Panaji, 5th March, 2020 (Phalguna 15, 1941)

SERIES I No. 49

Reg. No. G-2/RNP/GOA/32/2018-20

RNI No. GOAENG/2002/6410

PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY

NOTE

There is an Extraordinary issue to the Official Gazette, Series I No. 48 dated 27-02-2020, namely, Extraordinary dated

29-02-2020 from pages 1593 to1594, Notification No. 38/1/2017-Fin(R&C)(01/2020-Rate) regarding amendment of Government

Notification dated 30th June, 2017 from Department of Finance (Revenue & Control Division).

INDEX

Department

Notification

Subject

Pages

Environment

Not.- 1/24/2010/STE-DIR

Central Rules.

1595

Dir. & Jt. Secretary

Finance

Not.- 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C)

Adoption of Rule 10 of CCS Rules, 2016 by the

1599

Under Secretary

State Government.

Home

Not.- 19/03/2020-HD(G)

The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019.

1600

Under Secretary

Law & Judiciary

Not.- 10/4/2019-LA-352

The Repealing and Amending Act, 2019.

1606

Under Secretary

GOVERNMENT OF GOA

Department of Environment

Notification

1/24/2010/STE-DIR

The following Notification published in the

Gazette of India is hereby published for the

general information of public:—

(1) S.O. 2944(E) dated 14-09-2016;

(2) G.S.R. 568(E) dated 18-06-2018;

By order and in the name of Governor of

Goa.

Johnson B. Fernandes, Director & Joint

Secretary (Environment).

Porvorim, 27th February 2020.

1595

Suggestions are welcomed on e-mail: dir–[email protected]

Ministry of Environment, Forest and

Climate Change

Notification

New Delhi, the 14th September, 2016

S.O. 2944(E).— In exercise of the powers

conferred by sub-section (1) and clause (v) of

sub-section (2) of section 3 of the

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of

1986) read with sub-rule (4) of rule 5 of the

Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, the

Central Government, after having dispensed

with the requirement of notice under clause

(a) of sub-rule (3) of rule 5 of the said rule, in

public interest, hereby makes the following

further amendments in the notification of the

Government of India, in the erstwhile Ministry

of Environment and Forests number

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SERIES I No. 49

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1596

S.O.1533(E), dated the 14th September, 2006

namely:—

In the said notification, for paragraph, 9

relating to Validity to Environment Clearance

(EC), the following paragraph shall be

substituted, namely:—

“9. Validity of Environmental Clearance

(EC):— (i) The “Validity of Environmental

Clearance” is meant the period from which

a prior environmental clearance is granted

by the regulatory authority, or may be

presumed by the applicant to have been

granted under sub-paragraph (iii) of

paragraph 8, to the start of production

operations by the project or activity, or

completion of all construction operations

in case of construction projects (item 8 of

the Schedule), to which the application for

prior environmental clearance refers. The

prior environmental clearance granted for

a project or activity shall be valid for a

period of ten years in the case of River

Valley projects [item 1(c) of the Schedule],

project life as estimated by the Expert

Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert

Appraisal Committee or District Level

Expert Appraisal Committee subject to a

maximum of thirty years for mining

projects and seven years in the case of all

other projects and activities.

(ii) In the case of Area Development

projects and Townships [item 8(b)], the

validity period of seven years shall be

limited only to such activities as may be

the responsibility of the applicant as a

developer:

Provided that this period of validity with

respect to sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) above

may be extended by the regulatory

authority concerned by a maximum period

of three years if an application is made to

the regulatory authority by the applicant

within the validity period, together with

an updated Form I, and Supplementary

Form IA, for Construction projects or

activities (item 8 of the Schedule):

Provided further that the regulatory

authority may also consult the Expert

Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert

Appraisal Committee or District Level

Expert Appraisal Committee, as the case

may be, for grant of such extension.

(iii) Where the application for extension

under sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) above has

been filed—

(a) within thirty days after the validity

period of Environmental Clearance, such

cases shall be referred to concerned

Expert Appraisal Committee or State

Level Expert Appraisal Committee or

District

Level

Expert

Appraisal

Committee

and

based

their

recommendations, the delay shall be

condoned at the level of the Joint

Secretary in the Ministry of Environment,

Forest and Climate Change or Member

Secretary, State Level Expert Appraisal

Committee or Member Secretary, District

Level Expert Appraisal Committee, as

the case may be;

(b) more than thirty days after the

validity

period

Environmental

Clearance but less than ninety days after

such validity period, then, based on the

recommendations

the

Expert

Appraisal Committee or State Level

Expert Appraisal Committee or District

Level Expert Appraisal Committee, the

delay shall be condoned with the

approval of the Minister in charge of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change

or Chairman, as the case may be:

Provided that no condonation for delay

shall be granted for any application for

extension filed beyond ninety days after

the validity period of Environmental

Clearance.”.

