodical registered under section 7 shall be
made in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(2) The owner of a periodical referred to in sub-section (1) shall apply for transfer of its
ownership to the Press Registrar General by furnishing such documents, setting forth such
particulars and on payment of such fee, as may be prescribed.
(3) On receipt of an application from the owner of a periodical for transfer of ownership
of such periodical, if the Press Registrar General is satisfied with its correctness and
completeness, and after taking into account the comments, if any, received from the specified
authority, he shall permit the transfer of ownership of that periodical:
Provided that the Press Registrar General may, after giving an opportunity of being
heard and for reasons to be recorded in writing, refuse to permit such transfer of ownership
of a periodical.
(4) The owner of the periodical shall, on receipt of the permission from the Press
Registrar General under sub-section (3), forward a copy of the same to the publisher, and the
publisher shall apply and obtain a revised certificate of registration in accordance with the
provisions of section 7.
(5) The owner of a periodical shall intimate any change in the shareholding pattern of his
company within fifteen days of such change being informed by him to the Registrar of Companies.
10. (1) The owner of a periodical may discontinue a periodical registered under this
Act and shall, within six months of such discontinuation, intimate to the Press Registrar
General and the specified authority, within whose local jurisdiction such periodical is
published, about such discontinuation.
(2) The Press Registrar General shall, on receipt of intimation from the publisher under
sub-section (1), cancel the certificate of registration of the discontinued periodical and
remove the periodical along with its title from the register maintained under clause (b) of
sub-section (3) of section 5.
11. (1) The Press Registrar General may, by order, for a period not less than thirty days
but not exceeding one hundred and eighty days, suspend the certificate of registration of a
periodical, if—
(a) the registration was obtained on false representation or on concealment of
any material fact; or
(b) the publisher has failed to publish the periodical continuously.
Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that if a periodical
publishes less than half of its issues, as are required to be published in a calendar year
in accordance with the application made under sub-section (2) of section 7, such
periodical shall be deemed to have failed to publish continuously; or
(c) the publisher has given false particulars in the annual statement; or
(d) the publisher has failed to furnish the annual statement within two years from
the end of the financial year for which the annual statement was to be furnished.
(2) The Press Registrar General may cancel the certificate of registration of a periodical,
where the publisher fails to remove the defects of the grounds on which the said certificate
was suspended under sub-section (1) before the expiry of the period of such suspension.
Revision of
certificate of
registration or
title.
Transfer of
ownership of a
periodical.
Discontinuation
of a
periodical.
Suspension or
cancellation
of
registration.
No. 11-101] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5
6
THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY
[PART II—
(3) The Press Registrar General may, by order, cancel the certificate of registration of a
periodical which—
(a) bears the same or similar title already held by any other owner of a periodical,
either in the same language anywhere in India or in any other language in the same
State or Union territory; or
(b) violates the guidelines made under sub-section (3) of section 7.
(4) The Press Registrar General may, by order, cancel the certificate of Registration of
a periodical where the owner or publisher of such periodical has been convicted by any court
for an offence—
(a) involving terrorist act or unlawful activity; or
(b) for having done anything against the security of the State.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expressions "terrorist act" and
"unlawful activity" shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in clauses (k) and
(o) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967.
(5) No order for suspension or cancellation of certificate of registration shall be passed
under this section, without giving an opportunity of being heard to the publisher or owner of
the periodical, as the case may be.
(6) A copy of order of suspension or cancellation passed under this section shall be
made available to the Central Government or State Government or Union territory
Administration, as the case may be, and to the specified authority.
(7) The Press Registrar General may, after the cancellation of certificate of registration
of a periodical under this section, issue a new certificate of registration to such periodical
bearing another title, if the publisher of that periodical makes an application to that effect in
conformity with the guidelines made under sub-section (3) of section 7.
(8) The Press Registrar General may, in such circumstances and manner, as may be
prescribed, authorise the specified authority to suspend or cancel the certificate of registration
granted under section 7.
12. (1) The publisher of a periodical shall furnish to the Press Registrar General an
annual statement in respect of the periodical, at such time, in such form and giving such
particulars, as may be prescribed.
(2) The publisher of every newspaper in India shall, subject to any rules made under
this Act, deliver free of cost to the Press Registrar General and to the State Government one
copy of each issue of such newspaper within forty-eight hours.
13. The Press Registrar General shall prepare and publish an annual report containing
information in respect of the periodicals in India.
CHAPTER V
PENALTIES
14. (1) The Press Registrar General may impose penalty, if—
(a) a periodical is published without obtaining a certificate of registration under
section 7;
(b) the publisher fails to furnish the annual statement as required under
section 12 within one year from the end of the financial year in respect of which the
annual statement was required to be furnished:
Provided that no order of imposition of penalty shall be passed without giving an
opportunity of being heard to the publisher.
(2) Where a periodical is published without obtaining a certificate of registration under
section 7, the Press Registrar General may impose a penalty of an amount not exceeding
five lakh rupees with a direction to the publisher to cease the publication of such periodical.
(3) The quantum of penalty imposable under clause (b) of sub-section (1) shall be not
less than ten thousand rupees but not exceeding twenty thousand rupees for the first default:
Provided that for every subsequent default, an enhanced penalty of twice such quantum
may be imposed but shall not exceed two lakh rupees.
Annual
statement to
be furnished
by periodical.
Annual report.
Power of
Press Registrar
General to
impose
penalty.
37 of 1967.
6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-101
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(4) Whoever fails to cease publication of periodical even after six months of issue of a
direction under sub-section (2), or publishes any other periodical without obtaining a
certificate of registration under section 7, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to six months.
