Jammu and Kashmir Gazette, No. 18, 30 July 2026

REGD NO. JK––33

THE

JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICIAL GAZETTE

Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [ No. 18

	CONTENTS	English Pages	Vernacular pages
	PART I-A– Appointments, promotions, transfers leave of absence sanctioned by the Governor, Government and the Ministers .... PART I-B– Notifications, Communiques and General Orders by the Government and the Ministers .... PART II-A– Appointments, promotions, transfers leave of absence sanctioned by Heads of Departments .... PART II- B– Notifications, Notices and Orders by Heads of Departments, Provincial Magistrates and other officers competent to issue public notices under any law or rule .... PART II-C– Notifications, Notices and Orders by Election Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Jammu and Kashmir and other Officers of the Department, Election Petitions Judgements of Election Tribunal .... PART III– Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder .... PART IV– Reprints from the Government of India Gazette or Gazettes of others Governments.... PART V– Information and Statistics .... (a) Rates and prices in the State.... (b) Rates and wages .... (c) Crop Report and Forecasts .... (d) Whether Observations .... (e) Vital Statistics .... SUPPLEMENT-A– Trade Monthly Imports and Exports from the State .... SUPPLEMENT-B– Police .... SUPPLEMENT-C– Advertisements ....	and 182-184 117-120 and Heads, 4335-4564 and	6 1-64

Printed at the Government Press, Srinagar.

182 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

PART I-A

Jammu & Kashmir Government–Orders

_________

HIGH COURT OF JAMMU & KASHMIR AND LADAKH AT JAMMU (Exercising powers of Bar Council under Section 58 of the Advocates Act, 1961)

Notification

No. 896 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Najeeb UI Rahman S/o Ab. Rahman Wagay R/o Pati Akhran, Tehsil Devsar, District Kulgam vide Notification No. 2061 of 2025/RG/LP dated 18.06.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 897 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Mir Moin Ul Islam S/o Iftikhar Ahmed Mir R/o Mir Pora Chareel Tehsil Banihal, District Ramban vide Notification No. 2915 of 2025/RG/LP dated 11.09.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final. By order.

———

Notification

No. 898 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Muneer Ahmad Akhoon S/o Ghulam Ahmad Akhoon R/o Wathpara, Pandrethan Tehsil Pantha Chowk District Srinagar vide Notification No. 3593 of 2025/RG/LP dated 14.11.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 183

Notification

No. 899 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Malik Zainab D/o Mohd Shafi Malik R/o Khacharpora Baghat (Jehangir Colony-Ext), Tehsil Chanapora Natipora, District Srinagar vide Notification No. 2909 of 2025/RG/LP dated 11.09.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 731 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 06-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Mir Mohsin Abbas S/o Nasir Ali Mir R/o Mir Mohalla Balhama Tehsil Pantha-Chowk District Srinagar vide Notification No. 3950 of 2025/RG/LP dated 31.12.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 901 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Nighat Rashid D/o Abdul Rashid Rather R/o Hardushoora, Gubar Mohalla Tehsil Kunzer District Baramulla vide Notification No. 2563 of 2023/RG/LP dated 09.11.2023 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

–––––

Notification

No. 902 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Nadiya Ayaz D/o Mohammad Ayaz Teli R/o Wayil Teli Mohalla, Tehsil & District Ganderbal vide Notification No. 626/2022 dated 27.05.2022 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

184 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

Notification

No. 903 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Nahin Manzoor S/o Manzoor Hussain R/o Lal Mandi Wazir Bagh, Tehsil & District Srinagar vide Notification No. 2351 of 2025/RG/LP dated 19.07.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 904 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 09-04-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Nuzhat Nabi D/o Ghulam Nabi Najar R/o Wajhama Handwara Tehsil Kralgund District Kupwara vide Notification No. 3067 of 2024/RG/LP dated 13.12.2024 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

Sd/-

SYED MUJTABA HUSSAIN,

Registrar Administration.

————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

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GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICE OF THE COMMISSIONER FOOD AND DRUGS ADMINISTRATION DRUG AND FOOD CONTROL ORGANIZATION, J&K.

Subject :—Prohibition on manufacture, storage, transportation, distribution, and sale of food products containing tobacco and/or nicotine as ingredients, including gutkha, pan masala, and products sold separately but intended for mixing, in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir for a period of one year with effect from 06-2026.

–——

Order No. 157-FDA of 2026

Dated 16.06.2026

Whereas, Regulation 2.3.4 of the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on sales) Regulations, 2011 prohibits the use of tobacco and nicotine as ingredients in any food products, as they are injurious to health ; and

Whereas, food is defined in section 3 (1) (j) of Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 ; as any substance, whether processed, partially processed or unprocessed, which is intended for human consumption and118 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18 includes primarily food to the extent defined in clause (zk), genetically modified or engineered food or food containing such ingredients, infant foods, packaged drinking water, alcoholic drink, chewing gum, and any substance, including water used to into the food during its manufacture, preparation or treatment but does not include any animal feed, live animals unless they are prepared or processed for placing on the market for human consumption, plants, prior to harvesting, drugs and medicinal products, cosmetics, narcotic or psychotropic substances ; and

Whereas, food products containing tobacco and/or nicotine as ingredients, including Gutkha, Pan Masala and other chewable food products by whatever name called, are widely available in the market and their consumption poses serious health risks to the general public, particularly school-going children, adolescents, young adults and labourers, the continued manufacture, storage, transportation, distribution and sale of such products is prejudicial to public health and is likely to adversely affect the well-being of present and future generations, thereby necessitating prohibition thereof in the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir in the interest of public health; and

Whereas, the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in Central Arecanut Marketing Corporation & Ors. v. Union of India (Transfer Case (Civil) No. 1 of 2010), vide order dated 23.09.2016, observed that manufacturers, in order to circumvent the ban on Gutkha, were selling pan masala (without tobacco) along with flavoured chewing tobacco in separate sachets, often conjointly and through the same vendors, thereby enabling consumers to mix and consume the same as Gutkha ;

Whereas, the Hon'ble Supreme Court, taking note of such practices, directed all concerned statutory authorities to ensure strict compliance with Regulation 2.3.4 of the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011, and further directed the Secretaries of Health Departments of all States/Union Territories to ensure effective enforcement of the ban on manufacture and sale of Gutkha and pan masala containing tobacco and/or nicotine;

Whereas, in compliance with the aforesaid directions, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), vide communications dated 05.10.2016 and 09.10.2017 (File No. 13(25)/2017/Tobacco Issues/RCD/FSSAI), and the Department of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, vide D.O. letter No. 16019/21/2014-PH-H dated 05.12.2016, reiterated the prohibition under Regulation 2.3.4, which inter alia prohibits manufacture, storage, transport, distribution or sale of all food products, whether chewable or otherwise, which are flavoured, scented or mixed with tobacco and/or nicotine, including products sold in separate packages but intended for mixing by the consumer ;

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 119

Whereas, it has been specifically clarified that such prohibition extends to all products, by whatever name called, whether packaged or unpackaged, and whether sold as a single product or as separate components facilitating easy mixing for consumption;

Whereas, it has further been observed by the Government of India, vide D.O. letter dated 24.10.2025 issued by the Additional Secretary, that several States/UTs have not been issuing or renewing the requisite orders/notifications under Section 30(2) (a) of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 on an annual basis, thereby adversely affecting effective enforcement of the said prohibition;

Whereas, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has again emphasized upon all Commissioners of Food Safety of States/UTs to ensure strict compliance with the directions of the Hon'ble Supreme Court dated 23.09.2016 and to issue/renew appropriate orders under Section 30(2)(a) of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, on an annual basis, prohibiting the manufacture, storage, distribution and sale of Gutkha and pan masala containing tobacco and/or nicotine, including products marketed separately but intended to be consumed together;

Whereas, the Commissioner of Food Safety, after recording the reasons herein, is satisfied that in the interest of public health, it is necessary to prohibit the manufacture, storage, transportation, distribution, and sale of all food products containing tobacco and/or nicotine as ingredients, including gutkha, pan masala, and any products sold separately but intended to be mixed for consumption;

Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred under clauses (a) and (b) of sub-section (2) of Section 30 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (34 of 2006), I, Khalid Jahangir, Commissioner of Food Safety, Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir, do hereby prohibit and order that no person shall manufacture, store, transport, distribute, or sell any food product that contains tobacco and/or nicotine as an ingredient. This prohibition applies to, but is not limited to :—

• Gutkha containing tobacco/nicotine ;

• Pan masala containing tobacco/nicotine;

• Any chewable or flavoured food product containing tobacco/nicotine;

• Any chewable or flavoured food product containing tobacco/ nicotine, whether sold as a single product or in separate packages intended to be mixed for consumption.

This order shall remain in force throughout the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir for a period of one year from June 2026.

120 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

The Food Safety Officers and other authorities under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, shall ensure strict compliance with this order. Any violation shall be liable for penal action under the provisions of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

Sd/-

KHALID JAHANGIR, JKAS, Commissioner, Food and Drugs Administration, J&K.

————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

PART II—B

Notifications, Notices and Orders by the Heads of Departments.

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IN THE COURT OF JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE 1ST CLASS CHARAR-I-SHARIEF

CNR JKBG080002942025

File No. 31/2025

Date of Institution 29.12.2025

Date of Order 20.06.2026

Manzoor Ahmad Thokar S/o Abdul Gani Thokar R/o Kakawring CG, Dhar Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K)

(Complainant) Through Adv. Ashiq Baba

Versus

Khalid Rashid S/o Abdul Rashid Khirka R/o Nafulteng, Charar-I-Sharief Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K)

(Accused Person) Through Adv. Reyaz Ahmad4336 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18 In the matter of :— Complaint in terms of Section 138 read with Section 142 of Negotiable Instruments Act.

Present : Aiman Amin

JO CODE : JK00324

1. The instant complaint under Section 138 NI Act is pending disposal before this court since December 2025. Perusal of the record reveals that the accused has repeatedly remained absent. Eventually warrants came to be issued consistently, and the report has been filed by Taameeli that accused could not be found at his residential house and has left the jurisdiction of this court. The said report was taken on record with the warrants. Statement of Tameeli concerned was also recorded on 20.06.2026 and made part of record.

2. Therefore, in view of this factual background of the case it appears that the accused is will fully avoiding the arrest and execution of processes of this court. Hence this court deems it appropriate now to proceed under Section 84 of BNSS by issuance of proclamation against the accused, which shall be published as per the mandate of law as follows:

(i) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which the accused ordinarily resides ;

(ii) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which the accused ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous part of such town or village; and

(iii) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court-complex ;

(iv) Further in the interests of justice let the said proclamation be also published in any local daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides, at the expense of the complainant.

3. Let the said proclamation which shall be annexed with this court order be published in the manner aforesaid by the SHO concerned of the area where the accused ordinarily resides who shall report the proof of said proclamation having been published in the manner aforesaid with specific date before this court by or before 20.07.2026.

4. As far as publication in newspaper is concerned, the complainant also shall ensure that same is done positively before 20.07.2026 and shall report compliance on the said date.

5. The accused shall accordingly appear before this court on the date mentioned in the proclamation order.

6. Copy of this order along with the proclamation order shall be provided to the SHO concerned (Charar-I-Sharief through SP Budgam),No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4337 via prosecution to report compliance by or before 20.07.2026. positively who shall also be present before the court to state that such publication has been duly done. A Copy of this order shall also go to SP Budgam for information and necessary action. List again on 20.07.2026 for reporting compliance.

Announced : 20.06.2026

Sd/- Judicial Magistrate 1st Class, (Charar-I-Sharief).

———

IN THE COURT OF JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE 1ST CLASS CHARAR-I-SHARIEF

CNR JKBG080002942025

File No. 31/2025

Date of Institution 29.12.2025

Date of Order 20.06.2026

Manzoor Ahmad Thokar S/o Abdul Gani Thokar R/o Kakawring CG, Dhar Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K)

(Complainant)

Versus

Khalid Rashid S/o Abdul Rashid Khirka R/o Nafulteng, Charar-I-Sharief Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K)

(Accused Person)

In the matter of :— Complaint in terms of Section 138 read with Section 142 of Negotiable Instruments Act.

Present : Aiman Amin

JO CODE : JK00324

Proclamation Requiring the Appearance of Accused

Whereas a complaint under Section 138 N.I. Act has been presented in this Court on 29.12.2025 stating that the accused person namely Khalid Rashid S/o Abdul Rashid Khirka R/o Nafulteng Charar-I-Sharief Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K) has committed the offence under Section 138 N.I. Act and it has been returned to a warrant of arrest thereupon issued that the said accused cannot be found and whereas it has been shown to the satisfaction of this court that the said accused person has concealed himself in order to avoid the service of warrants.

4338 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

Proclamation is hereby made that the accused person namely Khalid Rashid S/o Abdul Rashid Khirka R/o Nafulteng Charar-I-Sharief Tehsil Charar-I-Sharief District Budgam (J&K) is required to appear before me i.e., at Court of Judicial Magistrate 1st Class Charar-I-Sharief to answer the said complaint on 20/07/2026.

Given under my hand and seal of the Court on 20th day of June, 2026.

Announced : 20.06.2026

Sd/- Judicial Magistrate 1st Class, (Charar-I-Sharief).

———

IN THE COURT OF CHIEF JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE, SHOPIAN

General Warrant of Arrest under Section 335 of the BNSS

In the case of :—

UT of J&K through Police Station Shopian. FIR No. 33 of 2026. Offences. u/sec. 179, 180, 318(2), 318(3), 61 & 238 BNS

Vs.

Mohd Syed Wani and Ors.

Order

Whereas information and material have been placed before this Court in connection with FIR No. 33 of 2026, disclosing the commission of offences punishable under Sections 179, 180, 318(2), 318(3), 61 & 238 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and wherein accused Jayar Ali Sheikh, S/o Barkat Sheikh, resident of Chapra, Subash Pally, District Nadia, West Bengal-741123 & accused Dilshada Begum W/o Ahammed Dar, residing at C/o Ahammed Dar, Bangaljhi, Chapra, District Nadia, West Bengal-741123 have been arrayed as accused persons.

And whereas the record placed before the Court reveals that despite repeated and sincere efforts undertaken by the Investigating Agency to apprehend the aforesaid accused persons, they have failed to make themselves available to the investigation and have deliberately evaded arrest ; and whereas the Investigating Agency has reported that the accused persons are absconding and that, despite due diligence and genuine efforts, there is presently no immediate likelihood of securing their arrest through ordinary process of law. That upon consideration ofNo. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4339 the material available on record, this Court is satisfied that the accused persons are intentionally avoiding arrest and that coercive measures are warranted to secure their presence before the Court and to ensure the proper administration of justice and proceedings under section 335 of the BNSS have been initiated against the aforesaid accused persons.

Therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred under section 335 of BNSS, this Court hereby authorizes & directs the Senior Superintendent of Police, Shopian, the concerned Station House Officer, and all Police Officers within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as any other police officer legally empowered in this behalf, to arrest the aforesaid accused persons wherever they may be found and to produce them before the competent Court without unnecessary delay and in accordance with law.

This General Warrant of Arrest shall remain in force until the accused persons are apprehended and produced before the Court, or until further orders are passed by a competent Court. It is further ordered that a copy of this warrant be published in the Official Gazette for information of the general public and for facilitating the arrest of the aforesaid accused persons. It is further ordered that a copy of this warrant be forwarded to the Senior Superintendent of Police having jurisdiction over the area in which the accused persons ordinarily reside, for necessary action and execution of the warrant. The concerned police authorities shall take all lawful and effective measures to apprehend the accused persons and ensure their production before the competent Court at the earliest. Copy of this warrant be sent to concerned SSP for arrest of accused in whose jurisdiction they reside. Accordingly, the warrant be issued.

Announced.

Sd/-

Chief Judicial Magistrate, Shopian.

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IN THE COURT OF SPECIAL JUDGE (Designated under NDPS Act) ANANTNAG

Present : Imran Hussain Wani

UT of J&K through SHO, P/S Anantnag

FIR No. 107/2026 Offences U/S 8/20-29 NDPS Act

Versus

Faizan Ahmad Lone & ors. (Accused)4340 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18 In the matter of :— General Warrant of Arrest against accused person namely Gowhar Ahmad Reshi S/o Gh. Mohi-Ud-Din Reshi R/o Mir Dantar.

The DIG,

South Kashmir

Whereas this court by order date 12.06.2026 has proceeded against accused Gowhar Ahmad Reshi in terms of section 512 CrPC and has directed to issue a General Warrant of arrest against the said accused in terms of said section.

You are therefore, authorized and required to arrest the accused above named wherever he is found in UT of J&K and Ladakh and to produce him before this Court as soon as practicable.

Given under my hand and seal of the Court on this the 12th day of June 2026.

Sd/-

Special Judge, (Designated under NDPS Act), Anantnag.

———

IN THE COURT OF SUB JUDGE/SPECIAL MOBILE MAGISTRATE, UDHAMPUR

UT of J&K through SHO P/S Udhampur.

Vs.

Adil Ahmed S/o Mashkoor Ahmed R/o Brandi Devgham, Anantnag.

General Warrant of Arrest U/S 299 Cr.P.C

Whereas Accused namely Adil Ahmed S/o Mashkoor Ahmed R/o Brandi Devgham Anantnag stands charged with the offence of 279/337/338 RPC in FIR No. 475/2018 P/S Udhampur and the said accused has been absconding since long. Hence through the medium of this General Warrant of Arrest. You are hereby authorized and directed to arrest the said accused and produce him before the Court as and when arrested. This warrant shall remain in force till the arrest of the accused.

Given under the seal and signature of the undersigned today on 29.05.2026.

Sd/-

Sub Judge Special Mobile Magistrate, Udhampur.

———

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4341

OFFICE OF THE STATE TAX OFFICER CIRCLE –'P', JAMMU.

EXCISE & TAXATION COMPLEX, PANAMA CHOWK,

JAMMU-180019.

Notification

It has been reported by M/s Anjani Putter Enterprises, Opp.

Gurudwara, Jeevan Nagar Jammu. Having Tin. 01741201509 that C-Forms (02 Nos) Two bearing S. No. 04v-892286 to 04v-892287 & VAT-65 Forms (02 Nos) Two bearing S. No. 0451639 to 0451643 have been lost and matter stands published in below mentioned Newspaper for declaring them invalid:-

1. The News now.

2. Jammu Kashmir Kesari.

That dealer has also furnished an indemnity bond in this respect, which is placed on record. Hence, the below noted c-Forms Form are hereby declared as invalid for the purpose under sub-section (4) of section of the CST Act, 1956. Anybody, fraudulently using the said C- forms Forms will render himself liable for penalty action as per Law. The person/s who will find the said C-Forms Forms please return the same to the undersigned

3. VAT-65 Forms (02 Nos) Two bearing S. No. 0451639 to 0451643

4. C-Forms (02 Nos) Two bearing S. No. 04v-892286 to 04v-892287.

Name & Address of the dealer. M/s Anjani Putter Enterprises, Opp.

Gurudwara, Jeevan Nagar Jammu.

Lost/Stolen/Destroyed : Lost.

Registration Number : ΤΙΝ. 01161201343

To whom issued : M/s Anjani Putter Enterprises, Opp.

Gurudwara, Jeevan Nagar, Jammu.

No. 125-28/STO/P

Date : 20/08/2026

Sd/-

Assessing Authority, State Tax Officer, Circle-'P', Jammu.

———

4342 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

OFFICE OF THE STATE TAX OFFICER CIRCLE –'P', JAMMU.

EXCISE & TAXATION COMPLEX, PANAMA CHOWK,

JAMMU-180019.

Notification

It has been reported by M/s Mahalakshmi Pharmaceuticals, Sanjay Nagar Jammu. Having Tin. 01711040845 that C-Forms (10 Nos) Ten bearing S. No. 05v-465622 to 05v-465631 and VAT-65 Forms (20 Nos) Twenty bearing S. No. 0826045 to 0826064 have been lost and matter stands published in below mentioned Newspaper for declaring them invalid :—

1. Daily Excelsior

2. State Times

That dealer has also furnished an indemnity bond in this respect, which is placed on record. Hence, the below noted c-Forms Form are hereby declared as invalid for the purpose under sub-section (4) of section of the CST Act, 1956. Anybody, fraudulently using the said C-forms and VAT-65 Forms will render himself liable for penalty action as per Law. The person/s who will find the said C-Forms and VAT-65 Forms please return the same to the undersigned

3. C-Forms (10) Ten Form from S. No. 05v-465622 to 05v-465631.

4. VAT-65 Forms (20 Nos) Twenty Form S. No. 0826045 to 0826064.

Name & Address of the dealer : M/s Mahalakshmi Pharmaceuticals,

Sanjay Nagar, Jammu.

Lost/Stolen/Destroyed : Lost.

Registration Number : ΤΙΝ. 01711040845

To whom issued : M/s Mahalakshmi Pharmaceuticals,

Sanjay Nagar, Jammu.

No. 142-44/STO/P

Date : 01/07/2026

Sd/-

Assessing Authority, State Tax Officer, Circle-'P', Jammu.

———

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4343

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICE OF THE DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, REASI MINI SECRETARIAT, DISTRICT ADMINISTRATIVE COMPLEX, REASI-182311 (J&K) INDIA.

Subject :—De-notification of land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas bearing Khasra No. 2131/624min (00K-18M) & 2131/624min (04K-19M) situated in village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi.

———

De-notification No. 11-DC(Rsi) of 2026

Dated: 12-06-2026

Whereas, the land measuring 418 Kanals 02 Marlas (local) situated in village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi was required for public purpose namely Construction/Upgradation of Budhal-Mahore- Gool(BMG) road to NHDL Specification including land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas bearing Khasra No.2131/624min(00K-18M) & 2131/624min(04K-19M) ; and

Whereas, on the receipt of indent from indenting department i.e. Officer Commanding 100 RCC (GREF) C/O 56 APO and recommendation of Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No.SDM/M/2022-23/42-45 dated 06.04.2022, sanction was accorded vide No. DC/Rsi/SQ/22-23/343-47 dated 16-04- 2022 to the exemption from undertaking Social Impact Assessment Study under section 9 by invoking urgency clause under section 40 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 for the subject land ; and

Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2022-23/66-81 dated 18-05-2022 issued preliminary notification under section 11(1) of the (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013 for calling upon the objections, if any, from the interested persons/land owners within stipulated time period from the date of issuance/ publication of the said notice ; and

Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2022-23/576-78 dated 28-02-2023 requested the appropriate Government i.e. Deputy Commissioner, Reasi to issue declaration under section 19(1) of RFCTLARR Act, 2013 ; and

Whereas, the appropriate Government i.e Deputy Commissioner Reasi was pleased to issue declaration under section 19 (1) of the ibid Act vide notification No. 10-DC (Rsi) of 2023 dated: 19-04-2023 issued under endorsement No. DC/Rsi/SQ/23-24/401-08 dated 19-04-2023 for4344 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18 Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore issued notification under section 21 of RFCTLARR Act, 2013 vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2023-24/193-208 Dated 20-06-2023 asking all the stakeholders/land owners/interested persons to file their objections/attend his office either in person or through an authorized agent or advocate within 35 days from the date of publication of the notice, in which large number of objections/claims were received in response to the above quoted notification dated 20-06-2023. The matter was examined in light of the available record and subsequent verification by various commissions constituted by District Collector Reasi. Based on verification reports, necessary amendments were incorporated in the acquisition proceedings. However, issuance of award was withheld in view of indenting department's request for de-scoping of certain stretches of land; and

Whereas, the indenting department again requested Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No.800/EPC/PKG- 11/36/E2 dated 20-12-2025 for further proceedings after receipt of administrative approval for de-scoping of the land/location in respect of village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi: and

Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore requested the appropriate Government to de-scope the land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas (local) at village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore from the scope of the project which was no longer required for the intended public purpose namely "Construction/upgradation of Budhai-Mahore-Gool (BMG) GREF road" at village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi ; and

Whereas, in the intervening period of approval of de-scoping sought by GREF from their competent authority and disposal of the objections raised by the land owners against notification issued under section 21, the stipulated time period for one year from the issuance of Notification under section 19(1) had lapsed under section 25 of the ibid Act ; and

Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2025-26/585-87 dated 25-11-2025 requested District Collector, Reasi for extension of time period for issuance of award in respect of village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, in response to which appropriate Government vide No. DC/Rsi/SQ/25- 26/4531-34 dated 16-01-2026 extended the time period for one year w.e.f.16-01-2026 for the issuance of final award ; andNo. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4345 Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2025-26/476-78 Dated 04-02-2026 requested the appropriate Government for accord of approval for De- notification of land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas as notified under section 11, section 19 and section 21 of the RFCTLARR Act 2013; and

Whereas, Section 93 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 provides that:

"Completion of acquisition not compulsory, but compensation

to be awarded when not completed :—

(I) The appropriate Government shall be at liberty to withdraw from the acquisition of any land of which possession has not been taken.

(II) Whenever the appropriate Government withdraws from any such acquisition, the Collector shall determine the amount of compensation due for the damage suffered by the owner in consequence of the notice or of any proceedings thereunder, and shall pay such amount to the person interested, together with all costs reasonably incurred by him in the prosecution of the proceedings under this Act relating to the said land".

Whereas, the appropriate Government vide No.DC/Rsi/SQ/25- 26/5490-91 dated 11-03-2026 again requested Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore to furnish comments in light of Section 93 sub section (2) of RFCTLARR Act, 2013, in response to which Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide No. CLA/SDM/M/2025-26/575-77 dated 20-03-2026 furnished his comments. The detailed response/comments of Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore were examined, the appropriate Government vide letter No.DC/Rsi/SQ/26-27/15-16 (E-7596931) Dated 02-04-2026 accorded approval for de-notification of land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas notified under section 11, 19 and 21 of the Act ; and

Whereas, Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore vide Letter No. CLA/SDM/M/2026-27/105-07 dated 15-04-2026 and No. CLA/SDM/M/2026-27/210 dated 02-06-2026 has now requested for issuance of withdrawal notification/de-notification order for item No.223 and 224 for land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas bearing Khasra No.2131/624min(00K-189M) and 2131/624min(04K-19M) situated in village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi in notification No.10-DC (Rsi) of 2023 dated 19-04-2023 issued under endorsement No. DC/Rsi/SQ/23-24/401-08 dated 19-04-2023 for land measuring 4184346 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18 Kanals 02 Marlas local situated at village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi for public purpose namely "Construction/improvement of Budhal-Mahore-Gool GREF road";

Now, therefore, in terms of sub-section (1) of Section 93 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, land measuring 05 Kanals 17 Marlas bearing Khasra No.2131/624min(00K-189M) and 2131/624min (04K-19M) situated in Village Sarh, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi, shall and shall always be deemed to have been de-notified from the acquisition proceedings issued by the Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore, subject to the condition that:

a. The Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore shall ensure that the possession of the said land has not been taken by the indenting department/agency and the land was/is still in the continued physical possession of the land owner(s).

b. The compensation of the said land has not been paid to the rightful claimants and if any compensation received by the land owner(s) in respect of the said land shall be recovered back before effecting necessary changes in the revenue records in pursuance of the proposed de-notification.

c. The Collector Land Acquisition (Sub Divisional Magistrate) Mahore shall ensure that the said land has not been proposed for any other acquisition/public purpose or is likely to be required.

d. The proposed de-notification shall be without prejudice to the outcome of the writ petition(s), if any, pending consideration before the Competent Court (s).

The particulars of the land de-notified are as under :—

S. No.	Name of Village/ Tehsil	Khasra No.	Area under acquisition
			K	M
1.	Sarh/Mahore	2131/624min	00	18
2.		2131/624min	04	19
	Total		05	17

			Sd/-

Sd/- KUMAR ABHISHEK, IAS, Deputy Commissioner, Reasi.

———

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4347

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5196 1429 3395 my name & parentage has been enrolled as Abdul Rahim Magray S/o Ghulam Mohammad Magray instead of Abdul Rehim Magray S/o Ghulam Mohd Magray. Now, I want to apply for it's Correction.

Abdul Rehim Magray S/o Ghulam Mohd Magray R/o Heewan, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

Inadvertently my name in my Aadhaar has been mentioned as Aadil Ahmad Bhat instead of Shabir Ahmad Bhat. Now, I want to rectify the same.

Shabir Ahmad Bhat S/o Manzoor Ahmad Bhat

R/o Ward No 03, Bandipora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4348 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Ghulam Mohi ud din Mir S/o Ghulam Ahmad Mir R/o Batpora, Magam, P/o Handwara, District Kupwara, J&K applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Gulam Mohiuddin instead of the correct name which is Ghulam Mohi ud din Mir, in Demat A/c bearing Demat A/c No. 10356708 with JKBFSL having DP ID (IN302349). Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Ishtiyaq Ahmad Gojar Awan S/o Mohd Yousuf Awan R/o Sango Pati Mamer, Tehsil Kangan, District Ganderbal affirm that my Aadhaar No. is 9102 3418 8868. That due to an inadvertent error my name has been wrongly recorded in Aadhaar Card as Mohd Ishtaq Gojar Awan. That my correct and actual name is Ishtiyaq Ahmad Gojar Awan, which is reflected in my other valid documents. That both the names mentioned above refer to one and the same person, ie., myself. That I request the concerned authorities to update/correct my name in Aadhaar records from Mohd Ishtaq Gojar Awan to Ishtiyaq Ahmad Gojar Awan.

Ishtiyaq Ahmad Gojar Awan S/o Mohd Yousuf Awan R/o Sango Pati Mamer, Tehsil Kangan, District Ganderbal. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4351

NOTIFICATION

I, Zabir Ahmad Paswal F/o Aarif Ahmad Paswal R/o Fraw Haknar, Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal want to inform that my son is the holder of Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5915 0512 3222 issued by UIDAI. That as per records available with UIDAI my son's name is incorrectly mentioned as Imran Ahmad Paswal That as per the DoB certificate issued by the concerned authority my son's name is Aarif Ahmad Paswal. Now, I am applying for the correction of same.

Zabir Ahmad Paswal F/o Aarif Ahmad Paswal R/o Fraw Haknar, Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2394 3258 3731 my name has been wrongly admitted as Ammarah Jan while as my actual name is Gulshan Bano. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Gulshan Bano W/o Manzoor Ahmad Ghari R/o Tengpora Byepass, Batamaloo, Near New City Hospital, Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4352 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Shamas Din Khan F/o Insha Bano R/o Rayil, Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal want to inform that my daughter is the holder of Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2357 0131 2395 issued by UIDAI. That as per records available with UIDAI my daughter's name is incorrectly mentioned as Imsha Bano. However as per the school records my daughter's actual name is Insha Bano. Now, I am applying for correction of same.

Shamas Din Khan, F/o Insha Bano

R/o Rayil, Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Javid Ahmad Dar F/o Sufiya Javid R/o Aglar Chirat, Tehsil Zainpora, District Shopian do hereby inform the general public that my ward's name & parentage has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card as Sufaya Javaid & Javaid Ahmad Dar respectively. That the correct and actual name & parentage is Sufiya Javid & Javid Ahmad Dar respectively.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4353

NOTIFICATION

It is information to the general public that my name in my Aadhaar Card has been wrongly entered as Shazahda W/o Mohd Maqbool Wagay while my correct name is Shahzada W/o Mohammad Maqbool Wagay. Now, I want the same to be corrected.

Shahzada W/o Mohammad Maqbool Wagay R/o Wagay Mohallah, Bijbehara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Arif Chichi F/o Arizoo Arif R/o Wudder Kangan want to inform that Aadhaar No. of my daughter is 8696 1868 4516. That due to an inadvertent error her name has been wrongly recorded in Aadhaar Card as Aarzoo Arif. That her correct and actual name is Arizoo Arif, which is reflected in her other valid documents. That both the names mentioned above refer to one and the same person, i.e., my daughter. That I request the concerned authorities to update/correct my name in Aadhaar records from Aarzoo Arif to Arizoo Arif.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4354 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

My name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Magray Junaid instead of Junaid Mushtaq. Now, I want to change it.

Junaid Mushtaq S/o Mushtaq Ahmad Magray

R/o Kadipora, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5748 7282 8572 my name has been enrolled as Arshid Ahmad Rather instead of Ausheed Ahmad Rather. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Ausheed Ahmad Rather S/o Mohammad Ashraf Rather

R/o Khaitangan, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4355

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public my name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 9280 4818 3298 as Layqat Ali Khan instead of Liaqate Ali Khan. Now, I want to correct it.

Liaqate Ali Khan S/o Mohd Shafi Khan

R/o Kunderdhan, Chassana, Reasi

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public my name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 7569 3648 6766 as Salochna Devi instead of Sunita Devi. Now, I want to correct it.

Sunita Devi W/o Chankar Singh

R/o Chassana, Reasi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4356 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sham Lal father and natural guardian of Master Kanhaiya Sharma R/o Village Paroh, SMVDU, Katra, District Reasi, 182301 hereby declare that my son's correct name is Kanhaiya Sharma instead of Kaneya Sharma as appearing in his Aadhaar card. Henceforth, he shall be known as Kanhaiya Sharma for all official and legal purposes. I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Virinder Anand father and natural guardian of Miss Sargam Anand, resident of Village Kotla, SMVDU, Katra, Distt. Reasi 182320, hereby declare that my Daughter's correct name is Sargam Anand instead of Sargam as appearing in her Aadhaar card. Henceforth, she shall be known as Sargam Anand for all official and legal purposes. I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4357

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public my son's name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 8747 6217 1596 as Sejaid Ahmed instead of Sajad Ahmed. Now, I want to correct it.

Shakeel Ahmed F/o Sajad Ahmed

R/o Chandialkote, Reasi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Chelo Devi W/o Chuni Lal R/o Viilage Darore, SMVDU, Kakriyal, Katra, District Reasi hereby declare that my name has been incorrectly recorded as Shillo Devi in my Aadhaar card. My correct name is Chelo Devi. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by the name Chelo Devi for all purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4358 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is to notify for general public that I, Garo Devi W/o Sh. Krishan Lal R/o Chak Largan, Bain Bajalta, Jammu, UT of J&K am applying for correction of my name inadvertently/incorrectly written as Pooja Devi in my Aadhaar Card to Garo Devi as per my Domicile Certificate.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3038 4556 3568 from Kaisar Ahmad Malla to Kysir Bashir.

Kysir Bashir S/o Bashir Ahmad Malla

R/o Sheikh Pora, Haril, Qalamabad, Kupwara, J&K, 193302.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4359

NOTIFICATION

I, Jyoti Devi W/o Mohinder Sharma R/o Village Khanna Chargal, Jammu, J&K, UT state that my name has been wrongly written as Joyti Devi instead of Jyoti Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9460 9044 5336. Now, I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public my name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 4722 2944 0871 as Darjit Begum instead of Chanchala Devi. Now, I want to correct it.

Chanchala Devi W/o Naseeb Singh

R/o Tuli, Chassana, Reasi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4360 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Abdul Ahad Bhat to (New name) Ab Ahad Bhat on my Pan card bearing No. IWNPB1184F, also my actual parentage and DoB is Assad Bhat and 01-01-1941 instead of Asadullah Bhat and 03-01-1949. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Ab Ahad Bhat S/o Assad Bhat

R/o Hathlangoo, Sopore, District Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I hereby want to apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 2733 8700 0449 from Sahreefa Begum to Sharafa Bano. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Sharafa Bano W/o Mohammad Yaseen Ganie

R/o Sanzipora Kutlari, Qalamabad, Kupwara, J&K, 193302.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4361

NOTIFICATION

I hereby apply for correction of my daughter's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5026 69135652 from Aisha Rameez to Aayesha Rameez.

Aayesha Rameez D/o Rameez Ahmad Dantoo R/o Bunagam, Langate, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193302.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4363

NOTIFICATION

I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8922 4140 6460 from Gh Qadir Sheikh to Mudasir Ahmad Sheikh.

Mudasir Ahmad Sheikh S/o Abdul Ahad Sheikh R/o Poshwan, Zachaldara, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir, 193221.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9032 4558 3616 from Surray Mushtaq to Surraya Mushtaq.

Surraya Mushtaq D/o Mushtaq Ahmad Dar R/o Haran Maidani Chugal, Handwara, Kupwara, J&K, 193221.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4364 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar bearing No. 6071 7580 7777 my name has been wrongly mentioned as Farhan Jan while as correct name is Farhet Rafiq D/o Mohammad Rafiq Mir R/o Nandimarg Tehsil D.H. Pora, District Kulgam. Now, I want to correct the same.

Farhet Rafiq D/o Mohammad Rafiq Mir R/o Nandimarg, Tehsil D.H. Pora, District Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

————

4366 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 6075 0964 3322 from Amir Saleem Khan to Aamel Saleem Khan. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Aamel Saleem Khan S/o Mohammad Saleem Khan

R/o Peerniya.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name and DoB in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 6829 3800 9657 from Kalu Bajar Gujjar & DoB 01-01-1996 instead of Kalu Gugar S/o Matta Gugar & DoB 12-11-1996. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Kalu Gugar S/o Matta Gugar R/o Chotali, Boniyar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4367

NOTIFICATION

I, Shri Ajay Kumar S/o Late Dina Nath R/o Kothey Chanana Camp, PO Arnia, Tehsil Arnia, District Jammu, UT of J&K being the natural and lawful father and guardian of my minor son hereby declare that his name has been changed from Nihaan to Ayaan Singh Randhawa. Henceforth, he shall be known by the name Ayaan Singh Randhawa for all official and legal purposes.

Shri Ajay Kumar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform general public that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in his/her Aadhar records as Afsar khan instead of Mohammad Afsar khan bearing Aadhaar No. 5692 5178 9875. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Rafiq Ahmad khan F/o Mohammad Afsar khan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4368 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in his/her Aadhar records as Rahat khan instead of Mohammad Rahat khan bearing Aadhaar No. 7556 6671 2020.

Rafiq Ahmad khan F/o Mohammad Rahat khan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Suriya Ayoub D/o Mohammad Ayoub Bhat R/o Malgonipora holding Aadhaar No. 9021 0101 4382 hereby declare that my name has been incorrectly recorded as Suriya Ayoub in my Aadhaar Card. My correct name as recorded in my Matriculation Certificate and other educational documents is Suraiya Ayoub. I, hereby state that Suriya Ayoub and Suraiya Ayoub refer to one and the same person. I am publishing this notice to declare that my correct and official name is Suraiya Ayoub. I am applying for correction of my name in my Aadhaar Card to bring it in conformity with my Matriculation Certificate and other official records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4369

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name in my daughter's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7446 3281 5590 from Zubaida Bilal to Zubeeda Bilal. Now, I am applying for this correction.

Bilal Ahmad Bhat F/o Zubeeda Bilal

R/o Bicherwara, Tehsil Kralgund, District Kupwara, 193302.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

My name and DoB was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Haji Abdul Wahab Dar and DoB 06-11-1945 instead of Abdul Wahab Dar and DoB 06-10-1945 as per matriculation certificate. Now, I want its correction.

Abdul Wahab Dar S/o Khazir Mohammad Dar

R/o Gund Fatehpora, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4370 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Safina Bi W/o Abdul Hamid R/o Kasblari, Tehsil Mankote, District Poonch want to apply for correction of my name and declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned as Safia Bi Instead of Safina Bi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3006 6158 9144. Hence Safina Bi is my correct name and will be used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4373

NOTIFICATION

I, Arshad Bi W/o Mohd Rashid and R/o Salani, Uchhad, Tehsil Mankote, District Poonch want to apply for correction of my name and declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned as Irshad Bi instead of Arshad Bi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2850 2714 4464. Hence Arshad Bi is my correct name and will be used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sajid Ahmed S/o Mohd Iqbal R/o Darhal, District Rajouri, bearing Aadhaar Card No. 9284 2734 2625 have applied for correction of my name in Aadhar Card from Sajid Mohammad Iqbal Malik to Sajid Ahmed. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4374 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Zafar Iqbal S/o Abdul Majeed R/o Balnoi, Sagra, Tehsil Mankote, District Poonch want to apply for correction of my name and declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned as Zaffer Iqbal instead of Zafar Iqbal in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5298 8308 4223. Hence Zafar Iqbal is my correct name and will be used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Dinesh Kumar Sharma S/o Late Sh. Madan Lal R/o H.No. Ep 589, Peer Mitha, Jammu, P/O Jammu, District Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Dinesh Sharma instead of correct as Dinesh Kumar Sharma in my bank account bearing No. 0076040100014939 J&K Bank Residency Road Jammu.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4375

NOTIFICATION

I, Riyaz Ahmed S/o Khizar Mohammad R/o Behrote, Tehsil Thanna Mandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my mother's name & DoB Which is wrongly written as Rahmat Bibi and DoB 01-07-1950 instead of correct Ramit Begum and DoB is 01-07-1950 in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8607 2823 6323.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Jaiwanti Devi W/o Bharat Thakur R/o Ward No. 49, Near Ravi Dass Mandir, Channi Rama Jammu, Tehsil & District Jammu Applying for correction of my name which is wrongly mentioned as Jaywanti Devi instead of correct name is Jaiwanti Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2275 8124 5861.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4376 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Kulmesh Kumari W/o Ramesh Singh R/o Naryana (Khour), Tehsil Khour, District Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Kamlesh Kumari instead of correct Kulmesh Kumari in my Aadhaar Card.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Asha Gupta W/o Shri Ashok Kumar Gupta R/o W. No. 5, Barrian Udhampur, Tehsil & District Udhampur applying for correction of my father's name and my DoB which is wrongly mentioned as Bansi Lal instead of correct Bansi Lal Gupta and my DoB as 24-07-1958 instead of 24-07-1957 in my Pan Card No. AAXPG2943B.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4377

NOTIFICATION

I, Rajnee Devi W/o Sunil Singh R/o Shaldan Damote, Tehsil and District Ramban declare that I have applied for correction of my daughter's Aadhaar name which has wrongly been recorded as Namdita Rajput whileas the actual name as per record is Nandita Rajput. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Amina Begum W/o Mohd Ibrahim R/o Bhangara, Tehsil Pogal Paristan, Ukhral, District Ramban declare that I have applied for correction of my Aadhaar name which has wrongly been recorded as Shadreena Banoo whileas the actual name as per record is Amina Begum.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4378 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sumitra Devi W/o Jameet Singh R/o Sumber, Tehsil and District Ramban declare that I have applied for correction of my Aadhaar name which has wrongly been recorded as Samitra Devi whileas the actual name as per record is Sumitra Devi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my name is wrongly written as Mohammad Haneef Sheikh S/o Abdul Aziz Sheikh instead of Hanif Sheik S/o Aziz Sheikh. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Hanif Sheik S/o Aziz Sheikh

R/o Dildar, Karnah, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4379

NOTIFICATION

The name of my son has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar card bearing Aadhaar No. 6385 7527 2551 as Ahtisham Ul Haq instead of Hasnain Sohail. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Sohail Ahmad Dar F/o Hasnain Sohail

R/o Arwah, Tehsil Beerwah, District Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Atiqa Banoo W/o Abdul Majeed Rather R/o Karihama hereby declare that my name has been wrongly mentioned as Ateeqa Bagum in Aadhaar records whileas the correct name is Atiqa Banoo. Now, I am applying for correction in the Aadhaar Card record's accordingly.

Atiqa Banoo W/o Abdul Majeed Rather

R/o Karihama, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4380 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is informed to the general public that that my name Snober W/o Manzoor Ahmad Sheikh D/o Gh Rasool Nath R/o Meej Pampore is wrongly recorded on J&K Bank FDR B/u Namblabal Pampore bearing A/c No. 0475050300005089 and the name Suriya Manzoor D/o Gh Rasool Nath R/o Lalpora Chatlam appearing on J&K Bank Passbook B/u Drangbal Pampore bearing A/c No. 0016040100026607 which is correct and both belongs to one and the same person. In furture all the refrences should be made to Suriya Manzoor D/o Gh Rasool Nath instead of Snober W/o Manzoor Ahmad Sheikh.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my daughter bearing No. 6535 4686 0948 her name has been enrolled as Rafta Lateef instead of Rifat Bano. Now, I want to apply for its Correction.

Lateef Ahmad Sheikh

R/o Heewan, Narvaw, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4381

NOTIFICATION

This is an information for general public that in Aadhaar Card of my daughter namely Falak Lateef Mir bearing No. 5763 7489 5850 her DoB has been mistakenly mentioned as 08-02-2011 while as her actual and correct DoB as per her school records and Birth certificate is 03-03-2014. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Tahira Begum W/o Mohammad Lateef Mir M/o Falak Lateef Mir R/o Quilmuqam, Tehsil Aloosa, District Bandipora, J&K, India, ΡinCode 193502.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to change my Ward's credentials in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4240 5371 5160 from Iqbal Ahmad Kachra S/o Rafiq Ahmad Teedwa, DoB 04-06-2017 R/o More Koot, Kalrooch to Mohammad Iqbal Teedwa S/o Mohd Rafiq Teedwa, DoB 25-01-2019 R/o Narikoot, Kalarooch. Now, I am applying for its Correction.

Mohd Rafiq Teedwa F/o Mohammad Iqbal Teedwa DoB 25-01-2019 R/o Narikoot, Kalarooch.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4382 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4451 5548 7487 from Riffat Shabir to Ruheena Akhter. Now, I am applying for this correction.

Ruheena Akhter D/o Mohammad Jamal Sheikh

R/o Manzpora, Tehsil Qalmabad, District Kupwara, 193302.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my daughter in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9926 7870 4978 from Safila Jan to Safila Yousuf as per my school records. Now, the same is to be corrected.

Muhammad Yousuf Bhat F/o Safila Yousuf

R/o Lalpora, Pampore, Pulwama.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4383

NOTIFICATION

I want to Correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 6067 2167 9158 from Wasee Akhter D/o Mohd Shafi Bhat, DoB 04-03-2003 R/o Kalaroose, Kupwara to Wasia Akhter D/o Mohmad Shafi Bhat, DoB 06-03-2006 R/o Kalaroos, Kupwara. Now, I am applying for the Correction.

Wasia Akhter D/o Mohmad Shafi Bhat, DoB 06-03-2006 R/o Kalaroos, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4385

NOTIFICATION

I, Abdul Majeed Sheikh F/o Tabish Majeed R/o Waisa Kawnar hereby declare that my daughter's name has been wrongly mentioned as Tabusha Bano in Aadhaar records. The correct name is Tabish Majeed. Now, I am applying for correction in the Aadhaar Card records accordingly.

Abdul Majeed Sheikh F/o Tabish Majeed R/o Waisa Kawnar, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform general public that I Shameema Bano W/o Fasil Nawaz Gujjar Bajard R/o Nachiyan, Karnah, Kupwara do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly mentioned as Shamama Bano in Aadhaar records whileas the correct name is Shameema Bano. Now, I am applying for correction in Aadhaar Card records accodingly.

Shameema Bano W/o Fasil Nawaz Gujjar Bajard R/o Nachiyan, Karnah, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4386 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name and parentage in Aadhaar Card under No. 6562 6969 6050 from Afaan Ahmad Afgan S/o Amjad Khan Afgan to Afnan Khan S/o Amjid Khan. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Afnan Khan S/o Amjid Khan

R/o Uranbua, Tehsil Uri.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Raqiyya Bi W/o Mohd Sadeeq R/o Thera, Tehsil Mendhar, District Poonch want to apply for correction of my name and declare That my name is incorrectly mentioned as Roqiyyah Bi instead of Raqiyya Bi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9659 6616 9538. Hence Raqiyya Bi is my correct name and will be used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4387

NOTIFICATION

I, Bandhana Sharma W/o Sh. Uttam Chand R/o Village Ward No 9, Lohara (Panjgrian), P/o Dhok Khalsa, Tehsil Jourian, District Jammu have applied for entering the name of my son namely Kayrav and DoB as 01-12-2019 in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2056 1983 7349.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nazir Ahmed S/o Gh Mohd R/o Shadole, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi declare that the deponent is the maternal uncle of girl namely Simmah Akhter D/o Mushtaq Ahmed in school record. That her name has been wrongly written in her Aadhaar Card (Under Aadhar Card No. 5906 4246 8029) as Saimmah Akhter D/o Mushtaq Ahmed instead of correct name Simmah Akhter D/o Mushtaq Ahmed. Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4388 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my daughter in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8572 7560 1090 from Raiba Jan to Rabiya Jan. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Bashir Ahmad Hajam F/o Rabiya Jan R/o Darpora, Nandimarg, District Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Khursheed Bano D/o Abdul Aziz W/o Abdul Rashid R/o Village Maswah, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban, Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that my name has been incorrectly recorded as Khurshad Begum in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 8573 6362 3252 whereas my correct and actual name is Khursheed Bano. Both the names Khurshad Begum and Khursheed Bano refer to one and the same person. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by the name Khursheed Bano for all purposes and I request all concerned authorities to treat Khursheed Bano as my correct name in all present and future records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4389

NOTIFICATION

I, Nazir Ahmad Tali S/o Ghulam Hassan Tali R/o Azad Gunj, Baramulla have changed my name to Nazir Ahmad Teli S/o Ghulam Hassan Teli R/o Gulshan Abad, Azad Gunj, Baramulla. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by the name Nazir Ahmad Teli S/o Ghulam Hassan Teli R/o Gulshan Abad, Azad Gunj, Baramulla. All concerned persons, authorities, and institutions are requested to take note of the above change of name and address.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card 2374 5696 1555 which has been wrongly mentioned as Mehraj Mohd Shaheen instead of Maraj Mohd Shaheen. Now, I want to correct it as Maraj Mohd Shaheen.

Maraj Mohd Shaheen S/o Gh Nabi

R/o Tral i Payeen, Tral, Pulwama.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4390 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhar records bearing Aadhaar No. 6452 8338 4485 my name and DoB is wrongly written as Abru Fayaz D/o Fayaz Ahmad Malik and DoB 28-07-2006 whileas my original name and DoB is Abiroo Fayaz D/o Fayaz Ahmad Malik and DoB is 04-05-2009. Now, I want to correct it.

Abiroo Fayaz D/o Fayaz Ahmad Malik R/o Sonim, Baramulla, Pattan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sham Kumar F/o Akshara Mahajan R/o Garhi, Tehsil & District Udhampur (JK UT) inform that my daughter namely Akshara Mahajan studying in 12th class in K. V. No. 1, Udhampur, Admission No. 34711 but in her school records her father's name (my name) has been wrongly entered as Shyam Kumar instead of correct name Sham Kumar. Now, I am applying for correction as same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

NOTIFICATION

I, Lal Hussain S/o Mohd Missri R/o Gughrota, Tehsil Kotranka, District Rajouri declare that my daughter's name has been wrongly recorded in the Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 2498 6591 2577 as Rufina Kosser instead of her correct name Rafina Kosser which is correct in all respects. Now, I am applying foir its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4395

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7074 2238 3581 my name is recorded as Sonye Akhter while as my actual and correct name is Saniya Hamid. Now, change/correction is required.

Saniya Hamid D/o Ab Hameed Dar R/o Near Aada Mohalla, Shallabugh, Ganderbal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nissar Hussain F/o Sajjid Hussain R/o Naghoon, Tehsil and District Rajouri applying for correction of my Son's name which is wrongly written as Sajad Hussain instead of correct Sajjid Hussain in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3245 2312 3447.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4396 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name under No. 2645 2649 8678 from Sidra Batool to Sofia Hilal. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Sofia Hilal D/o Hilal Ahmad Rather

R/o Sheerinabad.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Aksar Begum W/o Mohd Shabir R/o Sawani, Tehsil and District Rajouri applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Divya Mahajan instead of correct Afia Kouser in my Aadhaar Card.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4397

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card Bearing No. 3411 2291 6414 my name is recorded as Ayesha while as my actual and correct name is Asha Bano. Now, change/correction is required and the same is to be corrected in my PAN bearing No. CFZPA3676N. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Asha Bano W/o Nazir Ahmad Jan R/o Meebagh, Brein, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

NOTIFICATION

I, Romal Singh F/o Arjanu R/o Village Chhatriari, P/o Majouri, Tehsil Basantgarh, District Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT, 182128 declare that my Son's name has been wrongly written as Arjun instead of Arjanu in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 2996 0472 7568. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4400 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Ali Mohammad Wani am holding 3000 of shares of J&K Bank Ltd. under Folio JKB036365 jointly with Habla Bano Wani & Shazia Ali where the names of 1 & 2 holder have been inadvertently recorded as Ali Mohd Wani & Habla which are incorrect whereas our actual names are Ali Mohammad Wani & Habla Bano Wani. In this regard we are applying for correction of names under the said Folio.

Ali Mohammad Wani, Habla Bano Wani & Shazia Ali R/o Lane-4, Ibrahim Colony, Parray Pora, Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4402 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Asha W/o Mohd Shafi Reshi state that I am holding a bank account with J&K Bank Ltd. Under Account No. 0753040100002182 at Habbak branch where my name has been recorded as Ayesha Bano W/o Mohd Shafi Reshi which is incorrect whereas my actual name as per my KYC Documents is recorded as Asha W/o Mohd Shafi Reshi. In this regard I am applying for correction of name under the saidd bank account.

Asha W/o Mohd Shafi Reshi R/o Khimber, Rishi Pora, Chhatrahama.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is notified for the information of general public that my name mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8523 8979 9972 is Kulsuma Bano D/o Abdul Rashid Mir which is wrong however my actual name is Subeeka Akhter D/o Abdul Rashid Meer. Now, I intend to rectify my name in my Aadhaar Card.

Subeeka Αkhter D/o Abdul Rashid Meer R/o Korag Domarg, Ganderbal. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4403

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5369 1115 1655 my name has been mentioned as Syed Kounser Javeed and DoB as 11-05-1970. Whileas my correct name is Kounsar Jan Alvi and DoB 01-01-1960. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my Aadhaar Card.

Kounsar Jan Alvi W/o Syed Javeed Hussain Byhaqi R/o Iqbal Colony, Lane No. 3, Wanabal, Shankerpora, Nowgam, Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Prethipaul Singh S/o Harbans Singh R/o Chatoosa, Tehsil Dangiwacha, District Baramulla, inform the general public that in Aadhaar details bearing Aadhaar No. 4106 5065 9489 my name is wrongly recorded as Prithipal Singh S/o Harbanas singh. The correct and legal name is Prethipaul Singh as per school records and other educational documents. That Prithipal Singh and Prethipaul Singh refer to the same person. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Prethipaul Singh S/o Harbans Singh R/o Chatoosa, Tehsil Dangiwacha, District Baramulla. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4404 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform general public that my daughter namely Sumiya Jaan name has been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar Card records bearing Aadhaar Card No. 7429 5244 8069 as Samai Jan instead of Sumiya Jaan as per Domicile certificate. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Irshad Ahmad Mughal F/o Sumiya Jaan R/o Manigah, Tehsil & District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to Correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 8303 8700 4892 from Areeba Ashiq F/n Yasmeena Bano, DoB 28-12-2016 R/o Quanan Babagund to correct name Hafsa Aashaq D/o Aashaq Hussain Lone, DoB 28-12-2018, R/o Kanthpora, Lolab, District Kupwara. Now, I am applying for the Correction.