[F. No. 22-27/2015-IA-III]

MANOJ KUMAR SINGH, Jt Secy.

Note: The principal rules were published in the

Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3,

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SERIES I No. 49

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1597

Sub-section (ii) vide notification number S.O. 1533

(E), dated the 14th September, 2006 and amended

vide S.O. 1737(E) dated the 11th October, 2007, S.O.

3067 (E) dated the 1st December, 2009, S.O. 695 (E)

dated the 4th April, 2011, S.O. 2896 (E) dated the

13th December, 2012 , S.O.674(E) dated the 13th

March, 2013, S.O. 2204 (E) dated the 19th July, 2013,

S.O. 2555 (E) dated the 21st August, 2013,

S.O.2559(E) dated the 22nd August, 2013, S.O. 2731

(E) dated the 9th September, 2013, S.O. 562(E) dated

the 26th February, 2014, S.O.637(E) dated the 28th

February, 2014, S.O. 1599(E) dated the 25th June,

2014, S.O. 2601 (E) dated 7th October, 2014, S.O.

2600 (E) dated 9th October, 2014, S.O. 3252(E) dated

22nd December, 2014, S.O. 382 (E) dated 3rd

February, 2015, S.O. 811(E) dated 23rd March, 2015,

S.O. 996 (E) dated 10th April, 2015, S.O. 1142 (E)

dated 17th April, 2015, S.O. 1141 (E) dated 29th

April, 2015, S.O. 1834 (E) dated the 6th July, 2015,

S.O. 2571 (E) dated the 31st August, 2015, S.O. 2572

(E) dated the 14th September, 2015, S.O. 141 (E)

dated the 15th January, 2016 and S.O. 648 (E) dated

the 3rd March, 2016.

_______

Notification

New Delhi, the 18th June, 2018

G.S.R. 568(E).— In exercise of the powers

conferred by sections 6 and 25 of the

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of

1986), the Central Government hereby makes

the following rules further to amend the

Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986,

namely:

1. (1) These rules may be called the

Environment (Protection) Amendment Rules,

2018.

(2) They shall come into force on the

date of their publication in the Official

Gazette.

2. In the Environment (Protection) Rules,

1986, in Schedule–I, after serial number 111

and the entries relating thereto, the following

serial number and the entries shall be

inserted, namely:—

Sl. No. Industry

Parameters

Standards

Ambient Air Quality Standards

with respect to Noise in Airport

Noise Zone

“112

Airports

Type of

Limits in dB

Airports

(A) Leq*

Day

Night

Time

Busy Airports

All other Airports

excluding

proposed airports

Definitions: (a) *dB(A) Leq denotes the time

weighted average of the level of sound in

decibels on scale A which is relatable to

human hearing. A day time from 6.00 a.m. to

10.00 p.m. and night time from 10.00 p.m. to

6.00 a.m. are considered for time weighted

average.

(b) “A”, in dB(A) Leq, denotes the

frequency weighting in the measurement of

noise and corresponds to frequency response

characteristics of the human ear (The range

of human hearing is 20 Hz to 20 kHz).

measured.

(d) Leq: It is energy mean of the noise level

over a specified period.

(e) Busy Airport - For the purpose of noise

management at airports, a busy airport shall

be defined as “a civil airport which has more

than 50,000 aircraft movements per year (a

movement being a take-off or a landing)”

excluding those purely for training purposes

on light aircraft.

(f) Take-off – A phase of flight from the

application of takeoff power to an altitude of

final take-off segment.

(g) Landing – A phase of flight from the

beginning of the landing flare until aircraft

exits the landing runway comes to a stop on

the runway, or when power is applied for

takeoff in the case of a touch-and-go landing.

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(h) Lmax is unit for aircraft maximum noise

level in units dB(A) which is maximum or

peak noise value for aircrafts at the

monitoring location in accordance with the

noise standards notified by the Directorate

General of Civil Aviation for respective

airports.

(i) Other Airports – an airport having more

than 15000 but less than 50000 aircraft

movement annually.

(j) Proposed Airports – airport that is not

functional yet and is under development.

Note: (i) Day time shall mean from 6.00 a.m. to

10.00 p.m and night time shall mean from 10.00 p.m.

to 6.00 a.m.

(ii) The above specified limits shall have a

tolerance limit of 10dB (A) Leq.

(iii) The specified limit excludes defense aircraft

and aircraft landing and take-off noise from all

runways and aircraft engine/ground run-ups,

helipad locations earmarked by Airport Operator

for this purpose.