CHAPTER VI
APPEAL
15. (1) There shall be an Appellate Board to be called the Press and Registration
Appellate Board consisting of Chairperson, Press Council of India and two members to be
nominated by the Press Council of India, from among its members:
Provided that at least one of the two members shall be a person referred to in clause (d)
or clause (e) of sub-section (3) of section 5 of the Press Council Act, 1978.
(2) Any person aggrieved by an order of refusal to issue the certificate of registration
under sub-section (5) of section 7, or cancellation or suspension of registration under
section 11, or order of imposition of penalty under section 14, may, within sixty days from the
date on which such order is communicated to him, prefer an appeal before the Press and
Registration Appellate Board:
Provided that the Press and Registration Appellate Board may admit an appeal after
the expiry of the said period, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient
cause from preferring the appeal on time.
(3) On receipt of an appeal under this section, the Press and Registration Appellate
Board may, after calling for the records and after making such further inquiries as it deems fit,
confirm, modify or set aside the order appealed against.
(4) The manner and procedure to be followed for preferring appeals, calling for records
and making inquires under this section shall be such as may be laid down by the Chairperson,
Press Council of India.
CHAPTER VII
MISCELLANEOUS
16. (1) Without prejudice to the foregoing provisions of this Act, the Central
Government may give directions on matters of policy to the Press Registrar General, in
writing, from time to time and the Press Registrar General shall, in the discharge of his powers
and functions under this Act, be bound by such directions.
(2) The decision of the Central Government as to whether a question is one of policy
or not shall be final.
17. The Press Registrar General and all officers appointed under this Act shall be
deemed to be public servants within the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.
18. No suit or other legal proceedings shall lie against the Central Government or State
Government or Union territory Administration or the Press Registrar General or any officer or
employee authorised by the Press Registrar General, for anything which is in good faith done
or intended to be done in pursuance of this Act or the rules made thereunder.
19. (1) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, after previous
publication, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provisions,
such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—
(a) the manner and particulars for furnishing an intimation before the specified
authority by the printing press under section 3;
(b) the manner of registration of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical under
sub-section (3) of section 4;
(c) the manner of verification of circulation figure of class of periodicals under
clause (b) of section 6;
(d) the form, fees and manner of making an online application, documents to be
furnished and particulars to be set forth under sub-section (2) of section 7;
Power of
Central
Government
to issue
directions.
Press Registrar
General and
other officers
to be public
servants.
Protection of
action taken
in good faith.
45 of 1860.
Power of
Central
Government
to make rules.
37 of 1978.
Press and
Registration
Appellate
Board.
No. 11-101] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7
8
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[PART II—
(e) the form in which and the particulars along with which a certificate of
registration shall be issued under sub-section (5) of section 7;
(f) the manner of making an application and particulars to be set forth therein
under sub-section (1) of section 8;
(g) the form, fees and manner of making an application, documents to be furnished
and particulars to be set forth under sub-section (2) of section 9;
(h) the circumstances and manner for authorising the specified authority to
suspend or cancel the certificate of registration under sub-section (7) of section 11;
(i) the form, time and particulars for furnishing an annual statement under section 12;
(j) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed under the
provisions of this Act.
(3) The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette of the State, make
such rules not inconsistent with the rules made by the Central Government, as may be
necessary or desirable for carrying out the objects of this Act.
(4) Every rule made by the State Government under sub-section (3) shall be laid, as
soon as may be after it is made, before the State Legislature.
20. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central
Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for
removing the difficulty:
Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry of three
years from the commencement of this Act.
(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made,
before each House of Parliament.
21. Every rule made or notification issued by the Central Government under this Act
shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made or issued, before each House of Parliament
while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session
or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately
following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making
any modification in the rule or notification or both Houses agree that the rule or notification
should not be made or issued, the rule or notification shall thereafter have effect only in such
modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification
or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under
that rule or notification.
22. (1) The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867 is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal,—
(a) anything done or any action taken or purported to have been done or taken
including any rule, notification, inspection, order or declaration made or any document
or instrument executed or any direction given or any proceedings taken or any penalty
or fine imposed under the Act hereby repealed shall, in so far as it is not inconsistent
with the provisions of this Act, be deemed to have been done or taken under the
corresponding provisions of this Act;
(b) any declaration, including title thereof, so made and authenticated under the
provisions of the Act hereby repealed, shall be deemed to have been made and
authenticated under the corresponding provisions of this Act;
(c) any proceeding pending in any court at the commencement of this Act may
be continued in that court as if this Act has not been passed;
(d) the Press Registrar General and other officers appointed under the Act hereby
repealed and holding office as such immediately before the commencement of this Act,
shall, on the commencement of this Act, continue to hold their respective offices under
the corresponding provisions of this Act, unless and until they are removed or
superannuated;
Power to
remove
difficulties.
Laying of
rules and
notification.
Repeal and
savings.
25 of 1867.
8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-101
SEC. 1]
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(e) the Press and Registration Appellate Board established under the Act hereby
repealed shall continue to function under the corresponding provisions of this Act,
unless and until the Press and Registration Appellate Board is constituted under this
Act;
(f) any appeal preferred to the Press and Registration Appellate Board hereby
repealed and not disposed of before the commencement of this Act, may be disposed
of by the Press and Registration Appellate Board constituted under this Act;
(g) any penalty payable under the Act hereby repealed may be recovered in the
manner provided by or under this Act, but without prejudice to any action already
taken for the recovery of such penalty under the Act so repealed;
(h) any certificate of registration issued or granted under the Act hereby repealed
shall continue to have effect after the commencement of this Act under the same
conditions as if this Act had not been passed.
(3) The matters referred to in clauses (a) to (h) of sub-section (2) shall not be held to
prejudice or affect the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 with
regard to the effect of such repeal.
10 of 1897.
—————
S.K.G. RAHATE,
Secretary to the Govt. of India.
Sd/-
No. 11-101] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9