Hafsa Aashaq D/o Aashaq Hussain Lone, DoB 28-12-2018 R/o Kanthpora, Lolab, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4405

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name, parentage & DoB of my daughter in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3351 9882 6683 from Afshana Javeed D/o Javeed Ahmad Wagay, DoB 13-12-2012 to Afsha Javid D/o Javid Ahmad Wagay, DoB 08-06-2012 as per her Birth certificate.

Javid Ahmad Wagay F/o Afsha Javid R/o Zakura Hazratbal, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Gulshion Bano to (new name) Gulshan Bano. In future, I will be known as (new name) Gulshan Bano as per my Aadhaar Card.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4406 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sakinah Begum W/o Farooq Ahmad Khan R/o Taki Sultan, Tehsil & District Baramula, J&K do hereby declare that my name, spouse name and address have been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar records bearing No. 2257 3509 3154 as Sajani Devi W/o Farook R/o Kharsari, Uttarkashi, Gaddugaad, Uttarakhand while as my correct details as per my domicile certificate & affidavit are Sakinah Begum W/o Farooq Ahmad Khan R/o Taki Sultan, Tehsil & District Baramulla, J&K. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Saima Jamal D/o Mohammad Jamal Sheikh R/o Khawja Bagh, Baramulla, District Baramulla, J&K do hereby declare that my name, father's name, address & DoB have been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar records bearing No. 7647 0478 5436 as Rozey C/o Nazir Ahmad Sheikh R/o Parimpora Ghat, District Srinagar, DoB 01-01-1984 while as my correct details as per school certificate & affidavit are Saima Jamal C/o Mohammad Jamal Sheikh R/o Khawaja Bagh, Baramulla, J&K, DoB 10-10-1996. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4407

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name & address of my son in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4576 4503 6404 from Aihal Javeed to Aahil Javeed and address from Kuddhar, Dhandal, Kasti Garh, District Doda, J&K to Baneel Kuddhar, Dhandal, Doda, J&K as per his birth certificate.

Javeed Ahmed F/o Aahil Javeed R/o Baneel Kuddhar, Dhandal, Doda, Jammu & Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have change my name from Jawhira Bano to Jowhara Banoo. In future I will be known as Jowhara Banoo. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Jowhara Banoo

R/o Bunpora, Reshipora, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4408 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

NOTIFICATION

I, Zaiba W/o Lassa Bhat D/o Noor Mohammad R/o Naik Bagh, Nowgam, Srinagar declare that I have changed my name from Zeba to Zaiba that I will be known as Zaiba. The both names Zeba and Zaiba belong to one and a same person. My passport number is M6848248. Now, I applying for its correction.

Zaiba W/o Lassa Bhat D/o Noor Mohammad Wani R/o Naik Bagh, Nowgam, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Gulzar Ahmad Wani (as per service record) Mohd Abdullah Wani R/o Badroo, Tehsil Frisal, District Kulgam want to change my name from Gulzar Ahmed Wani to Gulzar Ahmad Wani (as per matriculation DoB certificate).

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4411

NOTIFICATION

I, Gowhar Amin (as per Service records) S/o Mohd Amin R/o Umarhair, Buchpora, Srinagar want to change my name from Gowhar Amin to Gawher Amin (as per matriculation DoB Certificate).

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shamim Akther W/o Talib Hussain R/o Sangla, Tehsil Surankote, District Poonch applying for correction of my Child's name which is wrongly written as Ali Ahmed in Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 7279 4855 2069 instead of my child name as Ali Mohd.Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4414 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 3443 6509 1564. Now, I want to change my name from Meema Begum (old name) to Shameema Begum (new name) as per domicle certificate Document.

Shameema Begum W/o Javeed Ahmad Hajam R/o Gundmancher, Lalpora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mushtaq Ahmad Teeli S/o Gh Mohd Teeli R/o Banderpora Bijbehara, District Anantnag do hereby inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Mushatq Ahmad Teeli. That the correct and actual name is Mushtaq Ahmad Teeli. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4415

NOTIFICATION

I, Ab. Khaliq Gakhad S/o Mohd Miskeen Gakhad R/o Margi Dever state that my daughter's name has been written in the Aadhaar Card as Bisma Jan instead of Bisma Azam. As my daughter's name is Bisma Azam. Now, I want to correction my daughter's name in Aadhaar Card as Bisma Azam instead of Bisma Jan.

Ab. Khaliq Gakhad S/o Mohd Miskeen Gakhad F/o Bisma Azam R/o Margi Dever, Lolab.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Shafi Sofi want to correct the name of my son in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3894 1687 1608 from Wahid Sofi to Washid Ahmad Sofi as per his DoB certificate.

Mohammad Shafi Sofi F/o Washid Ahmad Sofi R/o Qazi Bagh, Ichgam, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4416 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 2744 5224 0813 from Kaifa to Nabiha Touseef. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Nabiha Touseef S/o Touseef Sagar

R/o Trikanjan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to general public that the name of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5399 5965 0721 as Anoosha Aijaz while as per her Birth Certificate the correct name is Mehnoor Aijaz. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Aijaz Ahmad Dar F/o Mehnoor Aijaz R/o Hib, Dangerpora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4417

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct name & DoB of my daughter in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4661 5803 0216 from Abrah Hamid, DoB 07-12-2017 to Ibra Hamid, DoB 06-12-2017 as per my Domicile Certificate.

Abdul Hamid Dar F/o Ibra Hamid R/o Raithan, Khan Sahib, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my & my husband's name in my Aadhaar Card was wrongly mentioned as Nazah W/o Suhail Ahmad Dar instead of Shanaza Akhtar W/o Gowhar Hussian Dar R/o Khajapora, Tehsil Zainpora, District Shopian. Now, I want to correct the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4418 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that the name of my ward has been wrongly mentioned in school records and Aadhaar Card as Batulla Jan. instead of Maryam Batool. Now, I want to Correct it.

Mohd Afzal Dar F/o Maryam Batool R/o Sandoo, Tehsil and District Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name, Mother's name and Address under Aadhaar No. 2442 5120 1998 from Sirat M/n Tabeena Begum R/o Trikanjan to Seerat Rafiq D/o Rafiq Ahmad Mir R/o Pahlipora, Boniyar. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Seerat Rafiq D/o Rafiq Ahmad Mir R/o Pahlipora, Boniyar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4419

NOTIFICATION

I, Jameela Begum M/o Rifat Jan R/o Wangath, Tehsil Kangan, District Ganderbal, Jammu & Kashmir hereby declare that the correct name of my daughter is Rifat Jan as per her Domicile Certificate. Due to an inadvertent error her name has been incorrectly mentioned as Irfat Jan in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5275 2175 7430. It is hereby notified that Rifat Jan D/o Abdul Hakeem Pakhtoon and Irfat Jan D/o Abdul Hakeem Pakhtoon refer to one and the same person. Henceforth, the correct name shall be Rifat Jan for all official records, documents, and future references.

Jameela Begum M/o Rifat Jan R/o Wangath, Tehsil Kangan, District Ganderbal, J&K.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4281 2144 4463. Now, I want to correct my ward's name from Mohammad Musa Bin Javeed Bhat (Old Name) to Ahmad Ibn Javeed Bhat (New Name).

Ahmad Ibn Javeed Bhat S/o Javeed Ahmad Bhat R/o Rose Enclave, Near Cambridge School, Wanabal, Rawalpora. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4420 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

This is an information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing Registration No. 5029 1071 3780, my name and parentage has been mistakenly mentioned as Mohd Sadaq S/o Doyood Gojar while as my actual and correct name and parentage as per my Domicile Certificate is Mohd Sidiq Gojer Baniya S/o Dawood Gojer Baniya. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Mohd Sidiq Gojer Baniya S/o Dawood Gojer Baniya R/o Quilmuqam, Tehsil Aloosa, District Bandipora, Jammu and Kashmir, India, Pin Code 193502.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar records bearing Aadhaar No. 4886 8013 9513 my name has been recorded as Kalsoom Banoo D/o Layqat Ali instead of Kalsoom Akhter D/o Liyakat Ali. It needs correction.

Kalsoom Akhter D/o Liyakat Ali

R/o Waltengo Kund, Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4421

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 2066 5090 1168 my ward's name has been recorded as Basit Khursheed Allie instead of Basit Ahmad Allie. It needs correction.

Khursheed Ahmad Allie F/o Basit Ahmad Allie R/o Malwan, Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 3194 7458 6969 my ward's name has been recorded as Bhat Zuhaib instead of Zuhaib Manzoor. It needs correction.

Manzoor Ahmad Bhat F/o Zuhaib Manzoor R/o Mohammadpora, Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4422 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6207 0313 0314 my name & parentage has been mentioned as Gh. Mohammad Reshi S/o Noordin Reshi and in the PAN Card bearing No. AMSPR3457J has been mentioned as Ghulam Mohmad Reshi S/o Nooruddin Reshi. Whileas my correct name is Ghulam Mohmad Reshie S/o Noor Ud Din Reshie. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my Aadhaar Card and PAN Card.

Ghulam Mohmad Reshie S/o Noor Ud Din Reshie R/o Manganwaji Bagati, Kanipora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Rayees S/o Nazir Ahmed R/o Dhanisaidan, Tehsil Uri, District Baramulla do hereby declare that my name and parentage spelling has been wrongly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7108 1488 1005 as Rayees Ahmad Mir S/o Nazir Ahmad Mir whileas my actual/correct name and parentage spelling as per school record is Mohammad Rayees S/o Nazir Ahmed. Now, the same is to be corrected.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4423

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5102 3528 4818 from Uzma Begum to Uzma Banoo. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Uzma BanooW/o Manzoor Ahmad Khan R/o Warikhah, Pringal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is an information for general public that the Aadhaar Card of my daughter bearing Registration No. 7239 7377 3007 in online Aadhaar Card record her name has been mistakenly mentioned as Alina Ali while as her actual and correct name as per Domicile Certificate and School Record is Aleena Ali. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Ali Mohammad Gojar Turk F/o Aleena Ali R/o Quilmuqam, Tehsil Aloosa, District Bandipora, Jammu and Kashmir, India, Pin Code193502.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4424 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that the name of my ward was wrongly mentioned as Hurara Farooq instead of Aayina Farooq on her online Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6348 3114 2456. Now, I want to correct the same.

Farooq Ahmad Thoker F/o Aayina Farooq

R/o Heffkuri, Tehsil Chitragam, District Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4426 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

My name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 4519 6311 6503 as Kausara Jan instead of Kousar Jan as per school records. Now I am applying for correction of the same.

Kousar Jan D/o Ghulam Mohmad Hajam

R/o Gund Dalwash.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my Son issued vide Aadhaar No. 7608 8330 2702 his name has been enrolled as Anas Bin Yousuf instead of Mohammad Anas Mir. Now, I want to apply for its Correction.

Mohammad Yosuf Mir R/o Arif Bagh, Hardu Chanam, Rafiabad, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4427

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my childs name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 8922 3049 0242. Now, I want to change his name from Fizahat Jan (old name) to Fiza Zakir (new name) as per DoB certificate.

Zakir Hussain Dar F/o Fiza Zakir R/o Wavoora, Lolab.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my child's name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 6969 4407 2505. Now, I want to change his name from Jiver Qayoom (old name) to Jawhara Qayoom (new name) as per DoB certificate.

Abdul Qayoom Ganaie F/o Jawhara Qayoom R/o Sogam, Lolab.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4428 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

My particulars have been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card No. 8372 4632 1207 as Hafeeza Bano D/o Abdul Razaq Hafiz R/o Malapora, Ganderbal whileas my correct particulars as per School certificate is Hafiza Bano D/o Abdul Razaq Hafiz R/o Malapora, Ganderbal. Now, I want its correction.

Hafiza Bano D/o Abdul Razaq Hafiz R/o Malapora, Ganderbal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Ms. Masrat Mohiuddin D/o Ghulam Mohi Ud Din Khan R/o Braman, Rafiabad, District Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir hereby inform the general public that my name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5881 2150 8551 as Masrat Bano instead of my correct name Masrat Mohiud din. Now, I am applying for the correction of my name in the Aadhaar records to reflect my correct name as Masrat Mohiud din.

Masrat Mohiud din D/o Ghulam Mohi ud din Khan R/o Braman, Rafiabad, District Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4429

NOTIFICATION

I, Sakuntala Devi W/o Late Sh Faqir Singh R/o Kot Maira, Tehsil Khour and District Jammu want to apply for correction of my name and DoB in my Aadhaar Card that has been wrongly mentioned as Skuntila Devi and DoB as 10-01-1956 instead of Sakuntala Devi and correct DoB as 10-04-1956. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4431

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Ajaz S/o Mohammad Din R/o Kirni, Tehsil Haveli, District Poonch do hereby declare that my actual name is Mohammad Ajaz which is mentioned on my 10th Marksheet but wrongly written on my Aadhaar Card as Mohd Ajaz. Now, I am applying for the name correction on my Aadhaar card as Mohammad Ajaz.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Tahir Rashid War R/o Kultoora, Langate hereby inform the general public that I intend to update the name of my son in his Aadhaar Card which is presently recorded as Ansar Tahir, whereas his actual name as per official records is Mohammad Ansar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4432 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No.18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sonia Devi D/o Mela Ram R/o Village Harsha Dhokrian Halqa, Tehsil & District Jammu declare that my name has been wrongly written in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9706 5591 5874 as Soni Devi instead of correct name is Sonia Devi. Now, I am Applying for Correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4435

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my old name from Faraque Ahamd Rather S/o Gh

Ahmad Rather to new name Farooque Ahamd Rather S/o Gh Ahmad

Rather. In future I will be known by my new name Farooque Ahand

Rather S/o Gh Ahmad Rather.

Farooque Ahamd Rather S/o Gh Ahmad Rather

R/o Goshbugh Tehsil Pattan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written

as Nahria Akhtar instead of correct Nahira Akhtar in Aadhaar Card.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4436 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Bibi Begum W/o Late Mohd Abdullah R/o Village Koti Tehsil Bani

District Kathua have applied for correction of my name which has been

wrongly written as Rifat Bibi instead of correct name is Bibi Begum in

my Aadhaar Card bearing No 3629 4996 0955.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Digiana Jammu have applied for correction of my name which has been

wrongly written as Pramjeet Singh instead of correct name is Ichpal Singh

in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7362 0991 6042.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4437

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card vide Aadhaar No. 5158 6271 6493, my name

has been enrolled as Towqeer Hayat instead of Towqueer Hayat. Now, I

want to apply for it's Correction.

Towqueer Hayat S/o Abdul Hai Dar

R/o Bona Pora, Batamaloo Sgr J&K-190010.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION In the Aadhar Card vide Aadhaar No. 7634 9230 7256, my name has	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

been enrolled as Mehreen Aijaz instead of Mehreena Aajaz. Now, I want

to apply for it's Correction.

Mehreena Aajaz S/o Ajaz Ahmad Banday,

R/o Rangwara Warnow, Kupwara Sgr J&K-193223.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4438 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mukhtar Ahmad Naikoo F/o Dayim Mukhtar R/o Saidpora Bala Tehsil and District, Shopian JK declare that the name and DoB of my ward has been wrongly written in Aadhaar Card as Abu Arkam Naikoo and 03/01/2012 while as the actual name and DoB is Dayim Mukhtar and 03/01/2016. Now, the same is to be corrected.

Mukhtar Ahmad Naikoo F/o Dayim Mukhtar R/o Saidpora Bala Tehsil and district Shopian JK UT. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION I, Tabish Akther D/o Mohammad Yousf Malik R/o Qalamabad Tehsi	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

I, Tabish Akther D/o Mohammad Yousf Malik R/o Qalamabad Tehsi Langate & District, Kupwara J&K, declare that my name is mistakenly entered in Aadhaar records vide Aadhaar No.6788 2130 4073 as Tabash Akhter instead of Tabish Akther. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Tabish Akther D/o Mohammad Yousf Malik R/o Qalamabad Tehsil, Langate & District-Kupwara. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4439

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Hamid Mir S/o Mohd Rafiq Mir R/o Syed Pora Harwan Srinagar Tehsil, Khanyar & District Srinagar J&K, declare that my ward's name have been mistakenly entered in Aadhaar records vide Aadhaar No.4060 5289 5581 as Uzhair Rafiq instead of Mohammad Hamid Mir. That My Correct and Actual name is Mohammad Hamid Mir and the same may be entered in Aadhar Records. Now, the same is to be corrected.

Mohammad Hamid Mir S/o Mohd Rafiq Mir R/o Syed pora Harwan Srinagar Tehsil, Khanyar & District-Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION In the Aadhaar Card vide Aadhaar No. 9847 4627 7116, my name has been enrolled as Ashia Bano instead of Aisha Bano. Now, I want to apply	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Aisha Bano D/o Mohd Maqbool Magray R/o War Mohalla Thune, Kangan J&K-191202. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc.
————	By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4440 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhar Card of my ward issued vide Aadhaar No. 6389 9233 5810, her name has been enrolled as Ayesha Javaid instead of Mir Aisha. Now, I want to apply for it's Correction.

Mir Aisha C/o Javaid Ahmad Mir R/o Gasoo Hazratbal, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190006. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

3917, her name has been enrolled as Rutba Javaid instead of Rutiba

Javaid. Now, I want to apply for it's Correction.

Javaid Ahmad Mir F/o Rutiba Javaid

R/o Gasoo, Mir Mohalla Hazratbal Jammu and Kashmir-190006.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4441

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my

ward's namehas been wrongly written as Mohd Amir Sheikh S/o Manzoor

Ahmad Sheikh instead of Mohd Aamir Mochi S/o Manzoor Ahmad

Mochi. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Manzoor Ahmad Mochi F/o Mohd Amir Mochi

R/o Sheikhpora Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Tehsil Haveli, District Poonch applying for the correction of my name

which is wrongly written as Azhar Balkeez instead of Azar Balkeez in

Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7077 7324 0932 and other documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4442 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

Mukhti Begam W/o Wali Mohd Ro Village Gagrian, Tehsil Mandi,

District Poonch applying for the correction of my name which is wrongly

written as Mukhati Begum instead of Mukhti Begam in Aadhaar Card

bearing No. 2273 2325 4429 and other documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Poonch, applying for the correction of my name which is wrongly written

as Layaqat Ali instead of Liyaqat Ali in my Aadhaar Card bearing No.

7093 5294 5254 and other documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4443

NOTIFICATION

I, Lal Din S/o Raj Mohd R/o Village Shahpur, Tehsil Haveli,

District Poonch applying for the correction of my Son's name which is

wrongly written as Sadiqat Iqbal instead of Sadaqat Iqbal in Aadhaar Card

bearing No. 8827 9214 5990. Now the same is to be corrected.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

District Poonch applying for the correction of my Brother's name which is

wrongly written as Naziqat Iqbal instead of Nazakat Iqbal in Aadhaar

Card bearing No. 2864 5396 1262.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4444 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Rita Devi W/o Sh Romesh Kumar R/o H.No. 38 Ward No. 5

exchange road Reasi District Reasi Jammu Kashmir UT 182311 declare

that my name has been wrongly written as Veena Devi instead of Rita

Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 6901 1028 6242. Now,

I am applying for the correction of same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION I, Santosh Devi W/o Sh Sanjay Kumar R/o Village Jandrari PO	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Jandari Teheil Ramnagar District Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT

182122 declare that my name has been wrongly written as Santosh

Kumari instead of Santosh Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration

No. 8791 2055 7800. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4445

NOTIFICATION

I, Sunita Devi W/o Sh Raj Kumar M/o Anjali Devi R/o Village Kirmoo PO Deheri Teheil Ramnagar District Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT 182122 declare that my daughter's name has been wrongly written as Anjali Sharma instead of Anjali Devi in my daughter Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 6348 0831 2779. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION I, Zakir Hussain Shah S/o Haider Hussain Shah R/o Village Farole	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

I, Zakir Hussain Shah S/o Haider Hussain Shah R/o Village Farole Post Office Blandh Tehsil Ramnagar District, Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT-182122 declare that my name has been wrongly written as Zakir Hussain instead of Zakir Hussain Shah in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 5193 9262 1734. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4446 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Rajinder Singh F/o Shreya Thakur R/o Village Charat PO Charat

Tehsil ,Chanani District, Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT 182141

declare that my Daughter's name has been wrongly written as Riya

Thakur instead of Shreya Thakur in my daughter's Aadhaar Card bearing

registration No. 5035 8517 0772. Now, I am applying for the correction of

the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION I, Jagdish Kumar F/o Akanksha Sharma R/o Village Narora	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

I, Jagdish Kumar F/o Akanksha Sharma R/o Village Narora Kainthgali District, Jammu and Kashmir UT Udhampur 182125 declare that my daughter's name has been wrongly written as Aankasha Sharma instead of Akanksha Sharma in her Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 2889 4663 4785. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc.
————	By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4447

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohan Kour W/o Amar Singh R/o Village Simbal Morh Basti

Govindpura Dhande Kalan Tehsil R.S Pura District Jammu, states that my

name has been wrongly recorded as Mohan Kaur instead of correct name

Mohan Kour in my Aadhaar Card No. 8104 6006 5338 issued by the

concerning authorities. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Distrcit Budgam, but it has been wrongly written as Gulam Hussain Dar

on Passport bearing No. L8667948. Now, I intend to correct the same in

my Passport.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4448 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card as Abdul Majeed Kumar while my correct name as per my documents is Abdul Majid Kumar. Now, I want to update my name as Abdul Majid Kumar instead of Abdul Majeed Kumar In my Aadhar card.

Abdul Majid Kumar S/o Mohd Shaban Kumar R/o karewa Rampora mattan anantnag Jammu and Kashmir- 192125. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION In the Bank records bearing Account No. 0048010100027603 my	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

In the Bank records bearing Account No. 0048010100027603 my name has been mentioned as Iqbal Mir while as my correct name is Mohd Iqbal Mir which is mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7631 0663 7244 also. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in the Bank records.

Mohd Iqbal Mir S/o Gh Hassan Mir R/o Zurhama Kupwara. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4449

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from Ab. Hamid (old name) to Peerzada Abdul Hamid (new name). In future, I will be known as Peerzada Abdul Hamid (new name).

Peerzada Abdul Hamid S/o Ghulam Mohi ud Din Peerzada R/o Poshwani Pattan, District, Baramulla Kashmir. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

I want to correct my name in my Agriculture & Farmers Welfare Deptt. Service Book ID No. ALMAGR00190002, from Mohamad Yaqoob S/o Ghulam Hassan Dar to Mohammad Yaqoob Dar S/o Ghulam Hassan Dar as per my matriculation certificate/ appointment order. Now the same is to be corrected.

Mohammad Yaqoob Dar S/o Ghulam Hassan Dar R/o Hyderpora, Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4450 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5728 5909 1928 my name is recorded

as Kousar Lateef while as my actual and correct is Kounsar Nisa. Now

change/correction is required.

Kounsar Nisa D/o Mohd Lateef Bhat

R/o Maloora Parimpora Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5965 7300 7253 my name is recorded as Shagufta Nabi while as my actual and correct name is Suraiya Nabi. Now change/correction is required.

Suraiya Nabi D/o Gh Nabi Kaloo R/o Boat Main Colony Bemina Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4451

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6893 6370 7345 my name is recorded as Bashir Ahmade Gazi while as my actual and correct name is Basharat Bilal. Now change/correction is required.

Basharat Bilal S/o Bilal Ahmad Gazi R/o Firdous Abad, Fruit Mandi Parimpora Ghat, Srinagar. It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

recorded as Ahmed Trumboo instead of his correct name Mohammad

Ahmed Trumboo. Now change/correction is required.

Omar Trumboo F/o Mohammad Ahmed Trumboo

R/o Trumboo House Gupt Ganga, Ishber Nishat Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4452 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4331 7210 4641 my name is recorded as

Mumin Tariq while as my actual and correct name is Moomin Tariq. Now

change/correction is required.

Moomin Tariq S/o Tariq Ahmad Bhat

R/o Budshah Nagar Natipora, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Imran Rashid Bakshi while as my actual and correct name is Bakshi

Imran. Now change/correction is required.

Bakshi Imran S/o Abdul Rashid Bakshi

R/o Bilal colony Bemina, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4453

NOTIFICATION

I, Messu Ram S/o Sh Sadhu Ram R/o Village Draman Tehsil Basohli

District, Kathua Jammu and Kashmir UT 184201 declare that my name

has been wrongly written as Mashu Ram instead of Messu Ram in my

Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 9253 0454 9568. Now, I am

applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION I, Jagdish Chander F/o Dheeraj Atri R/o Village Deheri PO Deheri	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Teheil Ramnagar District, Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT-182122

declare that my ward's name has been wrongly written as Dhreej Atri in-

stead of Dheeraj Atri in my son aadhar card bearing registration no 8986

0731 1233. Now i am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4454 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Parshotam Singh F/o Yuvaraj Singh R/o Village Sangar Ransio

District, Reasi Jammu and Kashmir UT-185203 declare that my ward's

name has been wrongly written in his Aadhaar Card bearing registration

No. 5694 6100 7146 as Yugraj Singh instead Yuvraj Singh. Now, I am

applying for the correction of same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of
———— NOTIFICATION	Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

Barmeen District, Udhampur Jammu and Kashmir UT-182124 declare

that my name has been wrongly written as Surjo Devi instead of Surju

Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 2279 94880159. Now,

I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in

this connection.

	Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any
————	misrepresentation etc. By order. General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4455

NOTIFICATION

I, Nab Faker S/D/W/o Gaffar Faker R/o Gonipora, Tehsil Kunzer, District Baramulla, hereby notify that my name has been wrongly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3280 4863 1154 as Ghulam Nabi Shah. My correct and actual name is Nab Faker. Henceforth, I shall be known and recognized by the name Nab Faker for all legal and official purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I intend to correction my name in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 3056 4751 4676 from Adeeb Hussain Khan to Ahmad Hussain Khan. In future, I will be known as Ahmad Hussain Khan.

Ahmad Hussain Khan S/o Reyaz Ahmad Khan R/o Nutnussa.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4456 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Chialoo Begum W/o Sayine R/o Village Kencha, Tehsil Kahara, District Doda, Jammu and Kashmir UT-182203. That my name has been wrongly written as Chaloo Begum instead of Chialoo Begum in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4841 6887 4368. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Prem Lal S/o Sh Shanker Lal R/o Village Bhatoli, Tehsil Kahara, District Doda, Jammu and Kashmir UT that my name has been wrongly written as Prame Lal instead of Prem Lal in my Aadhaar card bearing No. 9694 9235 3623. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4457

NOTIFICATION

I, Rukam Din F/o Savina Kausar R/o Village Mahi Chak, PO Barnote, District Kathua, Jammu and Kashmir, UT-184143. That my daughter name has been wrongly written as Shivna Kausar instead of Savina Kausar in my daughter Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3144 8527 2820. Now, I am applying for the correction of same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Kartar Chand F/o Sakashi Devi R/o Village Incha, PO Amroh, Teheil Ramnagar, District Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT-182122. That my daughter's name has been wrongly written as Sankashi Devi instead of Sakashi Devi in my daughter's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6406 4328 0264. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4458 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Wahid S/o Haji Gujar R/o Village Jad, PO Sumb, Tehsil and District Samba, Jammu and Kashmir, UT-184121. That my name has been wrongly written as Mohd Wahid instead of Wahid in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5423 5498 6302. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Veerta Devi D/o Sh Hans Raj R/o Village Lehair, PO Joffer, Tehsil Ramnagar, District Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT-182128. That my name has been wrongly written as Nirta Devi Instead of Veerta Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7654 6327 3608. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4459

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammed Fareed S/o Daud R/o Village Kella, PO Sattian, Tehsil Ramnagar, District Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir, UT-182122. That my name has been wrongly written as Farid Ali instead of Mohammed Fareed in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7864 2720 9452. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Tafaij S/o Naik Alam R/o Mehari Gujjran, Tehsil and District Rajouri applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Mohd Tafaj instead of correct Mohd Tafaij in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9622 8117 6304. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4460 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Amin F/o Heana Kosser R/o Ujhan, Tehsil Darhal, District Rajouri applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Heena Kosser instead of correct Heana Kosser in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8625 5413 6717. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Kabeen Kousar W/o Sayaf Ahmed R/o Naka Manjhari, Tehsil Mendhar, District poonch want to apply for correction of my son's name and declare that my son name is incorrectly mentioned as Rekhan Sayaf instead of Rehan Sayaf in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7946 6509 5887. Hence, Rehan Sayaf is his correct name and used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4461

NOTIFICATION

I, Nahid Akhter W/o Abdul Majeed R/o Naka Manjhari, Tehsil Mendhar, District poonch want to apply for correction of my son's name and declare that my son's name is incorrectly mentioned as Sajid Majid instead of Sajid Majeed in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7288 7676 2326. Hence, Sajid Majeed is his correct name and used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sharoon Akhter W/o Mohd Shabir R/o Ari, Tehsil Mendhar, District Poonch want to apply for correction of my daughter's name and declare that my daughter's name is incorrectly mentioned as Naida Akhter instead of Nahida Kouser in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5448 5093 5926. Hence, Nahida Kouser is correct name of my daughter and used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4462 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Zafar Iqbal S/o Abdul Majeed R/o Balnoi, Sagra, Tehsil Mankote District Poonch want to apply for correction of my name and declare that my name is incorrectly mentioned as Zaffer Iqbal instead of Zafar Iqbal in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5298 8308 4223. Hence, Zafar Iqbal is my correct name and used for all future references and records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mukhtar Hussain S/o Maqbool Hussain R/o Sagrawat, Tehsil Darhal, District Rajouri applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Imsaa Anjum instead of correct Amsa Anjum in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8854 2307 1896. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4463

NOTIFICATION

I, Altaf Hussain S/o Mohd Azam R/o Tehsil Darhal, District Rajouri that I have applied for correction of my in my son's name which is wrongly written as Mehtab Ahmed in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3418 1573 3716 instead the correct name written in all other documents Mohd Mehtab. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shamim Akhter W/o Fazal Hussain R/o Village Jamola, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Sakeena Akhter in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 3548 2234 0873. The correct name is Shamim Akhter. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4464 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Baby Tabasum W/o Manzoor Ahmad R/o New Colony Batmaloo, Srinagar declare that my name appears as Tabasum in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7405 2644 5923 and Baby Tabasum in my pension records. Both names refer to one and the same person. Hence forth, Baby Tabasum shall be treated as my correct name for all official purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nazik Hussain Shah S/o Mubrak Shah R/o Village Draj, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Nazik Hussan Shah in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 8040 1148 9382. The correct name is Nazik Hussain Shah. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4465

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Ashrif S/o Mohd Bashir R/o Village Udhan (Owdan), Tehsil Khawas, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185201, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Mohd Ashraf in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 8509 8659 1665. The correct name is Mohd Ashrif. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shameem Akhter W/o Mohd Farooq R/o Village Jamola, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, applying for correction of my son's name and DoB which are wrongly written as Mohd Arshad & DoB 26-01-2013 instead of correct Mohd Arshid & DoB 20-05-2018 in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2147 4387 6520 and my daughter's name & DoB was wrongly written as Arshad Begum & DoB 01-01-2016 instead of correct Irshad Begum & DoB 05-10-2019 in Aadhaar card bearing No. 5526 2850 3047. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4466 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Shafi S/o Makhna R/o Village Mohra, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K, hereby declare that my son's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Mohd Asaf and 01-01-2006 in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 4818 0743 3709. The correct name and DoB are Mohd Asif and 15-12-2010. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Ayoub S/o Mandhia R/o Village Swari, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my daughter's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Summaria Ayoub and 28-12-2017 in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 6640 9710 4846. The correct name and DoB are Samaira Ayoub and 10-12-2016. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4467

NOTIFICATION

I, Layaqat Ali S/o Manir Hussain R/o Village Kanthol, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K, hereby declare that my daughter's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Rakia Kouser and 01/02/2018 in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 9160 5572 4509. The correct name and DoB are Anaya Chowdhary and 02/02/2018. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Arash S/o Mohd Ashraf R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Araz Razaq in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 7205 7755 1329. The correct name is Mohd Ariz Razaq. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4468 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Farooq S/o Nazir Hussain R/o Village Kotranka, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Sanena Bhat in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 7396 7658 4563. The correct name is Sunaina Bhat. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Alaf Din S/o Bhullu R/o Village Targain, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Sobbat Ali in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 4343 2895 7515. The correct name is Sobit Ali. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4469

NOTIFICATION

I, Zabaida Begum W/o Mohd Jamil R/o Village Kandi, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Zubida Begum in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 6728 7231 7518. The correct name is Zabaida Begum. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nagina Begum W/o Anwar Hussain R/o Village Kanthol, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185202, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Nageena Begum in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 9459 3255 5035. The correct name is Nagina Begum. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4470 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Jamil Ahmed S/o Bashir Ahmed R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Robina Ακhter in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 9454 2332 9105. The correct name is Rabina Akhter. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammed Bashir S/o Munshi R/o Village Larkoti, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Mohd Bashir in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 5389 8928 6919. The correct name is Mohammed Bashir. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4471

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Javaid S/o Mohd Rashid R/o Village Kandi, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Mohd Javaid U In my Aadhaar Card UID No. 9371 9578 8045. The correct name is Mohd Javaid. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Kabir Ahmed S/o Wazir Hussain R/o Village Jamola, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Shashita Begum in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 7593 1944 0461. The correct name is Shasta Begum. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4472 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Parveen Akhter W/o Shokit Ali and D/o Sain R/o Village Targain, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Kulzam Akhter in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 5511 4503 9287. The correct name is Parveen Akhter. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Ashfaq S/o Abdul Rehman R/o Village Jaglanoo, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Faisar Ashfaq in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 6835 8810 6871. The correct name is Faisal Ashfaq. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4473

NOTIFICATION

I, Maqbool Hussain S/o Ghulam Hussain R/o Village Shapur, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K 185233, hereby declare that my daughter's name is wrongly recorded as Rahaina Kouser in her Aadhaar Card UID No. 4369 6477 1400. The correct name is Rahana Kouser. I further declare that my wife's name is wrongly recorded as Rahmat John in my daughter's school records. The correct name is Rehmat Jan. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Nazir S/o Faqir Mohd R/o Village Draj, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Tanvir Ahmed in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 8631 4435 4777. The correct name is Tanwir Ahmed. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4474 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Farooq S/o Mohd Bashir R/o Village Darman (Dramman), Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Arun Ahmed in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 9457 8726 4590. The correct name is Hrun Ahmed. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Ghulam Mohd S/o Jama Din R/o Village Khah, Jamola, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Gula Mohd in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 7357 6327 7963. The correct name is Ghulam Mohid. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4475

NOTIFICATION

I, Shagufta Begum W/o Mohd Naseer R/o Village Swarl, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Sharakat Khan in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 8530 1170 9990. The correct name is Sharakhat Khan. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Zubeda Begum W/o Mohd Manir R/o Village Mohra, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Mohd Raftz in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 5871 3167 2564. The correct name is Mohd Raftaz. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4476 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Shanaz Akhter W/o Zafar Iqbal R/o Village Rehan (Rehean), Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Umer Jawan in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 7164 5459 5855. The correct name is Umar Chouhan. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Janaid Shah S/o Nabi Shah R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Janid Shah & DoB 03-07-1986 in my Aadhaar Card UID No. 9338 4086 1605. The correct name and DoB are Janaid Shah and 01-03-1994. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4477

NOTIFICATION

I, Saleem Akhter W/o Mohd Rafi R/o Kotranka, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Mohd Faizan and 03-05-2016 in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 4294 4889 0787. The correct name and DoB are Mohd Fazan and 01-01-2015. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Javaid S/o Mohd Alam R/o (Panihad) Parori Gujjran, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185132, hereby declare that my name is wrongly recorded as Mohd Javeed In my Aadhaar Card UID No. 3226 0433 5358. The correct name is Mohd Javaid. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4478 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Javeed S/o Mohd Alam R/o Parori Gujjran, Panihad, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K -185132, hereby declare that the names of my children are wrongly recorded in their Aadhaar Cards as (1) Incorrect Name: Tohed Javeed, Correct Name: Tohid Javaid Aadhaar UID No. 5142 4396 6438. (2) Incorrect Name: Misbha Javid, Correct Name: Misbha Javaid Aadhaar UID No.: 9909 5160 1350. (3) Incorrect Name: Novid Javeed, Correct Name: Noveed Javaid Aadhaar UID No.: 9755 3193 4321. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Razia Begum W/o Manir Hussain R/o Village Samote, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name and DoB are wrongly recorded as Waheed Ahmed and 01-01-2011 in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 4862 2893 3896. The correct name and date of birth are Mohd Waheed and 01-02-2008. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4479

NOTIFICATION

I, Naseem Akhter W/o Mohd Latief R/o Kotranka, Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K-185233, hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Aahil Sabri in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 4233 3637 5117. The correct name is Mohd Aahil Sabri. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

I, Sushma Slathia W/o Ram Dev Singh R/o Gurha Slathia, Mandi Rajgarh, Tehsil Vijaypur and District Samba inform to general public that my DoB has been wrongly registered/mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5285 4744 5772 as 26-06-1964 instead of 26-07-1964 which is correct and registered in my Birth Certificate. Now, I am applying for the correction of my DoB. in my Aadhaar Card as 26-07-1964 instead of 26-06-1964.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4484 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Shailendra Kumar Pandey S/o Jay Prakash Pandey R/o Village Sonapakar, Bodarwar, P.O Bodarwar, District Khushinagar, Uttar pradesh-274149 that my name has worngly written in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6011 1173 3368 as Shalandar Kumar Pandey instead of Shailendra Kumar Pandey. Now, I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Prem Lal Verma S/o Late Sh Jai Dayal R/o House No. 27, Sec. 7 District Jammu, have applied for the correction of my name which is wrongly written as Prem Verma in my Aadhaar Card instead of correct name Prem Lal Verma. Now, I am apply for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4485

NOTIFICATION

I, Sugrab Singh S/o Thakur Dass R/o Gam Dighoge, Tehsil and District Ramban have applied for correction of my Aadhaar name and DoB and which has wrongly recorded as Sugrive Singh and DoB as 06-04-1973 and the actual name as per record is Sugrab Singh and DoB 01-05-1973 Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Prabh Dayal S/o Late Bishamber, R/o Doomi, Batehra, District Jammu, UT of J&K, am applying for correction of my name which is inadvertently/incorrectly written as Parbhu Dayal in my Aadhaar Card, instead of Prabh Dayal as per the Birth Certificate of my son Master Rajinder Manhas. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4486 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Ayoub Sheikh am holding 1000 of shares of J&K Bank Folio JKB013981, where my name has been inadvertently recorded as Sheikh Mohd Ayoub which is incorrect. Whereas my actual name is Mohammad Ayoub Sheikh. In this regard, I am applying for correction of name in my Folio.

Mohammad Ayoub Sheikh S/o Ab Salam Sheikh R/o Hazratbal Payeen, Αnantnag-192101.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

Notification No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Reyaz Ahmad Malik F/o Zeeshan Reyaz Malik R/o Kalantra Bla, Baramulla, hereby declare that my son's name has been wrongly mentioned as Zeeshan Reyaz in Aadhaar Card Bearing Aadhaar No. 9091 4647 4989. According to Birth Certificate and Borad record the correct name of my son is Zeeshan Reyaz Malik. Now, I am applying for correction in the Aadhaar Card records accordingly.

Keyaz Anmad Malik F/o Zeeshan Reyaz Malik R/o Kalantra Bla, Baramulla-193101.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4487

NOTIFICATION

I, Parbeen Kumar Dogra S/o Sh. Chuni Lal R/o Ambaran, Tehsil Akhnoor, District Jammu, PIN-181201, do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly recorded in my Aadhaar Card and PAN Card as Parveen Kumar instead of my correct name, Parbeen Kumar Dogra. Now, I am applying for correction of my name in the concerned records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card my wards name has been wrongly recorded as Tubia Jan while her correct name is Toiba Nazir D/o Nazir Ahmad Wani. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Nazir Ahmad Wani F/o Toiba Nazir R/o Razloo Kund, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4488 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhar Card records my wards name is wrongly written as Zahid Ahmad Baba instead of Zahid Ashraf Baba and also DoB is wrongly written as 17-01-2005 instead of 16-05-2009. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Mohammad Ashraf Baba F/o Zahid Ashraf Baba R/o Aripora Turkawangan, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my wards name is wrongly written as Tuibah Jan instead of Toiba Shabir and also DoB is wrongly written as 01-03-2014 instead of 10-05-2014. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Shabir Ahmad Kumar F/o Toiba Shabir R/o Trukawangam, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4489

NOTIFICATION

I, Parveda Akhtar W/o Amir Ahmad Manhas R/o Shadab Karewa, Tehsil & District Shopian, hereby notify that my name has been wrongly recorded as Fareda Akhtar in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9821 2283 3837. My correct and actual name is Parveda Akhtar. Now, it needs correction.

Parveda Akhtar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my name is wrongly written as Mohd Assan Mir instead of Gulam Ahsan Mir and also Parentage is wrongly written as Ab Gaffar Mir instead of Kh. Ab. Gaffar Mir. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Gulam Ahsan Mir S/o Kh. Ab. Gaffar Mir R/o Chitragam, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4490 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

Notice is hereby given to the general public that my name has been inadvertently recorded as Mohammad Amin Sodagar in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 8507 5231 9997 which is incorrect. My actual and correct name is Mohd Amin Sodager S/o Gh Mohi-Ud Din Sodager R/o Arhama, Tehsil & District Shopian, as recorded in my service records and school records. This notice is being published to affirm my correct name and parentage and to facilitate correction of the same in my Aadhaar records and all other official records, wherever applicable.

Mohd Amin Sodager S/o Gh Mohi-Ud Din Sodager R/o Arhama, Tehsil & District Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my wards name is wrongly written as Mohd Zakrika instead of Mohammad Zakariya. Now I want to apply for its correction.

Naza Akhtar M/o Mohammad Zakariya R/o Allowpora Keegam, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4491

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 8118 1074 0396 from Junafar Khan to Junifar Khan. Now, I am applying for the correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my wards name is wrongly written as Arooja Aijaz instead of Arooj Aijaz and also DoB is wrongly written as 02-05-2007 instead of 01-03-2009. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Aijaz Ahmad Thoker F/o Arooj Aijaz R/o Nully Poshwari Barbugh Imam Sahib, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4492 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card my particulars has been wrongly recorded as Zara Salman C/o Salman Shabir Lone R/o Lone Mohalla, Qazigund while my correct Name is Lanujungla R/o Lone Mohalla, Qazigund, Kuri Gam, Anantnag. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Lanujungla R/o Lone Mohalla, Qazigund, Kuri Gam, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar Card my wards name has been wrongly recorded as Mohammad Zaroon Nanda while bis correct name is Mohammad Salaar Nanda. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Imtiyaz Ahmad Nanda F/o Mohammad Salaar Nanda R/o Muslim Abad, KP Road, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4493

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to general public that my daughter's name has been wrongly entered in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9592 9496 4732 as Nowreena Manzoor instead of Navreena Manzoor. Now, I have applying its correction.

Manzoor Ahmad Bhat F/o Navreena Manzoor R/o Wadipora, Tehsil Chadoora, District Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sheikh Mumtaz Ahmed S/o Sheikh Ghulam Hyder R/o Village Chakrara, Tehsil Mandi, District Poonch, Jammu & Kashmir, state that my name and my father's name have been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4586-1231-8845. The name appearing in the Aadhaar Card is Mumtaz Ahmed Ghulam Hyder, whereas my correct name is Sheikh Mumtaz Ahmed S/o Sheikh Ghulam Hyder. I have applied to the concerned authorities for correction of my name and my father's name in the Aadhaar Card records. Henceforth, the correct name should be read and treated as Sheikh Mumtaz Ahmed S/o Sheikh Ghulam Hyder for all purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4494 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mubarik Ahmad Bhat S/o Nazir Ah Bhat R/o Hangalbuch, Tehsil Yaripora, District Kulgam state that my actual name is spelled Mubarik Ahmad Bhat S/o Nazir Ah Bhat R/o Hangalbuch, Tehsil Yaripora, District Kulgam, which is correct as per School records Card, due to mistake my name was wrongly mention as Mubarak Ahmad Bhat S/o Nazir Ahmad Bhat R/o Hangalbuch, Tehsil Yaripora, District Kulgam in my Aadhaar Card Under No.7616 1324 0271.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Naseer Ahmad Mughal Chughta S/o Bashir Ahmad Mughal Chughta R/o Bagna Noorkhah, Tehsil Boniyar, District Baramulla state that the name of my daughter namely Sohana Naseer has been wrongly written in her Aadhaar Card bearing No .4325 2947 0215 as Sunana. The actual name of my daughter is Sohana Naseer. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4495

NOTIFICATION

I, Nittan Dhamatia S/o Sh Agha Ram Dhamatia R/o Village Shri Partap Singh Pura, Tehsil Bishnah District Jammu have applied for correction of my and my father's name which has been wrongly written as Nittin Dhamahi S/o Agha Ram instead of correct name Nittan Dhamatia S/o Agha Ram Dhamatia in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9740 6635 3079. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shamima Koser D/o Abdul Aziz and Zabina Koser, Caste Lohar R/o Hari, Tehsil Surankote, District Poonch, hereby declare that my name has been wrongly recorded as Samiya Kosser in certain documents. My correct name is Shamima Koser. Henceforth, Shamima Koser shall be treated as my correct name for all purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4496 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Ms Priyanka Tikoo D/o Pyare Krishan R/o H.No. 562-D, Back side Royal Nest Flat, near BJP Office-180020 declare that after my marriage, my surname was changed from Tikoo to Sharma and my name came to be recorded as Priyanka Sharma in various official records and documents. My marriage was dissolved by a decree of divorce on 11 August, 2018. Now, after my divorce, I have decided to resume and use my maiden surname Tikoo instead of Sharma. I also wish to have my status corrected from Wife of Suresh Sharma to Daughter of Pyare Krishan in all my documents and records, wherever applicable.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Qasim Doie F/o Usman Qasim Doie R/o Lidroo, Tehsil Pahalgam, District Anantnag state that my ward namely Usman Qasim Doie S/o Mohammad Qasim Doie. My ward is having an Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5342 7700 8776. My ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in her Aadhaar Card as Usmeen Asim instead of Usman Qasim Doie. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4497

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my daughters name has been wrongly Mentioned in her Aadhaar Card as Sabhat Riyaz D/o Riyaz Ahmad Mir instead of Sabia Reyaz D/o Reyaz Ahmad Mir. Therefore, I wanted to change.

Reyaz Ahmad Mir F/o Sabia Reyaz R/o Surasyar Chadoora, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to general public, that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in his/her Aadhaar Card as Ashiya Ashiq instead of Ayesha Ashiq. Now, it needs correction.

Ashiq Hussain Dar F/o Ayesha Ashiq R/o Kashmiri Manigah, Tehsil & District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4498 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name and address has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar card bearing No. 6256 1874 6333 as Tobia Shafi D/o Mohammad Shafi Gojri, Address Wathora Sheikhpora, VTC Auwanpora instead Toiba Shafi D/o Mohammad Shafi Gojri R/o Sheikhpora, Wathora. Now, I wanted to change it.

Toiba Shafi D/o Mohammad Shafi Gojri R/o Sheikpora Wathora, Chadoora, Budgam, Ph. 9622776722.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is information for general public that my daughter's name has been wrongly enter in Aadhaar Card under No. 6122 1180 1284 as Jofly Akhter instead of Jofey Akhter. Now, I want to its correction.

Gh Mohammad Mir F/o Jofey Akhter R/o Surasyar, Tehsil Chadoora, District Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4501

NOTIFICATION

It is here informed to general public that my son's name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card vide No. 6512 0031 1323 as Fawat Farooz instead of Fawad Farooz. Therefore, I want correct his name in Aadhaar.

Farooz Ahmad Para F/o Fawad Farooq R/o Surasyar Chadoora, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar recoard bearing No. 4520 4816 6109 my name recorded as Mohammad Haneef Goursi instead of Mohd Hanif Gorsi. Now, it needs correction.

Mohd Hanif Gorsi S/o Mohd Asgar Gorsi R/o Nandimarg, Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4502 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my ward in Aadhaar Card from Inza Imtiyaz to Fatima Bin Imtiyaz. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Imtiyaz Ahmad Bhat F/o Fatima Bin Imtiyaz R/o Kreeri Dooru, District Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my daughter issued vide No. 2992 9083 1496, her name has been enrolled as Sadrat ul Muntaha instead of Sidratul Muntaha. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Mudasir Ara W/o Late Riyaz Ahmad Malik R/o Delina Ghat, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4505

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my son in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7939 3709 5728 from Burhan Bashir to Sehran Ahmad Malik. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Bashir Ahmad Malik F/o Sehran Ahmad Malik R/o Ringat DH Pora, District Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my son in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8942 3489 1610 from Schran Malik to Burhan Bashir Malik. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Bashir Ahmad Malik F/o Burhan Bashir Malik R/o Ringat DH Pora, District Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4506 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to the general public that my name and DoB has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar as Shafqat Yousuf & DoB 25-05-2014 while as my actual name and DoB is Zainab Yousuf & DoB 17-06-2013 C/o Mohammad Yousuf Gujjar Chichee R/o Laderwan, Tehsil Trehgam, District Kupwara-193224. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same.

Zainab Yousuf C/o Mohammad Yousuf Gujjar Chichee R/o Laderwan, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Ammad Altaf Lone to (new name) Immad Altaf Lone. In future, I will be known as (new name) Immad Altaf Lone.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4507

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6273 0543 8990. Now, I want to change my name from Benazir Ali (old name) to Bainazeer Ali (new name).

Bainazeer Ali D/o Ali Mohammad Sheikh R/o Ranger, Badgam, Jammu and Kashmir-191113.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3659 5583 2235. Now, I want to change my name from Abdul Ahad Sheikh (old name) to Ahadoo Shiekh Mochi (new name).

Ahadoo Shiekh Mochi C/o Ghulam Mohammad Sheikh R/o Palpora, Parimpora, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190017.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4508 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4011 9073 4008. Now, I want to change my name from Sabeena (old name) to Shubeena malik (new name).

Shubeena Malik D/o Ghulam Mohammad Malik R/o Karfali Mohalla, Habba Kadal, Jammu and Kashmir-190001.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4513 5719 1127. Now, I want to change my name from Abdul Manan Pandaw (old name) to Khalid Bin Firdous (new name).

Khalid Bin Firdous S/o Firdous Ahmad Pandaw R/o Bul Bul Lanker, Jammu and Kashmir-190002.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4509

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7864 0662 4835 from Zubaida Beigh to Zubida Beigh. Now, I am applying for correction.

Zubida Beigh R/o House No. 51, Pine Enclave Sanat Nagar, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmuir-190005.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card vide No. 9288 0245 9722, my wards name has been enrolled as Mohmmad Idrees Teli instead of Mohmmad Idrees. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Mohmmad Idrees R/o Wathora, Chadoora, District Budgam, Jammu and Kashmir-191113.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4510 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is notified for the information of the General Public that my ward's name & DoB in Aadhaar Card has been wrongly entered as Suzmmia Shabir & 25-07-2013 while my ward's correct Name & DoB is Suzaima Shabir & 12-04-2015. Now, I want the same to be corrected.

Masrat Jan M/o Suzaima Shabir R/o Nipora, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4512 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that the name of my daughter has been inadvertently recorded in her Aadhaar Card as Halena Jan, which is incorrect. Her correct and actual name is Alina Riyaz. Both the names refer to one and the same person. Now, it needs correction.

Riyaz Ahmad Awan F/o Alina Riyaz R/o Pehlipora, Tehsil Keller, District Shopian, J&K (UT).

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned on Aadhaar Card as Sayeeda Bano instead of Sayeeda Begom Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Sayeeda Begam W/o Altaf Hussain R/o Prada Karnah, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4513

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2167 0148 3539. Now, I want to change my name from Hazia Gulzar (old name) to Bisma Gulzar (new name).

Bisma Gulzar D/o Gulzar Ahmad Wava R/o Und Masjid Khanyar, Sriangar, Jammu and Kashmir 190002.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my ward issued vide No. 8827 3581 9054, her name has been enrolled as Rabiya Nazir instead of Rafiya Nazir. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Nazir Ahmad Ganaie F/o Rafiya Nazir R/o Peth Kanihama, District Badgam, Jammu and Kashmir-193401.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4514 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that my DoB recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2655 2280 0391 is incorrectly mentioned as 12-12-1965 instead of my correct and actual DoB as per my Date of Birth Certificate, which is 12-12-1974. This requires correction.

Fatima Bano W/o Abdul Majeed Wani D/o Abdul Aziz Wani R/o Prang, Kangan, Ganderbal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Satia Devi W/o Sh Charan Dass R/o Kachrial, Tehsil Khour and District Jammu, have applied for the correction of my name & DoB which has wrongly mentioned in Aadhar Card as Satya Devi & DoB 20-05-1948 instead of Satia Devi and DoB-15-09-1948. Now, I am going to apply for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4515

NOTIFICATION

I, Mushtaq Ahmad Shah S/o Late Nabi Shah R/o Darapora (Lolab), Tehsil Lalpora, hereby state that my ward's name has been wrongly entered in the Aadhaar Card as Aadil Mushtaq Shah instead of Shah Aadil Mushtaq. Now, I intend to correct my ward's name as Shah Aadil Mushtaq instead of Aadil Mushtaq Shah in all relevant records.

Mushtaq Ahmad Shah F/o Shah Aadil Mushtaq R/o Darapora, Lolab Tehsil Lalpora, PIN-193223.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4517

NOTIFICATION

It is hereby informed to the general public that my name and DoB have been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card as Mohammad Hafeez and 04-10-2002. My correct particulars are Mohammad Hafiz Bhat S/o Abdul Majid Bhat R/o Nambla, Tehsil Uri, District Baramulla, J&K, correct DoB 15-03-2002. Now, it needs correction.

Mohammad Hafiz Bhat.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Namo Devi W/o Ram Singh R/o Village Jindlehar, Tehsil RS Pura, District Jammu, my name has been wrongly written in my Aadhaar Card No. 7757 4640 1096 as Nahamo Devi instead Namo Devi. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4518 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Farooq Ahmad Lone F/o Sajad Ahmad Lone R/o Guzriyal state that my son's name has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card vide No. 4462 8608 4197 as Haris Farooq S/o Farooq Ahmad Lone instead of Sajad Ahmad Lone S/o Farooq Ahmad Lone. Now, I want to correct this.