(iv) However, the limit for aircraft noise as Lmax

will be notified by the airport operator with

approval of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation

at the aircraft noise monitoring locations installed

by the airports as mentioned in paragraph 1 of this

notification.

(v) The noise limits specified in above shall

replace and supersede the ambient air quality in

respect of noise limits of the following existing

zones:

(a) Silence;

(b) Residential; and

(vi) As specified in the Noise Pollution (Regulation

and Control) Rules, 2000 in the areas falling directly

under Airport Noise Zone.

(vii) The noise standards within the overall

boundary of airports shall be applicable as

Industrial Areas i.e. day time 75 dB (A) Leq and

night time 70 db (A) Leq as per the Noise

(Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 and shall be

measured at different points of airport boundary

and then averaged.

(viii) These standards will not be applicable to a

civil airport which has less than 15,000 aircraft

movement annually.

1 (1) For Airports excluding newly proposed

airports: In addition to dB(A) Leq applicable in the

‘airport noise zones’ specified above, Lmax value in

dB(A) shall be published by the airport operator

with approval of the Directorate General of Civil

Aviation only for airports having more than 50,000

annual traffic movements. These Lmax values shall

be complied by airlines and to be monitored and

communicated by Airport Operator to the

Directorate General of Civil Aviation. These Lmax

value shall be reviewed as and when there is a

requirement in future.

(2) For Proposed Airports (yet to be

operationalized): (i) For any upcoming/New Airports,

noise modeling shall be conducted by the airport

operators and results should be submitted to the

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

while seeking Environment Clearance under the

Environment Impact Assessment Notification, 2006.

(ii) The airport operators should also develop

airport noise zone as specified in paragraph 4 and

share the same with Ministry of Housing and Urban

Affairs and concerned State Development Authority

for necessary land use planning around airport.

(iii) The concerned State/Union Territory

Development Authorities should not allow any new

residential, institutions & commercial facilities and

other noise sensitive area falling in the airport noise

zone area without any noise reduction measure.

2. Compliance of noise levels applicable to

Airport Noise Zone as specified above shall lie with

the airport operator and overseen by the Directorate

General of Civil Aviation.

3. Airport operators shall prepare Noise

Management Plan for compliance of the Airport

Noise Standards.

4. Airport Noise Zones:

(1) The Airport Noise Zone area for each Airport

shall be defined as Noise Contour for day and night

period by the respective Airport Operator on the

basis of existing GSR 751 (E), issued by the Ministry

of Civil Aviation (Height Restrictions for

Safeguarding of Aircraft Operations) Rules, 2015

published on 30th September, 2015 as amended

from time to time on Height Restriction for

Safeguarding of Aircraft Operation considering all

approach and departure funnels and Instrument

Flight Procedures (i.e. Instrument Approach

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

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1599

Procedures, Standard Instrument Departure &

Standard Terminal Arrival Route) in consultation

with airports Air Navigation Service Provider as

per the Master Plan of the Airport. The same shall

be shall be approved by the Directorate General of

Civil Aviation and displayed on the website of

respective Airport Operators. This activity shall be

completed within two years from the date of

issuance of the final notification.

(2)

State/Union

Territory

Development

Authorities should take into consideration of

Airport Operations requirements in the airport noise

zone area for the land use planning around the

airport.

5. Airport Noise Mapping: Noise mapping in for

all airports should be carried out as per the

requirements specified in the Director General Civil

Aviation’s requirements by the airport operators

considering future aircraft movement and traffic

projections of the airport as per the Master Plan of

the Airport. This information to be displayed at a

prominent places at Airports as well as in the

website of respective Airport Operator and State/

/Union Territory Development Authority.

6. Protocol and Measurements Procedure:

Monitoring protocol and measurements procedure

for airport noise zone displayed on the website of

the Ministry of Environment, Forest and the Climate

Change and the Central Pollution Control Board

shall be followed.

7. Development Authorities/Regional Planning

Department shall specify provisions for inclusion of

sound resistance in new buildings, facilities and

projects of residential, institutional, hospital and

commercial facilities in the design, construction

and materials selections for improving indoor

environment under existing building codes and bye

laws for any building constructions coming under

airport noise zones.

8. All the Airport, Airline and Authority shall

comply with the requirements specified in the

notification within two years from the date of

notification.”.

[F.No. Q-15017/31/2015-CPW]

Dr. A. SENTHIL VEL, Scientist ‘G’

Note : The principal rules were published in the Gazette

of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3, Sub-section (i),

vide number S.O. 844 (E), dated the 19th November, 1986

and last amended vide notification G.S.R. 263(E), dated

the 22nd March, 2018.

Department of Finance

Revenue & Control Division

Order

8/1/2016-Fin(R&C)

Read: 1. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C)/(A)

dated 31-11-2016

2. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

25-7-2017

3. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

10-08-2017

4. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

04-09-2017

5. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

29-09-2017

6. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

25-10-2017

7. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

14-06-2018

8. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated

28-11-2018.

In pursuance to the order dated 28-11-2018

read above at Sr. 8, the OM No. 4-21/2017-

-IC/E.IIIA dated 29-10-2019 issued by

Government of India, Ministry of Finance,

Department of Expenditure, New Delhi,

regarding drawal of next increment under

Rule 10 of Central Service (Revised Pay)

Rules, 2016, has been adopted by the State

Government for its implementation.

The OM, referred above is available on the

website of the Directorate of Accounts,

www.accountsgoa.gov.in.

By order and in the name of Governor of

Goa.

Pranab G. Bhat, Under Secretary, Finance

(R&C).

Porvorim, 22nd February, 2020.

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

SERIES I No. 49

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1600

Department of Home

Home—General Division

Notification

19/03/2020-HD(G)

Read: 1) Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

published in Extraordinary Gazette

of India, Part II, section I dated

13-12-2019.

2) Notification

dated

12-02-2020

published in Gazette of India,

Extraordinary No. 665, Part II,

section 3, sub-section (ii).

The following Act and Notification, read in

preamble received from the Government of

India, Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry

of Law & Justice, New Delhi is hereby

published for general information of the

public.

Nilesh K. Daigodkar, Under Secretary

(Home).

Porvorim, 28th February, 2020.

_________

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 13th December, 2019

Agrahayana 22, 1941 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received

the assent of the Preseident on the 13th

December, 2019 and is hereby published for

general information:—

_________

The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

No. 48 of 2019

[13-12-2019]

ACT

further to amend the Arms Act, 1959.

Be it enacted by Parliament in the

Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as

follows:—

1. Short title and commencement.— (1) This

Act may be called the Arms (Amendment)

Act, 2019.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as

the Central Government may, by notification

in the Official Gazette, appoint.

2. Amendment of section 2.— In

the Arms Act, 1959 (hereinafter

referred to as the principal Act), in

section 2, after clause (e), the

following clause shall be inserted,

namely:—

‘(ea) “licence” means a licence issued

in accordance with the provisions of this

Act and rules made thereunder and

includes a licence issued in the electronic

form;’.

3. Amendment of section 3.— In section 3

of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—

(i) for the words “three firearms”, the

words “two firearm” shall be substituted;

(ii) for the proviso, the following provisos

shall be inserted, namely:—

“Provided that a person who has in his

possession more firearms than two at the

commencement of the Arms (Amendment)

Act, 2019, may retain with him any two of

such firearms and shall deposit, within one

year from such commencement, the

remaining firearm with the officer in

charge of the nearest police station or,

subject to the conditions prescribed for the

purposes of sub-section (1) of section 21,

with a licensed dealer or, where such

person is a member of the armed forces of

the Union, in a unit armoury referred to in

that sub-section after which it shall be

delicensed within ninety days from the date

of expiry of aforesaid one year:

Provided further that while granting

arms licence on inheritance or heirloom

basis, the limit of two firearms shall not be

exceeded.”.

54 of 1959.

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1601

4. Amendment of section 5.— In section 5

of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), in

clause (a), for the word “manufacture,”, the

words “manufacture, obtain, procure,” shall

be substituted.

5. Amendment of section 6.— In section 6

of the principal Act, after the words “convert

an imitation firearm into a firearm”, the

words and figures “or convert from any

category of firearms mentioned in the Arms

Rules, 2016 into any other category of

firearms” shall be inserted.

6. Amendment of section 8.— In section 8

of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), for

the word “firearm”, the words “firearm or

ammunition” shall be substituted.

7. Amendment of section 13.— In section

13 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), in

clause (a), in sub-clause (ii), for the words

and figures “point 22 bore rifle or an air rifle”,

the word “firearm” shall be substituted.

8. Amendment of section 15.— In section

15 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1),—

(a) for the words “period of three years”,

the words “period of five years” shall be

substituted;

(b) after the proviso, the following

proviso shall be inserted, namely:—

“Provided further that the licence

granted under section 3 shall be subject to

the conditions specified in sub-clauses (ii)

and (iii) of clause (a) of sub-section (1) of

section 9 and the licensee shall produce

the licence along with the firearm or

ammunition and connected document

before the licensing authority after every

five years from the date on which it is

granted or renewed.”.