Farooq Ahmad Lone F/o Sajad Ahmad Lone R/o Guzriyal.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Sadiq S/o Abdul Ahad Wani R/o Uri, Tehsil Uri, District Baramulla, UT of J&K, state that my name has been wrongly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8411 7977 5091 as Mohd Sadeeq Wani S/o Abdul Ahad Wani. My correct name and parentage are Mohd Sadiq S/o Abdul Ahad Wani. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by the name Mohd Sadiq S/ o Abdul Ahad Wani for all official, legal, and administrative purposes.

Mohd Sadiq S/o Abdul Ahad Wani R/o Uri, Tehsil Uri, District Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4519

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Syed Tariq Ahmad Indrabi to (new name) Syed Mohammad Tariq Andrabi. In future, I will be known as (new name) Syed Mohammad Tariq Andrabi. Syed Mohammad Tariq Andrabi S/o Syed Mohammad Maqbool Andrabi R/o Malik Manzil, Magermal Bagh, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4521

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5590 2209 3899, my name has been enrolled as Gh Quadir Butt instead of Gulam Qadir Butt. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Gulam Qadir Butt S/o Habib Butt R/o Naganari Boniyar, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7255 7797 6032, my name has been enrolled as Ashiq Hussain Dar instead of Ashaq Hussain Dar. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Ashaq Hussain Dar S/o Abdul Rahim Dar R/o Sheeri Narvaw, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4522 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is for the information that my name and parentage on my passport have been wrongly mentioned as Muneer Ahmad Bhat S/o Ghulam Mohmmad Bhat instead of Muneer Ahmad S/o Ghulam Mohmad Bhat. Now, the same needs to be rectified.

Muneer Ahmad S/o Ghulam Mohmad Bhat R/o Shagi Mohalla Soura, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Qamriya Mukhtar D/o Mukhtar Ahmad Kaloo R/o Barbarshah Baghwanpura, Srinagar, J&K, India state that I was issued a passport bearing Passport No. R4519146 in the name of Qamriya Akhtar, Father's Name as Mohd Wahid Dar and Mother's Name as Sumaire, which stands expired. My actual name as per my educational records is Qamriya Mukhtar, having correct father's name as Mukhtar Ahmad Kaloo and mother's name as Shaida Mukhtar. Qamriya Akhtar and Qamriya Mukhtar is one and the same person, and I solicit this notice for correcting my name as Qamriya Mukhtar in my fresh passport, with correct father's name as Mukhtar Ahmad Kaloo and mother's name as Shaida Mukhtar, in order to avoid any confusion in future.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4523

NOTIFICATION

I, Santosh Khajuria D/o Mouj Sharn R/o H. No. 85, Malhotra Street, Jammu have applied for correction of my name in J&K Bank Passbook which has been wrongly written as Santosh instead of Santosh Khajuria. Now I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the father's name of my daughter Fatima Younis class 11th Roll No. 13129816 in her School Records at Central Board of School Education and Delhi Public School, Srinagar from Mohd Younis Jan to Mohammad Younis Jan. Now, the same is to be corrected.

Umera Habib M/o Fatima Younis R/o Batamaloo, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4524 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

General public through the medium of this Notice is informed that my actual/real name is Bandhna Devi and inadvertently it has been written as Bandhana Devi on my Aadhaar Card No. 6649 1049 3888. Now, I am applying for the name correction of my Aadhaar Card.

Bandhna Devi R/o Ind Gool, Ramban, (J&K) PIN-182144.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4526 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in the Aadhaar records as Shubeena Akther instead of Shabeena Akhter. My DoB is also incorrectly recorded as 14-04-2002 instead of 10-04-2002. Now, I am now applying for the correction of the same.

Shabeena Akhter D/o Mohammad Qasim Dar (Gojar) R/o Pindobal Devalgam, Kokernag, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to the general public that my name has been wrongly written in Aadhaar records as Kulsuma Banoo instead of Kulsoom Akhter and also DoB is wrongly written as 18-07-1986 instead of 25-01-1983. Now, I am apply for its correction of the same.

Kulsoom Akhter W/o Mohd Ashraf Dar R/o Pindobal, Devalgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4527

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my ward issued vide No. 9678 4210 2829, her name has been enrolled as Tabasum instead of Taqwah Aziz. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Abdul Aziz Guroo F/o Taqwah Aziz R/o Padshahi Bagh Kursoo, Sriangar, Jammu and Kashmir-190008.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is an information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2567 8270 2804, my name, Parentage and Address has been mentioned as Shaheena Bano D/o Abdul Aziz Malla R/o Arin Dardpora. Now, I want to apply for change my name, parentage and address, because of my marriage in other Area and as per my Domicile Certificate as Shamima Begum W/o Tanveer Ahmad Malik R/o Chithay Bandi, Bandipora.

Shamima Begum W/o Tanveer Ahmad Malik R/o Chithay Bandi, Tehsil & District Bandipora, Jammu and Kashmir, India, Pin Code-193502.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4528 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar as Jawahira Bano while as my actual name is Jawahara Bano C/o Mohmmad Abdullah Lone R/o Lashtiyal Kalaroose, District Kupwara-193222. Now I want to apply for the correction of the same.

Jawahara Bano C/o Mohmmad Abdullah Lone R/o Lashtiyal Kalaroose, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is notified for the information of the general public that my name in my Aadhaar Card has been wrongly entered as Jahangir Ahmed Bhat while my correct Name is Jehangir Ahmad Bhat. Now, I want the same to be corrected.

Jehangir Ahmad Bhat S/o Bashir Ahmed Bhat R/o Panchpora Bijbehara, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4529

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar as Asma Jan while as my actual name is Asmat Jaan C/o Ghulam Mohiudin Bhat R/o Tarathpora, Kupwara, District Kupwara-193224. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same.

Asmat Jaan C/o Ghulam Mohiudin Bhat R/o Tarathpora, Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Jeet Kumar S/o Neel Kanth R/o Kathar, Tehsil Mehra Mandrian, District Jammu have applied for the correction of mother's name which has been wrongly written as Jyoti Devi instead of correct name Jeeto Devi in the manual birth certificate of my daughter namely Hemani Sharma whose DoB is 29-10-2015 registered vide Regn. No. 1906 dated 16-11- 2015 and issuance of new digital (computerised) birth certificate in her favour. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4530 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Gursimran Kour (new name) previously known as Ganeshi Devi (old name) DoB-02-06-1989 D/o Kartar Singh R/o Pinger Bainsta, Udhampur, Pincode-182126 have applied for the change/update of my name from Ganeshi Devi to Gursimran Kour in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9255 8838 5202. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4534 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohamed Rafiq S/o Saain Khan R/o Manial, Tehsil Thanamandi, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name & my father's name which is wrongly written as Mohd Rafiq S/o Sain Khan instead of correct Mohamed Rafiq S/o Saain Khan in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8854 2307 1896. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4536 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhaar Card of my ward issued vide No. 7550 5923 7612, his name has been enrolled as Mohammad Ziyan instead of Ahmad Shafi Dar. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Ahmad Shafi Dar C/o Mohammad Shafi Dar R/o Mallapora Rainawari, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir-190003.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In the Aadhar Card vide Aadhar No. 3901 8243 4122, my name has been enrolled as Kasir Ahmad Rather instead of Kaiser Ahmad Rather. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Kaiser Ahmad Rather S/o Manzoor Ahmad Rather R/o Rukh Gund Macher, District Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4537

NOTIFICATION

My wards name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5886 2305 7462 as Sumair Ahmad Dar instead of Sameer Ahmad Dar. Now, I want its correction.

Nazir Ahmad Dar F/o Sameer Ahmad Dar R/o Surasyar Chadoora, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar card vide No. 7962 5533 3544 as Ahmer Mushtaq instead of Ahmer Mushtaq Khan. Therefore, I want to correct my name in Aadhaar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4538 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card vide No. 4146 9642 1965 as Firdous Ahmad Zia instead of Firdoos Ahmed Zai. Therefore, I want to correct my name in Aadhaar.

Firdoos Ahmed Zai R/o Budshah Nagar, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9915 2841 3658. Now, I want to change my name from Shakur Ali (old name) to Sukur Ali (new name).

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4539

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhar Card vide No. 7503 6791 6238 as Rahmi Bano instead of Rehmat. Therefore, I want to correct my name in Aadhaar.

Rehmat D/o Ismai Ganie R/o Alamdar Colony Bogam, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2414 5093 5665 my name is recorded as Mohammad Yaqoob Zeengar while as my correct name is Mohd Yaqoob Zeengar. Now the same is to corrected.

Mohd Yaqoob Zeengar D/o Abdul Rehman Zeengar R/o Abu Bakar Colony Bemina, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4540 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Momen Zahoor Lone S/o Zahoor Ahmad Lone R/o Chotipora, Achabal, Sopore, District Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir, state that my name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8647 2436 1584 as Momin Zahoor instead of my correct name, Momen Zahoor Lone. Now, I intend to apply for correction of my name in the Aadhaar records to reflect my correct name as Momen Zahoor Lone.

Momen Zahoor Lone S/o Zahoor Ahmad Lone R/o Chotipora, Achabal, Sopore, District Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

NOTIFICATION

I, Reeta Devi W/o Doulat Ram R/o Village Pukharni, Tehsil Kharah Balli, District Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Reeta Sharma instead of correct Reeta Devi in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4941-0716-3779. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4543

NOTIFICATION

I, Shagufta Bano W/o Abrar Ahmed R/o Gool, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Aidah Abrar instead of correct Ahida Abrar in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9943 8540 9296. Now, it need correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Bilo Devi W/o Bansi Lal R/o Lower Dalwah, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban, am applying for correction of the names of my children which are wrongly written/recorded in their Aadhaar Cards as Manget Ram (incorrect) instead of the correct name Mangat Ram bearing Aadhaar No. 3481 9955 0571, Raksh Kumar (incorrect) instead of the correct name Rakesh Kumar bearing Aadhaar No. 7646 4800 2280, and Rachana Devi (incorrect) instead of the correct name Rachna Devi bearing Aadhaar No. 4948 3146 8753, and in all other official records/documents, wherever applicable. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4544 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Aslam S/o Mohd Shafi R/o Jabra, Mahakund, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Mohd Sajeed instead of correct Mohd Sajjad in his Aadhaar card bearing No. 7028 8081 7166. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Abdul Majid S/o Abdul Hamid R/o Gundi Dharam, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Shahira Bano instead of correct Saira Bano in her Aadhaar card bearing No. 8083 1636 1124. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4545

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Arif S/o Mehrak Shah R/o Gagarsullah, Gundi, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Sayed Burhan instead of correct Syed Burhan in his Aadhaar card bearing No. 3709 0624 6895. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Zabbi S/o Hassan Mohd R/o Village Rajnagar, Tehsil Kotranka (Budhal), District Rajouri, applying for correction of my daughter's name which are wrongly written as Shamyia Kosser D/o Mohd Mushtaq instead of correct Shamyla Kousser D/o Mohd Zabbi in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3000 3020 4074. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4546 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Tasmeen Begum W/o Mohd Bashir R/o Gulabpura, Tehsil Chassana, District Reasi, applying for correction of my name and DoB which are wrongly written as Taso Begum & DoB 14-06-1988 instead of correct Tasmeen Begum & DoB 03-04-1992 in State Bank of India Branch Budhal. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I Pawan Kumar S/o Charan Dass R/o Village Daruie, Tehsil & District Samba. The correct name of my son is Vipan Sharma which has been wrongly written as Vipin Sharma in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2575 3871 8289. Now I am applying for the necessary correction in the name.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4547

NOTIFICATION

L, Premilla Sharma W/o Alyat Chand Sharma R/o Bhandera Kuntwara, Tehsil Drabshalla, District Kishtwar applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Isha Sharma instead of correct name Esha Sharma in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4580-3073-3265 and another daughter's name wrongly written as Nandika Sharma instead of correct Prakriti Sharma in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7305-1779-4878. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shabina Jameel Mir D/o Mohd Amin Mir R/o Degwar Tarwan, Tehsil Haveli, District Poonch applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Shobina Jameel Mir instead of correct Shabina Jameel Mir in Aadhaar card. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4548 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sunny Sharma S/o Ashok Kumar R/o Seiya, Tehsil Sundar Bani, District Rajouri applying for correction of my name and DoB which are wrongly written as Sunney Kumar & DoB 19-07-2008 instead of correct Sunny Sharma & DoB 28-05-2009 in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8695- 1002-8775. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Yudhvir Singh S/o Krishan Lal R/o Balihote Tehsil & District Ramban applying for correction of my name and my father name which are wrongly written as Youdhveer Singh S/o Krishan Singh instead of correct name Yudhvir Singh S/o Krishan Lal in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9786-5776-0154. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4549

NOTIFICATION

I, Yash Paul S/o Prem Chand R/o Salyote, Tehsil Chowkichoura, District Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Yashpal instead of correct Yash Paul in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4963-5115-1294. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nilam Kumari W/o Bodh Raj R/o Chak Qadre, Bishnah, District Jammu applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Neelam Kumari instead of correct Nilam Kumari in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3720-6618-1830. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4550 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Shakeela Begum W/o Maneer Ahmed R/o Village Tanta, Tehsil Kahara, District Doda applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Shakila Begum instead of correct name Shakeela Begum in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8085-0919-9201. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

4552 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

It is for the information of general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned as Ruqia Habib C/o Habib U Llah Bhat R/o Naidoori, Nowshera, Srinagar, instead of Ruqaya Habib C/o Habib U Llah Bhat R/o Naidoori, Nowshera, Srinagar in my Aadhaar Card under No. 3099 1332 3792. Now, the same needs to be rectified.

Ruqaya Habib C/o Habib U Llah Bhat R/o Naidoori, Nowshera, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Ashiq Ahmad Ganie S/o Abdul Majeed Ganie to (new name) Ashiq Ahmad Ganayi S/o Ab Majid Ganayi. In future, I will be known as (new name) Ashiq Ahmad Ganayi S/o Ab Majid Ganayi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4553

NOTIFICATION

I, Sayed Wassim Ahmed Bihaqi S/o Sayed Irshad Ahmed Bihaqi R/o House No. 17, Behind Police Headquarters, Noorani Colony, Peerbagh, Srinagar, intend to correct my name in my DGCA Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Ligence No. 9701 from Syed Waseem Ahmed Bihaqi to Sayed Wassim Ahmed Bihaqi as per my Aadhaar Card, PAN Card and Passport. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Sayed Wassim Ahmed Bihaqi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is hereby notified for the information of the general public that due to an inadvertent error in the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6937 9004 7274, the name my ward is incorrectly recorded. The incorrect details are Fawaad Firdous Bhat (incorrect) instead of correct name Muhammad Saalim. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

Firdous Ahmad Bhat F/o Muhammad Saalim R/o Batapora Near Jamia Masjid Bugam Batapora, Sub district Chadura, District Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4554 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I intend to correct my name and DoB in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7709 0273 5721 from Rimsha Tajamul, DoB 03-03-2003, to Veeva Tajamul, DoB 07-03-2005, as per my Date of Birth Certificate. Now, I want the correction of the same

Veeva Tajamul D/o Tajamul Hussain R/o Lasjan, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sharief Din S/o Roshan Din R/o Arbais, Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi. In Aadhaar Card of my child in which his name was wrongly written as Mudasar Hussain S/o Sharif Din instead of Mudassir Hussain S/o Sharief Din. Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4555

NOTIFICATION

I, Rattano Devi W/o Nasib Singh R/o Pallanwala, PO Pallanwala, Tehsil Khour, District Jammu have applied for the correction of my name which has been wrongly written as Ratno Devi instead of correct name Rattano Devi in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6052 5482 7656. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Avishake Singh Jamwal S/o Sh Balwan Singh Jamwal R/o H.No. 13-B, Old Gurha Bakshi Nagar, Jammu, J&K UT-180001 declare that my name & DoB has been wrongly written as Abhishek Jamwal and 16-02-1987 in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7841-2366-1753 instead of my correct name and DoB is Avishake Singh Jamwal and 16-02-1985 as per Passport. Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4559

NOTIFICATION

I, Kounsar Amin W/o Showkat Ahmad Zarger R/o Sector-8, Lane-4, Iqbal Abad, Bemina, Srinagar, J&K, state that my name and DoB have been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar Card No. 4988 1872 1593 as Kousar Showkat DoB 04-03-1972. My correct particulars, as per my Matriculation Certificate and other supporting documents, are correct name Kounsar Amin correct DoB 07-02-1972. Now, I want its correction. Kounsar Amin W/o Showkat Ahmad Zarger R/o Sector-8 Lane-4, Iqbal Abad, Bemina, Srinagar, J&K.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I hereby apply for correction of my Aadhaar Card bearing Nо. 2289 5703 0879 from Ghlum Mohammad Bhat to Gh Mohd Bhat, father's name Sanaullah Bhat to Sonaullah Bhat. Now, it needs correction.

Gh Mohd bhat S/o Sonaullah Bhat R/o Krumhoora Handwara, Kupwara, Jammu and Kashmir-193221.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4560 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

In my Service Book my name has been mentioned as Farooq Ahamad Shah and father's name as Kh. Abdul Majed Shah. While as my correct name is Farooq Ahmad and father's correct name is Kh. Abdul Majeed Shah. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my Service Book.

Farooq Ahmad S/o Kh. Abdul Majeed Shah R/o Tral-i-bala, District Pulwama, Pin-192123, Ph. 9906463500.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Abdul Qayoom Sofi to (new name) Ab Qayoom Sofi. In future, I will be known as (new name) Ab Qayoom Sofi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4561

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name/parentage in my Aadhaar bearing No. 6767 6017 5262 from Surayya D/o Ghulam Mohammad Mattoo to Suriya Jan D/o Ghulam Mohmad Mattoo as per my documents. Now, correction is needed.

Suriya Jan D/o Ghulam Mohmad mattoo R/o Bagiyas Chattabal, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Bhushan Lal S/o Sh Joginder Paul R/o Village Dager, Tehsil Akhnoor, now Kharah Balli, District Jammu, J&K UT, Pin Code-185154, do hereby declare that I have changed my name from Bhushan Lal to Rahul Sharma. Now, I Shall be known/Identified by name Rahul Sharma for all, Purposes, Including Educational records, Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8600 1108 4461, PAN Card, Passport, Voter ID, Driving Licence, Bank Records and all other Government and Private Documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4562 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I, Sanjay Bhat S/o Piyara Lal Bhat R/o Adarsh Colony, Pant Road, Subashnagar, Clementtown, Dehradun, Uttarakhand-248002 R/o at present State Bank Colony Talab Tillo, Jammu, UT of J&K, India applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Sanjay Bhatt S/o Pyare Lal Bhatt instead of correct name Sanjay Bhat S/o Piyara Lal Bhat in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7826 0502 0235. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mrs Agiya Suden W/o Ajaib Singh R/o New Bhanteen, Railway Patri, Makhanpur Gujjran, PO Miran Sahib, Tehsil R.S. Pura, District Jammu, state that my name has been wrongly written in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6471 5420 1796 as Agya Kour instead of Agiya Suden. Henceforth, I shall be known and called by the name Agiya Suden for all purposes. This change has been made to maintain uniformity with my husband's service records and other official documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. 4563

NOTIFICATION

I, Sham Kumar F/o Akshara Mahajan R/o Garhi, Tehsil & District Udhampur (JK UT) inform that my daughter namely Akshara Mahajan studying in 12th class in K. V. No. 1, Udhampur, Admission No. 34711 but in her school records her father name (my name) has been wrongly entered as Shyam Kumar instead of correct name is Sham Kumar. Now, I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Nazeer Ahmed S/o Mohd Hussain here by declare that my name has been wrongly written as Nazir Ahmed instead of Nazeer Ahmed (correct name) and date of birth as 29-12-1974 instead of 25-05-1974 (correct date of birth) in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4730 2157 2514. Now, it needs correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

4564 The J&K Official Gazette, the 30th July, 2026/8th Srav., 1948. [No. 18

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 2841 6629 5045 from Mohammad Shaheen Sheikh S/o Mohammad Sultan Sheikh to Shaheen Ahmad Sheikh S/o Mohammad Sultan Sheikh. Now, I am applying for the correction.

Shaheen Ahmad Sheikh S/o Mohammad Sultan Sheikh R/o Mukdam Mohallah Sozeth Gori Pora, Beerwah.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Notification

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Jammu, Friday, the 17th April, 2026/27th Chai., 1948. [No. 4-c

PART III

Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—DEPARTMENT OF LAW JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS JAMMU/SRINAGAR.

Notification

Jammu, the 17th of April, 2026.

SO. 118.—In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 40 of the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 (Central Act of 2009), the Lieutenant Governor, Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir has been pleased to make the following rules, namely :—

1. Short title and commencement,—(i) These rules may be called the "Jammu and Kashmir Gram Nyayalayas (Conditions of Service of Officers and Staff) Rules, 2026".

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 17th April, 2026/27th Chai., 1948. [No. 4-c

(ii) These rules shall come into force from the date of their publication in the Government Gazette.

2. Definitions.—In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "Act" means Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008.

(b) "Administrator" means the Lieutenant Governor of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir appointed by President under Article 239 of the Constitution.

(d) "Government" means the Government of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

(e) "High Court" means the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh ;

(f) "Words and expressions" used but not defined in these rules shall have the same meaning as assigned to them in the Act.

3. Terms and Conditions of service of the Nyayadhikari.— Subject to the provisions of section 6 of the Act, the posts of Nyayadhikaris shall be filled by deputation from amongst the category of Munsiff/Civil Judge (Junior Division) in the Jammu and Kashmir Civil Service (Judicial).

4. Salaries and Allowances and other terms and conditions of Officers and other employees of the Gram Nyayalaya.—(i) The details of the staff as provided by the Government in terms of Section 17 of the Act are as given in the Schedule appended hereto.

(ii) The salary and allowances of the staff as detailed in the Schedule shall be such as applicable to equivalent posts governed by Jammu and Kashmir Ministerial Staff of the Subordinate Courts (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 2016.

(iii) The services of the Staff shall be governed by the provisions of Jammu and Kashmir Ministerial Staff of the Subordinate Courts (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 2016. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh shall make amendments to the Rules accordingly.

No. 4-c] The J&K Official Gazette, the 17th April, 2026/27th Chai., 1948. 3

5. Terms and conditions for engagement of the Conciliator.—

(i) The terms and conditions of the Conciliator shall be as follows :—

(a) The Conciliator shall be engaged for a period of three years and shall be eligible for re-engagement on expiry of term;

(b) The Conciliator shall keep the Nyayadhikari informed in advance of the duration of leave of his absence;

(c) Ordinarily, the Conciliator shall not remain absent on the date of sitting fixed by the Nyayadhikari unless the leave of absence is granted by the Nyayadhikari;

(d) The Conciliator shall submit a Memorandum setting out the facts and the terms on which parties desire to settle the dispute amicably.

(ii) The Conciliator shall be entitled to such sitting fee for each day of sitting and the travelling allowance for taking to and fro journey to the place of sitting as may be prescribed by the Government in consultation with High Court.

———

4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 17th April, 2026/27th Chai., 1948. [No. 4-c

SCHEDULE


S. No.	Name of the Post	Pay Level		No. of Posts for one Gram Nyayalaya	No. of Posts for 22 Gram Nyayalayas

		Pre- Revised (Pay Band + GP)	Revised

1.	Nazir (HA)	9300-34800 +4200	Level-6 (35400- 112400)	01	22

2.	Steno Typist	5200-20200 +2400	Level-4 (25500-81100)	01	22
3.	Civil/Criminal	5200-20200 +1900	Level-2	01	22
	Clerk		(19900-63200)
4.	Orderly	4440-7440 +1300	SL-1 (14800-	01	22
			47100)
		** These posts have been created vide Government Order No. 3589-

LD (A) of 2014 Dated 14-10-2014.

By Order of Lieutenant Governor.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Jammu, Friday, the 24th April, 2026/4th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 5-a

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— GENERAL ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Jammu, the 24th of April, 2026.

1	Salary	Last pay drawn at the time of his retirement from the earlier service less by the amount
		of the pension, including commuted value thereof, plus D.A as applicable.

2	Tenure of appointment	He shall hold office for a period of five (05) years from the date on which he enters his office or till he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier : Provided that the State Election Commissioner, may at any time, by writing under his hand, addressed to the Lieutenant Governor resign from his office or he may be removed in the manner provided In section 36B of the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989.
3	Travelling	As was admissible to him at the time of his
	Allowance	retirement from the previous service.
4	Residential	As was admissible to him at the time of his
	Accommodation	retirement from the previous service.
5	Medical Facilities	As was admissible to him at the time of his
		retirement from the previous service.
6	Leave	As was admissible to him at the time of his
		retirement from the previous service. The power to grant or refuse leave to the State Election Commissioner and to revoke or curtail leave granted to him shall vest in the Lieutenant Governor.
7	Telephone	As was admissible to him at the time of his
	Charges	retirement from the previous service.
	By order of the Lieutenant Governor.

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 24th April, 2026/4th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 5-a

Sd/- M. RAJU, IAS, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Jammu, Mon., the 27th April, 2026/7th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 5-b

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—DEPARTMENT OF LAW JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS SRINAGAR/JAMMU.

(Power Section)

Notification

Jammu, the 27th of April, 2026.

S.O. 123.–In exercise of the powers conferred under sub-section (1) of section14 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Government hereby appoints Lt. Col. Amit Sharma to be the Executive Magistrate, who shall exercise all the powers of an Executive Magistrate within the limits of Jammu Cantonment.

By Order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Jammu, Wed., the 29th April, 2026/9th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 5-d

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—TRANSPORT DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Jammu, the 29th of April, 2026.

S.O. 126.—In exercise of powers conferred by sub-section (1) of section 67 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (Central Act No. 59 of 1988), and in partial modification of notification SRO-97 dated 19th March, 2021, the Government of Jammu and Kashmir hereby directs the Transport Commissioner, J&K to fix the maximum chargeable fare in respect of following types of commercial passenger vehicles as per the percentage of fare hike (over and above the rates as notified vide2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 29th April, 2026/9th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 5-d notification SRO-97 dated 19th March, 2021) shown against each category :—


S. No.	Type of Vehicle	Fare Hike %

I	Big Buses (Stage Carriages)	18%

II	Medium/Mini Buses (Stage Carriages)	18%

III	Taxi/Maxi Cab (Base Model Contract Carriages like; Sumo, Bolero, Tata Indica, Swift, Tata Winger, Tempo Traveller etc.)	18%
IV	Taxi/Maxi Cab (Medium segment tourist	18%
	Taxi/Maxi Cab contract carriages like, Tavera, Scorpio, Quails, Xylo etc).
V	Taxi/Maxi Cab (Premium Class Tourist	18%
	Taxi/Maxi cab contract carriages like, Innova, Fortuner etc).
VI	Auto Rickshaw (Petrol Version)	18%

VII	Stage Carriages viz. Tata Magic (Auto)	18%
	Provided that, the fare in respect of E-rickshaws and E-autos in the

Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall be fixed as under :

₹15/- per kilometre.

• E-rickshaws : • E-autos : ₹25/- for the first kilometre and ₹20/- for each subsequent kilometre.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/-

DR. PIYUSH SINGLA, IAS, Secretary to the Government, Transport Department.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Mon., the 4th May, 2026/14th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 6-c

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Srinagar, the 4th of May, 2026.

S.O. 132.—Whereas, on 07.08.2025, the Police Station, Vilgam, received a reliable information to the effect that a suspect identified as Umer Mohi-ud-din S/o Ghulam Mohi-ud-din Malik R/o Punzwa, Vilgam, is sharing objectionable contents with the general public through social media platform with the intention to create terror among the general public and to disrupt the peace in the area, which poses threat to sovereignty and integrity of India ; and

2. Whereas, on receipt of information, a FIR No. 50/2025 U/S 152 BNS, came to be registered in the Police Station, Vilgam, and the investigation, of the case was set into motion ; and2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 4th May, 2026/14th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 6-c 3. Whereas, during the investigation, the accused viz. Umer Mohi- ud-din, was arrested in the case, and during the investigation, some incriminatory material shared by the accused on the social media platform was seized/retrieved from his mobile phone; and

4. Whereas, during the course of investigation, the statements of witnesses acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case were recorded; and

5. Whereas, the investigation, conducted by the investigating agency has prime facie established that the accused viz. Umer Mohi-ud-din, was using the Facebook Account user ID "UmEr Malik" and knowingly uploaded objectionable contents and photographs of some killed terrorists on his Facebook Account, thereby endangering the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India; and

6. Whereas, on the basis of investigation, statement of witnesses recorded and other evidence collected, the Investigating Officer has established prima facie involvement of below mentioned accused for the commission of offences punishable under section as shown against his name of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 :—

S.	Name of the accused	Offence
No.
	Umer Mohi ud din S/o	Ghulam 152
	Mohi-ud-din Malik R/o Punzwa, Vilgam.	BNS
	7. Whereas, the Government has independently examined the Case

7. Whereas, the Government has independently examined the Case Diary file and all the other relevant documents relating to the case and has come to the conclusion that prima facie case is made out against the above accused under the aforementioned provisions of BNS;

Now, therefore, in terms of Section 217 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Government accord sanction for launching prosecution against the accused viz. Umer Mohi-ud-din, for the commission of offence punishable under Section 152 Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, arising out of FIR No. 50/2025 of Police Station, Vilgam.

By order of the Lieutenant Governor, J&K.

Sd/-

CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS, Principal Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 7th May, 2026/17th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 6-d

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT DEPARTMENT, JAMMU/SRINAGAR

Notification

Srinagar, the 7th of May, 2026.

SO. 133.—Whereas, Section 427 of the Jammu and Kashmir Municipal Corporation Act, 2000, provides as under :—

"427. Power to remove difficulties.—If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act or by reasons of anything contained in this Act to any other enactment for the time being in force, the Government may, as occasion requires, by order direct that this Act shall during such period as many be specified in the order but not extending beyond the expiry of two years from the commencement orders have effect subject to such adaptations2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 7th May, 2026/17th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 6-d whether by way of modification addition or omission as it may deem to be necessary and expedient."

Whereas, Section 395 read with 397 of the Jammu and Kashmir Municipal Corporation Act, 2000 provides for powers of the Corporation to make Bye laws, subject to the approval of the Government. These provisions provide as under :

"395. Powers to make bye-laws.—Subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules made there under, the Corporation may in addition to any bye-laws which it is empowered to make under any other provision of this Act make bye-laws to provide for all or any of the following matters, namely :—

A. Bye-laws relating to water supply.

B. Bye-laws relating to drainage and sewerage.

C. Bye-laws relating to streets.

D. Bye-laws relating to building.

E. Bye-laws relating to sanitation and public health.

F. Bye-laws relating to public safety and suppression of nuisances.

G. Bye-laws relating to markets, slaughter houses, trades and occupations.

H. Bye-laws relating to improvement.

I. Bye-laws relating to miscellaneous matters.

"397. Supplemental provisions respecting bye-laws.—(1) Any power to make bye-laws conferred by this Act is conferred subject to the conditions of the bye-laws being made after previous publication and their not taking effect until they have been approved by the Government and published in the Government Gazette.

(2) The Government in approving a bye-law may make any change therein which appears to it to be necessary.

(3) The Government may, after previous publication of its intention, cancel any bye-laws which it has approved and thereupon the bye law shall cease to have effect.

No. 6-d] The J&K Official Gazette, the 7th May, 2026/17th Vaisa., 1948. 3

Whereas, the Municipal Corporations, Srinagar/Jammu with the approval of the Government have already notified the Jammu and Kashmir Unified Building Bye laws, 2021. There is an urgency to amend said bye laws to make them more people friendly and to ensure that these bye laws serve the purpose for which these have been notified. The term of Municipal Corporations, Srinagar/Jammu stands expired and as on today there no authority to exercise powers of these corporations. As such, in absence of elected Municipal Corporations a difficulty has arisen for taking appropriate necessary steps for amending the said bye-laws.

Now Therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred under Section 427 of the Jammu and Kashmir Municipal Corporation Act, 2000, the Government hereby makes the following order ; namely :—

1. Short title and commencement.—(1) This order may be called the Jammu and Kashmir Municipal Corporation (Removal of Difficulties) Order, 2026.

(2) It shall come into force immediately and shall remain in force for a period of two years or till it is revoked by the Government, whichever is earlier.

2. Removal of Difficulties.—The difficulties arisen on account of expiry of the term of Municipal Corporations i.e. Srinagar Municipal Corporation and Jammu Municipal Corporation and in giving effect to section 395 and section 397 of the Jammu and Kashmir Municipal Corporation Act, 2000 are hereby removed by authorizing the Government to amend the Jammu and Kashmir Unified Building Bye-laws, 2021 issued in terms of section 395 or section 397 of the ibid Act from the time, the term of Municipal Corporations has expired and any amendment made or any action taken by the Government after the expiry of the term of the aforesaid Corporations shall be deemed to have been issued by the Corporations itself. This power is to be exercised subject to ratification by the Municipal Corporations subsequently.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/- Mandeep Kaur, IAS, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Fri., the 8th May, 2026/18th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-a

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— SOCIAL WELFARE DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Srinagar, the 8th of May, 2026.

S.O. 136.—In exercise of powers conferred under Rule 87 (1) of the Jammu & Kashmir Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Rules, 2021, the Government hereby constitutes the Selection-cum- oversight Committee, with the following composition :—

S. No.	Name	Status

1.	Justice Puneet Gupta, Former Judge, High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and	Chairperson
	Ladakh.

2.	Mission Director, Mission Vatsalya, J&K	Ex-officio Member Secretary

3.	Dr. Shabnam Ara, Associate Professor, Sociology, Amar Singh College, Srinagar.	Member
4.	Professor Manisha Kohli,	Member
	Principal Government Degree College, Kunjwani, Jammu.
5.	Ms. Simran Kour,	Member
	Peace Educator and Social Activist
6.	A representative of the UT Commission	Member
	for Protection of Child Rights (as and when constituted)

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 8th May, 2026/18th Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-a

1. The tenure of the Committee shall be three years.

2. The quorum for the meeting of the Selection Committee shall not be less than four Members, including the Chairperson and the Member Secretary.

3. The Committee shall perform such functions and in such manner as may be prescribed in the rules.

By order of the Hon'ble Lieutenant Governor.

Sd/- SARMAD HAFEEZ, IAS, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government, Social Welfare Department.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Wed., the 13th May, 2026/23rd Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-b

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— DEPARTMENT OF LAW, JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS, SRINAGAR/JAMMU.

(Power Section)

Notification

Srinagar, the 13th of May, 2026.

S.O. 138.—In exercise of the powers conferred under sub-section (1) of Section 14 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Government hereby appoints below mentioned Officers to be the Executive Magistrate, who shall exercise all the powers of an Executive Magistrate within their territorial jurisdiction of District Jammu.

S. No.	Name	Designation	Jurisdiction
1	Ms. Indu Sakshi	Tehsildar	Migrant Camps,
			Jammu.
2	Ms. Namrita Bhan	Tehsildar



3	Sh. Shehzad Latief Khan	Tehsildar

4	Ms. Bharti	AE

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 13th May, 2026/23rd Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-b

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Wed., the 13th May, 2026/23rd Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-c

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR

CIVIL SECRETARIAT— DEPARTMENT OF LAW, JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS, SRINAGAR/JAMMU.

Notification

Srinagar, the 13th of May, 2026.

S.O. 139.—In exercise of powers conferred by section 3 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (Central Act) and in partial modification of notification S.O. 297 of 2025 dated 20-11-2025, the Government hereby appoints the following Judicial Officers as Special Judges, Anti-Corruption for trial of offences specified in section 4 of2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 13th May, 2026/23rd Vaisa., 1948. [No. 7-c the said Act within their respective territorial jurisdiction shown against each :—


S. No.	Name of the Judicial Officer S/Shri	Place of Posting/Jurisdiction

1	Mir Wajahat	Additional District and Sessions Judge, Bandipora (Designated Special Court under the Prevention of Corruption Act).
2	Tasleem Arief, Special	Additional District and Sessions
	Judge Anti Corruption, Srinagar.	Judge, Anti Corruption, Srinagar.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK—33

THE

JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICIAL GAZETTE

———————————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Wed., the 20th May, 2026/30th Vai., 1948. [No. 8-d ———————————————————————————————————— Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed as a separate compilation. ————————————————————————————————————

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

————

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT, SRINAGAR/ JAMMU.

Notification

Srinagar, 20th of May, 2026.

SO-144.—In exercise of the powers conferred under Section 2 (1) (u) of the

By order of the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/-

CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS, Principal Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 21st May, 2026/31st Vaisa., 1948. [No. 8-a

PART III

Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—TRANSPORT DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Srinagar, the 21st May, 2026.

S.O. 145.—In exercise of the powers conferred by the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution of India, sanction is hereby accorded to carrying out the following amendments in the Jammu and Kashmir Motor Vehicles Department (Subordinate) Service Recruitment Rules, 2020 :

(i) In Schedule-I and Schedule-II (Ministerial Cadre), for the words, "Orderly" and "Chowkidar" wherever appearing, the2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 21st May, 2026/31st Vaisa., 1948. [No. 8-a words "Multitasking Staff (MTS)" shall be substituted respectively ;

(ii) In Schedule-I and Schedule-II (Ministerial Cadre), for the words, "Traffic Orderly" wherever appearing, the words "Traffic MTS" shall be substituted.

By order of the Lieutenant Governor.

Sd/-

AVNY LAVASA, IAS, Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 21st May, 2026/31st Vaisa., 1948. [No. 8-b

PART III

Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— HEALTH AND MEDICAL EDUCATION DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Srinagar, the 21st May, 2026.

S.O. 146.—In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 2 of the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, and in the interest of public health surveillance, epidemiological assessment, treatment planning and formulation of evidence- based health policy, the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir hereby declares "Cancer" as a "Notifiable Disease" throughout the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Accordingly, it is hereby ordered that :

1. Applicability.—The provisions of this notification shall apply to the following institutions/entities within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir :—

a. All Government, autonomous, private, cooperative and institutional hospitals, including Medical College2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 21st May, 2026/31st Vaisa., 1948. [No. 8-b Hospitals, ESI Hospitals, AIIMS, Railway Hospitals, Industrial Hospitals, Military Hospitals and any other hospitals providing healthcare services;

b. Private clinics, nursing homes, hospices and all establishments providing cancer diagnosis, treatment or palliative care;

c. AYUSH hospitals/institutions providing cancer-related treatment/care;

d. Non-Governmental Organizations and Insurance Companies (Government/Private), wherever maintaining treatment/claims data pertaining to cancer patients ; relevant

e. All pathology, histopathology, cytology, molecular diagnostic and radiology/imaging laboratories/centres diagnosing or reporting cancer cases;

f. Registrar of Births and Deaths/Vital Statistics Authorities for furnishing cause-specific mortality data relating to cancer;

g. Any Government or private scheme/programme/ institution collecting or maintaining cancer-related health data.

2. Mandatory Reporting.—Every institution/entity covered under Para 1 shall mandatorily report all diagnosed and/or treated cancer cases in the prescribed format through the notified reporting mechanism.

3. Maintenance of Register.—Each reporting institution/entity shall maintain a dedicated Cancer Register in the prescribed proforma for recording all existing and newly diagnosed cancer cases from the date of issuance of this notification.

4. Role of Chief Medical Officers.—The concerned Chief Medical Officer shall ensure compliance of this notification by all reporting institutions/entities within his/her jurisdiction and monitor timely and accurate submission of cancer-related data.

5. Online Reporting Portal.—

a. A dedicated online portal shall be prepared by the Health and Medical Education for reporting of the cases.

No. 8-b] The J&K Official Gazette, 21st May, 2026/31st Vaisa., 1948. 3

b. All hospitals empanelled under PMJAY-SEHAT Health Scheme shall be auto- registered on the notified Union Territory online portal and provided login credentials for submission of cancer case data;

c. All other reporting institutions/entities shall register on the notified portal for obtaining login credentials and submitting requisite cancer case details.

6. Validation and Scrutiny of Data.—

a. The State Cancer Institute, Government Medical College, Jammu and Sher- i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences, Soura shall function as Centres of Excellence for scrutiny, validation and verification of cancer case data submitted under this notification ;

b. These institutions may requisition additional case- specific information from reporting entities, under intimation to the concerned Chief Medical Officer, wherever required for validation purposes;

c. The Director, Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences, Soura shall be the overall Nodal Officer and shall ensure regular transmission of validated data to the National Cancer Registry Programme maintained by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

7. Confidentiality of Data.—All information collected under this notification shall be treated as strictly confidential and shall be used solely for public health surveillance, epidemiological research, treatment planning, policy formulation and allied governmental purposes. Personally identifiable information shall not be disclosed except in accordance with law. Data shall be securely stored, processed and transmitted.

8. Implementation.—The Director, Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences, Soura; Principal, Government Medical College, Jammu; Director Health Services, Jammu; and Director Health Services, Kashmir shall take necessary steps for effective implementation of this notification.

By order of the Lieutenant Governor.

Sd/-

M. RAJU, IAS, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government, Health & Medical Education Department.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Mon., the 1st June, 2026/11th Jyai., 1948. [No. 10-a

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— DEPARTMENT OF LAW, JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS, SRINAGAR/JAMMU.

(Power Section)

Notification

Srinagar, the 1st June, 2026.

sub-section (1) of section 14 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Government hereby appoints Sh. Raj Kumar, Naib Tehsildar Niabat Keerian Gandyal, Tehsil Kathua to be the Executive Magistrate, who shall exercise all the powers of an Executive Magistrate within his territorial jurisdiction of District Kathua.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Tue., the 2nd June, 2026/12th Jyai., 1948. [No. 10-b

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT— DEPARTMENT OF LAW, JUSTICE AND PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS, SRINAGAR/JAMMU.

(Power Section)

Notification

Srinagar, the 2nd June, 2026.

sub-section (1) of Section 14 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023,the Government hereby appoints the officers as annexed in Annexure "A" to be the Executive Magistrate(s), who shall exercise all the powers of an Executive Magistrate within their respective territorial jurisdictions of District Pulwama in view of SANJY-2026.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/- ACHAL SETHI, Commissioner/Secretary to the Government.

———

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 2nd June, 2026/12th Jyai., 1948. [No. 10-b

Annexure 'A' to S.O. 151 of 2026 dated 02-06-2026.


S. No.	Name of the Officer	Designation	Place of Posting

1.	Mr. Sartaj id ul Amin	Horticulture Dev. Officer Tral	Horticulture Department Pulwama

2.	Mr. Gowhar Ahmad Dar	Horticulture Dev. Officer Hariparigam

3.	Mr. Mohammad Manzoor Guroo	Horticulture Dev. Officer Shadimarg

4.	Mr. Manzoor Ahmad Najar	Horticulture Dev. Officer Litter
5.	Dr Gulam Jeelani Ganai	Technical Officer to DSHO	Sheep
		Pulwama	Husbandry Department
6.	Mr. Arsheed Hussain Mir	I/C Agriculture Extension
		Officer Abhama	Agriculture Department Pulwama
7.	Mr. Khursheed Ahmad	I/c Agriculture Extension
	Mir	Officer Shadimarg
8.	Mr. Showket Ahmad	Agriculture Extension Officer
	Rather	Newa
9.		Mr. Syed Tawseef Ahmad Agriculture Extension Officer
		Kakapora
	10. Mr. Reyaz Ahmad Parra	I/c Agriculture Extension
		Officer Hawl
11. Mr. Feroz Ahmad		I/c Agriculture Extension
		Officer Khaigam
	12. Mr. Mohammad Yaqoob Mir	Agriculture Extension Officer Tral

	13. Mr. Mir Ashiq Hussain	I/c Agriculture Extension Officer Pampore

	14. Mr. Ashiq Ahmad Lone	I/c Agriculture Extension Officer Lurgam

	15. Mr. Sawlat Ahmad Bhat	AHTO Crewel ETC Chakoora

	16. Mr. Khalid Hussain Bhat	AHTO Chain Stitch ETC Gulabbagh
	17. Mr. Sajad Ahmad Ganaie	AHTO Wood Carving ETC Looswani
	18. Mr. Mohd Ashraf Mir	AHTO Wood Carving ETC Kakpora


	19. Mr. Parvaiz Ahmad Parray AHTO Namdha ETC Ladhoo Handicrafts		And Handloom Department Pulwama.

	20. Mr. Shafiq Ahmad Wani	AHTO Spinnning ETC Padgampora

	21. Mr. Mohammad Rafi Butt AHTO Gabba ATC Dusoo

	22. Mr. Rayees Ahmad Kutty	Sericulture Assistant Pahoo	Sericulture Department Pulwama

	23. Mr. Imtiyaz Ah. Mir	Assistant Grading and Marketing Officer	Area Planning and Marketing Department Pulwama
24.	Er. Abdul Ghafoor	Junior Engineer Irrigation	Irrigation
		Sub-Division Marwal	Construction Division Pampore
25.	Er. Imran Ahmad	Assistant Engineer Irrigation
		Sub-Division Marwal

No. 10-b] The J&K Official Gazette, the 2nd June, 2026/12th Jyai., 1948. 3

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK—33

THE

JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICIAL GAZETTE

———————————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Wed., the 3rd June, 2026/13th Jyai., 1948. [No. 10-e ———————————————————————————————————— Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed as a separate compilation. ————————————————————————————————————

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

————

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT, J&K.

Notification

Srinagar, the 3rd of June, 2026.

SO-152.—In exercise of powers conferred under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 read with S.O. No. 2506(E) dated 28.06.2024 of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India and pursuant to the Government Order issued vide No. 68-Home of 2025 dated 29.01.2025, the Government of Jammu and Kashmir hereby establish the District Directorate of Prosecution headed by Deputy Director, Prosecution in each District of the UT of J&K to exercise powers and functions as envisaged under clauses (8), (9) and (10) of section 20 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and such other powers and functions as the Government may assign to it from time to time, till further orders in this behalf.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/-

CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS, Principal Secretary to the Government.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 ———————————————————————————————

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(cid:11)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)

New Delhi, the 16th April, 2025/Chaitra 26, 1947 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 16th April, 2025 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE PROTECTION OF INTERESTS IN AIRCRAFT OBJECTS ACT, 2025

(cid:49)(cid:3464)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:3)(cid:3464)(cid:3455)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)

[16th April,(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:64)

An Act to provide for protection of interests in aircraft objects and to implement the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment and the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) at Cape Town on 16th November, 2001 and for matters connected (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:17)

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-sixth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

1(cid:17) (1) This Act may be called the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Short title and (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17) Act, 2025(cid:17)

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by

(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17) 2(cid:17) (1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "agreement" shall have the meaning assigned to it in Article 1(a) of

the Convention;

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

((cid:69)) "aircraft" shall have the meaning assigned to it in Article I ((cid:21))((cid:68)) of

the Protocol;

((cid:70)) "aircraft objects" shall have the meaning assigned to it in

Article I ((cid:21))((cid:70)) of the Protocol;

((cid:71)) "Article" means an Article of the Convention or the Protocol;

((cid:72)) "Convention" means the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment signed at Cape Town on 16th November, 2001, as set out in the First Schedule to this Act;

((cid:73)) "creditor" shall have the meaning assigned to it in Article 1((cid:76)) of the

Convention;

((cid:74)) "debtor" shall have the meaning assigned to it in Article 1((cid:77)) of the

Convention;

((cid:75)) "declaration" means a declaration made by India under the

Convention or the Protocol, as set out in the Second Schedule to this Act;

((cid:76)) "declared default" means the date on which the registry authority is

notified by the creditor of the occurrence of default;

((cid:77)) "international interest" shall have the meaning assigned to it in

Article 1((cid:82)) of the Convention;

((cid:78)) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;

((cid:79)) "Protocol" means the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment on Matters specific to Aircraft Equipment signed at Cape Town on 16th November, 2001, as set out in the Third Schedule to this Act;

((cid:80)) "registry authority" means the Directorate General of Civil Aviation

16 of 2024.

constituted under section 3 of the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024.

((cid:21)) The words and expressions used and not defined in this Act, but defined in the Convention or the Protocol or the regulations made thereunder, shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in the Convention, Protocol or regulations made thereunder.

(cid:22). Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Convention and Protocol shall have the force of law in India, in respect of the aircraft objects and in accordance with the declarations deposited by India.

Application of Convention and Protocol in India.

(cid:23). The registry authority may issue necessary directions, for implementation of the provisions of the Convention and Protocol, including the provisions given force of law under section 3, in such manner as may be prescribed.

Power of registry authority to issue directions.

Obligation of debtor and creditor to an agreement.

(cid:24). ((cid:20)) A debtor shall maintain and submit to the registry authority, records of dues arising from, related to or owed in regard to the ownership or use by the owner or operator of the aircraft object, in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

((cid:21)) A creditor shall not be entitled to exercise any remedy under the Convention or Protocol unless such creditor declares the occurrence of default by notifying the registry authority, in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

Remedies on (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:17) 6(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81) deposited by India, shall apply, mutatis mutandis, for remedies on insolvency under any law for the time being in force:

Provided that—

(a) the debtor of the agreement is a—

(i) (cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:191)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:30)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)

(ii) person, domiciled in or has his principal place of business in

India;

(b) the international interest of the agreement has been registered in

accordance with the Convention and Protocol; and

(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

7(cid:17) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, or

16 of 202(cid:23)(cid:17)

any rules made thereunder, the provisions of Article XIII of the Protocol shall apply to the de-registration and export (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

De-registration and export request (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:45)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17) 8(cid:17) Notwithstanding anything in any other law for the time being in force, the High Court having territorial jurisdiction shall be the relevant court for the (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

9(cid:17) (1) In the case of any inconsistency between a provision of this Act and any other law for the time being in force, the provisions of this Act shall prevail (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Provisions of Act to have overriding (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(2) Save as otherwise provided in this Act, the provisions of this Act shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of any other law for the time (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(3) The provisions of this Act or the Convention or the Protocol shall not(cid:3)affect the rights of the Central Government or any entity thereof, or other provider of public services in India, or any inte(cid:85)government(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) organisation(cid:3) in which India is a member, to arrest or detain an aircraft object under any law for the time being in force, for payment of any amount due to the Government of India or any such entity or provider of public services or organisation, directly relating to the service or services provided by it in respect of that aircraft (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

Power of Central Government to (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17) 10(cid:17) (1) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:50)(cid:3446)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79) Gazette, make rules, as may be considered necessary and expedient, for carrying out the provisions of this Act or implementation of the provisions of the (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:11)(cid:21)(cid:12) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:15)

(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:29)(cid:178)

(cid:11)(cid:68)(cid:12) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:30)

(cid:11)(cid:69)(cid:12) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:20)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:21)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:17)4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 (3) The power to make rules under this section is subject to the condition of

the rules being made after previous publication:

Provided that the Central Government may, in the public interest, by order

in writing, dispense with the condition of previous publi(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(4) Every rule made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be, after it is made before each House of Parliament while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) rule shall (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:30)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)

11(cid:17) (1) The Central Government may make, amend or withdraw any declaration, or any subsequent declaration in accordance with the provisions of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

Power of Central Government in respect of (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(2) The Central Government, to give effect to any declaration or subsequent declaration made, amended or withdrawn under the Convention or the Protocol, (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:191)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:3446)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Second (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Removal of (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

12(cid:17) (1) (cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:3446)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15) the Central Government may, by order published in the (cid:50)(cid:3446)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) such provisions, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for removing the difficulty:

Provided that no such order shall be made after the expiry of a period of

three years from the (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(2) Every order made under this section shall, as soon as may be after it is

(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5

THE FIRST SCHEDULE

[See clause (e) of sub-section (1) of (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:64)(cid:3)

PROVISIONS OF THE CONVENTION ON INTERNATIONAL INTER(cid:40)STS IN MOBILE

EQUIPMENT WHICH SHALL HAVE THE FORCE OF LAW

CHAPTER I

SPHERE OF APPLICATION AND GENERAL PROVISIONS

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)

Definitions

In this Convention, except where the context otherwise requires, the

following terms are employed with the meanings set out below:

(a) "agreement" means a security agreement, a title reservation

agreement or a leasing agreement;

(b) "assignment" means a contract which, whether by way of security or otherwise, confers on the assignee associated rights with or without a transfer of the related international interest;

(c) "associated rights" means all rights to payment or other performance by a debtor under an agreement which are secured by or associated with the object;

(d) "commencement of the insolvency proceedings" means the time at which the insolvency proceedings are deemed to commence under the applicable insolvency law;

(e) "conditional buyer" means a buyer under a title reservation

agreement;

(f) "conditional seller" means a seller under a title reservation

agreement;

(g) "contract of sale" means a contract for the sale of an object by a

seller to a buyer which is not an agreement as defined in (a) above;

(h) "court" means a court of law or an administrative or arbitral

tribunal established by a Contracting State;

(i) "creditor" means a chargee under a security agreement, a conditional seller under a title reservation agreement or a lessor under a leasing agreement;

(j) "debtor" means a chargor under a security agreement, a conditional buyer under a title reservation agreement, a lessee under a leasing agreement or a person whose interest in an object is burdened by a registrable non-consensual right or interest;

(k) "insolvency administrator" means a person authorised to administer the re-organisation or liquidation, including one authorised on an interim basis, and includes a debtor in possession if permitted by the applicable insolvency law;

(l) "insolvency proceedings" means bankruptcy, liquidation or other collective judicial or administrative proceedings, including interim proceedings, in which the assets and affairs of the debtor are subject to control or supervision by a court for the purposes of re-organisation or liquidation;

(m) "interested persons" means:

6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(i) the debtor;

(ii) any person who, for the purpose of assuring performance of any of the obligations in favour of the creditor, gives or issues a suretyship or demand guarantee or a stand by letter of credit or any other form of credit insurance;

(iii) any other person having rights in or over the object;

(n) "internal transaction" means a transaction of a type listed in Article 2(2)(a) to (c) where the centre of the main interests of all parties to such transaction is situated, and the relevant object located (as specified in the Protocol), the same Contracting State at the time of the conclusion of the contract and where the interest created by the transaction has been registered in a national registry in that Contracting State which has made a declaration under Article 50(1);

(o)(cid:3) "international interest" means an interest held by a creditor to(cid:3)

which article 2 applies;

(p)(cid:3)"international registry" means the international registration facilities(cid:3)

established for the purposes of this Convention or the Protocol;

(q)(cid:3) "leasing agreement" means an agreement by which one person(cid:3) grants a right to possession or control of an object (with or without an option to purchase) to another person in return for a rental or other payment;

(r)(cid:3)"national interest" means an interest held by a creditor in an object(cid:3) and created by an internal transaction covered by a declaration under Article 50 (1);

(s)(cid:3) "non-consensual right or interest" means a right or interest(cid:3) conferred under the law of a Contracting State which has made a declaration (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) obligation to a State, State entity or an intergovernmental or private organisation;

(t)(cid:3) "notice of a national interest" means notice registered or to be(cid:3) registered in the international registry that a national interest has been created;

(u) "object" means an object of a category to which Article 2 applies;

(v) "pre-existing right or interest" means a right or interest of any kind in or over an object created or arising before the effective date of this Convention as defined by Article 60(2)(a);

(w) "proceeds" means money or non-money proceeds of an object arising from the total or partial loss or physical destruction of the object or its total or partial confiscation, condemnation or requisition;

(x) "prospective assignment" means an assignment that is intended to be made in the future, upon the occurrence of a stated event, whether or not the occurrence of the event is certain;

(y) "prospective international interest" means an interest that is intended to be created or provided for in an object as an international interest in the future, upon the occurrence of a stated event (which may include the debtor's acquisition of an interest in the object), whether or not the occurrence of the event is certain;

(z) "prospective sale" means a sale which is intended to be made in the future, upon the occurrence of a stated event, whether or not the occurrence of the event is certain;

No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

(aa) "Protocol" means, in respect of any category of object and associated rights to which this Convention applies, the Protocol in respect of that category of object and associated rights;

(bb) "registered" means registered in the international registry

pursuant to Chapter V;

(cc) "registered interest" means an international interest, a registrable non-consensual right or interest or a national interest specified in a notice of a national interest registered pursuant to Chapter V;

(dd) "registrable non-consensual right or interest" means a non-consensual right or interest registrable pursuant to a declaration deposited under Article 40;

(ee) "Registrar" means, in respect of the Protocol, the person or body

designated by that Protocol or appointed under Article 17(2)(b);

(ff) "regulations" means regulations made or approved by the

supervisory authority pursuant to the Protocol;

(gg) "sale" means a transfer of ownership of an object pursuant to a

contract of sale;

(hh) "secured obligation" means an obligation secured by a security

interest;

(ii) "security agreement" means an agreement by which a chargor grants or agrees to grant to a chargee an interest (including an ownership interest) in or over an object to secure the performance of any existing or future obligation of the chargor or a third person;

(jj) "security interest" means an interest created by a security

agreement;

(kk) "Supervisory Authority" means, in respect of the Protocol, the

Supervisory Authority referred to in Article 17(1);

(ll) "title reservation agreement" means an agreement for the sale of an object on terms that ownership does not pass until fulfilment of the condition or conditions stated in the agreement;

(mm) "unregistered interest" means a consensual interest or non-consensual right or interest (other than an interest to which (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)) which has not been registered, whether or not it is registrable under this Convention; and

(nn) "writing" means a record of information (including information communicated by teletransmission) which is intangible or other form and is capable of being reproduced in tangible form on a subsequent occasion and which indicates by reasonable means a person's approval of the record.