9. Amendment of section 25.— In section

25 of the principal Act,—

(i) in sub-section (1),—

(a) in clause (a), for the word

“manufactures,”,

the

words

“manufactures, obtains, procures,” shall

be substituted;

(b) in clause (b), after the words

“convert an imitation firearm into a

firearm”, the words and figures “or

convert from any category of firearms

mentioned in the Arms Rules, 2016 into

any other category of firearms” shall be

inserted;

years but which may extend to seven

years”, the words “seven years but

which may extend to imprisonment for

life” shall be substituted;

(ii) in sub-section (1A),—

(a) for the words “five years but which

may extend to ten years”, the words

“seven years but which may extend to

fourteen years” shall be substituted;

(b) the following proviso shall be

inserted, namely:—

“Provided that the Court may, for any

adequate and special reasons to be

recorded in the judgment, impose a

sentence of imprisonment for a term of

less than seven years.”;

(iii) after sub-section (1A), the following

sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—

“(1AB) Whoever, by using force, takes

the firearm from the police or armed

forces shall be punishable with

imprisonment for a term which shall not

be less than ten years but which may

extend to imprisonment for life and shall

also be liable to fine.”;

(iv) in sub-section (1AA), for the words

“seven years”, the words “ten years” shall

be substituted;

(v) in sub-section (1B),—

(a) in the long line, for the words “one

year but which may extend to three

years”, the words “two years but

which may extend to five years and shall

also be liable to fine” shall be

substituted;

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1602

(b) in the proviso, for the words “one

year”, the words “two years” shall be

substituted;

(vi) after sub-section (5), the following

sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—

‘(6) If any member of an organised crime

syndicate or any person on its behalf has at

any time has in his possession or carries any

arms or ammunition in contravention of any

provision of Chapter II shall be punishable

with imprisonment for a term which shall not

be less than ten years but which may extend

to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable

to fine.

(7) Whoever on behalf of a member of an

organised crime syndicate or a person on its

behalf,—

(i) manufactures, obtains, procures, sells,

transfers, converts, repairs, tests or proves,

or exposes or offers for sale or transfer,

conversion, repair, test or proof, any arms

or ammunition in contravention of section

5; or

(ii) shortens the barrel of a firearm or

converts an imitation firearm into a firearm

or converts from any category of firearms

mentioned in the Arms Rules, 2016 into

any other category of firearms in

contravention of section 6; or

(iii) brings into, or takes out of India, any

arms or ammunition of any class or

description in contravention of section 11,

shall be punishable with imprisonment for a

term which shall not be less than ten years

but which may extend to imprisonment for

life and shall also be liable to fine.

Explanation.—For the purposes of sub-

sections (6) and (7),—

(a) “organised crime” means any

continuing unlawful activity by any person,

singly or collectively, either as a member

of an organised crime syndicate or on

behalf of such syndicate, by use of violence

or threat of violence or intimidation or

coercion, or other unlawful means, with

the objective of gaining pecuniary benefits,

or gaining undue economic or other

advantage for himself or any person;

(b) “organised crime syndicate” means

a group of two or more persons who,

acting either singly or collectively, as a

syndicate or gang indulge in activities of

organised crime.

(8) Whoever involves in or aids in the illicit

trafficking of firearms and ammunition in

contravention of sections 3, 5, 6, 7 and 11

shall be punishable with imprisonment for a

term which shall not be less than ten years

but which may extend to imprisonment for

life and shall also be liable to fine.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-

section, “illicit trafficking” means the import,

export, acquisition, sale, delivery, movement

or transfer of firearms and ammunition into,

from or within the territory of India, if the

firearms and ammunition are not marked in

accordance with the provisions of this Act or

are being trafficked in contravention of the

provisions of this Act including smuggled

firearms of foreign make or prohibited arms

and prohibited ammunition.

(9) Whoever uses firearm in a rash or

negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire

so as to endanger human life or personal

safety of others shall be punishable with an

imprisonment for a term which may extend

to two years, or with fine which may extend

to rupees one lakh, or with both.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-

section, “celebratory gunfire” means the

practice of using firearm in public gatherings,

religious places, marriage parties or other

functions to fire ammunition.’.

10. Amendment of section 27.— In section

27 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), for

the words “shall be punishable with death”,

the words “shall be punishable with

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1603

imprisonment for life, or death and shall also

be liable to fine” shall be substituted.

11. Amendment of section 44.— In section

44 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), in

clause (f),—

(a) for the words “firearm shall be

stamped or otherwise shown thereon”, the

words “firearm or ammunition shall be

stamped or otherwise shown thereon for

the purposes of tracing” shall be

substituted;

(b) the following Explanation shall be

inserted, namely:—

‘Explanation.—For the purposes of this

clause, “tracing” means the systematic

tracking of firearms and ammunition from

manufacturer to purchaser for the purpose

of detecting, investigating and analysing

illicit manufacturing and illicit trafficking;’.

DR . G. NARAYANA RAJU,

Secretary to the Govt. of India.

________

MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS

___

Notification

New Delhi, the 12th February, 2020

S.O. 665(E).— Whereas the Central

Government is of the opinion that it is

necessary and expedient in public interest

to exempt certain classes of persons from the

operation of some of the provisions of the

Arms Act, 1959 (54 of 1959). Now, therefore,

in exercise of the powers conferred by section

41 of the Arms Act, 1959 (54 of 1959) and in

supersession of the notification of the

Government of India in the Ministry of Home

Affairs vide number S.O. 1988(E), dated the

4th August, 2014, except as respects things

done or omitted to be done before such

supersession, the Central Government hereby

exempts the classes of the persons specified

in column (2) of the Schedule hereto annexed,

in respect of the arms of the category of

description specified in the corresponding

entry in column (3) thereof, when carried or

possessed for their own personal use for the

purpose of training or use in competitions,

from the operations of the provisions of sub-

section (2) of section 3 and clause (a) (i) of

sub-section (1) of section 9 of the said Act

and subject to such conditions as are

specified in the corresponding entries in

column (4) of the said Schedule, namely:—

2. Definitions.— For the purposes of this

notification—

(a) “International Championship” means

the Asian Games, the Asian Shooting

Championship, the Asian Women or

Asian Junior Shooting Championship,

the

Commonwealth

Games,

the

Commonwealth Shooting Championships,

the Olympic Games, the World Junior or

Senior Shooting Championships and the

World Cups in Senior as well Junior events;

(b) “International Medalist” means a

person who has won an individual or team

medal in an International Championship;

who has participated in a National Shooting

Championship in an Open Men’s Event or

Open Women’s Event or Open Civilian’s

Event

whether

through

Qualifying

Tournament or Wild Card Entry conducted

accordance

with

the

rules

International Shooting Union and has

attained the Minimum Qualifying Score

specified by the National Rifle Association;

(d) “Junior Target Shooter” means a

person who has completed the age of

twelve years but is below the age of twenty

one years and has taken part in at least

one State Championship (held once a year)

or in the Zonal Championship or National

Level Shooting Competition recognised by

National Rifle Association and/or by

respective State Rifle Association;

(e) “Aspiring Shooter” means a person

who has taken part in at least one State

Championship (held once a year) or in the

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1604

Zonal Championship or National Level Shooting Competition recognised by National Rifle

Association and/or by respective State Rifle Association and attained the Minimum Qualifying

Score specified by the National Rifle Association of India.

3. Certifying bodies.— (a) the certifying body for the persons specified at serial number (1)

of the Schedule shall be the Government of India in the Department of Sports, Ministry of

Youth Affairs and Sports. The certificate shall state that the award was conferred for excellence

as a shooter;

(b) the certifying body for the persons specified at serial number (2) of the Schedule shall

be the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI). The certificate shall state that the Medal has

been won by the International Medalists in the International Championships and in case of

Renowned Shooters the Merit Certificate shall mention the Qualifying Score along with the

Minimum Qualifying Score (MQS) for the event as specified by NRAI;

shall be the National Rifle Association of India or the approved or affiliated State Rifle

Association(s) of NRAI. The Certificate issued shall mention the Qualifying Score along with

the Minimum Qualifying Score for the event as specified by NRAI or the State Rifle Association;

(d) the certifying body for the entities mentioned at serial number 5 of the Schedule shall

be as under:—

Entity

Certifying Body

Shooting Clubs/District Rifle Associations

State Rifle Association or National Rifle

affiliated with State Rifle Associations or

Association of India

National Rifle Association of India

State Rifle Association

National Rifle Association

Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Shooting Ranges

Sports Authority of India/Sports Authority

of the State Government/National Rifle

Association of India.

4. Other conditions of exemption.— The exemption hereby granted under this notification

shall further be subject to the following conditions, namely:—

(a) The Junior Target Shooter claiming exemption under the notification has completed

the age of twelve years;

(b) Area Validity of the licenses issued to the persons mentioned at serial numbers 1 to

4 of the Schedule will be for All India and the issuing licensing authority shall be authorised

to grant the same without referring it to the Central or the State Government for approval;

spare or conversion barrels is to be treated as one weapon only at the time of endorsement

on the licence and full details of the said weapon and such spare or conversion barrel shall

be endorsed on the respective Arms Licence.

5. Publication of details of eligible exemptees.— The database in respect of all eligible

exemptees shall be put on the website of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and/or that

of the National Rifle Association of India for the purpose of cross verification by any licensing

authority.

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SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1605

SCHEDULE

Exemptions related to possession of Arms

Sr. No.

Persons

class

persons

Categories/descriptions of arms

Conditions

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Arjuna Awardee

General exemption on the number

of arms to be possessed provided

that

the

Arjuna

Award

conferred in shooting.