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)

The international interest

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) international interest in certain categories of mobile equipment and associated (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) equipment is an interest, constituted under Article 7, in a uniquely identifiable object of a category of such objects l(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Protocol:

(a) granted by the chargor under a security agreement;

(cid:3)8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 (b) vested in a person who is the conditional seller under a title

reservation agreement; or

(c) (cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

An interest falling within sub-paragraph (a) does not also fall within

sub-paragraph (b) or (c)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:29)

(a) airframes, aircraft engines and helicopters;

(b) railway rolling stock; and

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)ph 2

applies falls within sub-paragraphs (a), (b) or (c) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)

Sphere of application

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) agreement creating or providing for the international interest, the debtor is situated (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:81)-Contracting State does not

(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)

Where debtor is situated

State:

(a) under the law of which it is incorporated or formed;

(b) where it has its registered office or statutory seat;

(d) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)-paragraph (d) of the preceding paragraph to the debtor's place of business shall, if it has more than one place of business, mean its principal (cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)

Interpretation and applicable law

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)s as set forth in the preamble, to its international character and to the need to (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:52)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) expressly settled in it are to be settled in conformity with the general principles on which it is based or, in the absence of such principles, in conformity with the (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)

applicable by virtue of the rules of priva(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9 4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) own rules of law in respect of the matter to be decided, and where there is no indication of the relevant territorial unit, the law of that State decides which is the (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:25)

Relationship between the Convention and the Protocol

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:17)

CHAPTER II

CONSTITUTION OF AN INTERNATIONAL INTEREST

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:26)

Formal requirements

An interest is constituted as an international interest under this convention

where the agreement creating or providing for the interest:

(a) is in writing;

(b) relates to an object of which the chargor, conditional seller or lessor

has power to dispose;

(d) in the case of a security agreement, enables the secured obligations to be determined, but without the need to state a sum or maximum sum (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

CHAPTER III

DEFAULT REMEDIES

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:27)

Remedies of chargee

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) extent that the chargor has at any time so agreed and subject to any declaration that may be made by a Contracting State under Article 54, exercise any one or more of the following remedies:

(a) take possession or control of any object charged to it;

(b) sell or grant a lease of any such object;

(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)

(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)-paragraphs (a), (b) or (c) of paragraph 1 or by (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3) shall be deemed to be exercised in a commercially reasonable manner where it is exercised in conformity with a provision of the security agreement except where (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)

shall give reasonable prior notice in writing of the proposed sale or lease to:

(a) interested persons specified in Article 1(m)(i) and (ii); and

(b) interested persons specified in Article 1(m)(iii) who have given notice of their rights to the chargee within a reasonable time prior to the sale (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) any of the remedies set out in paragraph 1 or 2 shall be applied towards discharge (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71) or received by the chargee as a result of the exercise of any remedy set out in paragraph 1 or 2 exceed the amount secured by the security interest and any reasonable costs incurred in the exercise of any such remedy, then unless otherwise ordered by the court the chargee shall distribute the surplus among holders of subsequently ranking interests which have been registered or of which the chargee has been given notice, in order of priority, and (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:28)

Vesting of object in satisfaction; redemption

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) interested persons may agree that ownership of (or any other interest of the chargor in) any object covered by the security interest shall vest in the chargee in (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (or any other interest of the chargor in) any object covered by the security interest (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) if the amount of the secured obligations to be satisfied by such vesting is commensurate with the value of the object after taking account of any payment to (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) the charged object or the making of an order under paragraph 2, the chargor or any interested person may discharge the security interest by paying in full the amount secured, subject to any lease granted by the chargee under Article 8(1)(b) or ordered under Article 8(2)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)re, after such default, the payment of the amount secured is made in full by an interested person other than the debtor, that person (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) Article 8(1)(b) or passing under paragraph 1 or 2 of this article is free from any other interest over which the chargee's security interest has priority under the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:19)

Remedies of conditional seller or lessor

In the event of default under a title reservation agreement or under a leasing agreement as provided in Article 11, the conditional seller or the lessor, as the case may be, may:

(a) subject to any declaration that may be made by a Contracting State under Article 54, terminate the agreement and take possession or control of any object to which the agreement relates; or

(b) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 11

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)

Meaning of default

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) events that constitute a default or otherwise give rise to the rights and remedies (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:17)(cid:3)

2. Where the debtor and the creditor have not so agreed, "default" for the (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:21)

Additional remedies

Any additional remedies permitted by the applicable law, including any remedies agreed upon by the parties, may be exercised to the extent that they are not inconsistent with the mandatory provisions of this Chapter as set out in (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)

Relief pending final determination

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:24)(cid:24)(cid:15)(cid:3) a Contracting State shall ensure that a creditor who adduces evidence of default by the debtor may, pending final determination of its claim and to the extent that the debtor has at any time so agreed, obtain from a court speedy relief in the form of such one or more of the following orders as the creditor requests:

(a) preservation of the object and its value;

(b) possession, control or custody of the object;

(d) lease or, except where covered by sub-paragraphs (a) to (c),

(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)court may impose such terms as it considers necessary to protect the interested persons in the event that the creditor:

(a) in implementing any order granting such relief, fails to perform any of its obligations to the debtor under this Convention or the Protocol; or

(b) fails to establish its claim, wholly or in part, on the final determination

(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81) this Article affects the application of Article 8(3) or limits the

(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:23)

Procedural requirements

Subject to Article 54(2), any remedy provided by this Chapter shall be exercised in conformity with the procedure prescribed by the law of the place (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)12 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:24)

Derogation

In their relations with each other, any two or more of the parties referred to in this Chapter may at any time, by agreement in writing, derogate from or vary the effect of any of the preceding provisions of this Chapter except Articles 8(3) to (6), 9(3) and (4)(cid:15)(cid:20)(cid:22)(2) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:23)(cid:17)(cid:3)

CHAPTER IV

THE INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION SYSTEM

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:25)

The International Registry

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:29)

(a) international interests, prospective international interests and

registrable non-consensual rights and interests;

(b) assignments and prospective assignments of international interests;

subrogations under the applicable law;

(d) notices of national interests; and

(e) subordinations of interests referred to in any of the preceding

sub-(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)

(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

3. For the purposes of this Chapter and Chapter V, the term "registration" includes, where appropriate, an amendment, extension or discharge of a (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:26)

The Supervisory Authority and the Registrar

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:29)

(a) establish or provide for the establishment of the international

registry;

(b) except as otherwise provided by the Protocol, appoint and dismiss

the Registrar;

(c) ensure that any rights required for the continued effective operation of the international registry in the event of a change of Registrar will vest in or be assignable to the new Registrar;

(d) after consultation with the Contracting States, make or approve and ensure the publication of regulations pursuant to the Protocol dealing with the operation of the international registry;

(e) establish administrative procedures through which complaints concerning the operation of the international registry can be made to the Supervisory Authority;

(f) supervise the Registrar and the operation of the international

registry;

(g) at the request of the Registrar, provide such guidance to the

Registrar as the supervisory authority thinks fit;

(h) set and periodically review the structure of fees to be charged for

the services and facilities of the international registry;

No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 13

(i) do all things necessary to ensure that an efficient notice-based electronic registration system exists to implement the objectives of this Convention and the Protocol; and

(j) report periodically to Contracting States concerning the discharge

of its oblig(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

performance of its functions, including any agreement referred to in Article 27(3)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)etary rights in the databases

(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) registry and perform the functions assigned to it by this Convention, the Protocol (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

CHAPTER V

OTHER MATTERS RELATING TO REGISTRATION

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:27)

Registration requirements

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

criteria for the identification of the object:

(a) for effecting a registration (which shall include provision for prior electronic transmission of any consent from any person whose consent is required under Article 20);

(b) for making searches and issuing search certificates, and, subject

thereto;

(c) for ensuring the confidentiality of information and documents of the International Registry other than information and documents relating to (cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)all not be under a duty to enquire whether a consent to

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) becomes an international interest, no further registration shall be required provided that the registration information is sufficient for a registration of an (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) International Registry database and made searchable in chronological order of (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) or entities in its territory as the entry point or entry points through which the information required for registration shall or may be transmitted to the (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) specify the requirements, if any, to be satisfied before such information is (cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)e 19

Validity and time of registration

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)

information into the International Registry database so as to be s(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)14 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 3(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)

paragraph at the time when:

(a) the International Registry has assigned to it a sequentially ordered

file number; and

(b) the registration information, including the file number, is stored in

(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

4(cid:17) (cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) registered as a prospective international interest becomes an international interest, that international interest shall be treated as registered from the time of registration of the prospective international interest provided that the registration was still current immediately before the (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:26)(cid:17)

5(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

6(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3)registration shall be searchable in the International Registry database

(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)

Consent to registration

1(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81) assignment or prospective assignment of an international interest may be registered, and any such registration amended or extended prior to its expiry, by (cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)tional interest may be registered by or with the consent in writing at any time of the (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

3(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)

(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)sition of an international interest by legal or contractual

(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:81)-consensual right or interest may be registered by the

(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:17)

6(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:20)

Duration of registration

Registration of an international interest remains effective until discharged

(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:21)

Searches

1(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) by the Protocol and regulations, make or request a search of the International Registry by electronic means concerning interests or prospective international interests registered (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:56)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)prescribed by the Protocol and regulations, shall issue a registry search certificate by electronic means with respect to any object:

(a) stating all registered information relating thereto, together with a statement indicating the date and time of registration of such information; orNo. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 15 (b) stating that there is no information in the International Registry

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) that the creditor named in the registration information has acquired or intends to acquire an international interest in the object but shall not indicate whether what is registered is an international interest or a prospective international interest, even (cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:22)

List of declarations and declared non-consensual rights or interests

The Registrar shall maintain a list of declarations, withdrawals of declaration and of the categories of non-consensual right or interest communicated to the Registrar by the Depositary as having been declared by (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) searchable in the name of the declaring State and shall be made available as provided i(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:23)

Evidentiary value of certificates

A document in the form prescribed by the regulations which purports to be

a certificate issued by the International Registry is prima facie proof,––

(a) that it has been so issued; and

(b) of the facts recited in it, including the date and time of a

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:24)

Discharge of registration

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) obligations giving rise to a registered non-consensual right or interest have been discharged, or where the conditions of transfer of title under a registered title reservation agreement have been fulfilled, the holder of such interest shall, without undue delay, procure the discharge of the registration after written demand by the debtor delivered to or received at its address stated in the (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) an international interest has been registered, the intending creditor or intending assignee shall, without undue delay, procure the discharge of the registration after written demand by the intending debtor or assignor which is delivered to or received at its address stated in the registration before the intending creditor or (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) registered notice of a national interest have been discharged, the holder of such interest shall, without undue delay, procure the discharge of the registration after written demand by the debtor delivered to or received at its address stated in the (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) person in whose favour the registration was made shall, without undue delay, procure its discharge or amendment after written demand by the debtor delivered (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:25)

Access to the international registration facilities

No person shall be denied access to the registration and search facilities of the International Registry on any ground other than its failure to comply with the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

CHAPTER VI

PRIVILEGES AND IMMUNITIES OF THE SUPERVISORY AUTHORITY AND THE

REGISTRAR

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:26)

Legal personality; immunity

(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)ty and its officers and employees shall enjoy (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(a) The Supervisory Authority shall enjoy exemption from taxes and such

other privileges as may be provided by agreement wi(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(b) For the purposes of this paragraph, "host State" means the State in which

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) shall be inviolable and immune from seizure or other legal or administrative (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:27)(1) or Article 44, the claimant shall be entitled to access to such information and (cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)

conferred by paragraph 4(cid:17)

CHAPTER VII

LIABILITY OF THE REGISTRAR

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:27)

Liability and financial assurances

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) by a person directly resulting from an error or omission of the Registrar and its officers and employees or from a malfunction of the international registration system except where the malfunction is caused by an event of an inevitable and irresistible nature, which could not be prevented by using the best practices in current use in the field of electronic registry design and operation, including those related to back-(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) inaccuracy of registration information received by the Registrar or transmitted by the Registrar in the form in which it received that information nor for acts or circumstances for which the Registrar and its officers and employees are not responsible and arising prior to receipt of registration information at the International (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 17 4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) the liability referred to in this Article to the extent determined by the Supervisory (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

CHAPTER VIII

EFFECTS OF AN INTERNATIONAL INTEREST AS AGAINST THIRD PARTIES

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:28)

Priority of competing interests

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:3) registered interest has priority over any other interest subsequently

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)-mentioned interest under the preceding paragraph

applies,—

(a) even if the first-mentioned interest was acquired or registered with

actual knowledge of the other interest; and

(b) even as regards value given by the holder of the first-mentioned

(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:78)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:15)—

(a) subject to an interest registered at the time of its acquisition of that

interest; and

(b) free from an unregistered interest even if it has actual knowledge

(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)

object,—

(a) subject to an interest registered prior to the registration of the

international interest held by its conditional seller or lessor; and

(b) free from an interest not so registered at that time even if it has

(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:78)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)competing interests or rights under this Article may be varied by agreement between the holders of those interests, but an assignee of a subordinated interest is not bound by an agreement to subordinate that interest unless at the time of the assignment a subordination had been registered relating (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)

proceeds(cid:17)

7(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)—

(a) does not affect the rights of a person in an item, other than an object, held prior to its installation on an object if under the applicable law those rights continue to exist after the installation; and

(b) does not prevent the creation of rights in an item, other than an object, which has previously been installed on an object where under the (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:19)

Effects of insolvency

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) effective if prior to the commencement of the insolvency proceedings that interest was (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)18 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) interest in the insolvency proceedings where that interest is effective under the (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

(a) any rules of law applicable in insolvency proceedings relating to the avoidance of a transaction as a preference or a transfer in fraud of creditors; or

(b) any rules of procedure relating to the enforcement of rights to property which is under the control or supervision of the insolvency (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)

CHAPTER IX

ASSIGNMENTS OF ASSOCIATED RIGHTS AND INTERNATIONAL INTERESTS;

RIGHTS OF SUBROGATION

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:20)

Effects of assignment

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)assignment of associated

(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:15)—

(a) the related international interest; and

(b) all the interests and priorities of the assignor under this

(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)Convention prevents a partial assignment of the assignor's (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) assignee may agree as to their respective rights concerning the related international interest assigned under the preceding paragraph but not so as (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)

and rights of set-(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)agreement in writing waive all or any of the defences and rights of set-off referred to in the preceding paragraph other than (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)d associated rights revest in the assignor, to the extent that they are still subsisting, when the (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:21)

Formal requirements of assignment

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) related international

interest only if it,—

(a) is in writing;

(b) enables the associated rights to be identified under the contract

from which they arise; and

(c) in the case of an assignment by way of security, enables the obligations secured by the assignment to be determined in accordance with (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:91)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3) security agreement is not valid unless some or all related associated rights also are (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 19 3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)

(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:22)

Debtor's duty to assignee

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)associated rights and the related international interest (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:21)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) to those rights and that interest is bound by the assignment and has a duty to make payment or give other performance to the assignee, if but only if,—

(a) the debtor has been given notice of the assignment in writing by or

with the authority of the assignor; and

(b) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)rformance by the debtor discharges the latter from liability, payment or performance shall be (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

Arti(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:23)

Default remedies in respect of assignment by way of security

In the event of default by the assignor under the assignment of associated rights and the related international interest made by way of security, Articles 8, 9 and 11 to 14 apply in the relations between the assignor and the assignee (and, in relation to associated rights, apply in so far as those provisions are capable of application to intangible property) as if references,—

(a) to the secured obligation and the security interest were references to the obligation secured by the assignment of the associated rights and the related international interest and the security interest created by that assignment;

(b) to the chargee or creditor and chargor or debtor were references to the

assignee and assignor;

and

(d) to the object were references to the assigned associated rights and the

related international interest(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:24)

Priority of competing assignments

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) one of the assignments includes the related international interest and is registered, the provisions of Article 29 apply as if the references to a registered interest were references to an assignment of the associated rights and the related registered interest and as if references to a registered or unregistered interest were references to a registered or u(cid:81)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) to an international interest were references to an assignment of the associated (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:25)

Assignee's priority with respect to associated rights

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:24)(1) over another assignee of the associated rights:

20 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(a) if the contract under which the associated rights arise states that

they are secured by or associated with the object; and

(b) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)-paragraph (b) of the preceding paragraph, associated rights are related to an object only to the extent that they consist of rights to payment or performance that relate to:

(a) a sum advanced and utilised for the purchase of the object;

(b) a sum advanced and utilised for the purchase of another object in which the assignor held another international interest if the assignor transferred that interest to the assignee and the assignment has been registered;

(d) the rentals payable in respect of the object; or

(e) other obligations arising from a transaction referred to in any of the

preceding sub-(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:26)

Effects of assignor's insolvency

(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:19)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:27)

Subrogation

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3) competing interest may be varied by agreement in writing between the holders of the respective interests but an assignee of a subordinated interest is not bound by an agreement to subordinate that interest unless at the time of the assignment a subordination had been registered relating to t(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CHAPTER X

RIGHTS OR INTERESTS SUBJECT TO DECLARATIONS BY CONTRACTING

STATES

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)

Rights having priority without registration

Depositary of the Protocol declare, generally or specifically:

(a) those categories of non-consensual right or interest (other than a right or interest to which Article 40 applies) which under that State's law have priority over an interest in an object equivalent to that of the holder of a registered international interest and which shall have priority over a registered international interest, whether in or outside insolvency proceedings; andNo. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 21 (b)(cid:3)that nothing in this Convention shall affect the right of a State or(cid:3) State entity, intergovernmental organisation or other private provider of public services to arrest or detain an object under the laws of that State for payment of amounts owed to such entity, organisation or provider directly (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)A declaration made under the preceding paragraph may be expressed to

cover categories that are created after the deposit of that declaratio(cid:81)(cid:17)

3(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:81)-consensual right or interest has priority over an international interest if and only if the former is of a category covered by a declaration (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

4(cid:17) Notwithstanding the preceding paragraph, a Contracting State may, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare that a right or interest of a category covered by a declaration made under sub-paragraph (a) of paragraph 1 shall have priority over an international interest registered prior to the date of such ratification, acceptance, approval or (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:19)

Registrable non-consensual rights or interests

A Contracting State may at any time in a declaration deposited with the Depositary of the Protocol list the categories of non-consensual right or interest which shall be registrable under this Convention as regards any category of object as if the right or interest were an international interest and shall be regulated acco(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

CHAPTER XI

APPLICATION OF THE CONVENTION TO SALES

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:20)

Sale and prospective sale

This Convention shall apply to the sale or prospective sale of an object as

provided for in the Protocol w(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:17)

CHAPTER XII

JURISDICTION

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:21)

Choice of forum

1(cid:17) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92) the parties to a transaction have jurisdiction in respect of any claim brought under this Convention, whether or not the chosen forum has a connection with the (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)

accordance wi(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:17)22 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)

Jurisdiction under Article 13

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) the Contracting State on the territory of which the object is situated have (cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:22)(1)(a), (b), (c) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:22)(4) in (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:45)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(1)(d) or other interim relief

(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(4) may be exercised either:

(a) by the courts chosen by the parties; or

(b) by the courts of a Contracting State on the territory of which the debtor is situated, being relief which, by the terms of the order granting it, (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

3(cid:17) A court has jurisdiction under the preceding paragraphs even if the final (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(1) will or may take place in a (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:23)

Jurisdiction to make orders against the Registrar

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) administration shall have exclusive jurisdiction to award damages or make orders (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)25 and that person has ceased to exist or cannot be found for the purpose of enabling an order to be made against it requiring it to procure discharge of the registration, the courts referred to in the preceding paragraph shall have exclusive jurisdiction, on the application of the debtor or intending debtor, to make an order directed to the (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) under this Convention or, in the case of a national interest, an order of a court of competent jurisdiction requiring that person to procure the amendment or discharge of a registration, the courts referred to in paragraph 1 may direct the Registrar to take such steps as will giv(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) make orders or give judgments or rulings against or purporting to bind the (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:24)

Jurisdiction in respect of insolvency proceedings

The (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:17)

CHAPTER XIII

RELATIONSHIP WITH OTHER CONVENTIONS

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:24)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:86)

Relationship with the United Nations Convention on the Assignment of

Receivables in International Trade

This Convention shall prevail over the United Nations Convention on the Assignment of Receivables in International Trade, opened for signature in New York on 12 December 2001, as it relates to the assignment of receivables which are associated rights related to international interests in aircraft objects, railway (cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 23

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:25)

Relationship with the UNIDROIT Convention on International Financial

Leasing

The Protocol may determine the relationship between this Convention and the UNIDROIT Convention on International Financial Leasing, signed at Ottawa (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:27)(cid:27)(cid:17)

CHAPTER XIV

FINAL PROVISIONS

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:26)

Signature, ratification, acceptance, approval or accession

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) 16 November 2001 by States participating in the Diplomatic Conference to Adopt a Mobile Equipment Convention and an Aircraft Protocol held at Cape Town from (cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) be open to all States for signature at the Headquarters of the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT) in Rome until it enters into force (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:28)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)tance or approval

(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)

(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)

of a formal instrument to that effect with the De(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:27)

Regional Economic Integration Organisations

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) sovereign States and has competence over certain matters governed by this Convention may similarly sign, accept, approv(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Regional Economic Integration Organisation shall in that case have the rights and obligations of a Contracting State, to the extent that that Organisation has (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)e number of Contracting States is relevant in this Convention, the Regional Economic Integration Organisation shall not count as a Contracting State in addition to its (cid:48)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:40)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3) Integration Organisation shall, at the time of signature, acceptance, approval or accession, make a declaration to the Depositary specifying the matters governed by this Convention in respect of which competence has been transferred to that Organisation by (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Regional Economic Integration Organisation shall promptly notify the Depositary of any changes to the distribution of competence, including new transfers of (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)ence to a "Contracting State" or "Contracting States" or "State Party" or "States Parties" in this Convention applies equally to a Regional (cid:40)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:28)

Entry into force

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)rs into force on the first day of the month following the expiration of three months after the date of the deposit of the third instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession but only as regards a category of objects to which a Protocol applies:

24 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(a) as from the time of entry into force of that Protocol;

(b) subject to the terms of that Protocol; and

(c) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72) month following the expiration of three months after the date of the deposit of their instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession but only as regards a category of objects to which a Protocol applies and subject, in relation to such Protocol, to the requirements of sub-paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:19)

Internal transactions

1(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare that this Convention shall not apply to a transaction which is an internal transaction in relation to that State with regard to (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)nding the preceding paragraph, the provisions of Articles 8(4), 9(1), 16, Chapter V, Article 29, and any provisions of this Convention relating to (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

3(cid:17) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)registered in the International Registry, the priority of the holder of that interest under Article 29 shall not be affected by the fact that such interest has become vested in another person by (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)1

Future Protocols

1(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)-operation with such relevant non-governmental organisations as the Depositary considers appropriate, to assess the feasibility of extending the application of this Convention, through one or more Protocols, to objects of any category of high-value mobile equipment, other than a category referred to in Article 2(3), each member of which is uniquely (cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) The Depositary shall communicate the text of any preliminary draft(cid:3) Protocol relating to a category of objects prepared by such a working group to all States Parties to this Convention, all member States of the Depositary, member States of the United Nations which are not members of the Depositary and the relevant intergovernmental organisations, and shall invite such States and organisations to participate in intergovernmental negotiations for the completion (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)The Depositary shall also communicate the text of any preliminary draft(cid:3) Protocol prepared by such a working group to such relevant non-governmental organisations as the Depositary considers (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75) non-governmental organisations shall be invited promptly to submit comments on the text of the preliminary draft Protocol to the Depositary and to participate as observers in the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

4(cid:17)(cid:3) When the competent bodies of the Depositary adjudge such a draft(cid:3) Protocol ripe for adoption, the Depositary shall convene a diplomatic conference (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

5(cid:17)(cid:3) Once such a Protocol has been adopted, subject to paragraph 6, this(cid:3)

Convention shall appl(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 25 6(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:23)(cid:24)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) Convention applies to such a Protocol only if

(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:21)

Territorial units

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) law are applicable in relation to the matters dealt with in this Convention, it may, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession, declare that this Convention is to extend to all its territorial units or only to one or more of them and may modify its declaration by submitting another declaration (cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)

this Convention shall apply to all territorial units of that (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)

to one or more territorial units of a Contracting State:

(a) the debtor is considered to be situated in a Contracting State only if it is incorporated or formed under a law in force in a territorial unit to which this Convention applies or if it has its registered office or statutory seat, centre of administration, place of business or habitual residence in a territorial unit to which this Convention applies;

(b) any reference to the location of the object in a Contracting State refers to the location of the object in a territorial unit to which this Convention applies; and

(c) any reference to the administrative authorities in that Contracting State shall be construed as referring to the administrative authorities having (cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:22)

Determination of courts

A Contracting State may, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare the relevant "court" or "courts" for the (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:23)

Declarations regarding remedies

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare that while the charged object is situated within, or controlled from its territory the chargee shall not grant a lease of the (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)ting State shall, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare whether or not any remedy available to the creditor under any provision of this Convention which is not there expressed to require application to (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:3)26 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:24)

Declarations regarding relief pending final determination

A Contracting State may, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval of, or accession to the Protocol, declare that it will not apply the provisions of Article (cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3) under which conditions the relevant Article will be applied, in case it will be applied partly, or otherwise which other forms of i(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:25)

Reservations and declarations

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:19)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:19)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:21)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:24)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:26)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) Any declaration or subsequent declaration or any withdrawal of a declaration made under this Convention shall be notified in writing to the (cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:26)

Subsequent declarations

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)aration authorised under Article 60, at any time after the date on which this Convention (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) month following the expiration of six months after the date of receipt of the (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) effect is specified in the notification, it shall take effect upon the expiration of such longer period after (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3) to apply, as if no such subsequent declarations had been made, in respect of all rights and interests arising prior to the effective date of any such subsequent (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:27)

Withdrawal of declarations

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) than a declaration authorised under Article 60, may withdraw it at any time by (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17) Such withdrawal is to take effect on the first day of the month following the expiration of six months after the date of receipt of the (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3) to apply, as if no such withdrawal of declaration had been made, in respect of all (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:28)

Denunciations

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)

to th(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3) following the expiration of twelve months after the date on which notification is (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 27 3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)Convention shall continue to apply, as if no such denunciation had been made, in respect of all rights and (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:19)

Transitional provisions

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)ing State at any time, the Convention does not apply to a pre-existing right or interest, which retains the priority it enjoyed under the applicable law before the effective date of this (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

Convention:

(a) "effective date of this Convention" means in relation to a debtor the time when this Convention enters into force or the time when the State in which the debtor is situated becomes a Contracting State, whichever is the later; and

(b) the debtor is situated in a State where it has its centre of administration or, if it has no centre of administration, its place of business or, if it has more than one place of business, its principal place of business or, if it has no place o(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3) date, not earlier than three years after the date on which the declaration becomes effective, when this Convention and the Protocol will become applicable, for the purpose of determining priority, including the protection of any existing priority, to pre-existing rights or interests arising under an agreement made at a time when the debtor was situated in a State referred to in sub-paragraph (b) of the preceding (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:20)

Review Conferences, amendments and related matters

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) circumstances may require for the States Parties as to the manner in which the (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) preparing such reports, the Depositary shall take into account the reports of the Supervisory Authority concerning the functioning of the international registration (cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:92)-five per cent(cid:17) of the States Parties, Review Conferences of States Parties shall be convened from time to time by the Depositary, in consultation with the Supervisory Authority, to consider:

(a) the practical operation of this Convention and its effectiveness in facilitating the asset-based financing and leasing of the objects covered by its terms;

(b) the judicial interpretation given to, and the application made of the

terms of this Convention and the regulations;

(c) the functioning of the international registration system, the performance of the Registrar and its oversight by the Supervisory Authority, taking into account the reports of the Supervisory Authority; and

(d) whether any modifications to this Convention or the arrangements

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)28 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) approved by at least a two-thirds majority of States Parties participating in the Conference referred to in the preceding paragraph and shall then enter into force in respect of States which have ratified, accepted or approved such amendment when ratified, accepted, or approved by three States in accordance with the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) to more than one category of equipment, such amendment shall also be approved by at least a two-thirds majority of States Parties to each Protocol that are (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:21)

Depositary and its functions

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) deposited with the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:29)

(a) inform all Contracting States of:

(i) each new signature or deposit of an instrument of ratification,

acceptance, approval or accession, together with the date thereof;

(ii) the date of entry into force of this Convention;

(iii) each declaration made in accordance with this Convention,

together with the date thereof;

(iv) the withdrawal or amendment of any declaration, together

with the date thereof; and

(v) the notification of any denunciation of this Convention

together with the date thereof and the date on which it takes effect;

(b) transmit certified true copies of this Convention to all Contracting

States;

(c) provide the Supervisory Authority and the Registrar with a copy of each instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession, together with the date of deposit thereof, of each declaration or withdrawal or amendment of a declaration and of each notification of denunciation, together with the date of notification thereof, so that the information contained therein is easily and fully available; and

(d) (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:3)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 29

THE SECOND SCHEDULE

[See clause (i) of sub-section (1) of section (cid:21)(cid:64)

DECLARATIONS LODGED BY THE REPUBLIC OF INDIA UNDER THE CONVENTION ON INTERNATIONAL INTERESTS IN MOBILE EQUIPMENT AT THE TIME OF THE DEPOSIT OF ITS INSTRUMENT OF ACCESSION

(i) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)[(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(1)(a)(cid:64)

The following categories of non-consensual right or interest have priority under its laws over an interest in an aircraft object equivalent to that of the holder of a registered international interest and shall have priority over a registered international interest, whether in or outside insolvency proceedings, namely:—

(a) liens in favour of airline employees for unpaid wages arising since the time of a declared default by that airline under a contract to finance or lease and aircraft object;

(b) liens or other rights of an authority of India relating to taxes or other unpaid charges arising from or related to the use of that aircraft object and owed by the owner or operator of that aircraft object, arising since the time of a default by that owner or operator under a contract to finance or lease that aircraft object; and

(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(ii) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:3)[(cid:42)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(1)(b)(cid:64)

Nothing in the Convention shall affect its right or that of any entity thereof, or any intergovernmental organisation in which India is a member, or other private provider of public services in India, to arrest or detain an aircraft object under its laws for payment of amounts owed to the Government of India, any such entity, organisation or provider directly relating to the service or services provided by it in (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(iii) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:3)(Declaration under Article 40)

The following categories of non-consensual right or interest shall be registrable under the Convention as regards any category of aircraft object as if the right or interest were an international interest and shall be regulated accordingly, namely:—

(a) liens in favour of airline employees for unpaid wages arising prior to the time of a declared default by that airline under a contract to finance or lease an aircraft object;

(b) liens or other rights of an authority of India relating to taxes or other unpaid charges arising from or related to the use of an aircraft object and owed by the owner or operator of that aircraft object, arising prior to the time of a declared default by that owner or operator under a contract to finance or lease that aircraft object; and

(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:74)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(iv) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:19)(cid:3)(General declaration under Article 52)

(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(v) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:3)((cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:22))

All the High Courts within their respective territorial jurisdiction are the

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(vi) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:3)[Mandatory declaration under Article 54(2)(cid:64)

Any and all remedies available to the creditor under the Convention which are not expressed under the relevant provision thereof to require application to the court (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)30 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 DECLARATIONS LODGED BY THE REPUBLIC OF INDIA UNDER THE PROTOCOL TO

THE CONVENTION ON INTERNATIONAL INTERESTS IN MOBILE EQUIPMENT ON MATTERS SPECIFIC TO AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT AT THE TIME OF THE DEPOSIT OF ITS INSTRUMENT OF ACCESSION

(i) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:3)[Declaration under Article XXX(1) in respect of

Article VIII(cid:64)

(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:17)

(ii) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:3)[Declaration under Article XXX(2) in respect of

Article X providing for the application of the entirety of Article X(cid:64)

India will apply Article X of the Protocol in its entirety and the number of working days to be used for the purposes of the time limit laid down in Article X(2) of the Protocol shall be that equal to no more than:

(a) ten (10) working days in respect of the remedies specified in (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(1)(a), (b) and (c) of the Convention (respectively, preservation of aircraft objects and their value; possession, control or custody of aircraft objects; and, immobilization of aircraft objects); and

(b) thirty (30) working days in respect of the remedies specified in Article (cid:20)(cid:22)(1) (d) and (e) of the Convention (respectively, lease or management of aircraft objects and the income thereof; and, sale and application of proceeds from aircraft objects)(cid:17)

(iii) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:3)[General declaration under Article XXX(3) in

respect of Article XI providing for the application of Alternative A in its entirety to all types of insolvency proceeding(cid:64)

India will apply Article XI, Alternative A, of the Protocol in its entirety to all types of insolvency proceedings, and that the waiting period for the purposes of Article XI(3) of that Alternative shall be two (2) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(iv) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:21)(cid:25)(cid:3)[Declaration under Article XXX(1) in respect of Article XII(cid:64)

(v) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:26)(cid:3)[Declaration under Article XXX(1) in respect of Article XIII(cid:64)

THE THIRD SCHEDULE

[See clause (m) of sub-section (1) of (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:64)

PROVISIONS OF THE PROTOCOL TO THE CONVENTION ON INTERNATIONAL

INTERESTS IN MOBILE EQUIPMENT ON MATTERS SPECIFIC TO AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT WHICH SHALL HAVE THE FORCE OF LAW

CHAPTER I

Sphere of application and general provisions

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)

Defined terms

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)

(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:3)

out below:

(a) "aircraft" means aircraft as defined for the purposes of the Chicago Convention which are either airframes with aircraft engines installed thereon or helicopters;

(b) "aircraft engines" means aircraft engines (other than those used in military, customs or police services) powered by jet propulsion or turbine or piston technology and:

(i) in the case of jet propulsion aircraft engines, have at least

1750 lb of thrust or its equivalent; and

(ii) in the case of turbine-powered or piston-powered aircraft engines, have at least 550 rated take-off shaft horsepower or its equivalent, together with all modules and other installed, incorporated or attached accessories, parts and equipment and all data, manuals and records relating thereto;

(d) "aircraft register" means a register maintained by a State or a common mark registering authority for the purposes of the Chicago Convention;

(e) "airframes" means airframes (other than those used in military, customs or police services) that, when appropriate aircraft engines are installed thereon, are type certified by the competent aviation authority to transport:

(i) at least eight (8) persons including crew; or

(ii) goods in excess of 2750 kilograms, together with all installed, incorporated or attached accessories, parts and equipment (other than aircraft engines), and all data, manuals and records relating thereto;

(f) "authorised party" means the party referred to in Article XIII(3);

(g) "Chicago Convention" means the Convention on International Civil Aviation, signed at Chicago on 7 December 1944, as amended, and its Annexes;

(h) "common mark registering authority" means the authority maintaining a register in accordance with Article 77 of the Chicago Convention as implemented by the Resolution adopted on 14 December 1967 by the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organization on nationality and registration of aircraft operated by international operating agencies;

32 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(i) "de-registration of the aircraft" means deletion or removal of the registration of the aircraft from its aircraft register in accordance with the Chicago Convention;

(j) "guarantee contract" means a contract entered into by a person as

guarantor;

(k) "guarantor" means a person who, for the purpose of assuring performance of any obligations in favour of a creditor secured by a security agreement or under an agreement, gives or issues a suretyship or demand guarantee or a standby letter of credit or any other form of credit insurance;

(l) "helicopters" means heavier-than-air machines (other than those used in military, customs or police services) supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes and which are type certified by the competent aviation authority to transport:

(i) at least five (5) persons including crew; or

(ii) goods in excess of 450 kilograms, together with all installed, incorporated or attached accessories, parts and equipment (including rotors), and all data, manuals and records relating thereto;

(m) "insolvency-related event" means:

(i) the commencement of the insolvency proceedings; or

(ii) the declared intention to suspend or actual suspension of payments by the debtor where the creditor's right to institute insolvency proceedings against the debtor or to exercise remedies under the Convention is prevented or suspended by law or State action;

(n) "primary insolvency jurisdiction" means the Contracting State in which the centre of the debtor's main interests is situated, which for this purpose shall be deemed to be the place of the debtor's statutory seat or, if there is none, the place where the debtor is incorporated or formed, unless proved otherwise;

(o) "registry authority" means the national authority or the common mark registering authority, maintaining an aircraft register in a Contracting State and responsible for the registration and de-registration of an aircraft in accordance with the Chicago Convention; and

(p) "State of registry" means, in respect of an aircraft, the State on the national register of which an aircraft is entered or the State of location of the common mark register(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:36)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)Protocol shall be known as the Convention on

(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:36)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)

The following provisions of the Convention apply as if references to an agreement creating or providing for an international interest were references to a contract of sale and as if references to an international interest, a prospective international interest, the debtor and the creditor were references to a sale, a prospective sale, the seller and the buyer respectively: (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:22)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:23)(cid:30) Article 16(1)(a); Article 19(4); Article 20(1) (as regards registration of a contract of sale or a prospective sale); Article 25(2) (as regards a prospective sale); and (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:19)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 33 In addition, the general provisions of Article 1, Article 5, Chapters IV to VII, Article 29 [other than Article 29(3) which is replaced by Articles XIV(1) and (2)(cid:64), Chapter X, Chapter XII ((cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)), Chapter XIII and Chapter XIV (other than Article 60) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:57)

(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(1) of the Convention, the Convention shall also apply in relation to a helicopter, or to an airframe pertaining to an aircraft, registered in an aircraft register of a Contracting State which is the State of registry, and where such registration is made pursuant to an agreement for registration of the aircraft it is deemed to have been effected at the time of the (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2. For the purposes of the definition of "internal transaction" in Article 1 of

the Convention:

(a) an airframe is located in the State of registry of the aircraft of which

it is a part;

(b) an aircraft engine is located in the State of registry of the aircraft on which it is installed or, if it is not installed on an aircraft, where it is physically located; and

(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) Article XI and, in their relations with each other, derogate from or vary the effect of any of the provisions of this Protocol except Article IX(2)-(4)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)

(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)

(a) is in writing;

(b) relates to an aircraft object of which the seller has power to

dispose; and

(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)rcraft object

(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) of a prospective sale remains effective unless discharged or until expiry of the period, if any, specified in the registra(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)

Representative capacities

A person may enter into an agreement or a sale, and register an international interest in, or a sale of, an aircraft object, in an agency, trust or other representative (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)entitled to assert rights and interests under (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)

A description of an aircraft object that contains its manufacturer's serial number, the name of the manufacturer and its model designation is necessary and sufficient to identify the object for the purposes of Article 7(c) of the Convention and Article V(1)(c) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)34 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)

pursuant to Article XXX(1(cid:12)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) contract or subordination agreement may agree on the law which is to govern their (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)otherwise agreed, the reference in the preceding paragraph to the law chosen by the parties is to the domestic rules of law of the designated State or, where that State comprises several territorial units, to the domestic law of the designated territorial (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CHAPTER II

Default remedies, priorities and assignments

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:59)

(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) creditor may, to the extent that the debtor has at any time so agreed and, in the circumstances, specified in that Chapter:

(a) procure the de-registration of the aircraft; and

(b) procure the export and physical transfer of the aircraft object from

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:72)xercise the remedies specified in the preceding paragraph without the prior consent in writing of the holder of any registered (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:27)(3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) remedy given by the Convention in relation to an aircraft object shall be exercised (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) in a commercially reasonable manner where it is exercised in conformity with a provision of the agreement except where such a provision is manifestly (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4. A chargee giving ten or more working days' prior written notice of a proposed sale or lease to interested persons shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement of providing "reasonable prior notice" specified in Article 8(4) of the (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)able

safety laws and regulations, honour a request for de-registration and export if:

(a) the request is properly submitted by the authorised party under a

recorded irrevocable de-registration and export request authorisation; and

(b) the authorised party certifies to the registry authority, if required by that authority, that all registered interests ranking in priority to that of the creditor in whose favour the authorisation has been issued have been discharged or that the holders of such interests have consented to the de-(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)-registration and export of an aircraft under paragraph 1 otherwise than pursuant to a court order shall give reasonable prior notice in writing of the proposed de-registration and export to:

No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 35

(a) interested persons specified in Article 1(m)(i) and (ii) of the

Convention; and

(b) interested persons specified in Article 1(m)(iii) of the Convention who have given notice of their rights to the chargee within a reasonable time prior to the de-(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)

(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)

determination

under Article XXX(2(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:22)(1) of the Convention, "speedy" in the context of obtaining relief means within such number of working days from the date of filing of the application for relief as is specified in a declaration made by (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:11)1) of the Convention applies with the following being added immediately after sub-paragraph (d): "(e) if at any time the debtor and the creditor specifically agree, sale and application of proceeds therefrom", and Article 43(2) applies with the insertion after the words "Article 13(1)(d)" of the words "and (e)".

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) preceding paragraph is free from any other interest over which the creditor's international interest has priority under the provisions of Article 29 of the (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)

(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:22)(2) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:59)(1):

(a) they shall be made available by the registry authority and other administrative authorities, as applicable, in a Contracting State no later than five working days after the creditor notifies such authorities that the relief specified in Article IX(1) is granted or, in the case of relief granted by a foreign court, recognised by a court of that Contracting State, and that the creditor is entitled to procure those remedies in accordance with the Convention; and

(b) the applicable authorities shall expeditiously co-operate with and assist the creditor in the exercise of such remedies in conformity with the (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

7(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:86)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)

R(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)

insolvency jurisdiction has made a declaration pursuant to Article XXX(3)(cid:17)

Alternative A

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:56)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)-related event, the insolvency administrator or the debtor, as applicable, shall, subject to paragraph 7, give possession of the aircraft object to the creditor no later than the earlier of:

(a) the end of the waiting period; and36 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 (b) the date on which the creditor would be entitled to possession of

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3. For the purposes of this Article, the "waiting period" shall be the period specified in a declaration of the Contracting State which is the primary insolvency (cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

4. References in this Article to the "insolvency administrator" shall be to

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)

under paragraph 2:

(a) the insolvency administrator or the debtor, as applicable, shall preserve the aircraft object and maintain it and its value in accordance with the agreement; and

(b) the creditor shall be entitled to apply for any other forms of interim

r(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)-paragraph (a) of the preceding paragraph shall not preclude the use of the aircraft object under arrangements designed to preserve the aircraft object (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:17)

7(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)trator or the debtor, as applicable, may retain possession of the aircraft object where, by the time specified in paragraph 2, it has cured all defaults other than a default constituted by the opening of insolvency proceedings and has agreed to perform all (cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3) A second waiting period shall not apply in respect of a default in the performance (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

8(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:59)(1):

(a) they shall be made available by the registry authority and the administrative authorities in a Contracting State, as applicable, no later than five working days after the date on which the creditor notifies such authorities that it is entitled to procure those remedies in accordance with the Convention; and

9(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)this Protocol may

(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:17)

10(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)

(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)

11(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87) the authority, if any, of the insolvency administrator under the applicable law to (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

12(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:81)-consensual rights or interests of a (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(1), shall have priority in (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

13(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:59)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)

(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)

Alternative B

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:56)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)-related event, the insolvency administrator or the debtor, as applicable, upon the request of the creditor, shall give notice to the creditor within the time specified in a declaration of a Contracting State pursuant to Article XXX(3) whether it will:

No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 37

(a) cure all defaults other than a default constituted by the opening of insolvency proceedings and agree to perform all future obligations, under the agreement and related transaction documents; or

(b) give the creditor the opportunity to take possession of the aircraft

(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)-paragraph (b) of the preceding paragraph may permit the court to require the taking of any additional step or the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17) The creditor shall provide evidence of its claims and proof that its

(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) notice in conformity with paragraph 2, or when the insolvency administrator or the debtor has declared that it will give the creditor the opportunity to take possession of the aircraft object but fails to do so, the court may permit the creditor to take possession of the aircraft object upon such terms as the court may order and may require the taking of any additional step or the provision of any additional (cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)ance

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3)

declaration pursuant to Article XXX(1)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) shall, in accordance with the law of the Contracting State, co-operate to the maximum extent possible with foreign courts and foreign insolvency (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

De-registration and export request authorisation

pursuant to Article XXX(1(cid:12)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)-registration and export request authorisation substantially in the form annexed to this Protocol and has submitted such authorisation for recordation to the registry authority, that (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (the "authorised party") or its certified designee shall be the sole person entitled to exercise the remedies specified in Article IX(1) and may do so only in accordance with the authorisation and applicable aviation safety laws and (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:82)ked by the debtor without the (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)acting States shall expeditiously co-operate with and assist the authorised party in the (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:59)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:57)

Modification of priority provisions

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86) interest in that object free from an interest subsequently registered and from an unregistered (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:78)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)38 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)subject to

(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72) 29(7) of the Convention applies to an item, other than an object,

(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:57)

Modification of assignment provisions

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:22)(cid:22)(1) of the Convention applies as if the following were added immediately after sub-paragraph (b): "and (c) the debtor has consented in writing, whether or not the consent is given in advance of the assignment or identifies the assignee(cid:17)"(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)

Debtor provisions

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Convention, the debtor shall be entitled to the quiet possession and use of the object in accordance with the agreement as against:

(a) its creditor and the holder of any interest from which the debtor takes free pursuant to Article 29(4) of the Convention or, in the capacity of buyer, Article XIV(1) of this Protocol, unless and to the extent that the debtor has otherwise agreed; and

(b) the holder of any interest to which the debtor's right or interest is subject pursuant to Article 29(4) of the Convention or, in the capacity of buyer, Article XIV(2) of this Protocol, but only to the extent, if any, that (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)cts the liability of a creditor for any breach of the agreement under the applicable law in so far as that (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CHAPTER III

Registry provisions relating to international interests in aircraft objects

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)

The Supervisory Authority and the Registrar

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) a Resolution adopted by the Diplomatic Conference to Adopt a Mobile Equipment (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)al entity referred to in the preceding paragraph is not able and willing to act as Supervisory Authority, a Conference of Signatory and Contracting States shall be convened to designate another Supervisory (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)ficers and employees shall enjoy such immunity from legal and administrative process as is provided under the (cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3) among persons nominated by Signatory and Contracting States and having the necessary qualifications and experience, and entrust it with the task of assisting (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 39 5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)operate the International Registry for a period of (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Registrar shall be appointed or reappointed at regular five-yearly intervals by the (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

First (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

The first regulations shall be made by the Supervisory Authority so as to

(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:59)

Designated entry points

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3) compel, use of a designated entry point or entry points for information required for registrations (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)

(cid:36)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(6) of the Convention, the search criteria for an aircraft object shall be the name of its manufacturer, its manufacturer's serial number and its model designation, supplemented as necessary to ensure (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:21)(cid:24)(2) of the Convention and in the circumstances there described, the holder of a registered prospective international interest or a registered prospective assignment of an international interest or the person in whose favour a prospective sale has been registered shall take such steps as are within its power to procure the discharge of the registration no later than (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)ees referred to in Article 17(2)(h) of the Convention shall be determined so as to recover the reasonable costs of establishing, operating and regulating the International Registry and the reasonable costs of the Supervisory Authority associated with the performance of the functions, exercise of the powers, and discharge of the duties contemplated by Article 17(2) of the (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) and administered by the Registrar on a twenty-fou(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) points shall be operated at least during working hours in their respective (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:3)

Article 28(4) of the Convention shall, in respect of each event, not be less than the (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:91)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

6(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) insurance or a financial guarantee covering events for which the Registrar is not (cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)40 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:38)(cid:43)(cid:36)(cid:51)(cid:55)(cid:40)(cid:53)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:57)

Jurisdiction

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)

(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3) of the Convention, a court of a Contracting State also has jurisdiction where the object is a helicopter, or an airframe pertaining to an aircraft, for which that State (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)

Waivers of sovereign immunity

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)sovereign immunity from jurisdiction (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) enforcement of rights and interests relating to an aircraft object under the Convention shall be binding and, if the other conditions to such jurisdiction or enforcement have been satisfied, shall be effective to confer jurisdiction and (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)

(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CH(cid:36)(cid:51)(cid:55)(cid:40)(cid:53)(cid:3)(cid:57)

Relationship with other conventions

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)

Rights in Aircraft

The Convention shall, for a Contracting State that is a party to the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft, signed at Geneva on 19 June 1948, supersede that Convention as it relates to aircraft, as (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) interests not covered or affected by the present Convention, the Geneva (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:57)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)o the Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules Relating to the Precautionary (cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:3) (cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:22)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:49)(cid:44)(cid:39)(cid:53)(cid:50)(cid:44)(cid:55)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)

(cid:41)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)

The Convention shall supersede the UNIDROIT Convention on International Financial Leasing, signed at Ottawa on 28 May 1988, as it relates to aircraft (cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 41

(cid:38)(cid:43)(cid:36)(cid:51)(cid:55)(cid:40)(cid:53)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)

Final provisions

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)

(cid:54)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)accession

1(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:3)

16 November 2001 by States participating in the Diplomatic Conference to Adopt a Mobile Equipment Convention and an Aircraft Protocol held at Cape Town from (cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) be open to all States for signature at the Headquarters of the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT) in Rome until it enters into force in accordanc(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)

(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)

(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36) Regional Economic Integration Organisation which is constituted by sovereign States and has competence over certain matters governed by this (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) Regional Economic Integration Organisation shall in that case have the rights and obligations of a Contracting State, to the extent that that Organisation has (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) Contracting States is relevant in this Protocol, the Regional Economic Integration Organisation shall not count as a Contracting State in addition to its Member (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:40)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) signature, acceptance, approval or accession, make a declaration to the Depositary specifying the matters governed by this Protocol in respect of which competence (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:48)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) Economic Integration Organisation shall promptly notify the Depositary of any changes to the distribution of competence, including new transfers of competence, (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:17)

3. Any reference to a "Contracting State" or "Contracting States" or "State Party" or "States Parties" in this Protocol applies equally to a Regional Economic (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

Entry into force

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) expiration of three months after the date of the deposit of the eighth instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession, between the States which have (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) month following the expiration of three months after the date of the deposit of its (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)42 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:59)

(cid:55)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) law are applicable in relation to the matters dealt with in this Protocol, it may, at the time of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession, declare that this Protocol is to extend to all its territorial units or only to one or more of them and may modify it(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

this Protocol shall a(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

4(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) territorial units, declarations permitted under this Protocol may be made in respect of each such territorial unit, and the declarations made in respect of one territorial (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)

one or more territorial units of a Contracting State:

(a) the debtor is considered to be situated in a Contracting State only if it is incorporated or formed under a law in force in a territorial unit to which the Convention and this Protocol apply or if it has its registered office or statutory seat, centre of administration, place of business or habitual residence in a territorial unit to which the Convention and this Protocol apply;

(b) any reference to the location of the object in a Contracting State refers to the location of the object in a territorial unit to which the Convention and this Protocol apply; and

(c) any reference to the administrative authorities in that Contracting State shall be construed as referring to the administrative authorities having jurisdiction in a territorial unit to which the Convention and this Protocol apply and any reference to the national register or to the registry authority in that Contracting State shall be construed as referring to the aircraft register in force or to the registry authority having jurisdiction in the terr(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)

(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) of, or accession to this Protocol, declare that it will apply any one or more of (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) of, or accession to this Protocol, declare that it will apply Article X of this Protocol, wholly or in (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(2), it shall specify the time-(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) of, or accession to this Protocol, declare that it will apply the entirety of Alternative A, or the entirety of Alternative B of Article XI and, if so, shall specify the types of insolvency proceeding, if any, to which it will apply Alternative A and the types of insolvency proceeding, if any, to which it will apply Alternativ(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) State making a declaration pursuant to this paragraph shall specify the time-period (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:17)No. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 43 4(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3) the declaration made by the Contracting State which is the primary insolvency (cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

5(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) of, or accession to this Protocol, declare that it will not apply the provisions of Article XXI, wholly or in part(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) conditions the relevant Article will be applied, in case it will be applied partly, or (cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)

(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)

Declarations made under the Convention, including those made under (cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:28)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:23)(cid:19)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:19)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:24)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:26)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)

Reservations and (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)a declaration

(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44)

(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) made in accordance with Article XXXI under Article 60 of the Convention, at any time after the date on which this Protocol has entered into force for it, by notifying (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) month following the expiration of six months after the date of receipt of the (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) effect is specified in the notification, it shall take effect upon the expiration of such longer period after receipt of the noti(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) apply, as if no such subsequent declarations had been made, in respect of all rights and interests arising prior to the effective date of any such subse(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:57)

(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3) a declaration made in accordance with Article XXXI under Article 60 of the Convention, may withdraw it at any time by no(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) withdrawal is to take effect on the first day of the month following the expiration (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:91)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)ontinue to apply, as if no such withdrawal of declaration had been made, in respect of all (cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)

Denunciations

1(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)tion in writing to

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)44 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-18 2(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75) following the expiration of twelve months after the date of receipt of the (cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

3(cid:17) (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)previous paragraphs, this Protocol shall continue to apply, as if no such denunciation had been made, in respect of all rights and (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)

1(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79) prepare reports yearly, or at such other time as the circumstances may require, for the States Parties as to the manner in which the international regime established (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) preparing such reports, the Depositary shall take into account the reports of the Supervisory Authority concerning the functioning of the international registration sy(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:92)-five per cent(cid:17) of the States Parties, Review Conferences of the States Parties shall be convened from time to time by the Depositary, in consultation with the Supervisory Authority, to consider:

(a) the practical operation of the Convention as amended by this Protocol and its effectiveness in facilitating the asset-based financing and leasing of the objects covered by its terms;

(b) the judicial interpretation given to, and the application made of the

terms of this Protocol and the regulations;

(d) whether any modifications to this Protocol or the arrangements

3(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:82)-thirds majority of States Parties participating in the Conference referred to in the preceding paragraph and shall then enter into force in respect of States which have ratified, accepted or approved such amendment when it has been ratified, accepted or approved by eight States in accordance with the provisions of Article XXVIII r(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:57)(cid:44)(cid:44)

Depositary and its functions

1(cid:17) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72) deposited with the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT), which is hereb(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:29)

(a) inform all Contracting States of:

(i) each new signature or deposit of an instrument of ratification,

acceptance, approval or accession, together with the date thereof;

(ii) the date of entry into force of this Protocol;

(iii) each declaration made in accordance with this Protocol,

together with the date thereof; andNo. 11-18] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 45 (iv) the withdrawal or amendment of any declaration, together

with the date thereof;

(v) the notification of any denunciation of this Protocol together

with the date thereof and the date on which it takes effect;

(b) transmit certified true copies of this Protocol to all Contracting

States;

(d) perform such other (cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

Sd/-

(cid:39)(cid:53)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:36)(cid:45)(cid:44)(cid:57)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:36)(cid:49)(cid:44)(cid:15) Secretary to the Govt. of India.