The person must hold a certificate

issued by the appropriate certifying

body referred to in paragraph 3 of

this notification.

International Medalist /

Renowned Shooter

(i)

Rifles in caliber 22 Long

Rifle (also known as 22

LR);

(ii)

Center

fire

Rifles

with

calibers

including all calibers lower

than 8mm;

(iii) Pistols/Revolvers of caliber

up to and including 9 mm

but

excluding

parabellum(9X19 mm);

(iv) Shotguns of caliber up to 12

bore/guage

including

all

calibers

lower

than

bore/gauge.

(i) The total number of weapons

exempted shall not exceed

twelve

addition

the

number of weapons he is

entitled to possess as a normal

citizen as per the provisions of

the Act, subject to an overall

ceiling of fourteen weapons;

(ii) The person must hold a

certificate

issued

the

appropriate

certifying

body

referred to in paragraph 3 of

this notification.

Note:

(a) if a shooter is renowned in one

event

only,

the

maximum

number of weapons he can

possess shall be ten (i.e. eight

in the exempted category plus

two weapons which he can

possess as a normal citizen

under sub-section 2 of section 3

of the Act);

(b) if a shooter is renowned in two

events, the maximum number

of weapons he can possess shall

be twelve (i.e. ten in the

exempted category plus two

weapons which he can possess

as a normal citizen under sub-

section 2 of section 3 of the

Act);

more than two events, the

maximum number of weapons

he can possess shall be fourteen

(i.e. twelve in the exempted

category plus two weapons

which he can possess as a

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1606

normal

citizen

under

sub-

section 2 of section 3 of the

Act).

Junior Target Shooter

Type of arms used in the event in

which the person is a Junior

Target Shooter.

(i) The exemption is restricted to

two weapons of any category

in which the person is a Junior

target shooter;

(ii) The

person

must

hold

certificate

issued

the

appropriate

certifying

body

referred to in paragraph 3 of

this notification.

Aspiring Shooter

Type of arms used in the event in

which the person is an Aspiring

Shooter.

(i) The exemption is restricted to

two weapons of any category

in which the person is an

Aspiring Shooter;

(ii) The

person

must

hold

certificate

issued

the

appropriate

certifying

body

referred to in paragraph 3 of

this notification.

National

Rifle

Association

India

(NRAI) / Affiliated State

Rifle Association(s) with

NRAI / District Rifle

Association(s)

affiliated

with

State

Rifle

Association(s)

All

Shooting Clubs affiliated

with

the

State

Rifle

Association or NRAI /

All

Shooting

Ranges

under

the

Sports

Authority of India or the

Sports Authority of the

State Governments.

(i)

Rifles in calibre .22 Long

Rifle (also known as .22

LR);

(ii) Center

fire

Rifles

with

calibers

including all calibers lower

than 8 mm;

(iii) Pistols/Revolvers of caliber

up to and including 9 mm

but

excluding

parabellum (9x19 mm);

(iv) Shotguns of caliber up to 12

bore/gauge

including

all

calibers

lower

than

bore/gauge.

(i) No upper limit on the number

Arms,

subject

the

discretion

the

licensing

authority

based

the

recommendations

the

certifying body;

(ii) The

entity

must

hold

certificate

issued

the

appropriate

certifying

body

referred to in paragraph 3 of

this notification.

[F. No. V-11026/133/2019-Arms]

PUNYA SALILA SRIVASTAVA, Jt. Secy.

———ttt———

Department of Law & Judiciary

Legal Affairs Division

——

Notification

10/4/2019-LA-352

The Repealing and Amending Act, 2019

(Central Act No. 31 of 2019), which has been

passed by Parliament and assented to by the

President on 08-08-2019 and published in the

Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II,

Section 1, dated 08-08-2019, is hereby

published for the general information of the

public.

D. S. Raut Dessai, Joint Secretary (Law).

Porvorim, 31st December, 2019.

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1607

The Repealing and Amending

Act, 2019

ACT

to repeal certain enactments and to amend

certain other enactments.

Be it enacted by Parliament in the

Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as

follows:—

1. Short title.— This Act may be called the

Repealing and Amending Act, 2019.

2. Repeal of certain enactments.— The

enactments specified in the First Schedule

are hereby repealed.

3. Amendment of certain enactments.—

The enactments specified in the Second

Schedule are hereby amended to the extent

and in the manner specified in the fourth

column thereof.

4. Savings.— The repeal by this Act of any

enactment shall not affect any other

enactment in which the repealed enactment

has been applied, incorporated or referred

to;

and this Act shall not affect the validity,

invalidity, effect or consequences of anything

already done or suffered, or any right, title,

obligation or liability already acquired,

accrued or incurred, or any remedy or

proceeding in respect thereof, or any release

or discharge of or from any debt, penalty,

obligation, liability, claim or demand, or any

indemnity already granted, or the proof of

any past act or thing;

nor shall this Act affect any principle or

rule of law, or established jurisdiction, form

or course of pleading, practice or procedure,

or existing usage, custom, privilege,

restriction, exemption, office or appointment,

notwithstanding that the same respectively

may have been in any manner affirmed or

recognised or derived by, in or from any

enactment hereby repealed;

nor shall the repeal by this Act of any

enactment revive or restore any jurisdiction,

office, custom, liability, right, title, privilege,

restriction, exemption, usage, practice,

procedure or other matter or thing not now

existing or in force.

________

THE FIRST SCHEDULE

(See section 2)

Repeals

Year

Act No.

Short Title

1850

XII

The Public Accountants’ Defaults Act, 1850.

1881

The Municipal Taxation Act, 1881.

1892

The Government Management of Private Estates Act, 1892.

1956

The Terminal Tax on Railway Passengers Act, 1956.

1958

The Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly (Constitution and Proceedings)

Validation Act, 1958.

1960

The Cotton Transport (Amendment) Act, 1960

1963

The Hindi Sahitya Sammelan (Amendment) Act, 1963.

1963

The Dramatic Performances (Delhi Repeal) Act, 1963.

1964

The Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Amendment Act, 1964.

1968

The Delhi and Ajmer Rent Control (Nasirabad Cantonment Repeal) Act, 1968.

1973

The Alcock Ashdown Company Limited (Acquisition of Undertakings) Act, 1973.

1976

The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore Mines Labour Welfare

Cess Act, 1976.

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SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1608

1976

The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore Mines Labour Welfare

Fund Act, 1976.

1976

The Beedi Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1976.

1980

The Tea (Amendment) Act, 1980.

1981

The Aligarh Muslim University (Amendment) Act, 1981.

1982

The Road Transport Corporations (Amendment) Act, 1982.

1983

The Transformers and Switchgear Limited (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings)

Act, 1983.

1988

The Tamil Nadu Agricultural Service Co-operative Societies (Appointment of Special

Officers) Amendment Act, 1988.

1999

The High Denomination Bank Notes (Demonetisation) Amendment Act, 1998.

2001

The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2001.

2001

The Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001.

2002

The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2002.

2002

The Delhi University (Amendment) Act, 2002.

2007

The Dalmia Dadri Cement Limited (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings)

Amendment Act, 2006.

2007

The Central Road Fund (Amendment) Act, 2007.

2009

The Prevention of Money-laundering (Amendment) Act, 2009.

2009

The Central Industrial Security Force (Amendment) Act, 2009.

2009

The Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2009.

2010

The Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009.

2011

The Repatriation of Prisoners (Amendment) Act, 2011.

2011

The Customs (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2011.

2012

The National Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2012.

2012

The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2012.

2014

The Governors (Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges) Amendment Act, 2014.

2014

The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)

Act, 2014.

2014

The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2014.

2014

The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Amendment) Act, 2014.

2014

The Merchant Shipping (Amendment) Act, 2014.

2014

The Merchant Shipping (Second Amendment) Act, 2014.

2014

The National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special Provisions) Second (Amendment)

Act, 2014.

2015

The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Amendment Act, 2015.

2015

The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2015.

2015

The Insurance Laws (Amendment) Act, 2015.

2015

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.

2015

The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2015.

2015

The Regional Rural Banks (Amendment) Act, 2015.

2015

The Warehousing Corporations (Amendment) Act, 2015.

2015

The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015.

OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA

SERIES I No. 49

5TH MARCH, 2020

1609

2016

The Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2016.

2016

The High Court and the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service)

Amendment Act, 2016.

2016

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016.

2016

The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)

Act, 2016.

2016

The Central Agricultural University (Amendment) Act, 2016.

2016

The Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016.

2017

The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)

Act, 2017.

2017

The Collection of Statistics (Amendment) Act, 2017.

2017

The Indian Institutes of Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2017.

________

THE SECOND SCHEDULE

(See section 3)

Amendments

Year

Act No.

Short title

Amendments

1961

The Income-tax Act, 1961

In section 54GA, in the Explanation to sub-section

(1), in clause (a), after the word, brackets, letters

“clause (za)”, the words and figure “of section 2”

shall be inserted.

2017

The Indian Institutes of

(i) in section 3, in clause (f), for the words “Director”,

Management Act, 2017

means’, the words “Director” means’ shall be

substituted;

(ii) in section 36, in sub-section (1), for the word

“Ordinance”, the word “Ordinances” shall be

substituted.

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