———

CORRIGENDUM

In the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 (14 of 2025), as published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 1, dated (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:24)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:23)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:28)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:25)(cid:15)(cid:3)for "substituted", read (cid:179)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:180)(cid:17) EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 ——————————————————————————————— PART IV Reprints from the Government of India Gazette. ———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(cid:11)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)

New Delhi, the 18th August, 2025/Shravana 27, 1947 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the

18th August, 2025 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE MERCHANT SHIPPING ACT, 2025

(cid:49)(cid:3464)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:23)(cid:3)(cid:3464)(cid:3455)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)

[18th August(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:64)

An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to merchant shipping to ensure compliance with India's obligation under the maritime treaties and international instruments to which India is a party and also to (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:3446)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) Indian mercantile marine in a manner best suited to serve the national (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:17)

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:75) Year of the Republic

of India as follows:—

PART I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the Merchant Shipping Act, 202(cid:24)(cid:17)

Short title and (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17) (2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint, and different dates may be appointed (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 2. (1) Save as otherwise provided, the provisions of this Act shall apply

Application of Act.

to,—

(a) any vessel which is registered in India; or

(b) any vessel which is required by this Act to be so registered,

wherever it may be.

(2) Save as otherwise provided, the provisions of this Act which apply to vessels other than those referred to in sub-section (1) shall so apply only while any such vessel is within India or its coastal waters.

(3) Subject to sub-section (2) and unless otherwise expressly provided, the

provisions of this Act shall not apply to Indian controlled tonnage vessels.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, the expression "Indian controlled tonnage vessel" means an Indian vessel, other than a fishing vessel or sailing vessel, owned by any person specified under sub-section (1) of section 15 and registered at a port or place in a country other than India.

Definitions.

3. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(1) "abandoned seafarer" means a seafarer who is deemed to have been abandoned in violation of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder or the seafarers' employment agreement, where the ship owner—

(a) fails to cover the cost of the seafarer's repatriation; or

(b) has left the seafarer without the necessary maintenance and

support; or

failure to pay contractual wages for a period of at least two months;

(2) "abandoned vessel" includes any of the following, namely:—

(a) a vessel which is abandoned by the ship owner without any

hope of recovering it or without any intention of returning to it; or

(b) a vessel whose master has no financial means for its

operation; or

(c) a vessel whose owner is unknown or cannot be traced within reasonable time, despite the Central Government duly notifying the flag State of the vessel or consulate of the country of domicile of the registered owner or the master; or

(d) a vessel whose owner fails to fulfil the ship owner's obligations under this Act towards ensuring safety, security, prevention of pollution or welfare of seafarers and whose insurer, salvor or contractor fail to fulfil such obligations within such reasonable time as may be specified by the Central Government; or

(e) a vessel restrained by any court or public authority in India in respect of which the public authority or the person assigned responsibility by the court to fulfil the ship owner's obligations under this Act towards ensuring safety, security, prevention of pollution or welfare of seafarers, fails to do so.

Explanation.—For the purposes of sub-clause (d), failure on part of the ship owner shall also include failure on part of the charterer, manager or operator of the vessel;

(3) "agent", in relation to a vessel, means a person authorised to act as such by the owner and if such vessel is in port, the agent shall also have authorisation from the port;

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(4) "Anti-Fouling Systems Convention" means the International Convention on Control of Harmful Anti-fouling Systems on Ships, 2001, signed in London on 5th day of October, 2001;

(5) "audit" means a systematic and independent examination to determine whether the management system as provided in the Safety Convention complies with the planned arrangements and such arrangements are implemented effectively and are sufficient to achieve the objectives of the said convention;

(6) "Ballast Water Management Convention" means the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004, signed in London on the 13th day of February, 2004;

80 of 1976.

(7) "baseline" means the baseline referred to in sub-section (2) of section 3 of the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976;

(8) "certificate of competency" or "certificate of proficiency" means the certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency granted under sub-section (1) of section 46;

(9) "chief ship surveyor" means the chief ship surveyor specified in

sub-clause (iii) of clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 8;

(10) "chief surveyor" means the chief surveyor specified in

sub-clause (ii) of clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 8;

(11) "Civil Liability Convention" means the International Convention

on Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, 1992;

80 of 1976.

(12) "coastal waters" means any part of territorial waters of India, along with any part of the adjoining maritime zones of India within the meaning of the Terriorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, or any other law for time being in force;

(13) "coasts" include the coasts of creeks and any part of the sea or any part of a river within the ebb and flow of the tide at ordinary spring tides and not being a harbour (tidal waters);

(14) "company" means a company as defined in clause (20) of section 2

18 of 2013. of the Companies Act, 2013;

(15) "convention" means an international convention to which India is

a party;

(16) "Director-General" means the Director-General of Maritime

Administration appointed under sub-section (1) of section 7;

(17) "equipment", in relation to a vessel, includes boats, tackle, machinery, boilers, cargo handling gear, pumps and any fitting, anchor, propeller, apparels, furniture, life-saving appliances of every description, spars, masts, rigging and sails, fog signals, lights, shapes and signals of distress, medicines and medical and surgical stores and appliances, charts, radio installations, appliances for preventing, detecting or extinguishing fires, buckets, compasses, axes, lanterns, loading and discharging gears and appliances of all kinds and all other stores and spares or articles belonging to or to be used in connection with or necessary for the navigation, propulsion, security, pollution prevention and safety of the vessel;

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(18) "fisher" means any person engaged in any capacity or performing any work aboard a fishing vessel at sea, by whatever means they are paid, but not including pilots or persons in service of the Central Government or the State Government aboard a fishing vessel, or any person who only works aboard such vessel when onshore;

(19) "fishing vessel" means a vessel which is used or intended to be

used for the purpose of fishing in the seas;

(20) "gross tonnage" means the gross tonnage referred to in clause (b)

of sub-section (5) of section 20;

(21) "High Court", in relation to a vessel, means a High Court within

the limits of whose jurisdiction,—

(a) the port of registry of the vessel is situate; or

(b) the vessel is for the time being; or

(22) "Indian ambassador" means the ambassador, high commissioner, deputy ambassador, deputy high commissioner, consul-general, consul, vice-consul, consular agent or pro consul appointed as such by the Central Government and includes any person authorised by the Central Government to perform the functions of an Indian ambassador;

(23) "Indian Coast Guard" means the Coast Guard constituted under

30 of 1978.

the Coast Guard Act, 1978;

(24) "Indian vessel" means a vessel which is registered under

section 15;

(25) "Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention" means the Convention on Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims signed in London on the 19th day of November, 1976;

(26) "Maritime Labour Convention" means the Maritime Labour

Convention signed in Geneva on the 23rd day of February, 2006;

(27) "MARPOL Convention" means the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships, 1973 including its Protocol of 1978;

(28) "master" includes any person (except a pilot or a harbour master)

having command or charge of a vessel;

(29) "mortgage" means the transfer of an interest in a registered vessel or a share therein for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, or other valuable consideration, and the instrument creating the security, an existing or future debt, or the performance of an agreement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability;

(30) "nautical advisor" means the nautical advisor specified in

sub-clause (i) of clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 8;

(31) "notification" means a notification published in the Official

Gazette and the term "notify" or "notified" shall be construed accordingly;

(32) "owner", in relation to a vessel, means the person to whom the

vessel or a share in the vessel belongs;

(33) "passenger" means any person carried onboard a vessel, except—

(a) a person employed or engaged in any capacity onboard the

vessel on the business of the vessel;

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(b) a person onboard the vessel either in pursuance of the obligations laid upon the master to carry shipwrecked, distressed or other persons or by reason of any circumstances which neither the master nor the charterer, if any, could have prevented or forestalled; and

(34) "passenger vessel" means a vessel carrying more than twelve

passengers;

(35) "pollution damage" means,—

(a) loss or damage caused outside the vessel resulting from the escape, emission or discharge of cargo, oil or any other material from the vessel, wherever such escape, emission or discharge may occur; or

(b) the costs of impairment of environment or costs of preventive measures and further loss or damage caused by preventive measures;

(36) "pollution prevention convention" means any convention relating to prevention of pollution from vessels, to which India is a party, including MARPOL Convention, Anti-Fouling Systems Convention and Ballast Water Management Convention;

(37) "port" shall include port facility, shipyard, ship breaking yards,

ship repair unit, offshore facilities and terminals;

(38) "port authority",—

1 of 2021.

(a) in relation to any major port, means the Board of Major Port Authority constituted under section 3 of the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021;

(b) in relation to any other port, means such person or body of persons responsible for the administration of ports under any other applicable law;

(c) in relation to any terminal or place not forming a part of a port, means the person under whose supervision the terminal or place is operated;

(39) "port facility" means any location or area including anchorages or awaiting berths or approaches from seaward as determined by the Central Government, or such designated authority as the Central Government may notify, where interface between vessels or a vessel and a port takes place;

(40) "port of registry" means the port or place notified as such under sub-section (3) of section 15 and in relation to a vessel, sailing vessel, fishing vessel or any other vessel, means the port at which such vessel is registered;

(41) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made by the Central

Government under this Act;

(42) "principal officer" means the principal officer appointed under

sub-section (2) of section 11;

(43) "proceeding" includes any suit, appeal or application under this

Act;

(44) "proper officer" means the officer designated by the Central Government to be the proper officer at the port or place and in respect of the matters to which reference is made in this Act;

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(45) "proper return port" means such port as is agreed upon by the seafarer and his employer, in the agreement or otherwise, or in the absence of an agreement, the port where the seafarer was employed or joined the vessel;

(46) "property", in relation to a seafarer, includes personal effects;

(47) "reception facilities", in relation to a port, terminal, shipyard, ship repair facility or ship recycling facility, means facilities for enabling vessels using the port terminal, shipyard, ship repair facility or ship recycling facility to discharge or deposit any substance;

(48) "Registrar" means the Registrar of Indian vessel referred to in

section 18;

(49) "registered owner" means the person or persons registered as the

owner of the vessel;

(50) "Safety Convention" means the international convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, signed in London on the 1st day of November, 1974 and shall include its protocols;

(51) "sailing vessel" means any primitive or traditionally built wooden vessel not primarily propelled, provided with sufficient sail area for navigation under sails alone, whether or not fitted with mechanical means of propulsion, but does not include a pleasure craft;

(52) "salvage" means any act or activity undertaken to assist a vessel or any other property in danger in navigable waters or in any other waters whatsoever;

(53) "Salvage Convention" means the International Convention on

Salvage, 1989, signed in London on the 28th day of April, 1989;

(54) "salvor" means any person rendering services in direct

connection with salvage operation;

(55) "sea-going", in relation to a vessel, means a vessel proceeding or intending to proceed beyond such waters as the Central Government or the State Government may, by notification, declare to be inland waters;

(56) "seafarer" means any person who is employed or engaged or

works in any capacity onboard a sea-going vessel, but does not include,—

(i) a person who is in the employment or engagement or work onboard in any capacity in a warship or any Government vessel used for military or non-commercial purposes; or

(ii) any other person as the Central Government may, by

notification, specify;

((cid:24)(cid:26)) "seafarer's welfare officer" means the seafarer's welfare officer appointed under sub-section (2) of section 12;

((cid:24)(cid:27)) "security", in relation to maritime security, includes any

measures to protect port facility or vessels or any person or thing relating directly or indirectly to maritime navigation,—

(i) against terrorism, sabotage, stowaways, illegal migrants,

asylum seekers, piracy, armed robbery, seizure or pilferage; and

(ii) against any other hostile act or influence which threatens the

security in the maritime transport sector,

employed by the owners or operators or persons in charge of the vessels or management of port facilities, offshore installations and other marine organisations or establishments, or undertaken by the Central Government;

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(59) "ship" means any watercraft, used or capable of being used in navigation in, above, or under the water; but does not include fishing vessel or sailing vessels;

(60) "ship owner" means the owner, including the registered owner

and bareboat charterer, of the vessel;

(61) "shipping master" means the shipping master appointed under

section 12;

(62) "shipping office" means the shipping office established under

section 12;

(63) "special trade passenger" means a passenger carried in special trade passenger vessel in spaces on the weather deck or upper deck or between decks which accommodate more than eight passengers;

(64) "State" means any country including India;

(65) "Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention" means International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers, 1978, signed in London on the 7th day of July, 1978;

(66) "surveyor" means a person appointed under clause (d) of

sub-section (1) of section 8, or section 9;

(67) "tindal" means the person in command or charge of a sailing vessel;

(68) "Tribunal" means the Tribunal constituted under sub-section (1)

of section 89;

(69) "unseaworthy vessel" means vessel, the materials of which she is made, her construction and design, the number, description and qualification of the seafarers including officers, the weight, description and stowage of the cargo and ballast, the condition of her hull and equipment, boilers and machinery are not such as to render her in every respect fit for the proposed voyage or service;

(70) "vessel" includes every description of water craft used or capable of being used in the marine environment, such as ship, boat, sailing vessel, fishing vessel, submersible, semi-submersible, hydrofoils, non-displacement crafts, amphibious crafts, wing-in-ground crafts, pleasure crafts, barges, lighters, Mobile Offshore Drilling Units, Mobile Offshore Units, or of any other description, whether fitted with mechanical means of propulsion or not;

(71) "voyage" means the passage between the vessel's port or place of departure and her final port or place of arrival, including the activities within the port;

(72) "wages" include emoluments;

(73) "wreck" includes the following, upon a maritime casualty, namely:—

(a) a sunken or stranded vessel; or

(b) any part of a sunken or stranded vessel, including any object

or goods or cargo that is or has been onboard such a vessel;

8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

stranded, sunken or adrift at sea; or

(d) a vessel that is in distress or is about, or may reasonably be expected, to sink or to strand, where effective measures to assist the vessel or any property in danger are not already being taken to the satisfaction of the Director-General.

PART II

ESTABLISHMENT OF BOARDS AND GENERAL ADMINISTRATION

CHAPTER I

ESTABLISHMENT OF NATIONAL SHIPPING BOARD AND SEAFARER'S WELFARE BOARD

Establishment of National Shipping Board.

4. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf, there shall be established a Board to be called the National Shipping Board (hereinafter referred to as the Shipping Board) for the purposes of this Act.

(2) The Shipping Board shall consist of the following members, namely:—

(a) six members of Parliament of whom four shall be elected from amongst themselves by members of the House of the People and two from amongst themselves by the members of the Council of States;

(b) such number of other members, not exceeding sixteen, out of which at least four shall be women, as the Central Government may think fit to appoint to the Shipping Board, to represent—

(i) the Central Government;

(ii) ship owners;

(iii) seafarers; and

(iv) such other interests as in the opinion of the Central

Government, ought to be represented on the Shipping Board:

Provided that the Shipping Board shall include an equal number of persons

representing the ship owners and seafarers.

(3) The term of a member elected under clause (a) of sub-section (2) shall come to an end as soon as he ceases to be a member of the House from which he was elected.

(4) The Central Government shall nominate one of the members of the

Shipping Board to be its Chairperson.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, the Member of Parliament referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (2) or nominated as Chairperson under sub-section (4), shall not be deemed to be holding the office of profit for the purposes of sub-clause (a) of clause (1) of article 102 of the Constitution.

(6) The Shipping Board shall advise the Central Government,—

(a) on matters relating to Indian shipping including the development

thereof; and

(b) on such other matters arising out of this Act as the Central

Government may refer to it for advice.

(7) The Shipping Board shall have power to regulate its own procedure for

the conduct of its business.

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(8) The term of office, manner of filling casual vacancies and travelling and other allowances payable to, members of the Shipping Board and the service conditions of the Chairperson, shall be such as may be prescribed.

(9) The Shipping Board shall be assisted by such officers and other employees and the manner of their appointment and the terms and conditions of their service shall be such as may be prescribed.

Constitution of Seafarer's Welfare Board.

5. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may, by notification specify in this behalf, there shall be constituted an advisory board to be called as Seafarer's Welfare Board (hereinafter referred to as the Welfare Board) for the purposes of advising the Central Government on the measures to be taken for promoting the welfare of seafarers under this Act, generally and in particular on the following matters, namely:—

(a) the establishment of hostels or boarding and lodging houses for

seafarers;

(b) the establishment of clubs, canteens, libraries and other like

amenities for the benefit of seafarers;

for seafarers;

(d) the provision of educational and other facilities for seafarers;

(e) the measures to be taken for welfare of distressed or abandoned seafarers;

(f) the measures to be taken in the case of seafarer who is a foreigner

but abandoned in the waters within the jurisdiction of India.

(2) The composition of the Welfare Board, the term of office of members thereof, the procedure to be followed in the conduct of its business, the travelling and other allowances payable to, members of the Welfare Board, shall be such as may be prescribed.

(3) The fee payable by the owners of vessels for the purposes of providing amenities to seafarers, the procedure by which any such fee may be collected or recovered and the manner in which the proceeds of such fees, after deduction of the cost of collection, shall be utilised, shall be such as may be prescribed.

(4) The port based welfare facility and any other measures to be taken for

promoting the welfare of seafarers shall be such as may be prescribed.

6. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Chapter.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing

power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the term of office, manner of filling vacancies and the travelling and other allowances payable to the members of the Shipping Board and the service conditions of the Chairperson under sub-section (8) of section 4;

(b) the manner of appointment of officers and other employees of the Shipping Board and the terms and conditions of their service under sub-section (9) of section 4;

(c) the composition of the Welfare Board, term of office of its members, procedure for conduct of business and the travelling and other allowances payable to such members under sub-section (2) of section 5;

(d) the fee payable by owners of vessels, procedure for collection of fees and the manner in which the proceeds of such fees shall be utilised under sub-section (3) of section 5; and10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (e) the port based welfare facility and other measures to be taken for

promoting the welfare of seafarers under sub-section (4) of section 5.

CHAPTER II

MARITIME ADMINISTRATION

Director- General of Maritime Administration.

7. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, appoint a person to be the Director-General of Maritime Administration for the purposes of exercising or discharging the powers, authority or duties conferred or imposed upon him by or under this Act.

(2) The Central Government may, by general or special order, direct that any power, authority or jurisdiction exercisable by it under or in relation to any such provisions of this Act as may be specified in the order shall, subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be so specified, be exercisable also by the Director-General or such other officer as may be specified in the order.

(3) The Director-General may, with the previous approval of the Central Government, by general or special order, direct that any power or authority conferred upon or delegated to, and any duty imposed upon him by or under this Act may, subject to such conditions and restrictions as he may think fit to impose, be exercised or discharged also by such officer or other authority as he may specify in this behalf.

(4) Every officer specified in section 8 shall discharge their functions under

the general superintendence and control of the Director-General.

Officers.

8. (1) There shall be the following officers to be appointed by the Central Government who shall discharge the duties and functions under this Act, namely:—

(a) Additional Director-General;

(b) Deputy Director-General;

(d) Surveyors, which shall include the following, namely:―

(i) nautical advisor;

(ii) chief surveyor;

(iii) chief ship surveyor;

(iv) principal officer;

(v) deputy nautical advisor;

(vi) deputy chief surveyor;

(vii) deputy chief ship surveyor;

(viii) nautical surveyor;

(ix) engineer and ship surveyor;

(x) ship surveyor;

(xi) junior ship surveyor;

(e) shipping master which shall include deputy or assistant shipping

master;

(f) director which shall include deputy director or assistant director;

(g) senior radio surveyor;

(h) radio inspector;

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(i) seafarer's welfare officer;

(j) any other officer as may be notified by the Central Government.

(2) The salary, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of the

officers specified in sub-section (1) shall be such as may be prescribed.

Surveyors.

9. The Central Government may, by notification, appoint, as many persons

as it may think fit to be surveyors for the purposes of this Act:

Provided that the Central Government may, by notification, authorise any person or body of persons, on such terms and conditions as may be specified therein, to be surveyor for the purposes of this Act.

Senior radio surveyors and radio inspectors.

10. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, appoint, as many senior radio surveyors and radio inspectors as it may consider necessary for the purpose of securing compliance with the requirements of this Act and the rules made thereunder relating to radio communication.

(2) The powers and functions of the senior radio surveyors and radio

inspectors shall be such as may be prescribed.

Mercantile Marine Department. 11. (1) The Central Government may establish and maintain at each of the ports of Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Kochi, Kandla and such other ports or places in India, as it may consider necessary, an office of the Mercantile Marine Department for the administration of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

(2) The Central Government may, by notification, appoint a person to be the principal officer who shall be incharge of the office of the Mercantile Marine Departments at the ports of Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Kochi, Kandla and any other port or places notified by the Central Government.

(3) The Central Government may, by notification, specify the office of the Mercantile Marine Department at any other port or place which shall be in the charge of such officer as the Central Government may appoint in this behalf.

Shipping office.

12. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, establish a shipping office at every port in India in which it thinks it necessary so to do, and shall as it may consider necessary, appoint thereto—

(a) a shipping master and as many deputy shipping masters and

assistant shipping masters as may be required;

(b) a director and as many deputy directors and assistant directors as

may be required; and

(2) The Central Government may appoint seafarer's welfare officers at such

ports in or outside India as it may consider necessary.

(3) The Central Government may direct that at any port at which no separate shipping office is established, the whole or any part of the business of the shipping office shall be conducted at such office as the Central Government may specify, and thereupon the same shall be conducted accordingly.

13. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, constitute a body for the security of vessels and port facilities, with such name and to be headed by an officer with such designation, as may be specified therein.

Body for security of vessels and port facilities.

(2) The administration of the body shall vest in the officer who shall head

the body constituted under sub-section (1).

(3) The body constituted under sub-section (1) shall be responsible for carrying out the regulatory and oversight function in respect of such matters relating to security of vessels and port facilities as may be prescribed:

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Provided that while framing rules under this sub-section, the Central Government shall take into consideration the provisions of the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code under the Safety Convention.

(4) Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (3), the body

constituted under sub-section (1) shall perform the following functions, namely:—

(a) provide regulatory framework for security of vessels and port

facilities;

(b) ensure timely collection and exchange of security related

information with regard to vessels and port facilities;

(d) any other functions as may be prescribed.

PART III

REGISTRATION OF VESSELS

14. This Part shall apply to sea-going vessels.

Application of this Part.

Indian vessel and its registration.

15. (1) No vessel shall be an Indian vessel unless such vessel is owned by any of the following persons and in such proportion of ownership as may be notified by the Central Government, namely:—

(a) a citizen of India including a Non-Resident Indian or an Overseas

Citizen of India; or

(b) a company or a body established by or under any Central Act or State

Act having its registered office or principal place of business in India; or

notification, specify in this behalf.

(2) No vessel which is wholly owned by an Overseas Citizen of India shall

be required to be registered as an Indian vessel.

(3) The Central Government may, by notification, declare any port or place as a port of registry under this Act and every Indian vessel shall be registered under this Part.

(4) Any vessel registered at a port in India under any enactment repealed by this Act shall, at the commencement of this Act, be deemed to have been registered under this Act and recognised as an Indian vessel.

(5) Subject to any exemptions or modifications made by the Central

Government, all vessels belonging to the Government, other than vessels of the Indian Navy, Indian Coast Guard, customs authorities, Central Armed Police Forces and police, shall be registered under this Act.

(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, an Indian vessel may be registered in a State other than India subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

(7) Any Indian vessel proceeding to sea without a valid certificate of registration under this Act shall be detained until a valid certificate of registration is produced to the proper officer.

(8) A vessel other than an Indian vessel abandoned in Indian waters which is subsequently acquired by an entity eligible to register a vessel underNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 13 this Act may be registered under this Act in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

Registration of Indian chartered foreign vessels.

16. Any foreign vessel chartered on a bareboat charter-cum-demise contract by an Indian charterer may be registered under this Part in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "bareboat charter-cum-demise" means a bareboat charter where the ownership of the vessel is intended to be transferred after a specified period to the charterer to whom it has been chartered.

49 of 2019.

Temporary registration of vessels sought to be recycled.

17. Any vessel not registered under this Act which is sought to be recycled in India in accordance with the provisions of the Recycling of Ships Act, 2019 and the rules made thereunder, may be registered temporarily under this Part in such manner, for such duration and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

Registrar of Indian vessels.

18. The principal officer of the Mercantile Marine Department or such person as the Central Government may, by notification authorise, shall be the Registrar of Indian vessels at such port of registry as may be specified in the notification.

Provisional registration of Indian vessel.

19. (1) If, at any port or place a vessel becomes entitled to be registered as an Indian vessel, the Registrar may grant a provisional certificate of registration in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed and such provisional certificate shall have the effect of a certificate of registration.

(2) The procedure for validity and extension or cancellation of such

registration shall be such as may be prescribed.

(3) The unsatisfied mortgage shall continue to be reflected in the register

book in case of deemed closure of the provisional registration.

20. (1) An Indian vessel shall be registered in accordance with such

procedure, for such period and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed.

Procedure for registration of Indian vessels.

(2) On the expiry of the period specified in sub-section (1), the registration of the vessel shall be renewed in accordance with such procedure and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed.

(3) The Director-General shall, by way of an order, specify certain conditions for an Indian vessel and for different classes of vessels sought to be registered under this Act.

(4) Where it appears to the Registrar that there is any doubt as to the title of any Indian vessel, he may require evidence to be given to his satisfaction that the vessel is entitled to be registered as an Indian vessel in such manner and in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

(5) The Registrar shall, on being satisfied with the requirements of this

section, grant—

(a) a certificate of registration containing the particulars of the vessel as entered in the register book in such form and manner as may be prescribed;

(b) a tonnage certificate containing the gross and net tonnage as

determined in such manner as may be prescribed.

(6) In the event of the certificate of registration being defaced or mutilated, a new certificate shall be granted in lieu of the original certificate in such manner as may be prescribed.

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(7) In the event of a registered vessel being,—

(a) actually, or constructively lost;

(b) taken by the enemy;

(d) for any reason, ceasing to be an Indian vessel; or

(e) registered under any other law for the time being in force at the

relevant time,

every owner of such vessel shall immediately on obtaining knowledge of the event, comply with such procedure as may be prescribed.

(8) Every Indian vessel shall be described by such name, call sign and

official number in such manner as may be prescribed.

(9) Every Registrar shall keep a register book, make entries in that book and maintain the records of vessels registered under the provisions of this Act, in such manner as may be prescribed.

(10) Where there is a change in ownership of a registered Indian vessel, the Registrar of the port of registry shall register the name of new owner and grant a fresh certificate of registration, in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

Temporary pass in lieu of certificate of registration.

21. Where, pursuant to an application for registration made before the Registrar, a certificate of registration has not been granted to a vessel within the specified period, but it appears to the Central Government that by reason of such special circumstances as may be prescribed, it is desirable that permission should be granted to any Indian vessel to proceed on a voyage, the Central Government may authorise the Registrar to grant a pass in such form as may be prescribed, and that pass shall for the period and within the limits mentioned therein have the same effect as a certificate of registration.

Custody and use of certificate.

22. (1) The certificate of registration shall be used only for the lawful navigation of the vessel and shall at all times remain in the custody of the person in charge of the vessel and shall not be subject to detention by reason of any title, lien, charge or interest whatever, had or claimed by any owner, mortgagee or other person to, on or in the vessel.

(2) No person, whether interested in a vessel or not who has in his possession or under his control the certificate of registration of a vessel shall refuse or omit without reasonable cause, to deliver such certificate on demand, to the person entitled to the custody thereof for the purposes of the lawful navigation of the vessel or, to any Registrar or other person entitled by law to require such delivery.

(3) If the master or owner of an Indian vessel uses or attempts to use for her navigation a certificate of registration not legally granted in respect of the vessel, he shall be guilty of an offence under this sub-section and the vessel shall be liable to forfeiture.

Transfer of Indian vessel or shares.

23. (1) No person shall transfer or acquire any Indian vessel or any share or interest therein at any time during which the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by sanction, war or external aggression and a proclamation of emergency issued under clause (1) of article 352 of the Constitution is in operation, without the previous approval of the Central Government and any transaction effected in contravention of this provision shall be void and unenforceable.

(2) The Central Government may, if it considers necessary or expedient so to do for the purpose of conserving the tonnage of Indian shipping, by order, refuse to give its approval to any such transfer or acquisition in the circumstances referred under sub-section (1).

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 15

(3) No transfer or acquisition of any Indian vessel shall be valid unless,—

(a) all mortgages entered in its register are satisfied or the mortgagee

has given his consent in writing for the transfer of the vessel;

(b) all wages and other amounts due to seafarers in connection with their employment on that vessel have been paid in accordance with the provisions of this Act;

transfer or any dealing with that vessel;

(d) any unpaid statutory fees that may be levied on the vessel has been

paid and informed in writing to the Registrar.

(4) Subject to the provisions contained in this section, an Indian vessel or a share therein shall be transferred, only by an instrument, in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

(5) The instrument for the transfer of an Indian vessel or of a share therein shall be registered by the Registrar in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

Transmission of property in Indian vessel on death, insolvency, etc. 24. The property in an Indian vessel or share therein may be transmitted to a person on the death or insolvency of any registered owner or by any lawful means other than by a transfer under this Act subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

25. Where, by reason of the transmission of any property in a vessel or a share therein on death, insolvency or otherwise, a vessel ceases to be an Indian vessel, it may be ordered to be sold in such manner as may be prescribed.

Order for sale where vessel has ceased to be an Indian vessel.

Mortgage of vessel or share.

26. (1) The mortgage of an Indian vessel shall be in the prescribed form and on the production of such instrument, the Registrar of Indian vessel's port of registry shall record it in the register book in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) Mortgages shall be recorded by the Registrar in the order of time in which they are produced to him for that purpose, and the Registrar shall, by memorandum under his hand, notify on each mortgage that it has been recorded by him stating the day and hour of that record.

(3) Except in so far as may be necessary for making a mortgaged vessel or share available as a security for the mortgage debt, the mortgagee shall not, by reason of his mortgage, be deemed to be the owner of the vessel or share, nor shall the mortgagor be deemed to have ceased to be owner thereof.

(4) Where a registered mortgage is discharged, the Registrar shall, on the production of such documents as may be prescribed, make an entry in the register book to the effect that the mortgage has been discharged, and on that entry being made, the estate, if any, which passed to the mortgagee shall vest in the person in whom (having regard to intervening acts and circumstances, if any) it would have vested, if the mortgage had not been made.

(5) If there are more than one recorded mortgage in respect of the same vessel or share, the mortgagees shall, notwithstanding any express, implied or constructive notice, have priority according to the date and time on which each mortgage is recorded in the register book and not according to the date of each mortgage itself.

Rights of mortgagee.

27. (1) Where there is only one registered mortgagee of a vessel or share, he shall be entitled to recover the amount due under the mortgage by selling the mortgaged vessel or share without approaching the High Court:

16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall prevent the mortgagee

from recovering the amount so due in the High Court as provided in sub-section (2).

(2) Where there are two or more registered mortgagees of a vessel or share, they shall be entitled to recover the amount due under the mortgage in the High Court, and when passing a decree or thereafter the High Court may direct that the mortgaged vessel or share be sold in execution of the decree.

(3) Every registered mortgagee of a vessel or share who intends to recover the amount due under the mortgage by selling the mortgaged vessel or share under sub-section (1) shall give a notice relating to such sale to the Registrar of Indian vessel's port of registry in such form as may be prescribed.

(4) The notice under sub-section (3) shall be accompanied with the proof of payment of the wages due to the seafarers in connection with their employment on that vessel.

Liability of mortgagee.

28. When, during the continuance of the mortgage, the mortgagee takes possession of the mortgaged vessel or is asserting a claim before the court for possession of the vessel, he shall be responsible for—

(a) managing the vessel as if it were his own vessel;

(b) making such necessary repairs to the mortgaged vessel as may be

required for the smooth operation and normal functioning of the vessel;

injurious to the vessel; and

(d) such other liability as may be prescribed.

Mortgage not affected by insolvency.

29. A registered mortgage of a vessel or share shall not be affected by any act of insolvency committed by the mortgagor after the date of the record of such mortgage, notwithstanding that the mortgagor, at the commencement of his insolvency, had the vessel or share in his possession, order or disposition, or was the reputed owner thereof, and the mortgage shall be preferred to any right, claim or interest therein of the other creditors of the insolvent or any trustee or assignee on their behalf.

Transfer of mortgages.

30. (1) A registered mortgage of a vessel or share may be transferred to any person in such manner and the instrument effecting the transfer shall be in such form as may be prescribed.

(2) The person to whom any such mortgage has been transferred shall enjoy

the same right of preference as was enjoyed by the transferor.

31. The transmission of the interest of a mortgagee in a vessel or share on death, or insolvency, or by any lawful means other than by a transfer under this Act shall be in accordance with such procedure and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

Transmission of interest in mortgage in certain circumstances.

32. (1) An Indian vessel shall not be described by any name other than that

by which she is for the time being registered.

Rules as to name of vessel.

(2) The Registrar may refuse the registration of any Indian vessel by the name by which it is proposed if that name is already borne by another vessel or if the name be so similar as is calculated or likely to deceive.

(3) A change shall not be made in the name of an Indian vessel except in

such manner as may be prescribed.

(4) If any person acts or suffers any person under his control to act in contravention of this section or omits to do or suffers any person under his control to omit to do anything required under this section, the vessel may be detained until the provisions of this section are complied with:

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 17

Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a foreign vessel

which has become, and is sought to be registered as, an Indian vessel.

Registration of alterations.

33. When a registered vessel is so altered as not to correspond with the particulars relating to her tonnage or description contained in the register book, then, if the alteration is made at any port having a Registrar, that Registrar, or if it is made elsewhere, the Registrar of the first port at which the vessel arrives after the alteration, shall, on an application being made to him by the owner stating the particulars of the alteration, either cause the alteration to be registered or direct that the vessel be re-registered:

Provided that in case the vessel so altered is outside Indian port, the Registrar may on report of inspection of such vessel by a surveyor or the person authorised under sub-section (1) of section 9, re-register the vessel without any requirement of the vessel to visit Indian port.

Provisional certificate and endorsement where vessel is to be re-registered.

34. Where any Registrar, not being the Registrar of the vessel's port of registry, on an application as to an alteration in a vessel directs the vessel to be re-registered, he shall either grant a provisional certificate describing the vessel as altered, or provisionally endorse the particulars of the alteration on the existing certificate.

Transfer of registration.

35. The registration of any vessel may be transferred from one port or place of registry to another on an application to the Registrar of the existing port or place of registry of the vessel made by declaration in writing of all persons appearing in the register to be interested therein as owners or mortgagees, but that transfer shall not in any way affect the rights of those persons or any of them and those rights shall in all respects continue in the same manner as if no such transfer had been effected.

Restrictions on re-registration of abandoned vessel.

36. Where a vessel has ceased to be registered as an Indian vessel by reason of having been wrecked or abandoned, or for any reason other than capture by the enemy, the vessel shall not be re-registered until she has, at the expense of the applicant, been surveyed by a surveyor and certified by him to be seaworthy.

National colours for Indian vessels.

37. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, declare the proper national colours for all Indian vessels and for all vessels owned by the Government and different colours may be declared for different classes of vessels.

(2) Vessels registered under this Part shall hoist the proper national

colours,—

(a) on a signal being made to her by any vessel of the Indian Navy

or Indian Coast Guard;

(b) on entering or leaving any port.

(3) Any commissioned officer of the Indian Navy or an officer of the Indian Coast Guard or a surveyor or an Indian ambassador may board any vessel on which any colours are hoisted contrary to this Act and seize and take away the colours which shall be forfeited to the Government.

(4) No person onboard a vessel which is not an Indian vessel shall, for the purpose of making it appear to be an Indian vessel, use the Indian national colours, unless the assumption of Indian character has been made for the purpose of escaping capture by the enemy or by a foreign vessel of war in the exercise of some belligerent right.

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Concealment of Indian or assumption of foreign character.

38. No owner or master of an Indian vessel shall knowingly do anything or permit anything to be done, or carry or permit to be carried any papers or documents, with intent to conceal the Indian character of the vessel from any person entitled by any law for the time being in force to inquire into the same, or with intent to assume a foreign character for the vessel, or with intent to deceive any person so entitled.

Liabilities of vessel not recognised as Indian vessel.

39. Where it is declared by this Act that an Indian vessel shall not be recognised as such, that vessel shall not be entitled to any privileges, benefits, advantages or protection usually enjoyed by Indian vessel or to use the Indian national colours for Indian vessel or to assume the Indian national character but so far as regards the payment of dues, the liability to fine or penalty and forfeiture and the punishment of offences committed onboard such vessel or by any person belonging to her, such vessel shall be dealt with in the same manner in all respects as if she were a recognised Indian vessel.

Proceedings on forfeiture of vessel.

40. Where any vessel has either wholly or as to any share therein become subject to forfeiture under this Part, any commissioned officer of the Indian Navy or Indian Coast Guard or an Indian ambassador or any other officer authorised by the Central Government, may seize and detain the vessel, under the directions of the proper officer and bring her for adjudication before the High Court and the High Court may thereupon adjudge the vessel with her equipment to be forfeited to the Government and make such order in the case as the High Court seems just and may award to the officer bringing in the vessel for adjudication such portion of the proceeds of the sale of the vessel or any share therein as the High Court thinks fit.

Liability of owners.

41. Where any person is beneficially interested otherwise than by way of mortgage, in any vessel or share in a vessel registered in the name of some other person as owner, the person so interested as well as the registered owner shall be subject to all the pecuniary penalties or fine imposed by this Act or any other law for the time being in force on the owners of vessel or shares therein, and proceedings for the enforcement of any such penalties or fine may be taken against both or either of the said parties jointly or severally.

42. (1) A person may on application to the Registrar and on payment of such fees as may be prescribed, inspect any register book, and may obtain a certified copy of any entry in the register book.

Evidence of register book, certificate of registration and other documents.

(2) A certified copy of an entry in a register book shall be admissible in evidence in any court and have the same effect to all intents as the original entry in the register book of which it is a copy.

Closure of registration.

43. (1) The owner of an Indian vessel may make an application to the Registrar in such form and manner as may be prescribed, to close its registration if there is no—

(a) unsatisfied mortgage entered in its register; or

(b) outstanding claims of the master or seafarer of the vessel in

respect of wages which have been intimated.

(2) On receipt of the application under sub-section (1), the Registrar shall, if he is satisfied, by an order, close the registration of the vessel and make an entry thereof in the register and forward the copy of closure report to the Director-General.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "owner" includes any transferee of, or any person entitled under a transmission to the property in, an Indian vessel.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 19

44. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing

power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the conditions for registration of an Indian vessel under sub-section (6)

of section 15;

(b) the procedure for registration of an abandoned vessel under

sub-section (8) of section 15;

(c) the manner and conditions for registration of a foreign vessel chartered on a bareboat charter-cum-demise contract by an Indian charterer under section 16;

(d) the manner, duration and conditions for temporary registration of a

vessel sought to be recycled under section 17;

(e) the procedure for issuance of provisional certificate of registration under sub-section (1) and the procedure, validity, and extension of such registration or cancellation under sub-section (2), of section 19;

(f) the procedure, period and fees for registration and renewal thereof,

of an Indian vessel under sub-section (1) and sub-section (2) of section 20;

(g) the manner and procedure in accordance with which the Registrar may require evidence to be given for the purposes of inquiring into the title of an Indian vessel under sub-section (4) of section 20;

(h) the form and manner of grant of certificate of registration and manner

of determination of gross and net tonnage under sub-section (5) of section 20;

(i) the manner of granting new certificate in lieu of original certificate of

registration being defaced or mutilated under sub-section (6) of section 20;

(j) the compliance of procedure by the owner of registered vessel

under sub-section (7) of section 20;

(k) the manner of description of the name, call sign and official

number of Indian vessels under sub-section (8) of section 20;

(l) the manner of keeping the register book and making entries therein and maintenance of the records of vessels registered under this Act under sub-section (9) of section 20;

(m) the procedure for registration and issuance of a fresh certificate

under sub-section (10) of section 20;

(n) the special circumstances for grant of temporary pass and the form

in which such pass shall be granted under section 21;

(o) the form and manner of instrument by which an Indian vessel or

share therein shall be transferred under sub-section (4) of section 23;

(p) the procedure for registration of the instrument by which an Indian vessel or a share therein shall be transferred under sub-section (5) of section 23;

(q) the procedure for transmission of property in Indian vessel on

death, insolvency, etc., under section 24;

(r) the manner in which a vessel ceasing to be an Indian vessel is

ordered for sale under section 25;

(s) the form of mortgage and the procedure and manner in which the Registrar shall record the mortgage in the register book, under sub-section (1) of section 26;

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(t) the documents required to be produced for the discharge of a

registered mortgage of a vessel under sub-section (4) of section 26;

(u) the form of notice under sub-section (3) of section 27;

(v) the other liabilities of mortgagee under clause (d) of section 28;

(w) the manner for transfer of mortgage and the form of instrument

effecting the transfer of mortgage, under sub-section (1) of section 30;

(x) the procedure and conditions for transmission of interest in

mortgage under section 31;

(y) the manner in which the name of an Indian vessel may be

changed under sub-section (3) of section 32;

(z) the fee for inspection of register book and a certified copy of

any entry of the register book under sub-section (1) of section 42;

(za) the form and manner of application for closure of registration

under sub-section (1) of section 43;

(zb) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

PART IV

MARITIME EDUCATION AND TRAINING

Certificates to be held by seafarers.

45. (1) Every Indian vessel shall have seafarers with manning scales, based on categories of vessel, areas and types of operations, as may be prescribed.

(2) The seafarer shall hold certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency granted under section 46 appropriate to his rank in the vessel, or of such higher grade, as may be prescribed:

Provided that an Indian national, including Overseas Citizen of India with such certificate or foreign certificate of competency recognised by the Director-General, may serve on Indian vessels subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed.

Certificate of competency and certificate of proficiency.

46. (1) An officer notified by the Central Government as the issuing authority shall, subject to the provisions of the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention, grant a certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency for different grades of seafarers with such requirements and procedures as may be prescribed.

(2) No certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency shall be granted under sub-section (1), unless the seafarer fulfils the requirements in respect of service, age limit, medical fitness, approved training courses including onboard training, qualifications and examination in accordance with the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention.

(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-sections (1) and (2), the issuing authority notified under sub-section (1) may grant such other certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency with such requirements and procedures as may be prescribed.

(4) The form, fee, period of validity and the manner of keeping record of a certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency shall be such as may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 21

Training for grant of certificate of competency and certificate of proficiency.

47. (1) The Director-General shall administer, supervise and monitor all activities relating to maritime education, training and assessment and approve the training institutes, training courses including onboard training, as applicable and method of conduct of such training course for the grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency under this Part.

(2) No certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency referred to in sub-section (1) shall be granted unless the training required for certification under the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention is imparted in accordance with the provisions of this section.

(3) The Director-General may, for the purposes of this Part, authorise a surveyor or any person or body of persons to inspect any maritime training institute and the person so authorised in this behalf shall submit the report to the Director-General.

(4) The Director-General may, after receipt of the inspection report under sub-section (3), if he is satisfied that the maritime training institute has contravened any provisions of this Part, suspend or withdraw the approval granted to such maritime training institute after giving the institute an opportunity of being heard.

(5) The Central Government, on receipt of any information pertaining to any training institute operating without obtaining approval of the Director-General under sub-section (1), may undertake action against such institute in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

(6) Every pilot or person performing the duties of a pilot at any port shall, from time to time, undergo such training and possess such certificates as the Director-General may by order, specify.

Examination for grant of certificates.

48. (1) The Central Government shall appoint such persons having the qualifications in accordance with the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention as examiners for the purposes of assessing and examining the competence of persons desirous of obtaining certificates of competency or proficiency under this Part.

(2) The nautical advisor shall be the Chief Examiner for the master and deck department personnel and the chief surveyor shall be the Chief examiner for engine department personnel:

Provided that in the absence of the nautical advisor and the chief surveyor,

the Central Government may authorise any surveyor to act as the chief examiner.

(3) The manner of conducting examination for certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency, the fees to be charged and the payment to be made to the examiners appointed under sub-section (1), shall be such as may be prescribed.

(4) The issuing authority referred to in sub-section (1) of section 46 shall grant the certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency to every applicant duly reported by the examiners to have passed the examination and achieved the desired level of competence for that grade of certificate with satisfactory evidence of his sobriety, experience, ability and general good conduct onboard vessel.

(5) If the issuing authority is not satisfied with the report of the examiner, he may require re-examination of the applicant including inquiry into the applicant's testimonials and character.

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(6) If it appears to the issuing authority that a person holding a certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency has obtained it based on false or erroneous information, or is guilty of indiscipline or misconduct, incompetency, or any act of omission or commission or compromise to safety, security or prevention of pollution which may pose a threat to life or property or environment, he may, after due investigation, by order, withdraw, suspend or cancel such certificate:

Provided that no order shall be passed under this sub-section without giving the person holding the certificate a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

(7) The person whose certificate is withdrawn, suspended or cancelled by the issuing authority under sub-section (6) may appeal against such order, in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed, before such officer as the Central Government may, by notification specify, as the appellate authority.

(8) Whenever a person holding a certificate granted under this Part proves to the satisfaction of the issuing authority that he has lost or is deprived of such certificate, the issuing authority shall, on payment of such fee as may be prescribed, grant a copy of the certificate and such copy shall have all the effects of the original certificate.

Production of certificate of competency.

49. (1) The master of every vessel shall on demand, produce to the proper officer the certificates of competency of the seafarers of the vessel along with a list containing the particulars of grades of certificates of the seafarers including the master.

(2) A surveyor may at any reasonable time, go onboard a vessel to which any of the provisions of this Part applies, for the purpose of ensuring that the seafarers holding certificates granted in accordance with the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention are actually appointed and are present, and satisfy himself about the adequacy of such seafarers for the watchkeeping duties in ports and at sea.

Recognition of certificates of competency granted in other States.

50. (1) Where in a State other than India, certificate of competency is granted under any law for the time being in force in that State which is similar to those referred to in this Act, then if the Central Government is satisfied that,—

(a) the conditions under which any certificate of competency is granted in that State are not lower than the standards required for the grant under this Act for corresponding certificates; and

(b) the certificate granted under this Act is accepted in that State in

lieu of the corresponding certificate granted under the laws of that State,

the Central Government may, by notification, declare that any certificate of competency granted under the law in force in that State shall be recognised as equivalent to the corresponding certificate of competency granted under this Act.

(2) The certificate recognised under this section as equivalent may be issued with a certificate of endorsement as may be prescribed and a person holding such certificate of endorsement shall be considered as duly certificated under this Act.

Foreign vessel not to sail without seafarers having certificate.

51. (1) Every master of a foreign vessel shall, before proceeding to sea from any port or place in India, ensure that the vessel has the requisite number of seafarers of appropriate grades in compliance with the Safety Convention and Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention.

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(2) A surveyor or any person authorised in this behalf by the Central Government may, at any reasonable time, go onboard a vessel for the purpose of ensuring that the seafarers holding certificates granted in accordance with the Safety Convention and Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention are actually appointed and are present, and satisfy himself about the adequacy of such seafarers for the watchkeeping duties in ports and at sea.

(3) If a surveyor or any person authorised under sub-section (2) reports any deficiency in a foreign vessel in relation to the requirements of the Safety Convention and Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention and the Central Government is satisfied that it is unsafe for such vessel to proceed to sea, that vessel may be detained by the proper officer till such requirements are fulfilled.

Obligations of certain certificate holders to serve on Indian vessels.

52. Every Indian citizen holding a certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency or certificate recognised under section 50, shall, at any time during which the security of India is threatened or during a proclamation of emergency issued under clause (1) of article 352 of the Constitution, be liable to serve on Indian vessel for such period and on such terms and conditions as the Central Government may, by general or special order, specify in this behalf.

53. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing

power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the manning scales of the seafarers based on different categories of

vessel, areas and types of operations under sub-section (1) of section 45;

(b) the grade of a certificate and the conditions and restrictions subject to which seafarers may serve on Indian vessels under sub-section (2) of section 45;

(c) the requirements and procedure for grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency to the different grades of seafarer under sub-section (1) of section 46;

(d) the requirement and procedure for grant of other certificates of

competency or certificates of proficiency under sub-section (3) of section 46;

(e) the form of certificate, fees and the validity of such certificate and the manner in which the records of certificates are to be kept under sub-section (4) of section 46;

(f) the procedure in accordance with which the Central Government may undertake action against training institutes operating without approval of the Director-General under sub-section (5) of section 47;

(g) the manner of conducting examination for certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency, fee to be charged and payment to be made to the examiners under sub-section (3) of section 48;

(h) the procedure in accordance with which a person may appeal before the appellate authority against the order passed by the issuing authority under sub-section (7) of section 48;

(i) the fee for grant of certificate if lost or deprived, under sub-section (8) of

section 48;

(j) the certificate of endorsement under sub-section (2) of section 50;

(k) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

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PART V

SEAFARERS

54. Save as otherwise provided, this Part shall apply to,—

Application of this Part.

(a) every seafarer;

(b) recruitment and placement service; and

Definitions.

55. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance" means a declaration issued by the Central Government or by any officer, authority or organisation authorised by the Central Government in this behalf, in respect of a vessel that it meets with the requirements and standards set out in the provisions of the Maritime Labour Convention;

(b) "recruitment and placement service" means any person, company, institution, agency or other organisation, in public or private sector which is engaged in recruiting seafarers on behalf of employers or placing seafarers with the employers;

(c) "ship owner" means the owner of the ship or any organisation or person, such as the manager, agent or bareboat charterer, who has assumed the responsibility for the operation of the ship from the owner and who, on assuming such responsibility, has agreed to take over the duties and responsibilities imposed on ship owners in accordance with the Maritime Labour Convention, even if any other organisation or persons fulfil certain of the duties or responsibilities on behalf of the ship owner.

Classification of seafarers.

56. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, the provisions of this Act shall apply to any person employed or engaged as a seafarer.

(2) The Central Government shall make rules for the classification of seafarers into different categories, the minimum manning scale of seafarers of such categories, and the different scales for different classes of vessels.

(3) Seafarers shall be deemed to be key workers, for the purposes of facilitation of safe and unhindered movement for embarking or disembarking a vessel, shore leave, and when necessary, for shore-based medical treatment.

57. (1) The provisions relating to maritime labour standards as contained in the Maritime Labour Convention, shall apply to all seafarers and vessels registered under this Act, but shall not apply to,—

Application of maritime labour standards to seafarers and vessels.

(a) vessels which navigate exclusively in inland waters or waters within, or closely adjacent to, sheltered waters or areas where any law for the time being in force relating to ports apply;

(b) vessels engaged in fishing activities;

(d) vessels of war or naval auxiliaries.

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(2) Every vessel registered under this Act and every vessel other than an Indian vessel while within the jurisdiction of India shall, subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, be in possession of a certificate granted in accordance with the provisions of the Maritime Labour Convention.

(3) No vessel shall proceed to sea unless it is in possession of the certificate

referred to in sub-section (2).

(4) The ship owner and the recruitment and placement service provider shall jointly and severally be liable to discharge the responsibilities of the ship owner and such service provider shall be deemed to be the ship owner for the purposes of offences and penalties under sections 281 and 282.

58. (1) It shall be the duty of the shipping master to—

(a) monitor and facilitate the engagement and discharge of seafarers

in the manner provided under this Act;

Duties of shipping master, director and seafarer's welfare officer.

(b) provide means for securing the presence onboard at the proper

times of seafarers who are so engaged;

documents in such form and manner as may be prescribed;

(d) hear and decide disputes between a master, ship owner or his agent

and any of the seafarers;

(e) transmit the complaint of any dispute arising in the territorial waters of India, of a foreign seafarer with the master, ship owner or his agent in respect of a vessel registered in a State other than India, to the competent authority of the country of registration and a copy of such complaint shall be forwarded to the Director-General, International Labour Organisation Office.

(2) It shall be the duty of the director to—

(a) grant licence subject to such conditions as may be prescribed,

regulate and control the recruitment and placement service and,—

(i) ensure that no fees or other charges for recruitment or placement of seafarers are borne directly or indirectly or in whole or in part, by the seafarers other than the cost of the seafarer obtaining a national statutory medical certificate, the national seafarer's book and a passport or other similar personal travel documents, not including, however, the cost of visas, which shall be borne by the ship owner;

(ii) ensure that adequate machinery and procedures exist for the investigation, if necessary, of complaints concerning the activities of recruitment and placement services; and

(iii) to maintain registers of seafarers in respect of the categories

of seafarers;

(b) inspect and verify the books of account and financial documents of the recruitment and placement service provider and maritime training institute approved under this Act as and when directed by the Director-General;

may by order direct.

(3) It shall be the duty of the seafarer's welfare officer—

(a) in the case of any officer appointed at any port in India, to perform such functions in relation to welfare of seafarers as may be assigned to him by the Central Government;

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(b) in the case of any officer appointed at any port outside India, to perform such functions in relation to welfare of seafarers and such functions of an Indian ambassador as may be assigned to him by the Central Government and such functions shall have the same effect as if they had been performed by an Indian ambassador for the purposes of this Part.

(4) The shipping master or the director or the seafarer's welfare officer shall also perform such other duties as the Central Government may, by general or special order, specify in this behalf.

59. No person under the age of sixteen years shall be engaged, employed or

Minimum age for seafarers. work onboard any vessel.

Medical certificate.

60. No person shall engage or carry to sea any seafarer to work in any capacity in any vessel, unless the seafarer is in possession of a certificate to the effect that he is medically fit to be employed in that capacity granted in such form and by such authority as may be prescribed.

Training and qualifications.

61. (1) The Central Government may, by order, direct that the seafarers generally or any category of seafarers in particular shall not be engaged or carried to sea to work in any capacity in any vessel or in any class of vessels specified in the said order, unless each one of them possesses such qualifications as may be specified by the Director-General, in accordance with the Safety Convention and Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers Convention.

(2) The ship owner shall ensure that the seafarers shall not work on the vessel unless they are trained or certified as competent or otherwise qualified to perform their duties and have successfully completed training for personal safety onboard vessel.

(3) The training and certification under sub-section (2), shall be in accordance with the mandatory instruments adopted by the International Maritime Organisation.

62. (1) The seafarer shall be engaged only by,—

Recruitment and placement of seafarers.

(a) the recruitment and placement service agency possessing the

licence granted under this Part; or

(b) the owners in the case of Indian vessel for the vessel owned by

them.

(2) No person,—

(a) other than an owner of Indian vessel in respect of the vessel owned by him, shall carry on the business of recruitment and placement service, unless he is in possession of a valid licence granted under this Part;

(b) shall engage any seafarer under this Act in any vessel unless the seafarer is in possession of a continuous discharge certificate and seafarer's identity documents issued under this Part except as otherwise exempted;

(c) shall demand or receive, either directly or indirectly from any seafarer or person seeking onboard training or employment as seafarer or any person on his behalf, any remuneration or fees or other charges for seafarer recruitment or placement or for providing onboard training or employment to seafarer or person seeking onboard training or employment as seafarer:

Provided that the cost of obtaining a medical certificate, the continuous discharge certificate or identity document and a passport or other similar personal travel documents by the seafarer may be borne by the seafarer or any person on his behalf but not including the cost of visas, which shall be borne by the ship owner;

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(d) shall discriminate between seafarers as regards their recruitment

and engagement onboard any vessel,—

(i) on the ground of their membership or lack of membership in

any particular union purporting to represent the interests of seafarers;

(ii) on the basis of training institute from where they obtained the training or the place of grant of their continuous discharge certificates.

(3) The Central Government or any officer authorised by it in this behalf, if satisfied that in the national interest or in the interest of seafarer, it is necessary so to do, may, by order in writing, prohibit the master or ship owner or his agent other than of an Indian vessel specified in the order, from engaging any person to serve as a seafarer on such vessel.

(4) The services of the seafarer engaged in contravention of sub-section (1)

shall not be recognised for the purposes of certification under Part IV.

(5) The Director-General may suspend or withdraw the continuous discharge certificate or certificate of competency or the certificate of proficiency of a seafarer who seeks or obtains employment as a seafarer in violation of sub-section (1) and clause (a) of sub-section (2), with his own knowledge:

Provided that no order for suspension or withdrawal of any certificate shall be

passed unless the seafarer has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

(6) Every recruitment and placement service agency possessing the licence

granted under this Part shall,—

(a) ensure that the ship owner has the financial ability to repatriate

abandoned seafarers;

(b) ensure that the ship owner repatriates abandoned seafarers along with their maintenance and required medical assistance before such repatriation;

seafarer;

(d) ensure that the labour conditions on the vessel where the seafarer

is placed are in conformity with the seafarer's employment agreement;

(e) ensure that any incident onboard the vessel causing injury, disappearance or death, is reported within twenty-four hours of receipt of such information to such authority, in such form and manner as may be prescribed;

(f) ensure that reports in relation to seafarers recruited or placed through the recruitment and placement service agency, including any change in the terms and conditions of the recruitment and placement, are submitted to such authority, in such form and manner within such time as may be prescribed;

(g) undertake such other responsibilities as may be prescribed.

Agreement with seafarers.

63. (1) The master or owner of every Indian vessel or recruitment and placement service agency for Indian vessel or foreign vessel shall enter into seafarers' employment agreement in such form and manner as may be prescribed with every seafarer whom he engages and shall submit a copy thereof to the shipping master.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other provisions of this Act, the master of an Indian vessel registered at a port outside India, or owner of such vessel or his agent who has an agreement with the seafarer made in due form according to the law of that port or of the port in which her seafarer is engaged, may engage in any port in India—

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(a) a seafarer who is not a citizen of India and who holds a continuous discharge certificate or any other similar document of identity issued by the competent authority of the State in which the vessel is registered or, of the State in which the said agreement was made; or

(b) a seafarer who is a citizen of India and who holds a continuous

discharge certificate granted under this Act,

and any seafarer so engaged under clause (a) or clause (b) may sign the agreement aforesaid.

(3) A seafarer shall, before signing a seafarers' employment agreement, be given an opportunity to examine and seek advice on the agreement to ensure that he has freely entered into an agreement with sufficient understanding of his rights and responsibilities.

Wages.

64. (1) Every ship owner of an Indian vessel shall ensure that full payments due to seafarers are made to them at not later than monthly intervals and are given a monthly account of payments due and amounts paid, including wages and additional payments.

(2) If any amount in respect of wages payable to a seafarer under a seafarer employment agreement is not paid within the monthly interval, the seafarer shall be entitled to wages at the rate last payable under the seafarers' employment agreement for every day on which it remains unpaid until the full amount is paid, along with interest at such rate as may be prescribed but no interest shall be payable if the failure to make such monthly payment was due to—

(a) a reasonable mistake; or

(b) a reasonable dispute as to liability; or

(d) any other cause not being the wrongful act or default of the persons

liable to make the payment or of their servants or agents.

Hours of rest.

65. Every ship owner shall ensure that every seafarer in his employment is

given such hours of rest as may be prescribed.

66. Every ship owner of an Indian vessel shall ensure that seafarers are

Entitlement to leave.

allowed paid annual leave subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

Repatriation.

67. (1) Seafarers shall have the right to be repatriated at no cost to themselves in

such circumstances and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

(2) Every ship owner of an Indian vessel shall provide such financial security to

ensure that seafarers are duly repatriated in such manner as may be prescribed.

(3) When the service of a seafarer is terminated without the consent of the seafarer at a port outside India before the expiration of the period for which the seafarer was engaged, the master, ship owner or his agent shall, in addition to any other related obligation imposed on either of them by this Act, make adequate provision for the maintenance of the seafarer according to his rank or rating, and for the return of that seafarer to a proper return port.

(4) If the master, ship owner or his agent fails to repatriate seafarers, the expenses of maintenance and of the journey to the proper return port shall, if defrayed by the seafarer, be recoverable as wages due to him, and if defrayed by an Indian ambassador, shall constitute a debt due to the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of section 91.

68. In case of loss or foundering of any vessel, the ship owner shall pay to each seafarer onboard such indemnity against unemployment resulting from such loss or foundering, as may be prescribed.

Compensation for vessel's loss or foundering.

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Manning levels.

69. Every vessel shall employ such number of seafarers, as may be prescribed, onboard to ensure that vessels are operated safely and efficiently with due regard to security under all conditions, taking into account concerns about seafarer's fatigue and the particular nature and conditions of the voyage.

Accommodation and recreational facilities.

70. Every ship owner shall provide and maintain such accommodations and recreational facilities for seafarers working or living onboard, or both, consistent with promoting the seafarer's health and well-being, as may be prescribed.

Food and catering.

71. (1) Every ship owner shall provide for food and drinking water having quality, nutritional value and quantity that adequately covers the requirements of the seafarers and takes into account the differing cultural and religious background.

(2) Seafarers onboard a vessel shall be provided with food and water free of

charge during the period of engagement.

(3) The ship owner shall ensure that the seafarers who are engaged as cooks of the vessel are trained, qualified and found competent as specified by the Director-General.

Medical care.

72. It shall be the duty of the ship owner to take such measures for providing protection of health and medical care, at no cost to seafarers employed onboard the vessel, as may be prescribed.

Ship owners' liability.

73. (1) The ship owner shall ensure that seafarers employed on the vessels are provided with a right to material assistance and support with respect to the financial consequences of sickness, injury or death occurring while serving under a seafarers' employment agreement or arising from their employment under such agreement.

(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall affect any other legal remedy

available to a seafarer under any other law for the time being in force.

Health and safety protection and accident prevention.

74. Every ship owner shall ensure that seafarers working onboard the vessel are provided with occupational health protection and they live, work and train onboard vessel in a safe and hygienic environment, in accordance with such guidelines as the Director-General may by order, specify.

Social security.

75. All seafarers shall have access to such branches of social security

protection as may be prescribed.

Flag State responsibilities.

76. (1) The Central Government shall, for the purposes of giving effect to the provisions of Part A of the Code of the Maritime Labour Convention relating to flag State responsibilities, make rules for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) establishing an effective system for inspection and certification of

maritime labour conditions;

(b) authorise public institutions or other organisations competent to

carry out inspections or grant certificates;

and other control measures;

(d) onboard complaint procedure for the fair, effective and expeditious hearing of seafarer's complaint alleging breach of the Maritime Labour Convention; and

(e) compliance and enforcement.

(2) The Central Government shall, by order, specifiy such Indian vessels

which shall carry and maintain Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance.

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Port State responsibilities.

77. (1) The Central Government shall, for the purposes of giving effect to the provisions of Part A of the Code of the Maritime Labour Convention relating to port State responsibilities, make rules for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) establishing an on shore complaint redressal procedure;

(b) establishing a procedure for inspections in port;

(2) The Director-General shall notify a system for inspection of vessels and

the procedure for port State inspections, including—

(a) the requirement to develop, maintain and update an electronic inspection database, containing all information required for implementation of an effective and coordinated system of regular inspections; and

(b) specifying risk profile of all vessels calling at Indian ports in the

inspection database.

78. (1) The Central Government shall, for the purposes of giving effect to the provisions of Part A of the Code of the Maritime Labour Convention, make rules for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

Rules for enforcement of Maritime Labour Convention.

(a) minimum age;

(b) medical certificate;

(d) recruitment and placement;

(e) seafarers' employment agreements;

(f) payment of wages;

(g) hours of work and hours of rest;

(h) entitlement to leave;

(i) repatriation;

(j) compensation in case of loss of vessel or foundering;

(k) manning levels;

(l) service conditions including skill development opportunities;

(m) accommodation, recreational facilities, food and catering;

(n) ship owners' liability;

(o) health protection, medical facilities, welfare and social security

protection;

(p) any other matter which is to be or may be required for compliance

and enforcement of the Maritime Labour Convention.

(2) The Central Government may, for the purposes of giving effect to, Part B of the Code of the Maritime Labour Convention and any other provision of the Maritime Labour Convention which has not been given effect to in this Act, make rules for all or any of the matters specified in sub-section (1).

Payment of wages.

79. (1) Where the service of any seafarer engaged under this Act is terminated before the date specified in the agreement by reason of the wreck, loss or abandonment of the vessel or by reason of his being left on shore at any place outside India under a certificate granted under this Act of his unfitness or inability to proceed on the voyage, the seafarer shall be entitled to receive wages on such terms and conditions, including the periods during which such seafarer shall not be entitled to wages, as may be prescribed.

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(2) Subject to such exceptions as may be prescribed, a seafarer shall not be disentitled to claim wages for any period during which he has not performed his duty, if he proves that he was incapable of doing so by reason of illness, hurt or injury.

(3) If a seafarer having signed an agreement is discharged otherwise than in accordance with the terms thereof, without fault on his part justifying the discharge and without his consent, he shall be entitled to receive from the master or ship owner or his agent, in addition to any wages which he may have earned, as due compensation for the damage caused to him by the discharge, such sum as the shipping master may fix having regard to the circumstances relating to the discharge, which may be recovered as wages.

(4) The compensation so payable under sub-section (3) shall not exceed—

(a) in the case of a seafarer who has been discharged before the

commencement of a voyage, one month's wages; and

(b) in the case of a seafarer who has been discharged after the

commencement of a voyage, three month's wages.

80. (1) A seafarer serving in an Indian vessel shall, on termination of his Discharge of seafarers.

engagement, be discharged in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) If an Indian vessel is transferred or disposed of while she is at sea or on a voyage to any port outside India, every seafarer belonging to that vessel shall be discharged at that port, unless he consents in writing to complete the voyage in the vessel, if continued.

(3) If a seafarer is discharged from an Indian vessel without his consent and before the expiration of the period for which the seafarer was engaged, he shall be duly repatriated in accordance with the provisions of section 67.

(4) Every seafarer discharged in terms of sub-section (2) shall, if the voyage for which he was engaged is not continued, be entitled to the wages to which he would have been entitled had his service been wrongfully terminated by the ship owner before the expiration of the period for which the seafarer was engaged.

(5) The master of an Indian vessel shall not,—

(a) discharge a seafarer before the expiration of the period for

which he was engaged, unless the seafarer consents to his discharge; or

(b) except in circumstances beyond his control, leave a seafarer behind, without the authority of the officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government and such officer shall certify on the agreement with seafarer that he has granted such authority, and also the reason for the seafarer being discharged or the seafarer being left behind:

Provided that such officer shall, before discharging or leaving behind such seafarer, investigate the grounds on which the seafarer is to be discharged or left behind and may in his discretion grant or refuse to grant such authority:

Provided further that he shall not refuse to grant his authority if he is

satisfied that the seafarer, without reasonable cause,—

(a) has failed or refused to join his vessel or to proceed to sea therein; or

(b) has been absent from his vessel without leave, either at the commencement or during the progress of a voyage for a period of more than forty-eight hours.

(6) The officer referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (5) shall keep a record of all seafarers discharged or left behind with his authority and whenever any charge is made against a seafarer under section 98, the fact that no such authority is so recorded shall be prima facie evidence that it was not granted.

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Wages and property of deceased seafarers and seafarers left behind.

81. If any seafarer is left behind or lost overboard or is deceased, the master shall enter in the official logbook a statement of the amount due to the seafarer in respect of wages at the time when he was left behind or lost overboard or is deceased, and of all property left onboard by him, and shall take such property into his charge and discharge the property in such manner as may be prescribed.

Certain undisbursed amounts to be utilised for welfare of seafarers.

82. Any amount deposited with or recovered by the shipping master as wages or for making payment in accordance with the allotment note made by a seafarer or for being paid to a seafarer or his nominee may, if such amount remains unclaimed with the shipping master for a period of not less than six years, be utilised for the welfare of seafarer in such manner and subject to such restrictions and conditions as may be prescribed.

83. (1) Where under the agreement with the seafarer any dispute arises between the master, ship owner or his agent and any of the seafarer of the vessel, it shall be submitted to the shipping master.

Shipping master to adjudicate disputes involving seafarer.

(2) Any dispute of an Indian seafarer, on a vessel registered in a State other than India, in the territorial waters of India, with the master or ship owner or his agent, may be submitted to the shipping master.

(3) The shipping master shall hear and after giving the parties an opportunity to be heard, decide the dispute submitted under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2), pass an award in writing containing reasons, within a period of thirty days which shall be conclusive as to the rights of parties and any document relating to such dispute or award itself shall be prima facie evidence thereof:

Provided that if the shipping master does not pass an award within thirty days from the date of receipt of the dispute for sufficient cause, the shipping master may pass an award within a further period of thirty days.

5 of 1908.

(4) The award passed by the shipping master shall be enforceable in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in the same manner as if it were a decree of court.

22 of 1996.

(5) Nothing in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall apply to any

matter submitted to a shipping master for decision under this section.

Power of shipping master to require production of documents.

84. In any proceedings under this Act before a shipping master relating to the wages, claims or discharge of a seafarer, the shipping master may require the ship owner or his agent, master or seafarer to produce any logbooks, papers, or other documents in his possession or in his power relating to any matter in question in the proceedings, and may require the attendance of and examine any of those persons.

Wages not recoverable outside India in certain cases.

85. Where a seafarer is engaged for a voyage which is to terminate in India, he shall not be entitled to sue in any court outside India for wages unless he is discharged with such sanction as is required by this Act and with the written consent of the master, or proves such ill-usage on the part, or by the authority, of the master, as to warrant a reasonable apprehension of danger to his life if he were to remain onboard.

Summary proceedings for wages.

86. (1) A seafarer or a person duly authorised by him, as soon as any wages due to him become payable but not paid, may apply to any Judicial Magistrate of the first class exercising jurisdiction in or near the place at which his service has terminated or at which he has been discharged, or at which any person upon whom the claim is made is or resides, and such Magistrate shall try the case summarily and the order made by such Magistrate in the matter shall be final.

(2) An application under sub-section (1) may also be made by any officer

authorised by the Central Government in this behalf by general or special order.

87. A proceeding for the recovery of wages due to a seafarer shall not be

instituted by or on behalf of any seafarer in any civil court except where,—

Restrictions on suits for wages.

(a) the ship owner has been declared insolvent; (b) the vessel is under arrest or sold by the authority of any court; or (c) a Judicial Magistrate of the first class refers a claim to the court.

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88. (1) The master of a vessel shall, so far as the case permits, have the same rights, liens and remedies for the recovery of his wages as a seafarer has under this Act or by any law or custom.

Remedies of master for wages, disbursements, etc. (2) Every master shall have the same rights, liens and remedies for the recovery of disbursements or liabilities properly made or incurred by him on account of the vessel as such master has for the recovery of his wages.

(3) Every person lawfully acting as master of a vessel by reason of the disease or incapacity from illness, of the master of such vessel shall, so far as the case permits, have the same rights, liens and remedies for the recovery of disbursements or liabilities properly made or incurred by him on account of the vessel as a master has for the recovery of his wages.

Power to refer disputes between seafarers and employers to Tribunal.

89. (1) Where the Central Government is of the opinion that any dispute between seafarer or any class of seafarers or of any union of seafarers and the ship owners in which such seafarers are employed or are likely to be employed exists or is apprehended and such dispute relates to any matter connected with or incidental to the employment of the seafarers, the Central Government may, by notification, constitute a Tribunal consisting of one or more persons, having such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed including having knowledge of maritime matter, and refer the dispute to the Tribunal for adjudication.

5 of 1908.

(2) The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice.

(3) The Tribunal shall also not be bound by the rules of evidence contained

47 of 2023. in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.

5 of 1908.

(4) The Tribunal shall, for the purposes of discharging its functions under this Act, have power to regulate its own procedure and shall have the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit in respect of the following matters, namely:—

(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and

examining him on oath;

(b) compelling the production of documents;

(d) issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses;

(e) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

45 of 2023.

(5) Any proceeding before the Tribunal shall be deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of section 229 and section 267 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

(6) No party to a dispute shall be entitled to be represented by a legal practitioner in any proceeding before the Tribunal except with the consent of the other party or parties to the proceeding and with the leave of the Tribunal.

(7) The Tribunal shall dispose of the reference and submit its award to the

Central Government within such period as may be prescribed.

(8) On receipt of the award, the Central Government shall cause it to be published and the award shall become enforceable on the expiry of thirty days from the date of such publication:

Provided that where the Central Government is of the opinion that it shall be inexpedient on the grounds of public interest to give effect to the award or any part of it, it may, before the expiry of the said period of thirty days by order in the Official Gazette, either reject the award or modify it, and where the Central Government does so, the award shall not become enforceable or shall become enforceable subject to such modifications.

34 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (9) An award which has become enforceable under this section shall be

binding on—

(a) all parties to the dispute;

(b) where any party to the dispute is the ship owner, his heirs,

successors, or assignees.

(10) Save as otherwise provided in the award, an award shall remain in operation for a period of one year from the date on which it becomes enforceable and shall thereafter continue to remain in operation until a period of two months has elapsed from the date on which notice is given by any party bound by the award to the other party or parties intimating its intention to terminate the award.

(11) Unless otherwise directed by the Central Government, the Tribunal shall cease to exist on the expiry of a period of thirty days after publication of the award.

(12) Any money due to a seafarer from the ship owner under an award may

be recovered as wages.

14 of 1947.

(13) Nothing contained in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 shall apply to any dispute between seafarers or any class of seafarers or any union of seafarers and the ship owners in respect of the ship in which such seafarers are employed or are likely to be employed.

(14) During the pendency of proceedings under this section,—

(a) no seafarer or class of seafarers or union of seafarers shall go or remain on strike or otherwise act in a manner prejudicial to the normal operation of the vessels in which the seafarer is employed or is likely to be employed; and

(b) no ship owner shall,—

(i) alter to the prejudice of the seafarers concerned in the dispute, the conditions of service applicable to them immediately before the commencement of such proceedings; or

(ii) discharge or punish any seafarer in respect of any matter

connected with the dispute.

Recovery of wages, etc., of seafarers lost with vessel.

90. Where a seafarer is missing or lost with the vessel to which he belongs, the Central Government or such officer as the Central Government may appoint in this behalf may recover the wages and the compensation due to him from the master or ship owner or his agent in the same court and in the same manner in which the seafarer's wages are recoverable, and shall deal with those wages in the same manner as with the wages and compensation due to other deceased seafarers under this Act.

Relief and maintenance of abandoned seafarers.

91. (1) The Indian ambassador at or near the place where a seafarer is abandoned shall, on an application being made to him by the abandoned seafarer, provide in accordance with the rules made under this Act for the return of that seafarer to a proper return port and also for his necessary clothing and maintenance until his arrival at such port.

(2) An abandoned seafarer shall not have any right to be maintained or sent to a proper return port except to the extent and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

(3) All repatriation expenses, other than excepted expenses, incurred by or on behalf of the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of this Act shall constitute a debt due to the Central Government for which the ship owner or his agent or the vessel to which the seafarer in respect of whom they were incurred belonged at the time of his discharge or other event which resulted in his becoming an abandoned seafarer shall be liable, and the ship owner or his agent shall not beNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 35 entitled to recover from the seafarer any amount paid by him to the Central Government in settlement or part settlement of such debt.

(4) All excepted expenses incurred by or on behalf of the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of this Act shall constitute a debt due to the Central Government for which the seafarer in respect of whom they were incurred and the ship owner or his agent or the vessel to which that seafarer belonged at the time of his discharge or other event which resulted in his becoming an abandoned seafarer shall be jointly and severally liable, and the ship owner or his agent shall be entitled to recover from the seafarer any amount paid by him to the Central Government in settlement or part settlement of such debt, and may apply to the satisfaction of his claim so much as may be necessary of any wages due to the seafarer.

(5) All excepted expenses incurred in accordance with the provisions of this Act in respect of any abandoned seafarer by the ship owner or his agent or the vessel to which he belonged at the time of his discharge or other event which resulted in his becoming an abandoned seafarer shall constitute a debt due to the ship owner or his agent for which the seafarer shall be liable, and the ship owner or his agent may apply to the satisfaction of his claim so much as may be necessary of any wages due to the seafarer but he shall not be entitled to recover from the seafarer any repatriation expenses other than excepted expenses.

(6) In any proceedings for the recovery of any expenses which in terms of sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) are a debt due to the Central Government, the production of an account of the expenses and proof of payment thereof by or on behalf of or under the direction of the Central Government shall be prima facie evidence that the expenses were incurred in accordance with the provisions of this Act by or on behalf of the Central Government.

(7) Any debt which may be due to the Central Government under this section may be recovered by any officer authorised by it in writing in this behalf from the person concerned in the same manner as the wages are recoverable under section 86.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section,—

(a) "excepted expenses" means repatriation expenses incurred in cases where the cause of the seafarer being left behind is desertion or absence without leave or imprisonment for misconduct or discharge from his vessel on the grounds of misconduct;

(b) "repatriation expenses" means expenses incurred in returning an abandoned seafarer to a proper return port and in providing him with necessary clothing and maintenance until his arrival at such port, and includes in the case of a shipwrecked seafarer, the repayment of expenses incurred in conveying him to a port after shipwreck and maintaining him while being so conveyed;

(c) "shipping master" means a shipping master,—

(i) for the port at which the seafarer entered into, or is believed

to have entered into, an agreement; or

(ii) where the seafarer did not enter into an agreement in India,

for the port to which the seafarer has returned, or is expected to return, on the completion of his latest voyage.

36 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Replacement crew onboard abandoned vessels.

92. (1) If the ship owner of any abandoned Indian vessel or any foreign vessel abandoned on or near the coast of India or within its coastal waters fails to make arrangement for or to meet the cost of arranging for replacement crew to be sent onboard the vessel whose seafarers are required to be repatriated, the Central Government shall arrange for replacement crew to be sent onboard such vessel.

(2) The cost incurred by or on behalf of the Central Government under sub-section (1) shall constitute a debt due to the Central Government liable to be paid by the ship owner or his agent for the seafarer in respect of whom they were incurred and the ship owner or his agent shall not be entitled to recover from the seafarer any amount paid by him to the Central Government in settlement or part settlement of such debt.

(3) In any proceedings for the recovery of any expenses which in terms of sub-section (2) are a debt due to the Central Government, the production of an account of the expenses and proof of payment thereof by or on behalf of or under the direction of the Central Government shall be prima facie evidence that the expenses were incurred in accordance with the provisions of this Act by or on behalf of the Central Government.

(4) Any debt which may be due to the Central Government under this section may be recovered by any officer authorised by it in writing in this behalf from the person concerned in the same manner as the wages are recoverable under section 86.

(5) In any proceeding under this Part, a certificate of the Central Government or of such officer as the Central Government may specify in this behalf, to the effect that any seafarer named therein is abandoned, shall be conclusive evidence that such seafarer is an abandoned seafarer within the meaning of this Act.

Inspection by shipping master, etc.

93. (1) A shipping master, surveyor, seafarer's welfare officer, Indian ambassador or any other officer at any port duly authorised in this behalf by the Central Government shall, at any time,—

(a) in the case of any vessel upon which the seafarer has been shipped

at that port; and

(b) in the case of any Indian vessel, and if the master or three or more

of the seafarers so request,

enter onboard the vessel and inspect,—

(i) the provisions and water;

(ii) the weights and measures;

(iii) the accommodation for seafarers,

with which the vessel is required to be provided by or under this Act and also the space and equipment used for the storage and handling of food, water and the galley and other equipment used for the preparation and service of meals;

(iv) the Maritime Labour Certificate and Declaration of Maritime

Labour Compliance.

(2) All Indian vessels engaged in international voyage or operating from a port, or between ports, in another State, shall possess a Maritime Labour Certificate and a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 37

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, "international voyage" means a voyage from or to a port or place in India to or from a port or place outside India or between any ports outside India.

(3) The vessels not covered under sub-section (2) shall, unless exempted by the Central Government, possess such certificate in such manner and form as may be prescribed.

(4) For the purpose of preventing seafarer from being taken onboard any vessel at any port in India contrary to the provisions of this Act, a shipping master or deputy shipping master or assistant shipping master or a director, or deputy director or assistant director of the seafarer's employment office may enter at any time, onboard any such vessel upon which he has reasons to believe that seafarers have been shipped, and may muster and examine the seafarers employed therein.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "Maritime Labour Certificate" means a certificate granted by the Central Government or by any officer, authority or organisation authorised by it in this behalf, in accordance with the provisions of the Maritime Labour Convention.

94. (1) A seafarer shall for the purposes of this Part, be deemed to be a serving seafarer during any period commencing on the date of the agreement with seafarers and ending thirty days after the date on which the seafarer is finally discharged from such agreement.

Special provisions for protection of seafarers in respect of litigation.

(2) Every seafarer who is a party to a litigation shall be protected to the extent, subject to such terms and conditions and in such manner, as may be prescribed.

Facilities for making complaint.

95. If a seafarer states to the master that he desires to make a complaint to a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or other proper officer against the master or any of the seafarers, the master shall,—

(a) if the vessel is then at a place where there is a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or other proper officer, as soon after such statement as the service of the vessel shall permit; and

(b) if the vessel is not then at such place, as soon after her first arrival

at such place as the service of the vessel shall permit,

allow the complainant to go ashore or send him ashore under proper protection to enable him to make the complaint.

Vessel not to be boarded without permission.

96. Where a vessel has arrived at a port or place in India at the end of a voyage and any person, not being in the service of the Government or not being duly authorised by law for the purpose, goes onboard the vessel without the permission of the master, the master may take such person into custody and deliver him up forthwith to a police officer to be taken before a Judicial Magistrate of the first class and dealt with according to the provisions of this Act.

97. No seafarer belonging to an Indian vessel wherever it may be, or to any

other vessel while in India, shall knowingly,—

Misconduct endangering life or vessel.

(a) do anything tending to the immediate loss or destruction of, or serious damage to, the vessel, or tending immediately to endanger the life of, or to cause injury to any person belonging to or onboard the vessel; or

(b) refuse or omit to do any lawful act proper and requisite to be done by him for preserving the vessel from immediate loss, destruction or serious damage, or for preserving any person belonging to or onboard the vessel from danger to life or from injury.

38 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 98. (1) No seafarer lawfully engaged shall,—

Desertion and absence without leave.

(a) desert his vessel; or

(b) neglect or refuse, without reasonable cause, to join the vessel or proceed to sea in his vessel or be absent without leave at any time within twenty-four hours of the vessel's sailing from a port either at the commencement or during the progress of a voyage, or be absent at any time without leave and without sufficient reason from his vessel or from his duty.

(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), the fact that the vessel on which the seafarer is engaged or to which he belongs is unseaworthy, shall be deemed to be a reasonable cause for desertion or absence without leave:

Provided that the seafarer has, before failing or refusing to join his vessel or to proceed to sea in his vessel or before absenting himself or being absent from the vessel complained to the master or a shipping master, surveyor, seafarer's welfare officer, port health officer, Indian ambassador or any other officer at any port duly authorised in this behalf by the Central Government, that the vessel is unseaworthy.

(3) If it is shown to the satisfaction of a shipping master that a seafarer has deserted his vessel or has absented himself without leave and without sufficient reason from his vessel or from his duty, the shipping master shall forthwith make a report to that effect to the Director-General who may thereupon direct that the seafarer's continuous discharge certificate and seafarer identity document shall be withheld for such period as may be specified in that direction, or may suspend or withdraw the certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency of the deserting seafarer, if it is established that such desertion was without leave or sufficient reason:

Provided that no order of withholding, suspension or cancellation shall be

passed unless the seafarer has been given an opportunity of being heard.

(4) If a seafarer deserts his vessel or is absent without leave and without sufficient reason from his vessel or from his duty, the master, any seafarer, the ship owner or his agent may, without prejudice to any other action that may be taken against the seafarer under this Act, convey him onboard his vessel and may for that purpose cause to be used such force as may be reasonable in the circumstances of the case.

(5) If, either at the commencement or during the progress of any voyage, a seafarer engaged in an Indian vessel commits outside India, the offence of desertion or absence without leave or any offence against discipline, the master or the ship owner or his agent may, if and so far as the laws in force in the place permit, arrest him without procuring a warrant.

(6) No person shall convey onboard or arrest a seafarer on improper or

insufficient grounds.

(7) Where a seafarer is brought before a court on the ground of desertion or of absence without leave or of any offence against discipline, and the master or the ship owner or his agent so requires, the court may, in lieu of committing and sentencing him for the offence, cause him to be conveyed onboard his vessel for the purpose of proceeding on the voyage, or deliver him to the master or the ship owner or his agent to be by them so conveyed, and may in such case order any costs and expenses properly incurred by or on behalf of the master or ship owner by reason of the conveyance to be paid by the offender and, if necessary, to be deducted from any wages which he has then earned or by virtue of his then existing engagements may afterwards be earned.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 39

99. (1) Any seafarer lawfully engaged shall be liable to penalty or be guilty of an offence under this Act, if he commits any of the following acts, namely:—

General liability against discipline.

(a) if he quits the vessel without leave after her arrival at her port of

delivery and before she is placed in security;

(b) if he has received an advance payment on the basis of his agreement and wilfully or through misconduct fails to attend his vessel or desert therefrom before the payment becomes due to him;

(d) if he continues to wilfully disobey any lawful commands or if he combines with any of the seafarers to wilfully disobey any lawful commands, or continues with wilful neglect of duty or if he combines with any of the seafarer to neglect duty or to impede the navigation of the vessel or retard the progress of the voyage;

(e) if he assaults the master or any other seafarer belonging to the

vessel;

(f) if he wilfully damages his vessel or commits criminal misappropriation or breach of trust in respect of, or wilfully damages any of, her stores or cargo.

(2) The prosecution against any seafarer for any offence specified under clauses (d), (e) and (f) of sub-section (1) may be instituted by the Director-General or an officer authorised by him.

(3) The Director-General may, by order, suspend or cancel any certificate granted under this Act to any seafarer for any specified period, for any offence specified in sub-section (1) during the course of the hearing or legal proceeding:

Provided that no order of suspension or cancellation shall be passed unless

the person concerned has been given an opportunity of being heard.

Smuggling of goods by seafarer.

100. (1) If a seafarer engaged is convicted of an offence of smuggling any goods, whereby loss or damage is occasioned to the master or ship owner, he shall be liable to pay to that master or ship owner, a sum sufficient to reimburse the loss or damage and the whole or a part of his wages may be retained in satisfaction on account of that liability without prejudice to any other remedy.

(2) If a seafarer is convicted of an offence under sub-section (1), the Director-General may direct that the seafarer's continuous discharge certificate and seafarer's identity document shall be cancelled or suspended for such period as may be specified in the direction.

Entry of offences in official logbook.

101. If any offence of desertion or absence without leave under section 98 or offence against discipline under section 99 is committed, or if any act of misconduct is committed for which the offender's agreement imposes a fine and it is intended to enforce the fine,—

(a) an entry of the offence or act shall be made in the official logbook

and signed by the master and the officer on watch;

(b) the offender, if still in the vessel, shall, before the subsequent arrival of the vessel at any port, or, if she is at the time in port, before her departure therefrom, be furnished with a copy of the entry and have the same read over distinctly and audibly to him and may thereupon make such reply thereto as he thinks fit;

(c) a statement of a copy of the entry having been so furnished and the entry having been so read over and the reply, if any, made by the offender shall likewise be entered and signed in the manner aforesaid; and40 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (d) in any subsequent legal proceedings, the entries required by this section shall, if practicable, be produced or proved, and, in default of such production or proof, the court hearing the case may in its discretion, refuse to receive evidence of the offence or act of misconduct.

Report of desertions and absences without leave.

102. Whenever any seafarer engaged outside India on an Indian vessel deserts or otherwise absents himself in India without leave, the master of the vessel shall, within forty-eight hours of discovering such desertion or absence, report the same to the shipping master or to such other officer as the Central Government specifies in this behalf, unless in the meantime, the deserter or absentee returns.

Entries and certificates of desertion abroad.

103. (1) In every case of desertion from an Indian vessel whilst such vessel is at any place out of India, the master shall produce the entry of desertion in the official logbook to the Indian ambassador at the place, who shall thereupon make and certify a copy of the entry which shall be admissible in evidence in any legal proceeding relating to such desertion.

(2) The master shall forthwith transmit such copy of entry certified under sub-section (1) to the shipping master at the port at which the seafarer was shipped, and the shipping master shall, if required, cause the same to be produced in any legal proceeding.

Facilities for proving desertion in proceedings for forfeiture of wages.

104. (1) Whenever a question arises whether the wages of any seafarer are forfeited for desertion from a vessel, it shall be sufficient for the person insisting on the forfeiture to show that the seafarer was duly engaged in or belonged to the vessel, and either that he left the vessel before the completion of the voyage or engagement or, if the voyage was to terminate in India and the vessel has not returned, that he is absent from her and that an entry of his desertion has been duly made in the official logbook.

(2) The desertion shall thereupon, so far as relate to any forfeiture of wages under this Part, be deemed to be proved, unless the seafarer produces a proper certificate of discharge or otherwise show to the satisfaction of the court that he had sufficient reasons for leaving his vessel.

Application of forfeitures.

105. Where any wages or other property are under this Act forfeited for desertion from a vessel, they shall be applied towards reimbursing the expenses caused by such desertion to the master or the ship owner or his agent, which may be recovered by the master, or the ship owner or his agent in the same manner as the deserter could have recovered them if not forfeited, and subject to that reimbursement, shall be paid to the Central Government.

Decision of questions of forfeiture and deduction in suits for wages.

106. Any question concerning the forfeiture of or deductions from the wages of a seafarer may be determined in any proceeding lawfully instituted with respect to those wages, notwithstanding that the offence in respect of which the question arises, though by this Act made punishable by imprisonment as well as forfeiture has not been made the subject of any criminal proceeding.

107. (1) Every fine imposed on a seafarer for any act of misconduct under

his agreement shall be deducted and paid as follows, namely:—

Payment of fines imposed under agreement to shipping master.

(a) if the offender is discharged at any port or place in India and the offence and such entries in respect thereof are proved to the satisfaction of the shipping master, the master or ship owner or his agent shall deduct such fine from the wages of the offender and pay the same to such shipping master; and

(b) if the seafarer is discharged at any port or place outside India and the offence and such entries are proved to the satisfaction of the IndianNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 41 ambassador by whose sanction he is so discharged, the fine shall thereupon be deducted, and an entry of such deduction shall then be made in the official logbook, if any, and signed by such officer and on the return of the vessel to India, the master or ship owner shall pay such fine to the shipping master.

(2) An act of misconduct for which any such fine was imposed and paid

shall not be otherwise punishable under this Act.

(3) The proceeds of all fines received by a shipping master under this section shall be utilised for the welfare of seafarers in such manner as the Central Government may direct.

108. No person shall,—

Seafarer not to be enticed to desert.

(a) by any means whatever persuade or attempt to persuade a seafarer to neglect or refuse to join or proceed to sea in or desert from his vessel, or otherwise to absent himself from his duty;

(b) harbour or secrete a seafarer who has wilfully neglected or refused to join or has deserted from his vessel, knowing or having reason to believe the seafarer to have so done:

Provided that the provisions of this clause shall not extend to the case in

which the harbour or secreting is by the spouse of the seafarer.

109. No person shall secrete himself and go to sea in a vessel without the consent of either the master or the ship owner or his agent or of the person in charge of the vessel or of any other person entitled to give that consent.

Stowaways and seafarers carried under compulsion.

On change of master, documents to be handed over to successor.

110. (1) If, during the progress of a voyage the master of any Indian vessel is removed or superseded or for any other reason quits the vessel and is succeeded in the command by some other person, he shall deliver to his successor documents relating to navigation of the vessel and the seafarers thereof which are in his custody.

(2) On receipt of documents under sub-section (1), the successor shall make an entry in the official logbook to that effect which shall also be endorsed by the predecessor.

(3) The Director-General may suspend or withdraw the certificate of competency of a master, if it is established that the documents were not lawfully handed over in accordance with sub-section (1), without leave or sufficient reason:

Provided that no order for suspension or withdrawal of any certificate shall be passed unless the master has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Deserters from foreign vessels.

111. (1) Where it appears to the Central Government that due facilities are or shall be given by the Government of any State outside India for recovering and apprehending seafarers who desert from Indian vessels in that State, the Central Government may, by notification, stating that such facilities are or shall be given, declare that this section shall apply to seafarers belonging to vessels of such State, subject to such limitations or conditions as may be specified in the notification.

(2) Where this section applies to seafarers belonging to vessels of any State other than India and a seafarer deserts from any such vessel, when within India, any court that would have taken cognizance of the matter if the seafarer had deserted from an Indian vessel shall, on an application of the ambassador of that State, aid in apprehending the deserter and for that purpose may, on information given on oath, issue a warrant for his apprehension and on proof of the desertion, order him to be conveyed onboard his vessel or delivered to the master or the ship42 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 owner or his agent to be so conveyed and any such warrant or order may be executed accordingly.

112. (1) Every vessel of two hundred tons gross or more shall maintain an

Official logbook. official logbook in such form and such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) The master, ship owner or his agent shall deliver the official logbook referred to in sub-section (1), to the shipping master as and when required by the shipping master.

(3) No person shall make or procure to be made or assist in making any entry in official logbook in respect of any occurrence happening previously to the arrival of the vessel at her final port of discharge more than twenty-four hours after such arrival.

Power to make rules.

113. (1) In addition to the power of the Central Government to make rules for enforcement of Maritime Labour Convention, the Central Government shall make rules generally to carry out the provisions of this Part, including rules in respect of the following matters, namely:—

(a) discharge of seafarers;

(b) payment of wages;

(d) rights of seafarers in respect of wages;

(e) mode of recovering wages;

(f) disputes between seafarers and employers;

(g) property of deceased seafarers;

(h) repatriation of seafarers and abandoned seafarers;

(i) provisions, health and accommodation;

(j) special provisions for the protection of seafarers in respect of

litigation;

(k) provisions for the protection of seafarers in respect of other matters;

(l) provisions as to discipline;

(m) official logbooks.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power,

such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the categories and minimum manning scales of seafarers and the

scales for different classes of vessels under sub-section (2) of section 56;

(b) the conditions subject to which vessel shall be in possession of a

certificate under sub-section (2) of section 57;

certificate and seafarer's identity documents under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 58;

(d) the conditions subject to which licence may be granted under

clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 58;

(e) the form of certificate to be possessed by seafarer and the authority who grants that certificate to the effect that the seafarer is medically fit under section 60;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 43 (f) the authority to whom and the form and manner in which the incident

is to be reported under clause (e) of sub-section (6) of section 62;

(g) the authority to whom and the form, manner and the time within which

the reports is to be submitted under clause (f) of sub-section (6) of section 62;

(h) other responsibilities of the recruitment and placement agency

under clause (g) of sub-section (6) of section 62;

(i) the form and manner of seafarer's employment agreement under

sub-section (1) of section 63;

(j) the rate of interest on the wages payable to a seafarer

under sub-section (2) of section 64;

(k) the hours of rest provided to every seafarer under section 65;

(l) the conditions subject to which seafarers are given annual paid

leave under section 66;

(m) the circumstances and conditions for repatriation of seafarers

under sub-section (1) of section 67;

(n) the financial security and manner of repatriation of seafarers

under sub-section (2) of section 67;

(o) the indemnity amount to be paid to the seafarer under section 68;

(p) the number of seafarers to be employed onboard the vessel

under section 69;

(q) the accommodations and recreational facilities for seafarers

under section 70;

(r) the measures for providing protection of health and medical care to

seafarers under section 72;

(s) the branches of social security protection to seafarers under section 75;

(t) the terms and conditions and the period during which a seafarer

shall not be entitled to wages under sub-section (1) of section 79;

(u) the exceptions where a seafarer shall not be disentitled to claim

wages under sub-section (2) of section 79;

(v) the manner of discharge from service of seafarer under

sub-section (1) of section 80;

(w) the manner of discharge of property under section 81;

(x) the manner and the restrictions and conditions for utilisation of any unclaimed amount deposited with or recovered by shipping master for the welfare of seafarers under section 82;

(y) the qualifications and experience of persons appointed to the Tribunal under sub-section (1) and any other matter under clause (e) of sub-section (4) of section 89;

(z) the period within which the Tribunal shall submit its award to the

Central Government under sub-section (7) of section 89;

(za) the extent and the conditions subject to which a seafarer shall be

maintained or sent to a proper return port, under sub-section (2) of section 91;

(zb) the manner of possession of certificate and the form of such

certificate under sub-section (3) of section 93;

(zc) the terms, conditions and manner of protecting a seafarer who is

a party to litigation under sub-section (2) of section 94;

(zd) the form and manner of keeping logbook under sub-section (1) of

section 112;

(ze) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

44 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 PART VI

SAFETY AND SECURITY

114. This Part, unless otherwise exempted, shall apply in relation to matters

Application of this Part.

on safety and security, to—

(a) Indian vessel and other vessels registered in India under this Act,

except vessels covered under Part XIII;

(b) vessel other than Indian vessel when such vessel is within India,

including coastal waters;

(d) company.

Definitions.

115. In this part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "company" means the owner of the vessel or any other organisation or person such as the manager, or the bareboat charterer, who has assumed the responsibility for operation of the vessel from the owner of the vessel and who on assuming such responsibility has agreed to take over all the duties and responsibilities imposed by the International Safety Management Code under the Safety Convention;

(b) the words and expressions used in this Part but not defined, shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in the international conventions or agreements or treaties, including their protocols, referred to in section 116.

Safety and security requirements.

116. (1) Every vessel shall, subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, comply with the provisions of the following international conventions, treaties or agreements, as applicable, namely:—

(a) the Safety Convention;

(b) the Load Lines Convention, 1966;

(d) the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing

Collisions at Sea, 1972;

(e) the International Convention on Maritime Search and

Rescue, 1979;

(f) the Tonnage Measurement Convention, 1969;

(g) the International Convention for Safe Containers, 1972;

(h) such other convention or agreement or treaty relating to safety or security to which India is a party, as may be notified by the Central Government:

Provided that vessels to which the provisions of the above conventions, treaties or agreements are not applicable, shall comply with such safety and security requirements as may be prescribed:

Provided further that it shall be a defense for the master or ship owner to prove that a contravention was solely due to deviation or delay caused by stress of weather or other circumstances which neither the master nor the ship owner nor the charterer, if any, could have prevented or forestalled.

(2) The safety and security requirements for different classes of vessels and

certificates to be held by such vessels shall be such as may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 45

Reporting of incidents.

117. (1) When an incident relating to the safety and security takes place on a vessel, the master of the vessel shall report the particulars of the incident to such authority and in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) When an incident takes place relating to the loss or likely loss overboard of dangerous goods in packaged form into the sea, or dangerous goods in solid form in bulk into the sea, or any incident impeding safe navigation, the master of every vessel shall report the particulars of the incident to such authority in such manner as may be prescribed.

(3) If the vessel referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) is abandoned, or a report from such vessel is incomplete, the Central Government shall fix the responsibility on the master of the vessel.

Obligations to render assistance on receiving signal of distress and to persons in danger.

118. (1) The master of an Indian vessel, on receiving at sea a signal of distress or information from any source that a vessel or aircraft is in distress shall proceed with all speed to the assistance of the persons in distress informing them, if possible, that he is doing so unless he is unable or in the special circumstances of the case considers it unreasonable or unnecessary to do so or unless he is released from such obligation under the provisions of sub-section (3).

(2) Where the master of any vessel in distress has requisitioned any Indian vessel that has answered his call, it shall be the duty of the master of the requisitioned vessel to comply with the requisition by continuing to proceed with all speed to the assistance of the persons in distress unless he is released from the obligation under sub-section (4).

(3) The master shall be released from the obligation imposed by sub-section (1) as soon as he is informed of the requisition of one or more vessels other than his own and that the requisition is being complied with by the vessel or vessels requisitioned.

(4) The master whose ship has been requisitioned under sub-section (2) shall be released from the obligation imposed by that sub-section, on being informed by the persons in distress or by the master of any vessel which has reached the person in distress, that assistance is no longer required.

(5) If the master of an Indian vessel, on receiving at sea a signal of distress referred to in sub-section (1), is unable or in the special circumstances of the case considers it unreasonable or unnecessary to go to the assistance of the persons in distress, he shall forthwith cause a statement to be entered in the official logbook or if there is no official logbook, cause other record to be kept of his reasons for not going to the assistance of those persons.

(6) The master of every Indian vessel for which an official logbook is required, shall enter or cause to be entered in the official logbook every signal of distress or message that a vessel, aircraft or person is in distress at sea.

(7) The master of every Indian vessel shall render assistance to every person found at sea in danger of being lost, unless he is unable to or, in the special circumstance of the case, considers that such assistance cannot be rendered without serious danger to his vessel, or the persons thereon.

(8) If the master of an Indian vessel is unable or consider it unreasonable to go to the assistance of a person found at sea in danger of being lost, the master shall forthwith cause a statement to be entered in the official logbook or, if there is no official logbook, cause other record to be kept of his reasons for not going to the assistance of that person.

(9) The master of the vessel shall take all reasonable measures to report the particulars of any incident relating to safety and security which takes place in the vicinity of the vessel to such authority in such manner as may be prescribed.

46 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Search and rescue services.

119. The Central Government shall, whenever necessary, make arrangements for search and rescue services for dealing with distress situation at sea, including coastal waters or such territory under the International Convention on Maritime Search and Rescue, 1979 and agreement related thereto or any other law for the time being in force.

Radio communication requirements.

120. Every Indian vessel shall be equipped and maintained with such communication equipment, distress and safety equipment and shall be provided with such certified operators as may be prescribed.

Information about vessel's stability.

121. (1) Every Indian vessel shall carry onboard such information relating to the stability of the vessel and the effects of any damage control and general precautions necessary to maintain watertight integrity of the vessels and provisions for damage control duly approved, in compliance with the provisions of the Safety Convention and the Load Line Convention or the safety and security requirements in accordance with the provisions of this Part.

(2) The chief ship surveyor shall assign load line, in compliance with the Load Line Convention and approve such information relating to stability of passenger ships as may be prescribed:

Provided that the Director-General may, by order, authorise any other surveyor to perform the duties of the chief ship surveyor under this section on such terms and conditions as may be specified therein.

Submersion of load lines.

122. (1) No vessel, other than a vessel exempted from the provisions of this Part relating to load lines, shall be so loaded as to submerge when the vessel has no list of the appropriate load line on each side of the vessel, that is to say, the load line indicating or purporting to indicate the maximum depth to which the vessel is for the time being entitled under the load line rules, to be loaded.

(2) Without prejudice to any other proceedings under this Act, any vessel which is loaded in contravention of this section may be detained until such vessel ceases to be so loaded.

No vessel to carry passenger without certificate.

123. (1) No vessel shall carry passengers between ports or places in India or from any port or place in India to any port or place outside India, or from any port or place outside India to any port or place in India, unless such vessel has all valid certificates required under this part.

(2) The Central Government may, by general or special order, specify the

conditions relating to,—

(a) passenger accommodation;

(b) scale of passenger and amenities to be provided to seafarers;

(d) scale of provisions and water to be provided;

(e) hospital accommodation and medical facilities;

(f) the conditions for carriage of cargo and livestock; and

(g) any other matter, to carry out the purposes of this Part.

(3) Subject to the conditions specified in sub-section (2), the master of a passenger vessel departing or proceeding on a voyage shall make a statement about the passengers onboard the vessel in such form as may be specified by the Central Government in this behalf.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 47 124. No vessel shall proceed to sea unless such vessel is in possession of

valid certificates referred to in sub-section (2) of section 116.

Vessel not to proceed to sea without valid safety and security certificates.

125. (1) A person shall be liable to penalty under this Act if he commits any Penalties for certain acts.

of the following acts, namely:—

(a) being drunk or disorderly attempts to enter a vessel; or

(b) onboard molest any person; or

(d) wilfully refuses or neglects to quit the vessel on arrival at

destination; or

(e) fails to exhibit his ticket when requested by the master or other

officer; or

(f) misconducts himself in such a manner as to cause annoyance or

injury to persons onboard; or

(g) carries any substance that could jeopardise the safety or security of

the vessel, life onboard or the environment in general.

(2) The master may refuse to receive onboard any person referred to in sub-section (1) and if such person is onboard, may put him on shore, and the person so refused admittance or put on shore shall not be entitled to return of any fare he has paid.

(3) The master or other officer of any such vessel and all persons called by him or other officer to his assistance, may detain any person who commits any offence under sub-section (1) and convey the offender with all convenient dispatch before the nearest police station to be dealt with in accordance with the law.

126. (1) No vessel shall carry or attempt to carry cargo without the required certificate in contravention of this Part or shall have onboard or in any part thereof a cargo which is not in accordance with the certificate held by the vessel.

Vessel not to carry cargo or passengers in contravention of Act. (2) No vessel shall carry or attempt to carry passengers without the required certificate under this Part or shall have onboard or in any part thereof a number of passengers which is greater than the number set forth in the certificate held by the vessel.

(3) The master of any vessel which carries or attempts to carry cargo or passengers in contravention of this section shall be liable to have his certificate of competency cancelled or suspended for such a period as the Central Government may, by order, specify in this behalf.

Unseaworthy vessel not to be sent to sea.

127. (1) Every person who sends or attempts to send a vessel to sea which is unseaworthy, unless he proves that her going to sea in such unseaworthy state was under the circumstances reasonable and justifiable, shall be liable to penalty under this sub-section.

(2) Every master of a vessel who knowingly takes or attempts to take a vessel to sea which is unseaworthy, unless he proves that her going to sea in such unseaworthy state was under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable, shall be liable to penalty under this sub-section.

(3) For the purpose of giving proof under sub-sections (1) and (2), every person charged under this section may give evidence in the same manner as any other witness.

48 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Obligation of ship owner, master or agent with respect to seaworthiness.

128. (1) In every contract of service, express or implied, between the owner of a vessel and the master or any seafarer thereof, there shall be implied, irrespective of any agreement to the contrary, an obligation on the ship owner that such ship owner and the master and every agent charged with the loading of such vessel or the preparing thereof for sea or the sending thereof to sea, shall use all reasonable means to ensure the seaworthiness of such vessel for the voyage at the time when such voyage commences and to keep her in a seaworthy state during the voyage.

(2) For the purpose of verifying compliance of the provisions of this section, the Central Government may, either at the request of the ship owner or otherwise, arrange for a survey of the hull, equipment or machinery of any sea-going vessel by a surveyor or any person so authorised.

129. (1) Every vessel, company or port facility shall comply with such safety

and security management requirements as may be prescribed.

Safety and security management.

(2) The Central Government or a person authorised by it shall arrange for the audit of the vessel, company or port facility for the purpose of sub-section (1).

(3) The Central Government or a person authorised by it may set different levels of security and provide such information thereof, to all the port facilities and all vessels entering into any port facility.

130. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the conditions subject to which the vessel shall comply with the conventions, treaties or agreements to which India is a party and the safety and security requirements to be complied by the vessels to which the said conventions, treaties or agreements are not applicable, under sub-section (1) of section 116;

(b) the safety and security requirements for different classes of vessels and the certificates to be held by such vessels under sub-section (2) of section 116;

(c) the manner of reporting the particulars of incidents and the authority to whom such particulars shall be reported under sub-section (1) and sub-section (2) of section 117;

(d) the manner of reporting the particulars of incidents and the authority to whom such particulars shall be reported under sub-section (9) of section 118;

(e) the communication equipment, distress and safety equipment and the certified operators to be provided to every Indian vessel under section 120;

(f) the information relating to the stability of passenger ship to be

approved under sub-section (2) of section 121;

(g) the safety and security management requirements to be complied by the vessel, company or port facility under sub-section (1) of section 129;

(h) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 49 PART VII

PREVENTION AND CONTAINMENT OF POLLUTION FROM VESSEL AND RESPONSE

131. Save as otherwise provided, this Part shall apply to,—

Application of this Part.

(a) Indian vessel and every other vessel registered in India;

(b) vessel other than an Indian vessel;

the authority of India;

(d) vessel that enters a port, shipyard or offshore terminal or place in

India or within the coastal waters;

(e) any incident of marine casualty or any act relating to such casualty occurring with grave and imminent danger to Indian coastline or coastal waters or related interests or posing a threat to the marine environment or to the coastline or related interest, from pollution or threat of pollution in the sea or air either by deliberate, negligent or accidental release of oil, ballast water, noxious liquid substance, garbage, sewage, waste, harmful anti-fouling substances, harmful emissions or any other harmful substance including such incidents occurring on the high seas.

80 of 1976.

Explanation.—For the purposes of clauses (d) and (e), "coastal waters" shall mean and include any part of the territorial waters of India, along with any part of the adjoining maritime zones of India or any marine area adjacent thereto over which India has, or, may hereafter have, exclusive jurisdiction in regard to control of marine pollution under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, or any other law for the time being in force;

(f) port for the purpose of providing reception facilities:

Provided that this Part shall not apply to any warship, naval auxiliary or other vessel owned or operated by the Central Government or the State Governments and used for the time being only on Government non-commercial service unless otherwise specified by the Central Government by notification:

Provided further that the Director-General may provide equivalence to, or grant exemption from, the provisions of this Part or the rules made thereunder, to any vessel or person, in such manner as may be prescribed.

Definitions.

132. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "harmful substance" means any substance or form of energy, which, if introduced into the sea or air, is liable to create hazards to human health, harm living resources and marine life, damage amenities or interfere with other legitimate uses of the sea or air and includes any substance subject to control by any of the conventions to which India is a party or such other substance as may be prescribed by the Central Government;

(b) "dumping" means any—

(i) deliberate disposal of waste water or other matter from

vessels, ports, platform or other man-made structures at sea; or

(ii) deliberate disposal of vessels, structures of ports, platform or

other man-made structures at sea,

but does not include—

(i) the disposal of wastes or other matter incidental to, or derived from normal operations of vessels, platforms or other man-made structure at sea and their equipment, other than wastes or other matter transported by or to vessels, platforms or other man-made structures at sea, operating for the50 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 purpose of disposal of such matter or derived from the treatment of such wastes or other matter on such vessels, platform or structure; or

(ii) the placement of matter for a purpose other than the mere disposal

thereof:

Provided that such placement is not contrary to the aims of the London Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other Matter, 1972;

ship repair unit, offshore facilities and terminals;

(d) "vessel" means a vessel of any type, whatsoever, operating in the marine or aquatic environment and includes hydrofoil boats, air-cushion vehicles, submersibles, floating craft, floating platforms, floating storage units and floating production storage and off-loading units but does not include fixed platforms or other fixed man-made structures at sea for the purposes of dumping.

133. (1) Save as otherwise provided, all vessels shall be under an obligation to prevent discharge or emission of harmful substances or mixtures containing harmful substances.

Control of discharge or emission of harmful substances or dumping at sea.

(2) All Indian vessels shall be fitted with such equipment and comply with such requirements and conditions relating to construction, survey of equipment and structure of vessel, as may be prescribed.

(3) No certificate shall be granted under this Part unless the requirements

and conditions of this section are complied with.

(4) The Central Government may designate such specific areas requiring

more stringent standards for pollution prevention as may be prescribed.

(5) The Central Government may, either at the request of the ship owner or otherwise, arrange for the survey of the hull, equipment or machinery of any vessel by a surveyor and, if found fit, shall grant certificates in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules made thereunder in such form, for such duration and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed.

(6) The Central Government may take measures, as it may consider appropriate, to prevent the pollution of the sea by the dumping of waste and other matter that is liable to create hazards to human health, harm living resources and marine life, damage amenities or interfere with other legitimate use of the sea.

(7) The Central Government may, by notification, specify the items permitted for dumping in the coastal waters and may prescribe the manner in which permissions for the dumping of such items may be obtained.

(8) Unless expressly permitted, no vessel, port, platform or other man-made

structures at sea shall engage in dumping in the coastal waters.

134. (1) Every vessel shall, subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, comply with the provisions of the following international conventions, as applicable, namely:—

Prevention and containment of pollution and response.

(a) the MARPOL Convention;

(b) the Anti-Fouling Systems Convention;

(d) International Convention Relating to Intervention on the High Seas

in Cases of Oil Pollution Casualties, 1969;

(e) any other pollution prevention convention or agreement or treaty

to which India is a party, as may be prescribed:

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 51

Provided that vessel to which the provisions of the above conventions are not applicable shall comply with such pollution prevention requirements as may be prescribed.

(2) A vessel shall possess such different types of certificates and documents depending on the type, size, nature and area of operation of the vessel as may be prescribed.

135. (1) No vessel shall proceed to sea unless such vessel is in possession of valid certificates required under the convention or agreement or treaty referred to in section 134.

Vessel not to proceed to sea without valid pollution prevention certificates.

(2) A vessel shall carry a valid certificate onboard and shall be subject to inspection while at a port in India by the surveyor or an authorised person in such manner as may be prescribed:

Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall be construed as limiting the powers of any officer under any other law for the time being in force from boarding and inspecting the vessel or its equipment.

(3) If the inspection under this section reveals that a vessel does not have a valid certificate onboard or whose condition or equipment's condition does not meet the particulars of the certificate onboard, the vessel may be detained by order by a proper officer until proceedings are concluded under this section or in the opinion of the Central Government, the vessel can proceed to sea without presenting an unreasonable threat or harm to safety of life at sea, marine environment or the public health and welfare.

(4) Notwithstanding any proceedings initiated against the owner or master of the vessel under this section, the Central Government may initiate further action against such persons, if it determines that the incident of pollution continues to cause harm or damage after the conclusion of the proceedings, or results in harm or damages not discovered at the time of the initiation of the proceedings.

Record books.

136. Every Indian vessel shall maintain such books of record in such form and manner and the nature of entries to be made in the books of record, the custody and disposal thereof, and all other matters relating thereto, shall be such as may be prescribed.

Power to deny entry, detain or move vessel.

137. (1) Where the Central Government has reasonable grounds to suspect that a vessel which proposes to enter a port in India does not comply with the requirements of this Part, it may direct the port to deny entry to such vessel.

(2) Where the Central Government has reasonable grounds to suspect that a vessel does not comply with the requirements of this Part and poses a threat of harm to the coast or coastal waters or has caused such harm, it may direct any proper officer to detain the vessel or have the vessel moved to such place and for such period as it may deem fit.

(3) Where any vessel detained under this section proceeds to sea before being released, the master of the vessel, ship owner or any person who sends the vessel to sea, shall be liable to penalty under this Act.

Power to take measures for containment of pollution and reporting of incidents.

138. (1) Where an incident in which the cargo or harmful substances escape or is likely to escape from a vessel causes or threaten to cause pollution of air, marine environment or any part of coasts or coastal waters, the master of every vessel shall report the particulars of such incident to such authority in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) The Central Government shall, upon receiving information regarding any incident of pollution under sub-section (1), immediately take notice of such incident and may direct the owner, agent, master, charterer, operator, lessee or licensee of the vessel by notice served on him, to take the following actions, namely:—

52 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (a) to prevent the escape of such harmful substances from the vessel,

as may be specified in such notice;

(b) to remove the cargo or oil or noxious liquid substance or harmful substance from the vessel in such manner and to such place, as may be specified in the notice;

(d) to remove the cargo or oil or noxious liquid substance or harmful substance slicks on the surface of the sea in such manner as may be specified in the notice;

(e) to prohibit the removal of the vessel including any cargo or stores

therein, from a place specified in the notice; and

(f) any other action as may be considered necessary to prevent such

damage.

(3) If a vessel referred to in sub-section (1) is abandoned or a report from such vessel is incomplete, the Central Government shall fix the responsibility of the incident on the master or owner of that vessel.

(4) Where the release of harmful substances has caused or is likely to present a grave and imminent danger to the coast or coastal waters, the Central Government may proceed to take such measures as may be deemed necessary to prevent, mitigate or eliminate such threat or danger.

(5) Where any person fails to comply with any notice served on him under sub-section (2), the Central Government may, whether or not such person is convicted of an offence under this Part by reason of his having so failed to comply, cause such action to be taken as it may deem necessary for,—

(a) carrying out the directives given in the notice issued under

sub-section (2);

(b) containing the pollution caused or preventing the pollution threatened to be caused, to any part of the coast or coastal waters by any harmful substance having escaped or threatening to escape from the vessel.

(6) Subject to the provisions of this Part, any expenditure or liability incurred by the Central Government in, or by reason of, the exercise of powers under sub-section (5) in relation to any vessel in respect of which a notice had been issued under this section, shall be a debt due to the Central Government and may be recovered from the person or persons on whom the notice was served or from all or any of those persons, and shall be a charge upon all or any vessel owned by that person or persons which may be detained by the Central Government until the amount is paid:

Provided that where the amount due to the Central Government is not paid within reasonable time, the Central Government may cause all or any vessel owned by such person or any part thereof to be sold, for the purpose of recovery of such an amount with applicable interest.

(7) The Central Government shall have the power to take such measures as may be deemed necessary to prevent, mitigate or eliminate grave and imminent danger to the coastline or related interests from pollution or threat of pollution following any incident on the high seas which may reasonably be expected to result in major harmful consequences to the coastline or coastal waters.

(8) The Central Government may make national or regional arrangement system for responding promptly and effectively to pollution incidents occurring within the coastal waters.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 53

Power of Central Government to give directions.

139. (1) For the purposes of taking any measures under section 138, the Central Government or any other officer authorised by it in this behalf, may, by an order in writing, direct the owner of any Indian vessel or equipment to provide such services or assistance as may be specified in that order.

(2) The owner of any vessel or equipment with respect to which an order is made under sub-section (1), shall be entitled to tariff rates of freight and charter hire, at reasonable rates having regard to current market conditions:

Provided that where tariff rates of freight are not fixed or where there is any dispute about reasonable rate of charter hire, the freight or charter hire, shall be paid at such rates as may be fixed by the Central Government by an order in writing, subject to determination of reasonability of such rates of freight or charter hire by examining such witnesses, documents and accounts as it may deem necessary.

(3) The Director-General may,—

(a) requisition the services of any officer of the Central Government

or other officers or any police officer;

(b) requisition the resources and pollution prevention equipment available with any of the offices of the Central Government or other offices or organisations,

for the purposes of this Part and it shall be the duty of every such officer or office or organisation to render assistance.

Measures for detection of pollution.

140. The Central Government shall prescribe such measures as it may deem appropriate and practical, for the monitoring, detection and control of pollution under this Part.

Appointment of analysts.

141. The Central Government may appoint such persons as analysts for the purposes of incidents of pollution under this Part and specify the scope of powers to be exercised by an analyst in this regard.

Reception facilities.

142. (1) Every port shall provide such reception facilities and surveillance, supervision and guidance thereof as may be prescribed, taking into account the pollution prevention conventions specified in section 134.

(2) The Central Government may give directions to the ports to take appropriate measures to ensure that wastes or residue generated during operation, repair and re-cycling of vessel are collected, handled, treated and disposed of in a safe and environmentally sound manner to protect human health and the environment.

(3) A port authority providing reception facilities or a person providing such facilities by arrangement with the port authority may impose charges for the use of the facilities at such rates and impose such conditions in respect of the use thereof as may be notified by the Central Government in respect of the port.

(4) Where the Central Government is satisfied that there are no reception facilities at any port or that the facilities available at such port or place are not adequate for enabling vessels calling at such port or place to comply with the requirements of the pollution prevention conventions, the Central Government may direct, by order in writing, such authority to provide or arrange for the provision of such reception facilities, as may be specified in the order.

(5) Any port that fails to comply with the directions under sub-section (4)

shall be liable to penalty under this Act.

143. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

54 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (a) the manner of providing equivalence or granting exemption to any

vessel or person under the second proviso to section 131;

(b) other substances which fall within the definition of "harmful

substances" in clause (a) of section 132;

construction, survey of equipment and structure of vessel under sub-section (2) of section 133;

(d) the pollution prevention standards and requirements for designated

areas under sub-section (4) of section 133;

(e) the form, duration and conditions subject to which a certificate

may be granted under sub-section (5) of section 133;

(f) the manner of obtaining permission for dumping in coastal waters

under sub-section (7) of section 133;

(g) the conditions subject to which the vessel shall comply with the conventions, agreements or treaties specified in sub-section (1) of section 134 including any other pollution prevention convention or agreement or treaty to which India is a party and the pollution prevention requirements to be complied with by the vessels on whom such conventions, agreements or treaties do not apply;

(h) the types of certificates and documents under sub-section (2) of

section 134;

(i) the manner of inspection of certificates by a surveyor under

sub-section (2) of section 135;

(j) the form and manner of maintenance of record book and the nature of entries to be made in the books of record, the custody and disposal thereof, and other matters relating to maintenance of record book under section 136;

(k) the particulars of the incident, the authority and the manner of

reporting incident under sub-section (1) of section 138;

(l) the measures to be taken by the Central Government for the

monitoring, detection and control of pollution under section 140;

(m) the reception facilities, surveillance, supervision and guidance

under sub-section (1) of section 142;

(n) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

PART VIII

SURVEY, AUDIT AND CERTIFICATION

Survey, audit and certification.

144. (1) Every Indian vessel, company or port shall unless otherwise exempted by the Central Government, be surveyed or audited or certified for verification of compliance with the conventions specified in section 147 and such requirements for different classes of vessels, company or port, as may be prescribed.

Explanation.—In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires, "company"

shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (a) of section 115.

(2) A surveyor or any person authorised by the Director-General in this behalf may, if satisfied that any vessel, company or port has been surveyed or audited as per the requirements under this Act, grant certificate or documents to such vessel, company or port.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 55

(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, where any survey or audit of a vessel, company or port under this Part is completed, the owner, agent or master of such vessel, company or port shall not make or cause to be made any alteration in the structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, material, systems or scantlings covered by the survey or audit without the prior permission of the Central Government.

(4) If, after grant of certificates or documents under sub-section (2), the Central Government or any person authorised by it, has reason to believe that changes have been made to the structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, material, systems or scantlings, or they have sustained any damage or are otherwise found insufficient, then the Central Government or any person authorised by it in this behalf may require that the vessel, company or port be re-surveyed or audited to such extent, as it may deem fit, or it may modify or revoke or suspend or cancel or surrender the certificates and documents, after giving an opportunity of being heard, in such manner as may be prescribed.

(5) No vessel shall proceed to sea unless the owner or master of the vessel

holds onboard all the certificates or documents as required under this section.

Certificates.

145. Every vessel, company or port shall, unless exempted under this Part,

be in possession of such certificates as may be prescribed.

Power of surveyor.

146. (1) Save as otherwise provided, a surveyor may at any reasonable time, go onboard a vessel and may inspect or audit the vessel or any part thereof, the structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, materials, systems, scantlings, cargo, provisions, stores, her certificates and certificates of the seafarers onboard:

Provided that he shall not unreasonably hinder the operation of the vessel

or detain or delay her from proceeding on any voyage.

(2) The owner, agent, master or every officer of the vessel shall afford to the surveyor all reasonable facilities for survey and provide all such information in respect of the vessel and her structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, materials, scantlings, systems, cargo, provisions, stores, her certificates and certificates of the seafarers, as the surveyor may require.

147. Every vessel, company or port shall be surveyed, audited and certified

to confirm compliance with the following conventions as applicable, namely:—

Compliance of provisions of convention.

(a) the Safety Convention;

(b) the MARPOL Convention;

(d) the Ballast Water Management Convention;

(e) the Load Lines Conventions;

(f) the Tonnage Measurement Convention, 1969;

(g) the Special Trade Passenger Ships Agreement, 1971 and its

Protocol;

(h) the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing

Collisions at Sea, 1972;

(i) the International Convention on Maritime Search and Rescue, 1979

(SAR 1979);

(j) the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006; or

(k) any other convention relating to survey, audit or certification as

may be prescribed.

56 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Recognition of certificates granted outside India.

148. A valid certificate granted under a convention in respect of a vessel other than an Indian vessel by the Government of the State to which the vessel belongs, shall subject to such rules as the Central Government may make in this behalf, have the same effect in India as the corresponding certificates granted in respect of an Indian vessel.

Grant of certificate to foreign vessels in India and Indian vessels in foreign States.

149. (1) The Central Government may, at the request of the Government of a State to which a convention applies, cause an appropriate convention certificate to be granted in respect of a vessel registered or to be registered in that State, if it is satisfied in like manner as in the case of an Indian vessel that such certificate may be granted and where a certificate is granted at such a request, it shall contain a statement to that effect.

(2) The Central Government may request the Government of a State to which a convention applies to grant an appropriate convention certificate in respect of a vessel registered or to be registered in India and a certificate granted in pursuance of such a request shall have effect for the purposes of this Act, as if it had been granted by the Central Government.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "convention certificate"

means a certificate granted under the provisions of any convention.

Power to call for information.

150. (1) The Central Government, surveyor, or any other person authorised in this behalf, shall have the power to require the master of a vessel to which this Part applies, to give such information as may be required to ensure compliance with the provisions of this Part.

(2) The surveyor or any other person empowered under sub-section (1), shall have the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in respect of the following matters, namely:—

5 of 1908.

(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and

examining him on oath;

(b) requiring discovery and production of any document;

(d) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

(3) Any person who refuses or fails to give the information referred to in

sub-section (1), shall be liable for a penalty under this Act.

151. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, appoint such persons

to conduct inspections of any vessel to which this Part applies, in order to—

Power to conduct inspections.

(a) verify whether the vessel has violated any provisions of this Act or

rules made thereunder;

(b) comply with the request of a contracting party to any convention, agreement or treaty referred to in section 147, for an investigation as to violation of any provisions of such convention, agreement or treaty, by an Indian vessel;

(2) The violation noticed in the inspection conducted under sub-section (1) shall be reported to the Central Government in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

(3) The Central Government may, upon receipt of the report under sub-section (2), take any action or direct the master of the vessel to take such action as may be required.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 57 152. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the requirements for different classes of vessels, company or ports

for survey, audit and certification under sub-section (1) of section 144;

(b) the manner of re-survey, audit and certification of vessel, company or port and modification, revocation, suspension, cancellation or surrender of the certificates and documents under sub-section (4) of section 144;

section 145;

(d) any other convention relating to survey, audit or certification under

clause (k) of section 147;

(e) any other power of the surveyor or other person under clause (d)

of sub-section (2) of section 150;

(f) any other matter for compliance of which inspections may be

conducted under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 151;

(g) the form and manner of report to be made to the Central

Government under sub-section (2) of section 151;

(h) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

PART IX

MARITIME LIABILITY AND COMPENSATION

CHAPTER I

COLLISION, ACCIDENT AT SEA AND LIABILITY

153. (1) This Chapter shall apply to,—

Application of this Chapter.

(a) Indian vessels; and

(b) any vessel other than an Indian vessel while it is at a port or place

in India including the coastal waters.

(2) All claims arising out of pollution damage under Chapter III or Chapter IV of this Part shall be adjudicated in accordance with the provisions of those Chapters.

154. (1) Each vessel shall bear its own damage if the collision is accidental Apportionment of liability.

or the cause of the collision is not determined.

(2) If the collision is caused by the fault of one of the vessels, the liability to make good the damages or loss caused to one or more of those vessels or to their cargo or to any property of the seafarers, passengers or other persons onboard or the liability for loss of life or personal injury, shall be of the vessel which has committed the fault.

(3) If the collision is caused by the fault of two or more vessels, the liability of each vessel, to make good the damages or loss caused to one or more of those vessels or to their cargo or to any property of the seafarers, passengers or other persons onboard or the liability for loss of life or personal injury, shall be in proportion to the degree of faults respectively committed by each such vessel:

58 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Provided that if, having regard to all the circumstances of the case, it is not possible to establish different degrees of fault, the liability shall be apportioned equally.

22 of 2017.

(4) For the purposes of this Chapter, for any maritime claim arising out of collision between vessels, the High Court may, in the course of proceedings under this Act, assign all or any of the following duties to any assessors, appointed by the Central Government under the Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, namely:—

(a) determination of fault, including the degree of fault attributable to

each vessel;

(b) attend the proceedings and present their written findings before the

High Court; and

Damage or loss of vessel, cargo or property.

155. (1) Whenever, by fault of two or more vessels, damage or loss is caused to one or more of them or to the cargo of one or more of them or to any property of the seafarers, passengers or other persons onboard one or more of them, the liability, including liability to third parties, to make good the damage or loss shall be in proportion to the degree in which each vessel was at fault.

(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to render any vessel liable for

any loss or damage to which her fault has not contributed.

(3) Nothing in this section shall affect the liability of any person under any contract, or shall be construed as imposing any liability upon any person from which he is exempted by any contract or by any provision of law, or as affecting the right of any person to limit his liability in the manner provided by law.

(4) For the purposes of this Chapter, references to damage or loss caused by the fault of a vessel shall be construed as including references to any salvage or other expenses consequent upon that fault, recoverable under any law for the time being in force by way of damages.

156. (1) Whenever loss of life or personal injuries are suffered by any person onboard a vessel owing to the fault of that vessel and any other vessel, the liability to third parties, of the owners of the vessels concerned shall be joint and several.

Joint and several liability for loss of life or personal injury.

(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed as depriving any person of any right of defence on which he might have relied in an action brought against him by the person injured, or any person entitled to sue in respect of such loss of life, or shall affect the right of any person to limit his liability in cases to which this section relates.

Right of contribution.

157. (1) Whenever loss of life or personal injuries are suffered by a person onboard a vessel owing to the fault of that vessel and of any other vessel and a proportion of the damages is recovered from the owner of one of the vessels which exceeds the proportion in which she was in fault, the said owner may recover by way of contribution the amount of the excess from the owners of the other vessels to the extent to which those vessels were respectively in fault:

Provided that no amount shall be so recovered which shall not, by reason of any statutory or contractual limitation of, or exemption from, liability or which shall not for any other reason, have been recovered in the first instance as damages by the persons entitled to sue therefor.

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(2) In addition to any other remedy provided by law for the time being in force, the person entitled to any contribution under sub-section (1) shall, for the purpose of recovering the contribution, have subject to the provisions of this Act, the same rights and powers as the persons entitled to sue for damages in the first instance.

158. (1) In every case of collision between two vessels, it shall be the duty of the master or person in-charge of each vessel in and so far as he can do so without danger to his own vessel, seafarers and passengers, if any,—

Duty of master of vessel to assist in case of collision.

(a) to render to the other vessel, her master, seafarers and passengers, if any, such assistance as may be practicable and necessary to save them from any danger caused by the collision and to stay by the other vessel until he has ascertained that she has no need of further assistance; and

(b) to give to the masters or persons in-charge of the other vessels, the name of his own vessel and of the port to which she belongs and also from which she comes and to which she is bound.

(2) The failure of the master of a vessel to comply with the provisions of

this section shall not raise any presumption of liability under this Chapter.

Collision to be entered in official logbook.

159. In every case of collision in which it is practicable so to do, the master of every vessel shall immediately after the occurrence, cause a statement thereof and of the circumstances under which the same occurred, to be entered in the official logbook, if any, and the entry shall be signed by the master and also by the officer on watch or one of the seafarers.

Report to Director- General of accidents to vessels.

160. When an Indian vessel or other vessels to which this Chapter applies, has sustained or caused any accident occasioning loss of life or any serious injury to any person or has received any material damage affecting her seaworthiness or her efficiency either in her hull or is so altered in any part of her machinery as not to correspond with the particulars contained in any of the certificates granted under this Act in respect of the vessel, the master or ship owner or his agent shall, within such time as may be prescribed, after the happening of the accident or damage or as soon thereafter as possible, transmit to the Director-General or the nearest principal officer a report of the accident or damage and of the probable cause thereof stating the name of the vessel, her official number, if any, her port of registry and the place where she is.

Notice of loss of Indian vessel to be given to Director- General.

161. If the owner or agent of any Indian vessel has reason, owing to the non-appearance of the vessel or to any other circumstance, to apprehend that the vessel is wholly lost, he shall as soon as may be, send notice in writing to the Director-General relating to the loss and the cause of such loss stating the name of the vessel, her official number, if any, and her port of registry.

CHAPTER II

LIMITATION OF LIABILITY FOR MARITIME CLAIMS

162. (1) The ship owner or salvor or any person for whose act, neglect or default, the ship owner or salvor, or any such person is responsible, and the insurer of liability for such claims, may limit his liability for claims in respect of—

Limitation of liability for damages in respect of certain claims.

(a) loss of life or personal injury or loss of or damage to property including damage to harbour works, basins and waterways and aids to navigation, occurring onboard or in direct connection with the operation of the vessels or with salvage operations and consequential loss resulting therefrom;

60 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (b) loss resulting from delay in the carriage by sea of cargo, passengers

or their luggage;

(c) other loss resulting from infringement of rights other than contractual rights, occurring in direct connection with the operation of the vessel or salvage operations;

(d) the raising, removal, destruction or the rendering harmless of a vessel which is sunk, wrecked, stranded or abandoned, including anything that is or has been onboard such vessel;

(e) the removal, destruction or the rendering harmless of the cargo of

the vessel;

(f) a person other than the person liable in respect of measures taken in order to avert or minimise loss for which the person liable may limit his liability in accordance with the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention and further loss caused by such measures.

(2) The claims set out under sub-section (1) shall be subject to limitation of liability, even if brought by way of recourse or for indemnity under a contract or otherwise:

Provided that claims set out under clauses (d), (e) and (f) of sub-section (1) shall not be subject to limitation of liability to the extent they relate to remuneration under a contract with the person liable.

(3) Nothing in this section shall apply to,—

(a) claims for salvage, including any claim for special compensation under Article 14 of the Salvage Convention, or contribution in general average;

(b) claims for oil pollution damage under Chapter III of this Part

relating to civil liability for oil pollution damage;

(c) claims subject to any convention or any law for the time being in force in India governing or prohibiting limitation of liability for nuclear damage;

(d) claims against the ship owner of a nuclear vessel for nuclear

damage;

(e) claims by servant of the ship owner or salvor whose duties are connected with the vessel or the salvage operations, including claims of their heirs, dependants or other persons entitled to make such claims, if under the law governing the contract of service between the ship owner or salvor and such servants, the ship owner or salvor is not entitled to limit his liability in respect of such claims, or if he is by such law only permitted to limit his liability to an amount greater than that provided in the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention or the rules made under sections 165 and 166.

Explanation 1.—For the purposes of this section, the act of invoking limitation

of liability shall not be an admission of liability.

Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this Chapter,—

(a) the liability of a ship owner shall include the liability in an action

brought against the vessel herself;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 61 (b) "ship owner" means the owner, charterer, manager or operator of

a sea-going vessel.

Conduct barring limitation.

163. A person shall not be entitled to limit his liability under section 162, if it is proved that the loss resulted from his personal act or omission, committed with the intent to cause such loss, or committed recklessly and with knowledge that such loss is likely to result.

Counter claims.

164. Where a person entitled to limitation of liability under this Chapter has a claim against the claimant arising out of the same occurrence, their respective claims shall be set off against each other and the provisions of this Chapter shall apply only to the balance, if any.

Limits of liability.

165. (1) The limits of liability for claims other than passenger claims under section 166 arising on any distinct occasion, shall be calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention:

Provided that in cases where the provisions of the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention are not applicable, the limit of liability shall be such as may be prescribed.

(2) Where the amount calculated in respect of claims for loss of life or personal injury is insufficient to pay such claims in full, the amount calculated in respect of other claims shall be available for payment of the unpaid balance of claims in respect of claims for loss of life or personal injury and such unpaid balance shall rank rateably with claims in respect of other claims.

(3) Without prejudice to the right of claims for loss of life or personal injury under sub-section (2), the claims in respect of damage to harbour works, basins, waterways and aids to navigation shall have priority over other claims.

(4) The limits of liability for any salvor not operating from any vessel or for any salvor operating solely on the vessel to, or in respect of which he is rendering salvage services, shall be calculated according to gross tonnage as provided in the Convention on Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims.

Limit for passenger claims.

166. In respect of claims arising on any distinct occasion for loss of life or personal injury to passengers of a vessel, the limit of liability of the owner thereof shall be such as may be prescribed.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "claims arising on any distinct occasion for loss of life or personal injury to passengers of a vessel" shall mean any claim brought by or on behalf of any person carried in that vessel,—

(a) under a contract of passenger carriage; or

(b) who, with the consent of the carrier, is accompanying a vehicle or

live animals which are covered by a contract for the carriage of goods.

167. (1) The limits of liability determined under section 165 shall apply to Aggregation of claims.

the aggregate of all claims which arise on any distinct occasion,—

(a) against the person or any person for whose act, neglect or default,

he is responsible; or

(b) against a ship owner rendering salvage services from that vessel and a salvor operating from such vessel and any person for whose act, neglect or default he is responsible; or

(c) against the salvor who is not operating from a vessel or who is operating solely on the vessel in respect of which the salvage services are rendered and any person for whose act, neglect or default, such salvor is responsible.

62 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

(2) The limits of liability determined under section 165 shall apply to the aggregate of all claims subject thereto which may arise on any distinct occasion against the ship owner in respect of the vessel referred to in that section and any person for whose act, neglect or default he is responsible.

Constitution of limitation fund.

168. (1) Any person alleged to be liable may constitute a fund with the Central Government or the High Court in which legal proceedings are instituted or expected to be instituted in respect of claims which can be limited under this Chapter.

(2) The fund shall be constituted in the sum of the amounts calculated in

accordance with the provisions of section 165 or section 166, read with section 167, as are applicable to claims for which limitation of liability is invoked and which arise from the same distinct occasion, together with interest at such rate as may be notified by the Central Government thereon from the date of occurrence giving rise to the liability until the date of the constitution of the fund.

(3) The limitation fund of the value calculated in accordance with sub-section (2) or stipulated by the High Court or the Central Government, shall be constituted by—

(a) depositing the amount; or

(b) producing a guarantee acceptable under any law for the time being in force and considered to be adequate by the High Court or the Central Government.

(4) The fund so constituted shall be available only for the payment of claims

in respect of which limitation of liability may be invoked.

(5) The fund constituted by one of the persons or ship owner or salvors referred to in section 167, or his insurer, shall be deemed to be constituted by all such persons or ship owners or salvors or their insurers.

169. (1) Limitation of liability may be invoked notwithstanding that a

limitation fund has not been constituted under section 168.

Limitation of liability without constitution of a limitation fund.

(2) In case the right to limitation of liability is invoked without the

constitution of a limitation fund under section 168,—

(a) the High Court shall adjudicate each claim for its full proven amount and declare the right of the person liable to limit his liability and for the purpose of enforcement, the amount of limitation shall be applicable to the respective claims; and

(b) the claimant shall not be barred from taking other action in respect

of such claims.

(3) Section 171 shall not be applicable unless a limitation fund is constituted

under section 168.

Distribution of fund.

170. (1) Subject to the limits of liability under sections 165 and 166, the fund shall be distributed among the claimants in proportion to their established claims.

(2) No lien or other right in respect of any vessel or property shall affect the proportions in which the fund is distributed among several claimants under this section.

(3) If before the fund is distributed, the person liable or his insurer has settled a claim against the fund, such person shall, up to the amount he has paid, acquire by subrogation the rights which the person so compensated would have enjoyed under this Chapter.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 63

(4) The right of subrogation under sub-section (3) may also be exercised by any person other than the person liable or his insurers in respect of any amount of compensation which such person may have paid.

(5) Where the person liable or any other person establishes that he may be compelled to pay at a later date, in whole or in part any such amount of compensation with regard to which such person would have enjoyed a right of subrogation under this section had the compensation been paid before the fund was distributed, the High Court or the Central Government where the fund is constituted may order that a sufficient sum be provisionally set aside to enable such person to enforce his claim against the fund at such later date.

Bar to other actions.

171. (1) Where a fund is constituted under section 168, any person having made a claim against the fund shall be barred from exercising any right in respect of such claim against any other vessel or property of a person by or on behalf of whom the fund was constituted.

(2) After a fund is constituted under section 168, if any vessel or other property, belonging to a person on behalf of whom the fund was constituted, is arrested or attached for a claim which may be raised against the fund, or any security given, may be released by an order of the High Court and such release shall always be ordered by the High Court whether or not the fund was constituted with the same or any other High Court or with the Central Government.

(3) The provisions of sub-sections (1) and (2) shall apply only if the claimant makes a claim against the fund before the High Court or the Central Government administering that fund and the fund is actually available and freely transferable in respect of that claim.

172. (1) Every registered owner of an Indian vessel and of any vessel other than an Indian vessel entering or departing a port in India or operating in the coastal waters shall maintain compulsory insurance or such other financial security from an insurer or organisation as may be prescribed, in respect of such vessel.

Compulsory insurance or other financial security for maritime claims subject to limitation.

(2) The insurance shall cover maritime claims subject to limitation specified

under section 162.

(3) The amount of insurance for each and every vessel per incident shall be at least equal to the relevant maximum amount for the limitation of liability provided under section 165 and for passenger claims the relevant maximum amount for the limitation of liability under section 166.

(4) Any vessel departing a port in India in contravention of this section shall

be liable to be detained by such authority as may be prescribed.

Scope of application of this Chapter.

173. (1) The provisions of this Chapter shall apply to any person referred to in section 162 who seeks to limit his liability before the High Court or seeks to procure the release of a vessel or other property or the discharge of any security given within India but shall not apply to any person who does not have—

(a) habitual residence in India; or

(b) principal place of business in India; or

(c) any vessel in relation to which the right of limitation is invoked or whose release is sought and which does not fly the flag of a State which is a party to the Convention on Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims,

at the time of invocation of the provisions of this Chapter.

64 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

(2) The provisions of this Chapter shall not apply to air-cushion vehicles or floating platforms constructed for the purpose of exploring or exploiting the natural resources of the sea-bed or the sub-soil thereof.

174. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

of Chapter I and this Chapter.

Power to make rules for matters under Chapters I and II of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the time within which the master or ship owner or his agent shall report the accident to the Director-General or the nearest principal officer under section 160;

(b) the limits of liability in cases where the provisions of the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention are not applicable under the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 165;

injury to passengers of a vessel under section 166;

(d) insurer or other organisation and other financial security whose

insurance is acceptable under sub-section (1) of section 172;

(e) the authority competent to detain any vessel under sub-section (4)

of section 172;

(f) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

CHAPTER III

CIVIL LIABILITY FOR OIL POLLUTION DAMAGE

175. This Chapter shall apply to,—

Application of this Chapter.

(a) pollution damage caused by,—

(i) Indian vessel within the jurisdiction of any contracting party

to the Civil Liability Convention; and

(ii) Indian vessel and any ship while it is at a port or place in India including the coastal waters, extending not more than two hundred nautical miles from the baseline;

(b) preventive measures, wherever taken, to prevent or minimise such

pollution damage.

Definitions.

176. In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "incident" means any occurrence, or series of occurrences having the same origin, which causes pollution damage or creates a grave and imminent threat of causing such damage;

(b) "oil" means any persistent hydrocarbon mineral oil such as crude oil, fuel oil, heavy diesel oil and lubricating oil whether carried onboard a ship as cargo or in the bunkers of such ship;

(c) "person" means any individual or partnership or any public or private body, whether corporate or not, including a State or any of its constituent sub-divisions;

(d) "pollution damage" means,—

(i) loss or damage caused outside the ship by contamination resulting from the escape or discharge of oil from the ship, wherever such escape or discharge occurs:

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 65

Provided that compensation for impairment of the environment other than loss of profit from such impairment shall be limited to costs of reasonable measures of reinstatement actually undertaken or to be undertaken; and

(ii) the costs of preventive measures and further loss or damage

caused by preventive measures;

(e) "preventive measures" means any reasonable measures taken by any person after an incident has occurred to prevent or minimise pollution damage;

(f) "ship" means any sea-going vessel and seaborne craft of any type

whatsoever constructed or adapted for the carriage of oil in bulk as cargo:

Provided that a ship capable of carrying oil and other cargoes shall be regarded as a ship only when it is actually carrying oil in bulk as cargo and during any voyage following such carriage unless it is proved that it has no residues of such carriage of oil in bulk aboard;

(g) "ship owner" means,—

(i) the person registered as the owner of the ship; or

(ii) in the absence of registration, the person owning the ship; or

(iii) in the case of a ship owned by any State, the persons

registered in that State as the operator of such ship.

Liability of ship owner.

177. (1) Save as otherwise provided in sub-sections (2) and (3), the ship owner shall be liable for any pollution damage caused by the ship as a result of the incident and where the incident consists of a series of occurrences, from the time of the first of such occurrences.

(2) No liability for pollution damage shall be attached to the ship owner, if

he proves that the pollution damage,—

(a) resulted from an act of war, hostilities, civil war, insurrection or a natural phenomenon of an exceptional, inevitable and irresistible character; or

(b) was wholly caused by an act or omission done with intent to cause

damage by a third party; or

(c) was wholly caused by the negligence or other wrongful act of any Government or other authority responsible for the maintenance of lights or other navigational aids in the exercise of that function.

(3) Where the ship owner proves that the pollution damage resulted either wholly or partially from an act or omission done with intent to cause damage by the person who suffered the damage or from the negligence of that person, the ship owner may be exonerated wholly or partially from his liability to such person.

(4) No claim for compensation for pollution damage may be made against the ship owner otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter.

(5) Subject to sub-section (6), no claim for compensation for pollution

damage under this Chapter or otherwise may be made against,—

(a) the servants or agents of the ship owner or the seafarers;

(b) the pilot or any other person who, not being a seafarer, performs

services for the ship;

charterer), manager or operator of the ship;

66 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (d) any person performing salvage operations with the consent of the

ship owner or on the instructions of a competent public authority;

(e) any person taking preventive measures;

(f) any servant or agent of persons mentioned in clauses (c), (d)

and (e),

unless the damage resulted from their personal act or omission, committed with the intent to cause such damage, or committed recklessly and with knowledge that such damage is likely to result.

(6) Nothing in this Chapter shall prejudice any right of recourse of the ship

owner against third parties.

Joint and several liability for ships.

178. When an incident involving two or more ships occur and pollution damage results therefrom, all the ship owners concerned, unless exonerated under sub-section (3) of section 177, shall be jointly and severally liable for all such damage which is not reasonably separable.

Jurisdiction of High Court.

22 of 2017.

179. (1) The admiralty jurisdiction of the respective High Courts under the Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, shall be deemed to extend to any claim for liability arising under this Chapter and shall also extend to any case arising out of such claim, including the constitution of a limitation fund (hereafter in this Chapter referred to as fund) by the ship owner.

(2) All claims arising out of an incident of oil pollution, including the constitution of a fund, shall be made in the High Court having jurisdiction over the pollution damage and if the pollution damage occurs in the Exclusive Economic Zone, or more than one High Court has jurisdiction over such pollution damage, the claim may be made in the High Court which has jurisdiction over the port or place where the ship responsible for such pollution damage is detained.

Jurisdiction where pollution damage occurs in two or more States.

180. Where pollution damage occurs in the territory of one or more other contracting parties to the Civil Liability Convention, or preventive measures have been taken to prevent or minimise pollution damage in the territory of such contracting parties, claims for compensation may be brought in the courts of any such contracting party:

Provided that once a fund is established in India in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter, only the High Court or the Central Government shall have jurisdiction to determine matters relating to apportionment and distribution of the fund.

Limitation of liability.

181. (1) The ship owner may limit his liability under this Chapter in respect of any incident, to an aggregate amount in accordance with Article V of the Civil Liability Convention.

(2) The ship owner shall not be entitled to limit his liability under this Chapter if it is proved that the pollution damage resulted from his personal act or omission, committed or made with the intent to cause such damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that such damage is likely to result.

Constitution of limitation fund.

182. (1) Any ship owner, desiring to avail of the benefit of limitation of his liability under this Chapter, shall apply to the High Court having jurisdiction or the Central Government for constitution of a fund for the total sum representing his limits of liability, within such time and in such manner, as may be prescribed.

(2) Such fund may be constituted either by depositing the sum or by furnishing bank guarantee or such other security with the High Court or the Central Government.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 67

(3) The insurer or any other person providing financial security to the ship owner may apply to the High Court or the Central Government for constitution of the fund under sub-section (1) and the fund so constituted shall have the same effect as if it were constituted by the ship owner.

(4) An application for constitution of the fund may be made by the insurer under this section even in cases where the ship owner is not entitled to limit his liability under sub-section (2) of section 181 and in any such event, constitution of the fund shall not prejudice the rights of any claimant against the ship owner for full compensation exceeding the amount deposited or secured in the fund.

(5) The amount in Special Drawing Rights to be deposited or secured in the fund under this section shall be converted in rupees on the basis of official value in rupees of the Special Drawing Rights as determined by the Reserve Bank of India on the date of constitution of the fund.

(6) Where a fund is established by the ship owner in relation to an incident of oil pollution before a High Court, all claims for compensation under this Chapter shall only be instituted in the High Court where the fund was constituted:

5 of 1908.

Provided that where claims arising out of the incident of oil pollution is made in High Courts other than the one where the fund was established, the ship owner may approach the Supreme Court in accordance with the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to transfer the claims to the High Court where such fund was established.

Claims for compensation where fund is established.

183. (1) Upon constitution of the fund, the High Court or the Central Government shall issue a notice inviting claims against the fund arising from the particular incident of oil pollution, within such time and containing such other particulars as may be prescribed.

(2) Any person who has suffered pollution damage shall be entitled to claim compensation and may make an application for participation in the proceedings:

Provided that where such fund has not been established, the claimant may approach the High Court having jurisdiction or the Central Government under section 180.

(3) The Central Government shall issue a notice of proceedings to the International Oil Pollution Compensation Fund which is entitled to participate in the proceedings in accordance with Chapter V of this Part.

(4) The Central Government may prescribe the procedure to be followed for establishment of the fund and adjudication of claims arising from an incident of oil pollution.

Acquisition of right for compensation by subrogation.

184. (1) Where, before the fund is distributed, the ship owner or any of his servants or agents or any person providing him insurance or other financial security has as a result of an incident paid compensation for pollution damage, such person shall upto the amount he has paid, acquire by subrogation the rights which the person so compensated may have enjoyed under this Chapter.

(2) Where the ship owner or any other person establishes that he may be compelled to pay at a later date in whole or in part any such amount of compensation with regard to which such person shall have enjoyed a right of subrogation under sub-section (1) had the compensation been paid before the fund was distributed, the High Court where the fund was constituted may order that a sufficient sum be provisionally set aside to enable such person to enforce his claim against the fund at such later date.

185. (1) The High Court or the Central Government shall consolidate all claims against the fund including those arising out of subrogation under section 184.

Consolidation of claims and distribution of fund.

68 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

(2) Any claim in respect of expenses reasonably incurred or sacrifices reasonably made by the ship owner voluntarily to prevent or minimise pollution damage shall rank equally with other claims against the fund.

(3) Subject to the right of subrogation under section 184, the High Court or the Central Government shall distribute the amount in the fund among all claimants in proportion to their established claims.

(4) If the ship owner, insurer or other financial security holder has failed to establish a fund under this Chapter, the High Court shall make an order for compensation against such party to be payable within such period as may be specified in the order.

186. (1) Where the High Court makes an order for compensation which the ship owner has not complied with and such owner has not established a fund, an application may be made by a person entitled to compensation to that court to arrest the ship responsible for the incident or any ship owned by such person.

Arrest and sale of ship if ship owner, etc., unable to satisfy claims for compensation.

(2) The High Court may direct the amount remaining unpaid after determination of liability of the International Oil Pollution Compensation Fund, in accordance with Chapter V of this Part, to be levied by distress and sale of the ship and her equipment in accordance with this Act.

(3) The High Court or the Central Government shall have the power to detain any ship involved in an incident of oil pollution, until the ship owner has established a fund in accordance with section 182, or has duly complied with the order for compensation under sub-section (4) of section 185, whichever is earlier.

187. Where the ship owner after an incident has constituted a fund in

accordance with this Chapter and is entitled to limit his liability,—

Restriction on enforcement of claims after establishment of fund.

(a) no person having a claim for pollution damage arising out of that incident shall be entitled to exercise any right against any other ship and property of the ship owner in respect of such claim;

(b) the High Court or the Central Government shall order the release of any ship or other property belonging to the ship owner which has been detained in respect of a claim for pollution damage arising out of that incident and shall similarly release any bail or other security furnished to avoid any arrest:

Provided that this section shall apply only if the sum paid into the High Court or to the Central Government, or such part thereof as corresponds to the claim, is actually available to the claimant.

Compulsory insurance or other financial security.

188(cid:17) (1) The owner of every ship carrying more than two thousand tons of oil in bulk as cargo shall in respect of such ship maintain an insurance or other financial security to cover his liability for pollution damage under this Chapter for the amount specified under the provisions of the Civil Liability Convention:

Provided that the Central Government may require the owner of a ship carrying such tons of oil in bulk, to maintain insurance or other financial security to cover his liability for pollution damage upto such limits, as may be prescribed.

(2) In respect of every Indian vessel which maintains insurance or other financial security under sub-section (1), there shall be granted by the Central Government a certificate in such form and giving such particulars, subject to payment of such fee, as may be prescribed.

(3) The Central Government may, on an application by the owner or agent of any foreign ship, grant a certificate under sub-section (2) in respect of such foreign ship on production of satisfactory evidence relating to maintenance of insurance or other financial security in accordance with the provisions of the Civil Liability Convention.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 69

Acceptance of certificate granted outside India.

189. Any certificate granted by a competent authority in a State outside India to a ship registered in that State or any certificate granted by a competent authority of a State which is a contracting party to the Civil Liability Convention to any ship wherever it is registered, shall be accepted at any port or place in India, as if it were granted under this Act.

Ban on entering or leaving an Indian port without certificate.

190. (1) No Indian vessel which has onboard more than two thousand tons of oil in bulk as cargo shall enter or leave or attempt to enter or leave any port or place in India unless it carries onboard a certificate granted under sub-section (2) of section 188 or a certificate accepted under section 189.

(2) No ship other than an Indian vessel carrying more than two thousand tons of oil in bulk as cargo, wherever registered, shall enter or leave or attempt to enter or leave any port or place in India unless it carries onboard a certificate granted under sub-section (2) of section 188 or a certificate accepted under section 189.

(3) No proper officer shall grant inward entry or outward clearance to any ship to which sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) applies, unless its master produces a certificate required in respect of such ship.

191. (1) The insurer or other person providing financial security for the ship owner's liability for pollution damage may be directly liable for any claim for compensation for such damage which may be brought directly against such insurer or other person.

Direct action against insurer or other person providing financial security.

(2) The insurer or other person providing financial security against whom a claim is made directly may, even if the owner is not entitled to limit his liability under section 181, avail himself such limits of liability as specified in the said section.

(3) The insurer or other person providing financial security may further avail himself of the defences (other than the bankruptcy or winding up of the company) which the ship owner himself would have been entitled to invoke and such insurer or other person may avail himself of the defence that the pollution damage resulted from the wilful misconduct of the ship owner himself but such insurer or other person shall not avail himself of any other defence which he might have been entitled to invoke in the proceedings brought by the ship owner against him.

(4) The insurer or other person providing financial security shall in any case

have the right to require the ship owner to be joined in the proceedings.

(5) Any sum provided by insurance or by other financial security maintained in accordance with section 188 shall be available exclusively for the satisfaction of claims under this Chapter.

192.. (1) Any judgment passed by a competent court of contracting party

under the Civil Liability Convention shall be recognised in India, except where,—

(a) the judgment was obtained by fraud; or

Recognition of judgment of court of contracting parties to Civil Liability Convention.

(b) the ship owner or the insurer or the person providing financial security who is a party to the proceedings was not given reasonable notice and a fair opportunity to present his case.

(2) Any judgment recognised under sub-section (1) shall be enforceable in

India in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed:

Provided that such procedure shall not permit the merits of the case to be

re-opened.

193. (1) The rights of compensation under this Chapter shall be extinguished Limitation period.

unless action is brought within a period of—

70 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (a) three years from the date of occurrence of pollution damage; and

(b) six years from the date of the incident which caused pollution

damage.

(2) If the incident consists of a series of occurrences, the period of six years

shall commence from the date of the first occurrence.

Government ships.

194.. Nothing in this Chapter shall apply to any warship or any ship for the time being used by the Government of any State for purposes other than commercial purposes.

195. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

Power to make rules.

of this Chapter.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the time and manner of constitution of the limitation fund under

sub-section (1) of section 182;

(b) the time and other particulars of the notice under sub-section (1)

of section 183;

(c) the procedure for establishment of fund and adjudication of claims arising from incidents of oil pollution under sub-section (4) of section 183;

(d) the threshold limit of tonnage of oil to be carried in bulk and the limit of liability for pollution damage under the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 188;

(e) the form, particulars and fee to be paid for the grant of a certificate

under sub-section (2) of section 188;

(f) the procedure for enforcement of judgement under sub-section (2)

of section 192;

(g) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

CHAPTER IV

CIVIL LIABILITY FOR BUNKER OIL POLLUTION DAMAGE

196. This Chapter shall apply to,—

Application of this Chapter.

(a) pollution damage caused due to escape or discharge of bunker oil from every Indian vessel and from every ship other than an Indian vessel while it is,—

(i) within the territory of India including territorial waters; or

(ii) at a port or a place in India or within the coastal waters, not

extending more than two hundred nautical miles from the baseline;

(b) preventive measures for preventing or minimising the pollution

damage,

but shall not apply to—

(a) warships, naval auxiliary or other vessels owned or operated by the Government and used for the time being, only for non-commercial purposes;

(b) pollution damage specified in Chapter III of this Part.

197. In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—

Definitions.

(a) "Bunker Convention" means the International Convention on Civil

Liability for Bunker Oil Pollution Damage, 2001;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 71

(b) "bunker oil" means any hydrocarbon mineral oil, including lubricating oil, used or intended to be used for the operation or propulsion of the ship, and any residues of such oil;

(c) "incident", "person", "pollution damage" and "preventive measures" shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in clauses (a), (c), (d) and (e), of section 176;

(d) "registered owner" means the person or persons registered as the owner of the ship or, in the absence of registration, the person or persons owning the ship, and in the case of a ship owned by a State and operated by a company which in that State is registered as the ship's operator, "registered owner" shall mean such company;

(e) "ship" means any sea-going vessel and sea borne craft of any type

whatsoever;

(f) "ship owner" means the owner, including the registered owner,

bareboat charterer, manager and operator of the ship.

198. (1) Save as otherwise provided in section 200,—

Liability for bunker oil pollution.

(a) where pollution damage is caused due to discharge or escape of bunker oil onboard or originating from the ship, the ship owner shall be liable for,—

(i) any pollution damage;

(ii) the cost of any reasonable measures taken for preventing or minimising any pollution damage so caused or likely to be caused; and

(iii) any damage caused by any such preventive measure so taken:

Provided that where an incident consists of a series of occurrences having the same origin, the ship owner shall be liable from the first of such occurrences and where more than one person is liable, their liability shall be joint and several;

(b) where there is a grave and imminent threat of damage being caused outside a ship, the ship owner shall be liable for the cost of any measures reasonably taken to prevent or minimise any such damage.

(2) Where any incident involving two or more ships occurs resulting in pollution damage, the ship owners of all ships involved in such incident shall, unless the damage is reasonably separable, be jointly and severally liable for such damage.

199. (1) No liability for pollution damage shall be incurred by the ship Exemption from liability.

owner under this Chapter, if he proves that such damage,—

(a) resulted from an act of war, hostilities, civil war, insurrection or a natural phenomenon of an exceptional, inevitable and irresistible character; or

(b) was wholly caused by any act or omission done with an intent to cause such damage by any person other than an employee or agent of the ship owner; or

(2) If the ship owner proves that the pollution damage resulted wholly or partially either from an act or omission done with intent to cause damage by the person who suffered the damage or from the negligence of that person, then, he shall be wholly or partially exonerated from his liability to such person.

72 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Right of ship owner to limitation of liability.

200. (1) The ship owner and the person providing insurance or other financial security shall be entitled to limit his liability under this Chapter in respect of any one or more incidents in accordance with the provisions of Chapter II of this Part.

(2) The ship owner shall not be entitled to limit his liability, if it is proved that the incident causing pollution damage occurred as a result of his personal act or omission, committed or made with intent to cause such damage, or committed recklessly and with knowledge that such damage is likely to result.

Determination of limitation of liability.

201. A ship owner who is alleged to have incurred a liability for bunker oil pollution under section 198 or his insurer may make an application to the High Court or the Central Government for determination of limitation of his liability in accordance with the provisions of Chapter II of this Part.

Consolidation of claims and distribution of amount.

202. The High Court or the Central Government may consolidate all claims against the ship owner or his insurer who has deposited the amount under section 201 and may distribute the amount amongst the claimants in accordance with the provisions of section 170.

203. (1) The right to claim compensation under this Chapter shall be

Extinguishment of right to claim. extinguished, if such claim is not made within a period of—

(a) three years from the date of occurrence of damage; and

(b) six years from the date of incident which caused such damage.

(2) Where the incident consists of a series of occurrences, the period of six

years shall commence from the date of the first of such occurrence.

Maintenance of compulsory insurance or other financial security.

204. Every registered owner of a ship having gross tonnage of more than one thousand tons shall, for the purpose of his liability for pollution damage under this Chapter, maintain compulsory insurance coverage or such other financial security, subject to such limits as may be specified under the Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims Convention.

205. (1) The insurer or other person providing financial security for the ship owner's liability for pollution damage may also be liable along with the ship owner for any claim for compensation for such damage.

Direct action against insurer or other person providing financial security.

(2) The insurer or other person providing financial security may, if the ship owner is not entitled to limit his liability in accordance with the provisions of section 200, avail himself such limits of liability as may be prescribed.

(3) Any claim for compensation for pollution damage may be brought directly against the insurer or other person providing financial security for the registered ship owner's liability for pollution damage and in such case, the insurer or such person may invoke defences (other than bankruptcy or winding up of the company) which the ship owner would have been entitled to invoke, including limitation of liability under section 200:

Provided that the insurer or such person may invoke the defence that the pollution damage resulted from the wilful misconduct of the ship owner but shall not invoke any other defence which such insurer or person might have been entitled to invoke in proceedings brought by the ship owner against such insurer or person:

Provided further that the insurer or such person may make the ship owner a

party to such proceedings.

Grant of certificate.

206. (1) The Central Government shall grant a certificate in respect of every ship which maintains insurance or other financial security, in such form, containing such particulars, subject to such conditions and on payment of such fee, as may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 73 (2) Every certificate granted under sub-section (1) shall on expiry, be

renewed in such manner and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed.

207. (1) No ship shall enter or leave or attempt to enter or leave any port or place to which this Chapter applies unless it carries onboard a certificate granted under section 206.

Ban on entering or leaving port without clearance.

(2) Any certificate granted by a competent authority in any State outside India to a ship registered in that State or any certificate granted by a competent authority of any State which is a contracting party to the Bunker Convention to any ship wherever registered, shall be accepted at any port or place in India as if it were granted under this Act.

(3) No proper officer shall permit inward entry or outward clearance to any ship to which sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) applies unless the master of the ship produces the certificate required in respect of such ship.

208. Nothing contained in this Chapter shall prejudice the right of recourse Right of recourse.

that the ship owner may have against any other person in respect of his liability.

209. (1) Any judgment passed by a competent court of a contracting party

under the Bunker Convention shall be recognised in India except where,—

(a) the judgment was obtained by fraud; or

Recognition of judgment of court of contracting parties to Bunker Convention.

(b) the ship owner or the insurer or the person providing financial security who is a party to the proceedings was not given reasonable notice and a fair opportunity to present his case.

(2) Any judgment recognised under sub-section (1) shall be enforceable in

India in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed:

Provided that such procedure shall not permit the merits of the case to be

re-opened.

210. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Chapter.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the limits of liability of the insurer or other person providing

financial security under sub-section (2) of section 205;

(b) the form of certificate, particulars, conditions and fee for issuance

of certificate under sub-section (1) of section 206;

of section 206;

(d) the procedure for enforcement of a judgment under sub-section (2)

of section 209;

(e) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

CHAPTER V

INTERNATIONAL OIL POLLUTION COMPENSATION FUND

Application of this Chapter.

211. This Chapter shall apply to pollution damage caused in the territory of India, including the coastal waters, not extending more than two hundred nautical miles from the baseline and to preventive measures, wherever taken, to prevent or minimise such pollution damage.

212. (1) In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—

Definitions.

(a) "associated person" includes any subsidiary or commonly

controlled entity or such person as may be prescribed;

(b) "contributing oil" means crude oil and fuel oil.

74 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause,—

(i) "crude oil" means any liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally in the earth whether or not treated to render it suitable for transportation and includes crude oils from which certain distillate fractions are removed (sometimes referred to as topped crudes) or to which certain distillate fractions are added (sometimes referred to as spiked or reconstituted crudes);

(ii) "fuel oil" means heavy distillates or residues from crude oil or blends of such materials intended for use as a fuel for the production of heat or power of a quality equivalent to the "American Society for Testing and Materials' Specification for Number Four Fuel Oil (Designation D 396-69)", or heavier;

1992 established under Article 2 of the Fund Convention;

(d) "Fund Convention" means the International Convention on the establishment of an International Fund for Compensation for Oil Pollution Damage, 1992, including protocols, if any, to which India is a party;

(e) "guarantor" means any person providing insurance or other

financial security to cover the owner's liability;

(f) "ton", in relation to oil, means a metric ton.

(2) The words or expressions used in this Chapter but not defined shall have

the meanings respectively assigned to them in the Civil Liability Convention.

Contribution to Fund.

213. (1) All contributions to the Fund in respect of contributing oil carried by sea to ports or terminal installations in India shall be payable in accordance with Articles 10 and 12 of the Fund Convention.

(2) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall apply—

(a) whether or not the contributing oil is imported; and

(b) notwithstanding that contributions are payable to the Fund in

respect of carriage of the same contributing oil on a previous voyage.

(3) The person liable to pay contributions to the Fund shall be—

(a) in case of contributing oil which is being imported into India, the

importer; and

(b) in any other case, the person by whom the oil is received in India.

(4) A person shall not be liable to pay contributions to the Fund in respect of the contributing oil imported or received by him in any year, if the aggregate quantity of contributing oil so imported or received in a year by him and any associated person does not exceed one lakh fifty thousand tons, or as may be specified from time to time in the Fund Convention.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "terminal installation" means any site for the storage of oil in bulk which is capable of receiving oil from waterborne transportation, including any facility situated offshore and linked to such site.

214. (1) The contributions payable to the Fund by a person for any year shall

be,—

Contribution payable by persons to Fund.

(a) such amount as may be determined under Article 12 of the Fund

Convention;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 75 (b) in such instalments, becoming due at such dates,

as may be notified under the Fund Convention and any amount due shall be payable along with interest at a rate determined under Article 13 of the Fund Convention.

(2) The Central Government may require persons who are or may be liable to pay contributions to the Fund under this Chapter to give financial security for payment of contributions to the Central Government or the Fund.

Liability of Fund.

215. (1) Where any person suffering pollution damage is unable to obtain full and adequate compensation for the damage under the Civil Liability Convention, the Fund shall be liable to pay compensation to such person, if,—

(a) no liability for the damage arises under the provisions of the Civil

Liability Convention; or

(b) the ship owner liable for the damage under the provisions of the Civil Liability Convention is financially incapable of meeting his obligations in full and any financial security that may be provided under that Convention does not cover or is insufficient to satisfy the claims for compensation for the damage and the person suffering damage has taken all reasonable steps to pursue the legal remedies available to him; or

Liability Convention.

(2) The expenses incurred or sacrifices made by the ship owner voluntarily to prevent or minimise pollution damage shall be treated as pollution damage for the purposes of this section.

(3) The Fund shall incur no obligation under sub-section (1) if,—

(a) it is proved that the pollution damage resulted from an act of war, hostilities, civil war or insurrection or was caused by oil which has escaped or been discharged from a warship or other ship owned or operated by a State and used at the time of the incident, only on Government non-commercial service; or

(b) the claimant fails to prove that the damage resulted from an

incident involving one or more ship.

(4) If the Fund proves that the pollution damage resulted wholly or partly either from an act or omission done with the intent to cause damage by the person who suffered the damage or from the negligence of that person, the Fund may be exonerated wholly or partly from its obligation to pay compensation to such person.

(5) The Fund shall in any event (except in respect of preventive measures), be exonerated to the extent the ship owner may have been exonerated under the Civil Liability Convention.

216. (1) The liability of the Fund under section 215 shall be subject to the

limits specified in Article 4 of the Fund Convention.

Limitation of liability of Fund.

(2) Upon institution of a claim for compensation under this Chapter, the High Court shall issue notice to the Fund and such Fund shall be entitled to participate in the proceedings.

(3) No order shall be passed against the Fund by the High Court until the

Fund notifies the High Court that the amount of the claim may,—

(a) not be reduced; or

(b) be reduced to a specified amount and the liability of the Fund shall

be enforceable only for the reduced amount.

(4) The amount for which the Fund is liable under this Chapter shall be paid in rupees and the mode and manner of converting such amount from Special Drawing Rights into rupees shall be such as may be prescribed.

76 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Power to call for information.

217. (1) The Central Government may, for the purpose of transmitting to the Fund, the names and addresses of the persons who under this Chapter are liable to make contributions to the Fund every year and the quantity of contributing oil in respect of which they are so liable, by notice, require any such person to furnish such information, in such manner and within such time, as may be specified therein.

(2) In proceedings by the Fund against any person for the recovery of any contribution due to the Fund under section 214, the particulars contained in any list transmitted by the Central Government to the Fund shall, so far as those particulars are based on information obtained under this section, be admissible as evidence of the facts stated therein, and so far as particulars which are so admissible are based on information given by the person against whom the proceedings are brought, shall be presumed to be accurate until the contrary is proved.

(3) No person shall disclose any information which was furnished to or

obtained by him under this section unless the disclosure is made,—

(a) with the consent of the person from whom the information was

obtained;

(b) in connection with the compliance of this section;

section or of any report of such proceedings.

(4) A person who,—

(a) refuses or wilfully neglects to comply with a notice under this

section; or

(b) makes, while furnishing any information in compliance with a notice under this section, any statement which he knows to be false in a material particular, or recklessly makes any statement which is false in a material particular,

shall be liable to penalty under this Act.

218. (1) Any claim against the Fund for compensation under this

Chapter shall be brought before the High Court.

Claims against Fund and jurisdiction of courts.

(2) The Fund shall have the right to intervene as a party to any legal proceedings instituted in the High Court against the ship owner or his guarantor.

(3) Where a notice of proceedings is given to the Fund by the High Court, any judgment given in the proceedings shall, after it has become final and enforceable, become binding upon the Fund to the effect that the facts and evidence in that judgment may not be disputed by the Fund on the ground that it has not intervened in the proceedings.

Extinguishment of claims.

219. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, no action to enforce a claim against the Fund under this Chapter shall be entertained by a High Court, unless—

(a) the action to enforce is commenced; or

(b) notice of action to enforce a claim against the ship owner or

his guarantor in respect of the pollution damage is given to the Fund,

within three years from the date when the damage occurred and six years from the date of the incident that caused such damage.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 77

Subrogation and right of recourse.

220. In respect of any sum paid by a public authority in India or by the Fund as compensation for pollution damage, that authority or the Fund shall acquire by subrogation any rights which the person so compensated would have enjoyed under the Fund Convention.

221. The Central Government may establish a fund for the pollution damage exceeding the amount payable under this Part and the source of fund and manner of disbursement of compensation from such fund shall be such as may be prescribed.

Power of Central Government to establish fund for excess claim.

222. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions Power to make rules.

of this Chapter.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) subsidiary or commonly controlled entity or person under clause (a) of

sub-section (1) of section 212;

(b) the mode and manner of conversion of Special Drawing Rights to

rupees under sub-section (4) of section 216;

from fund established under section 221;

(d) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

PART X

MARINE INCIDENT AND EMERGENCY RESPONSE

223. This Part shall apply to marine incidents occurring directly or in Application of this Part.

connection with the operations of,—

(a) Indian vessels; and

(b) vessels other than Indian vessels which enter a port or offshore

terminal or place in India or within her coastal waters.

Definitions.

224. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "marine incident" means an event, or sequence of events, occurring directly in connection with the operation of a vessel that endangers, or if not corrected, would endanger the safety of the vessel, its occupants or any other person or the environment and includes marine violation, marine casualty, marine disaster, cyclones, storms or other adverse weather events, very serious marine casualty and such other event or sequence of events as may be notified by the Central Government;

(b) "maritime emergency response" means a speedy action undertaken in response to a marine incident to ensure minimum damage to the vessel, passengers, seafarers, cargo and the marine environment by mitigating, containing, restoring and providing relief against such marine incident.

225. (1) The Central Government shall, by notification, appoint one or more nodal authorities who shall administer and supervise the marine incidents and the corresponding maritime emergency response.

Appointment of nodal authority for marine incidents.

(2) The nodal authority shall discharge its duties under the supervision and

control of the Central Government.

78 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Primary response party.

226. (1) The ship owner or master, seafarers of the concerned vessel and such other persons as may be notified by the Central Government shall be the primary response party responsible for engaging in maritime emergency response.

(2) The primary response party shall comply with all directions, advisories or instructions issued by the concerned nodal authority for the respective class of marine incidents.

227. The Central Government shall notify plans for prevention of marine

incidents and procedures for maritime emergency responses.

Plans and procedures for response mechanisms.

Powers of nodal authority.

228. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, it shall be lawful for the nodal authority to issue directions in writing, consistent with the objectives of this Part, to the administrative bodies under the Central Government and the State Governments.

(2) The nodal authority may requisition the services of any officer of the Central Government or the State Government or any police officer or any other authority or body to assist for the purposes of this Part and it shall be the duty of every such officer or authority or body to comply with such requisition.

(3) The nodal authority may requisition the resources and pollution prevention equipment available with any of the offices of the Central Government or the State Government or other offices or organisations to assist for the purposes of this Part and it shall be the duty of such offices or organisations to comply with such requisition.

(4) The circumstances under which the nodal authority shall carry out maritime emergency response to a marine incident shall be such as may be prescribed.

Maintenance of compulsory insurance or other financial security.

229. Every registered owner of an Indian vessel or any other vessels which enter a port, shipyard or offshore terminal or place in India or within coastal waters shall, for the purpose of covering his liability under this Part, maintain adequate insurance coverage or such other financial security as may be prescribed, and carry onboard a certificate or document showing compliance with such requirement.

230. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the circumstances under which the nodal authority shall carry out maritime emergency response to a marine incident under sub-section (4) of section 228;

(b) adequate insurance coverage or other financial security under

section 229;

PART XI

INVESTIGATION AND INQUIRIES ON MARINE CASUALTIES

Marine casualties and report thereof.

231. (1) For the purposes of investigation and inquiries under this Part, a marine casualty shall be deemed to be an event or sequences of events that has resulted in any of the following and has occurred directly or in connection with the operations of Indian vessels and any other vessels, when—

(a) on or near the coast of India, any vessel is lost, abandoned, stranded

or materially damaged;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 79 (b) on or near the coast of India, any vessel causes loss or material

damage to any other vessel or to external infrastructure;

(c) any loss of life or presumed loss of life ensues by reason of any casualty happening or otherwise, onboard any vessel, on or near the coast of India or its coastal waters;

(d) in any place, any such loss, abandonment, stranding, material damage or casualty occurs to or onboard any Indian vessel and any competent witness thereof is found in India;

(e) any Indian vessel is lost or is supposed to have been lost, and any evidence is obtainable in India as to the circumstances under which such vessel proceeded to sea or was last heard of;

(f) in any place within the coastal waters, pollution, or the potential threat of such pollution to the environment, or severe damage to the environment, or the potential to severe damage to the environment is caused by a vessel;

(g) a fire or explosion takes place on any Indian vessel anywhere in the world, or a fire or explosion takes place on a vessel other than an Indian vessel, while such vessel is on or near the coast of India or its coastal waters.

(2) In the cases mentioned in sub-section (1), the ship owner, manager, operator, company, pilot, harbour master, master, or other person in charge of the vessel or where two vessels are concerned, in charge of each vessel at the time of the marine casualty shall, within twenty-four hours of the occurrence, give notice of the marine casualty to the officer appointed in this behalf by the Central Government.

(3) Wherever any such officer receives notice of the marine casualty under sub-section (2), he shall forthwith inform in writing to the Central Government and proceed to make preliminary inquiry into the marine casualty.

(4) The officer referred to in sub-section (3) shall, on completion of preliminary inquiry, furnish the report to the Central Government or other authority as may be appointed by it in this behalf.

(5) The Central Government may, for the purposes of the investigation, appoint a body to conduct marine safety investigation in accordance with the Safety Convention.

(6) The body appointed under sub-section (5) shall make preliminary assessment of the marine casualty and conduct a marine safety investigation for ascertaining the causes and circumstances of such marine casualty and submit its report to the Central Government.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this Part, "company" shall have the same

meaning as assigned to it in clause (a) of section 115.

Power of Central Government to initiate proceedings.

232. On receipt of the marine safety investigation report under sub-section (6) of section 231, or if the Central Government is of the opinion that prima facie, there exists incompetency, misconduct or violation of any law for the time being in force on the part of any person, it may—

(a) initiate administrative action; and

(b) direct such officer or other authority having jurisdiction over the area to initiate proceedings against such person as may be required in accordance with such law.

80 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 PART XII

WRECK AND SALVAGE

CHAPTER I

WRECK

233. This Chapter shall apply to the wrecks located within the territory of

Application of this Chapter.

India including the coastal waters but shall not apply to,—

(a) any measures taken under the International Convention relating to the Intervention on the High Seas in Cases of Oil Pollution Casualties, 1969;

(b) any warship or other vessel owned or operated by the Government

for non-commercial service.

Definitions.

234. In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "authority" means the Central Government or any person

authorised by it;

(b) "Convention" means the Nairobi Convention on the Removal of

Wrecks, 2007;

(i) poses a danger or impediment to navigation; or

(ii) may reasonably be expected to result in major harmful consequences to the marine environment or damage to the coastline or related interests of India or any other State.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, "related interest"

means—

(i) maritime coastal, port and estuarine activities including fisheries activities, constituting essential means of livelihood of the persons concerned;

(ii) tourist attractions and other economic interests of the areas

concerned;

(iii) the health of the coastal population and the well-being of the area concerned, including conservation of marine living resources and of wildlife; and

(iv) offshore and underwater infrastructure;

(d) "maritime casualty" means a collision of ships, stranding or other incident of navigation or other occurrence onboard a ship or external to it, resulting in material damage or imminent threat of material damage to a ship or its cargo;

(e) "operator of ship" means the ship owner or any other organisation or person such as the manager or the bareboat charterer, who has assumed the responsibility for operation of the ship from the ship owner and has agreed to take over the duties and responsibilities enshrined under the International Safety Management Code;

(f) "receiver of wreck" means a person appointed as such under

sub-section (1) of section 235;

(g) "registered owner" means,—

(i) the person registered as the owner of the ship or in the absence of registration, the person owning the ship at the time of the maritime casualty;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 81

(ii) in the case of a ship owned by a State and operated by a company which in that State is registered as the operator of the ship;

(h) "removal" means any form of prevention, mitigation or elimination of the hazard created by a wreck and the expressions "remove", "removed" or "removing", shall be construed accordingly;

(i) "ship" means a sea-going vessel of any type whatsoever and includes hydrofoil boats, air-cushion vehicles, submersibles, floating craft and floating platforms, except when such platforms are on location engaged in the exploration, exploitation or production of seabed mineral resources.

Receiver of wreck.

235. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, appoint any person to be a receiver of wreck who shall receive and take possession of wreck and perform his duties under this Chapter, within such local limits as may be specified in that notification.

(2) The duties of a receiver of wreck shall include disposal or sale of the wreck, giving of notices, enforcing performance of obligations by ship owner, operator or insurer of the ship, and to take such action as required to remove the wreck by the most practical and expeditious means available, consistent with considerations of safety and protection of maritime environment.

Duty to report wrecks.

236. (1) When any Indian vessel or any ship other than an Indian vessel, is involved in a maritime casualty resulting in a wreck in any area to which this Chapter applies, the master or ship owner or the operator of the ship shall, without any delay report such incident to the Director-General and the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre or the Maritime Rescue Sub-Centre of Indian Coast Guard.

(2) When any Indian vessel is involved in a maritime casualty resulting in a wreck in a convention area of any State, the master and the operator of that ship shall, without any delay, report such incident to the affected State in such manner as may be required by that State and shall also report such incident to the Director-General and the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre or the Maritime Rescue Sub-Centre of Indian Coast Guard.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—

(i) "affected State" means the country in whose convention area the

wreck is located;

(ii) "convention area" means the Exclusive Economic Zone of a State party established in accordance with international law or, if a State party has not established such a zone, an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea of that State determined by that State in accordance with international law and extending not more than two hundred nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of its territorial sea is measured.

237. The Central Government shall determine whether a wreck constitute a Determination of hazard.

hazard or not, based on the following criteria, namely:—

(a) the type, size and construction of the wreck;

(b) the depth of water in the area;

(d) the proximity to protected areas including coral reefs and other

areas as may be notified by the Central Government;

(e) the sensitive sea areas identified as appropriate and designated in accordance with guidelines adopted by the International Maritime Organisation, or a clearly defined area of the Exclusive Economic Zone where special mandatory measures are adopted in accordance with requirements of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982;

82 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (f) the proximity of shipping routes or established traffic lanes;

(g) the traffic density and frequency;

(h) the type of traffic;

(i) the nature and quantity of the wreck's cargo, the amount and types of oil (such as bunker oil and lubricating oil) onboard the wreck and in particular, the damage likely to result if the cargo or oil is released into the marine environment;

(j) the vulnerability of port and port facilities;

(k) the prevailing meteorological and hydrographical conditions;

(l) the submarine topography of the area;

(m) the height of the wreck above or below the surface of the water at

lowest astronomical tide;

(n) the acoustic and magnetic profiles of the wreck;

(o) the proximity of offshore installations, pipelines, telecommunication

cables and similar structures;

(p) the proximity of tourist spots and heritage locations; and

(q) any other criteria as may be prescribed.

238. (1) When a wreck is determined to be a hazard, it shall be the duty of

the ship owner or the operator of such a ship, to—

Locating and marking of wrecks.

(a) immediately mark the wreck at his or its own cost in such manner

as may be prescribed; and

(b) maintain the marking until the wreck is removed.

(2) The cost for locating and marking the ship shall be borne by or recovered

from the ship owner or the operator of such a ship.

Power to pass over adjoining lands.

239. (1) Whenever a ship is wrecked, stranded or in distress, all persons may, for the purpose of rendering assistance to the ship or of saving the lives of the shipwrecked persons, or of saving the cargo or equipment of the ship, unless there is some public road equally convenient, pass and repass, either with or without vehicles or animals, over any adjoining lands without being subject to interruption by the owner or occupier of the land, so that they do as little damage as possible and may also on the like condition, deposit on these lands any cargo or other article recovered from the ship.

(2) Any damage sustained by an owner or occupier as a consequence of the exercise of the rights under this section shall be a charge on the ship, cargo or articles in respect of or by which the damage is sustained and in case of dispute, the amount payable in respect of such damage shall be determined by a Magistrate on an application made to him in this behalf.

240. No person shall,—

Prohibition of certain acts in respect of wreck.

(a) without the leave of the master, board or attempt to board any ship which is wrecked, stranded or in distress, unless the person acts by command of the Central Government; or

(b) impede or hinder or attempt in any way to impede or hinder the saving of any ship stranded or in danger of being stranded or otherwise in distress in any area to which this Chapter applies or of any part of the cargo or equipment of the ship, or of any wreck; or

(c) release any wreck or deface or obliterate any marks thereon; orNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 83 (d) wrongfully carry away or remove any part of a ship stranded or in danger of being stranded or otherwise in distress or any part of the cargo or equipment of the ship or any wreck, in any area to which this Chapter applies.

Search warrants where wreck is involved.

241. Where a receiver of wreck suspects or receives information that any wreck is released or is in the possession of some person who is not the owner thereof or that any wreck is otherwise improperly dealt with, he may apply to the nearest Judicial Magistrate of the first class for a search warrant and such Magistrate shall have power to grant the warrant and the receiver of wreck by virtue thereof may enter any house or other place wherever situate and also any ship and search for, seize and detain any such wreck found thereof.

242. (1) When it is determined that the wreck constitutes a hazard, the receiver of wreck shall give the detailed information of the hazard to the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed.

Measures to facilitate removal of wrecks.

(2) The Central Government, on receipt of information under sub-section (1)

shall,—

(a) inform the Government of the State in which the ship is registered

as well as the registered ship owner; and

(b) consult such State and any State affected by the wreck regarding

measures to be taken in relation to such wreck.

(3) The registered ship owner or the operator of the ship shall remove such

wreck which is determined to constitute a hazard:

Provided that where any dispute arises as to whether the wreck constitutes a hazard or not, the decision of the Central Government shall be final and binding on all parties.

(4) When a wreck is determined to constitute a hazard, the registered ship owner or any interested person shall provide to the Central Government or the receiver of wreck with the evidence of insurance or other financial security maintained by him in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(5) The receiver of wreck or ship owner or operator of the ship shall submit

a plan for removal of wreck to the Central Government.

(6) The Central Government shall approve or disapprove or approve with certain modifications, the plan submitted before it under sub-section (5) and having regard to the nature of the hazard, specify on a case to case basis, the time within which the ship owner or operator shall remove the wreck.

(7) If the ship owner or operator do not remove the wreck within the time specified under sub-section (6), the Central Government may, at the expense of such ship owner or operator, remove the wreck by the most practical and expeditious means available, consistent with considerations of safety and protection of the marine environment and the wreck or any sale proceeds derived from such wreck shall become the property of the Central Government.

(8) Where immediate action is required and the receiver of wreck has informed the ship owner or the operator accordingly, he may, at the expense of such ship owner or operator, remove the wreck by the most practical and expeditious means available, consistent with considerations of safety and protection of the marine environment.

(9) Where any measure taken under this section is construed to be salvage,

the provisions of Chapter II of this Part relating to salvage shall apply.

84 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Liability of ship owner.

243. (1) The registered ship owner shall be liable for the costs of locating, marking and removing the wreck under this Chapter unless he proves that the maritime casualty which caused the wreck—

(a) resulted from an act of war, hostilities, civil war, insurrection, or a

natural phenomenon of an exceptional, inevitable and irresistible character; or

(b) was wholly caused by act or omission done with an intent to cause

damage by a third party; or

(2) Nothing contained in this Chapter shall—

(a) affect the right of the registered ship owner to limit his liability in

accordance with the provisions of section 162; or

(b) prejudice any right of recourse available to the registered ship

owner against third parties.

(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, the registered ship owner shall not be liable for any cost, if, and to the extent that liability or such costs is in conflict with—

(a) any other provisions of this Act;

38 of 2010.

(b) the provisions of the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010; or

Maintenance of insurance or other financial security.

244. (1) Every registered owner of an Indian vessel of gross tonnage of three hundred and above shall, for the purposes of covering his liability under this Chapter, be required to maintain compulsory insurance coverage or such other financial security, as may be prescribed.

(2) Every ship owner or operator of a ship other than an Indian vessel of gross tonnage of three hundred and above, while it is in the area to which this Chapter applies, shall maintain insurance coverage or other financial security to cover his liability under the Convention and shall carry onboard a certificate to that effect.

(3) The certificate referred to in sub-section (2) shall, in case the ship is,—

(a) registered in India, be granted by the authority;

(b) registered in a Convention State other than India, be granted by or

under the authority of the Government of that State; and

certified by the appropriate authority authorised by any Convention State.

(4) Any ship which contravenes the provisions of sub-section (2), shall be

liable to be detained by the authority.

(5) Any claim for costs arising under this Chapter may be brought directly against the insurer or other person providing financial security for the registered ship owner's liability and in such a case, the insurer or such person may invoke defences (other than bankruptcy or winding up of the company) which the registered ship owner would have been entitled to invoke, including limitation of liability as provided under this Act:

Provided that where the registered ship owner is not entitled to limitation of liability under this Act, the insurer or such person may limit liability to an amount equal to the amount of the insurance or other financial security required to be maintained under sub-section (1):

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 85

Provided further that the insurer or such person may invoke the defence that the maritime casualty resulted from the wilful misconduct of the registered ship owner but shall not invoke any other defence which such insurer or person might have been entitled to invoke in proceedings brought by the registered ship owner against such insurer or person:

Provided also that the insurer or such person shall have the right to require

the registered ship owner to be joined in such proceedings.

Claims of ship owners to wreck.

245. (1) The owner of any wreck in the possession of the receiver, upon establishing his claim to the satisfaction of the receiver within one year from the time at which the wreck came into the possession of the receiver shall, upon paying the salvage and other charges, be entitled to have the wreck or the proceeds thereof delivered to him.

(2) Where any articles belonging to or forming part of a ship other than an Indian vessel which is wrecked or belonging to and forming part of the cargo of such ship, are found in any area to which this Chapter applies or are brought into any port in India, the ambassador of the State in which the ship is registered or, in the case of cargo, the State to which the owners of the cargo may have belonged shall, in the absence of the owner and of the master or other agent of the owner, be deemed to be the agent of the owner, with respect to the custody and disposal of the articles.

(3) Where the owner of the wreck does not appear and claim the balance of the proceeds of sale within one year from the date of sale, the said balance shall become the property of the Central Government.

246. Any claim for recovery of costs for locating and marking of the ship under this Chapter shall be made within a period of three years from the date of determination of the hazard and six years from the date the maritime casualty resulted in the wreck:

Extinguishment of right to claim recovery of costs.

Provided that where the maritime casualty consists of a series of occurrences,

the six years period shall be reckoned from the date of the first occurrence.

CHAPTER II

SALVAGE

247. (1) This Chapter shall apply to—

Application of this Chapter.

(a) salvage operations within the territory of India including the

coastal waters; and

(b) judicial or arbitral proceedings relating to salvage operations in

respect of a vessel or any other property which are instituted in India.

(2) This Chapter shall not apply to—

(i) the fixed or floating platforms or mobile offshore drilling units when such platforms or units are on location engaged in the exploration, exploitation or production of seabed mineral resources;

(ii) warships or other non-commercial vessels owned or operated by the Government which are entitled, at the time of salvage operations, to sovereign immunity;

(iii) such vessels as the Central Government may, by notification, specify.

(3) This Chapter shall apply, notwithstanding that the vessel undertaking the

salvage operations belong to the same owner of the vessel being salvaged.

Definitions.

248. In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "damage to the environment" means substantial physical damage to human health or to marine life or resources in coastal or inland waters or areas adjacent thereto caused by pollution, contamination, fire, explosion or similar major incidents;

86 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (b) "payment" means any reward, remuneration or compensation due

under the Salvage Convention;

attached to the shoreline and includes freight at risk;

(d) "vessel" means any ship or craft, or any structure capable of

navigation.

249. (1) Where services are rendered by any master or salvor or any person

other than the authority notified by the Central Government,—

Salvage payable for saving life, cargo or wreck.

(a) wholly or in part within the territorial waters of India in saving life from any vessel, or elsewhere in saving life from a vessel registered in India; or

(b) in assisting a vessel or saving the cargo or equipment of a vessel which is wrecked, stranded or in distress at any place to which this Chapter applies; or

there shall be payable to such master or salvor or person by the owner of the vessel, cargo, equipment or wreck, a reasonable sum for salvage having regard to all the circumstances of the case.

(2) A master or person or salvor rendering salvage under clause (a) of sub-section (1) shall be entitled to a fair share of the payment for the salvage of the vessel or other property or preventing or minimising damage to the environment.

(3) Salvage in respect of the preservation of life when payable by the owner

of the vessel shall be payable in priority to all other claims for salvage.

Salvage operations controlled by Government or port and public authorities.

250. Where salvage operations are rendered by or on behalf of the Government or by a vessel of the Indian Navy or of the Coast Guard or the commander or crew of any such vessel or the port authorities or any public authority, the Government or other authority acting on its behalf shall be entitled to salvage and payment for such services as provided under this Chapter and shall have the same rights and remedies in respect of those services as any other salvor.

Salvage contracts.

251. (1) The owner of a vessel or the master on behalf of the owner shall conclude contracts with salvors to undertake necessary and adequate salvage operations in compliance with the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The master or the owner of the vessel shall have the authority to conclude

such contracts on behalf of the owner of the property onboard the vessel.

252. (1) The salvor shall have the following duties towards the owner of the

vessel or other property in danger, namely:—

Duties of salvor, owner and master.

(a) to carry out the salvage operations with due care;

(b) to exercise due care to prevent or minimise damage to the environment

during salvage operations;

public authorities when circumstances so require;

(d) to coordinate with the Director-General and act in compliance with

the instructions issued by him; and

(e) to accept the intervention of other salvors when reasonably requested to

do so by the owner or master of the vessel or other property in danger:

Provided that if it is found that such a request was unreasonable, it shall not prejudice the amount of reward of such salvor.

(2) The owner or master of the vessel or the owner of other property which

is in danger shall have the following duties towards the salvor, namely:—

(a) to cooperate with the salvor during the course of the salvage

operations;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 87 (b) to exercise due care to prevent or minimise damage to the

environment during the salvage operations;

accept redelivery when reasonably requested by the salvor; and

(d) to provide satisfactory security for the claim, including interest and

costs of the salvor for the salvage operations, at the request of the salvor.

253. (1) A salvor shall have a right to payment for the services rendered by Rights of salvors.

him relating to salvage operations:

Provided that no such payment shall be made where there is express and reasonable prohibition from rendering any such service by the owner or master of vessel or owner of any other property in danger which is not and has not been onboard the vessel.

(2) The criteria for claiming rewards, manner of fixing rewards, payment of special compensation under Article 14 of the Salvage Convention, apportionment of payment amongst salvors, salvage of persons, payment under the contract, payment for additional services not covered under the contract and effect of misconduct of salvors on reward or payment under this Chapter shall be such as may be prescribed.

(3) The salvor shall have right to enforce his maritime lien against the ship owner or master of vessel or owner of any other property in danger when satisfactory security for his claim, including interest and costs, is not provided by such ship owner or master or owner.

254. (1) The Central Government shall take such measures as may be necessary to protect its coastline or related interests from pollution or threat of pollution arising out of a maritime casualty or acts relating to such casualty which may result in major harmful consequences.

Powers and duties of Central Government in relation to salvage operations.

(2) The Central Government may give such directions as it deems fit to the ship owner or the master or the salvor or a port authority or a public authority or any other person in relation to salvage operations.

(3) The Central Government may, for the purposes of efficient and effective salvage operations, saving life or property in danger and preventing damage to the environment, seek cooperation from the concerned ship owner or the master or the salvor or a port authority or a public authority or any other person, to give assistance to vessel in need, to admit to ports of vessel in distress or in need of assistance and to give facilities to salvors.

(4) The circumstances under which the salvage operation shall be exercised

by the Central Government shall be such as may be prescribed.

Retention of salvors.

255. The Central Government may, for the purposes of this Chapter, notify a list of salvors having such qualifications and experience and subject to such terms and conditions as may be prescribed.

Disputes between ship owner and salvor.

256. The ship owner and salvor may, for the redressal of grievances relating to this Part, approach the Director-General who shall assist the parties in an independent and impartial manner to enable an amicable settlement in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

257. (1) Either party to the salvage contract shall prefer an arbitration for a

dispute that is not resolved by the Director-General under section 256:

Adjudication of disputes between ship owner and salvor.

Provided that where the salvage contract does not provide for the resolution of disputes by arbitration, the disputes shall be adjudicated in accordance with the salvage contract.

88 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (2) Any person aggrieved by the arbitral award may appeal to the concerned

High Court in accordance with the applicable law.

(3) Any dispute involving more than one claimant to the salvage amount

shall be decided by the High Court.

(4) The High Court may, by interim order, direct that the salvor shall be paid

such amount as may appear to it to be fair and just.

Extinguishment of claims.

258. Any action relating to payment under this Chapter shall extinguish if no action for such claim is made within a period of two years from the date of completion of salvage operations.

Savings.

259. Nothing in this Part shall,—

(a) affect any treaty or arrangement with any foreign State to which India is a party with reference to the disposal of the proceeds of wrecks on their respective coasts; or

15 of 1908.

(b) entitle any person to salvage under this Act in respect of any property recovered by creeping or sweeping in contravention of the Indian Ports Act, 1908.

260. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions

Power to make rules.

of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the other criteria to determine whether a wreck constitute a hazard

or not under clause (q) of section 237;

(b) the manner of marking wreck under clause (a) of sub-section (1)

of section 238;

Central Government under sub-section (1) of section 242;

(d) the other financial security under sub-section (1) of section 244;

(e) the criteria for claiming rewards, manner of fixing rewards, payment of special compensation, apportionment of payment and the effect of misconduct of salvors on reward or payment under sub-section (2) of section 253;

(f) the circumstances in which salvage operation shall be exercised by

the Central Government under sub-section (4) of section 254;

(g) the qualification, experience and the terms and conditions subject

to which salvors shall be notified under section 255;

(h) the procedure in accordance with which the Director-General shall

settle the dispute under section 256;

(i) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

PART XIII

SAILING, FISHING AND OTHER VESSELS

Application of this Part.

261. Save as otherwise provided, nothing contained in this Act, except the provisions of this Part, Part I, Part II, Part III, Part XI and Part XIV, shall apply to vessels of the following description, namely:—

(a) sailing vessel;

(b) fishing vessel;

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 89 (c) vessel whose net tonnage is less than fifteen and is engaged solely

in the coasting trade of India:

Provided that the Central Government may, by notification, direct that any other provisions of this Act shall also apply to such vessels subject to such conditions, exceptions and modifications as may be specified in that notification.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "coasting trade of India"

means,—

(i) the carriage by sea of goods or passengers or both from any port or

place in India to any other port or place in India; or

80 of 1976.

(ii) performing any service within the waters in the jurisdiction of India, including any part of the adjoining maritime zones of India within the meaning of the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, or any other law for the time being in force or any port or place, including inland ports, as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf.

Definitions.

262. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "C-188 Convention" means the C-188-Work in Fishing Convention adopted by the International Labour Conference of the International Labour Organisation and signed in Geneva on the 14th day of June, 2007;

(b) "Indian fishing vessel" means a fishing vessel registered as an

Indian vessel under section 15;

vessel;

(d) "Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel Convention" means International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel, 1995, signed in London on the 7th day of July,1995.

263. (1) If any question arises as to whether a vessel falls under this Part, it

shall be decided by the Director-General and his decision thereon shall be final.

(2) Where the question under sub-section (1) relate to a fishing vessel, the

Decision of question whether a vessel falls under this Part.

decision shall be made in such manner as may be prescribed.

264. (1) Every vessel covered under this Part shall be manned and carry onboard such fittings, material, appliances and apparatus, for safety, security and prevention of pollution, as may be prescribed:

Requirements for safety, security, prevention of pollution and insurance.

Provided that in case of fishing vessels, such rules shall take into consideration the provisions of such international conventions and standards or parts thereof, as may be deemed necessary by the Central Government, including the Cape Town Agreement and C-188 Convention.

(2) Every owner of a vessel to which this Part applies, shall provide such policy of insurance as may be prescribed, for all persons employed as members of the crew of such vessel, against death or personal injury caused by accident arising in the course of their employment, for an amount which shall not be less than the amount specified by the Central Government.

(3) No vessel shall ply or proceed to sea unless it complies with the

provisions of this section.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "Cape Town Agreement" means the Cape Town Agreement of 2012 on the Implementation of the Provisions of the 1993 Protocol relating to the Torremolinos International Convention for the Safety of Fishing Vessels, 1977 signed in Cape Town on the 11th day of October, 2012.

90 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Manning of fishing vessels.

265. (1) The Central Government may make rules to provide for the following matters, taking into consideration the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel Convention as may be deemed necessary, namely:—

(a) the manning scale of every Indian fishing vessel and different manning scales for different categories of Indian fishing vessels, areas and types of fishing operations;

(b) the grade of certification to be held by every fisher appropriate to

his station, serving onboard an Indian fishing vessel.

(2) Subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed, an Indian national with certificate of competency granted under the law for the time being in force of another State or foreign national with certificate of competency granted under this Act or another State, may serve on an Indian fishing vessel.

(3) Subject to the provisions of the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel Convention, as applicable, every fishing vessel, whether at sea or in any port or place, shall be manned by such number of persons with such qualifications and such other requirements as may be prescribed.

Central Government to grant certificate of proficiency.

266. (1) The Central Government shall, subject to the provisions of the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel Convention, grant certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency for such different grades of fishers with such requirements and in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) No certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency shall be granted under sub-section (1), unless the fisher fulfils the qualifications and other requirements referred to in sub-section (3) of section 265.

(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-sections (1) and (2), the Central Government may grant such other certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency with such requirements and in such manner as may be prescribed.

(4) A certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency shall be granted in such form, on payment of such fee and be valid for such period, as may be prescribed.

267. (1) The Director-General shall administer, supervise and monitor all activities relating to training and assessment for the grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency under this Part.

Training for grant of certificate of competency and certificate of proficiency.

(2) The Director-General shall approve the training institute, training course and method of conduct of such training for the grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency in accordance with such criteria as may be prescribed.

Examination for grant of certificate.

268. (1) The Director-General or a person duly authorised by the Director-General in this behalf shall appoint such person or persons for the purpose of examining the persons desirous of obtaining certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency.

(2) No certificate referred to in sub-section (1) may be granted to any applicant, unless such applicant is duly reported by the examiner to have satisfactorily passed the examination.

(3) Subject to the provisions of the Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Fishing Vessel Personnel Convention, the form and manner of conduct of examination for the purposes of grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency and the fee payable therefor, shall be such as may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 91

Withdrawal, suspension or cancellation of certificate.

269. Where it appears to the Central Government that a person holding certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency has obtained it on the basis of false or erroneous information, or is guilty of misconduct, or on receipt of any report of incompetency, or any act of omission or commission or compromise to safety, security or prevention of pollution by the person holding such certificate which may threaten or pose a threat to life or property or environment, it may, after due investigation, by order, withdraw, suspend or cancel such certificate:

Provided that no order shall be passed under this section without giving to

the holder of such certificate a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Production of certificate.

270. The owner, master, tindal or skipper of every vessel shall, on demand, produce to the proper officer the certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency or any other certificate specified under this Act or the rules made thereunder.

271. Subject to the provisions of C-188 Convention, as the Central

Government may deem necessary,—

Agreements in respect of fishing vessel.

(a) the owner or his agent or skipper of an Indian fishing vessel shall enter into an agreement in such form and manner as may be prescribed, with every fisher whom he engages to man the vessel and shall submit a copy thereof to the person or authority as may be notified by the Central Government;

(b) a fisher's right to wages and provisions shall begin either at the time he commences work or at the time specified in the agreement or presence onboard, whichever is earliest;

(c) a fisher engaged under this section shall not,—

(i) by any agreement forfeit his lien on the fishing vessel; or

(ii) be deprived of any remedy for the recovery of his wages to

which, in the absence of the agreement, he shall be entitled; or

(iii) by any agreement abandon his right to wages in case of the

loss of the fishing vessel; or

(iv) abandon any right that he may have or obtain in the nature

of salvage,

and every agreement inconsistent with the provisions of this Act shall be void.

Fishery data to be furnished by Indian fishing vessels.

272. The Central Government may, by notification, require every Indian fishing vessel or any specified class of Indian fishing vessels to furnish fishery data to the Registrar in such form and at such periodical intervals as may be specified in that notification.

273. (1) No vessel shall ply or proceed to sea unless it is in possession of such certificates granted under this Part in such manner and for such period as may be prescribed.

Vessel not to proceed without valid certificates.

(2) Every certificate shall be granted in such manner and shall be in force

for such period as may be prescribed:

Provided that where a vessel is not at a port at the time of expiry of the certificate, the owner, master, tindal or skipper of that vessel shall notify the Central Government of such expiry, and the certificate shall continue to be valid until her first arrival at the next port after the expiry of such period.

Power of Central Government to initiate action against non-mechanically propelled vessels.

274. Where it appears to the Central Government that any non-mechanically propelled vessel does not have valid certificates required under this Act, it may, after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard to the owner, master or charterer, take appropriate action including suspension or cancellation of registration of such vessel under this Act.

92 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Statement relating to crew of vessels to be maintained.

275. (1) Every owner, master or tindal or skipper of a vessel shall maintain or cause to be maintained a statement of the crew of the vessel containing the following particulars with respect to each member thereof in such form as may be prescribed, namely:—

(a) his name;

(b) the details of the agreement with him under section 271;

(d) the names and addresses of his next-of-kin;

(e) the date of commencement of his employment; and

(f) such other particulars as may be prescribed.

(2) Every change in the crew of the vessel shall be entered in the statement

under sub-section (1).

(3) A copy of such statement and of every change entered therein shall be

communicated as soon as possible to the shipping master.

Inquiry to jettisoning of cargo.

276. (1) If any owner, master or tindal or skipper of a vessel in the course of the voyage, has jettisoned or claims to have jettisoned the whole or any part of the cargo of the vessel on account of abnormal weather conditions or for any other reason, he shall immediately after arrival of the vessel at any port or place in India, give notice of such jettisoning to the proper officer and such notice shall contain full particulars of the cargo jettisoned and the circumstances under which such jettisoning took place.

(2) Where the proper officer receives the notice under sub-section (1), he shall forthwith report in writing to the Central Government and may proceed to make an inquiry into the matter.

Detention of vessel by proper officer.

277. (1) Any vessel attempting to ply or proceed to sea without free board markings or any vessel which is so loaded as to submerge such markings or carrying persons in excess of the certified capacity may be detained by a proper officer until the vessel complies with the requirements of this Act.

(2) Save as otherwise provided, for the purposes of this Part, a proper officer may, at any reasonable time, go onboard a vessel and may inspect or audit the vessel and any part thereof, the structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, materials, systems, scantlings, cargo, provisions, stores, her certificates and certificates of the crew onboard:

Provided that the proper officer shall not unreasonably hinder the operation of the vessel or unreasonably detain or delay her from proceeding on any voyage.

(3) The owner, agent, master or every officer of the vessel shall afford to the proper officer all reasonable facilities for a survey or audit and provide all such information in respect of the vessel and her structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, materials, scantlings, systems, cargo, provisions, stores, her certificates, and certificates of the crew, as the proper officer may reasonably require.

Detention of unseaworthy vessels.

278. (1) If any vessel under this Part arrives in or proceeds from a port or place in India in an unseaworthy condition or which is likely to pose a threat to the security on Indian coasts or offshore installations, the vessel may be detained until the owner, master or tindal or skipper takes all reasonable measures to ensure the seaworthiness of the vessel.

(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall affect the liability of the person in charge of the vessel in respect of such unseaworthiness or threat to the security on Indian coasts or offshore installations under any other provisions of this Act.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 93

Power to exempt.

279. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Part, the Central Government may, by order in writing and upon such conditions, if any, as it may think fit to impose, exempt any vessel or tindal, skipper or member of crew of such vessel or any class thereof, from any specified requirement contained in or prescribed in pursuance of this Act or dispense with the observance of any such requirement in the case of any vessel or tindal, skipper or member of crew of such vessel or any class thereof, if it is satisfied that the requirement is substantially complied with or that compliance with the requirement is or ought to be dispensed with in the circumstances of the case.

(2) Where an exemption is granted under sub-section (1) subject to any condition, a breach of any such condition shall, without prejudice to any other remedy, be liable to penalty under this Act.

280. (1) The Central Government may make rules to carry out the Power to make rules.

provisions of this Part.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the manner of deciding whether a vessel falls under Part XIII

under sub-section (2) of section 263;

(b) the scale of manning and fittings, material, appliances and apparatus to be carried onboard by vessel under sub-section (1) of section 264;

crew under sub-section (2) of section 264;

(d) the conditions and restrictions for serving on an Indian fishing vessel under sub-section (2) and number of persons for manning fishing vessels and their qualifications and other requirements, under sub-section (3), of section 265;

(e) the different grades of fishers, requirements and manner of

grant of certificate under sub-section (1) of section 266;

(f) other certificates with requirements and the manner of its grant under sub-section (3), and the form, fee and validity of such certificates under sub-section (4), of section 266;

(g) the criteria for approving training institute, training courses and method of conduct of such training for the grant of certificate of competency or certificate of proficiency under sub-section (2) of section 267;

(h) the form and manner and fee payable for conduct of

examination under sub-section (3) of section 268;

(i) the form and manner of agreement with fisher under clause (a)

of section 271;

(j) the certificates required to ply or proceed to sea by a vessel

under sub-section (1) of section 273;

(k) the manner of grant of certificate and the period of such

certificate under sub-section (2) of section 273;

(l) the form for maintaining a statement of the crew of the vessel

and other particulars under sub-section (1) of section 275;

(m) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

94 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 PART XIV

PENALTIES AND PROCEDURES

Offences and penalties.

281. (1) Any person who contravenes any provision of this Act or any rule or notification made or issued thereunder or fails to comply with any provision thereof which it was his duty to comply with, shall be liable to penalty or be guilty of an offence under this Act and if in respect of any such contravention or offence no penalty or punishment is specially provided, he shall be liable to penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

(2) The contraventions mentioned in column (2) of the table below, shall be liable to the extent of penalty mentioned in column (4) of the said table, with reference to such contraventions, respectively.

Table

Contravention Section Penalties

Serial No.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

16 Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

1. If the Indian charterer fails to comply with the conditions prescribed under section 16.

20(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

2. If the owner of an Indian vessel fails to register a vessel under sub-section (1) of section 20.

22(2) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

3. If a person fails to deliver the certificate of registration to the Registrar or person entitled as required under sub-section (2) of section 22.

30(1) Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

4. If any person transfers a registered mortgage in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 30.

5. If an owner fails to make an application for re-registration of a vessel or for registering an alteration of a vessel under section 33.

33 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees and in addition, a penalty which may extend to two thousand rupees for every day during which the contravention continues.

37(2) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

6. If any person fails to hoist the proper national colours except those declared under sub-section (2) of section 37, onboard the Indian vessel.

47(2) Penalty which may extend to

twenty lakh rupees.

7. If any person conducts training course in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 47.

47(3) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

8. If any person obstructs authorised person to inspect any maritime training institute under sub-section (3) of section 47.

9. If the master of any vessel fails to produce the certificates under sub-section (1) of section 49.

49(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees and in addition, a penalty which may extend to five thousand rupees for every day during which the contravention continues.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 95

10. If any person causes a vessel to proceed to sea in contravention of sub-section (3) of section 57.

11. If any person engages or employs a person below the age of sixteen years in contravention of section 59.

12. If any person engages or carries to sea any seafarer in contravention of section 60.

13. If any person engages or carries to sea a seafarer in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 61.

14. If any person engages a seafarer in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 62.

57(3) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees.

59 Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees for every seafarer engaged in the contravention.

60 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees for every seafarer engaged in the contravention.

61(1) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees, for every seafarer engaged in the contravention.

62(1) Penalty which may extend to three lakh rupees for every seafarer.

62(2)(b) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees, for every seafarer engaged in the contravention.

15. If any person engages a seafarer in contravention of clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 62.

62(2)(d) Penalty which may extend to two 16. If any person discriminates between seafarers in contravention of clause (d) of sub-section (2) of section 62.

17. If any ship owner, master or his agent engages any person to serve as seafarer in contravention of sub-section (3) of section 62.

lakh rupees for every seafarer.

62(3) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees.

Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees.

62(6)(a), (b), (c) and (d)

18. If any recruitment and placement service agency contravene clause (a) or clause (b) or clause (c) or clause (d) of sub-section (6) of section 62.

62(6)(e) and (f)

19. If any recruitment and placement service agency contravene clause (e) or clause (f) of sub-section (6) of section 62. 20. If any master or ship owner or recruitment and placement service agency fails to enter into a seafarer employment agreement in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 63.

21. If a master or ship owner of an Indian vessel fails to discharge a seafarer in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 80. 22. If any master discharges a seafarer before the expiration of the period for which he was engaged or leaves a seafarer behind in contravention of sub-section (5) of section 80.

Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

63(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees for every seafarer.

80(2) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

80(5) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

96 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

23. If a master fails to make an entry in the official logbook with respect to a seafarer who is left behind or lost overboard or is deceased, or fails to take charge of his property or fails to discharge such property in contravention of section 81.

24. If any master or ship owner, or his agent or seafarer fails to produce any logbooks, papers or other documents in any proceedings before a shipping master or fails to attend such proceedings in contravention of section 84.

25. If any person commits a breach of any term of an award which is binding on him under sub-section (8) of section 89.

81 Penalty which may extend to three times the value of the property not accounted for or if such value is not ascertained, to twenty thousand rupees.

84 Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

89(8) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees.

89(14)(a) Penalty which may extend to fifty 26. If any seafarer or class of seafarers or union of seafarers goes or remain on strike in contravention of clause (a) of sub-section (14) of section 89.

thousand rupees.

89(14)(b) Penalty which may extend to fifty 27. If any ship owner alters the conditions of service or discharges or punishes a seafarer in contravention of clause (b) of sub-section (14) of section 89.

28. If any person obstructs the shipping master or surveyor, seafarer welfare officer or Indian ambassador or any other authorised officer from entering or inspecting a vessel under sub-section (1) of section 93.

29. If the master or owner of a vessel fails to be in possession of the certificates specified in sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) of section 93.

30. If a master without reasonable cause fails to facilitate a seafarer to make a complaint under section 95.

31. If a person goes onboard a vessel in contravention of section 96.

32. If a seafarer deserts his vessel in contravention of clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 98.

thousand rupees.

93(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees unless he can prove that the obstruction was caused without his knowledge or connivance.

93(2), (3)

Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees unless he proves that the non-compliance was not caused by his inattention, neglect or wilful default.

95 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

96 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

98(1)(a) He shall be liable to forfeit all or any part of the property he leaves onboard and of the wages he has then earned and also if the desertion takes place at any placeNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 97 outside India, to forfeit all or any part of the wages which he may earn in any other vessel in which he may be employed until his next return to India, and to satisfy any excess of wages paid by the master or owner of the vessel from which he deserts to any substitute engaged in his place at a higher rate of wages than the rate stipulated to be paid to him.

33. If a seafarer neglects or refuses, without reasonable cause, to join the vessel or does not proceed to sea in his vessel or is absent without leave in contravention of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 98.

98(1)(b) He shall, if the contravention does not amount to desertion, be liable to forfeit out of his wages a sum not exceeding two days' pay and in addition for every twenty-four hours of absence either a sum not exceeding six days' pay or any expenses properly incurred in hiring a substitute.

34. If any seafarer quits the vessel without leave under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

99(1)(a) Forfeiture out of his wages of a sum not exceeding one month's pay.

35. If any seafarer fails to attend his vessel under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

99(1)(b) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees but nothing herein shall take away or limit any other remedy which any person would otherwise have for breach of contract or refund of money advanced or otherwise.

99(1)(c) Forfeiture out of his wages of a

sum not exceeding two days' pay.

36. If any seafarer wilfully disobeys any lawful command under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

102 Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

37. If any master fails to report desertion and absence without leave in contravention of section 102.

108(a) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

38. If any person persuades or attempts to persuade a seafarer to neglect or refuse to join or proceed to the vessel or deserts his vessel, in contravention of clause (a) of section 108.

108(b) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

39. If any person harbours or secretes a seafarer who has wilfully neglected or refused to join or has deserted his vessel, in contravention of clause (b) of section 108.

109 Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

40. If any person secretes himself and goes to sea in contravention of section 109.

98 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 110(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

41. If a master fails to deliver documents relating to the navigation of the vessel to his successor in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 110.

116(1) Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

42. If the owner or master of a vessel fails to comply with provisions of the international conventions, treaties or agreements in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 116.

117(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

43. If the master of a vessel fails to report the particulars of an incident in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 117.

117(2) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

44. If the master of a vessel fails to report the particulars of an incident relating to the loss or likely loss overboard of dangerous goods in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 117.

120 Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

45. If any master or owner of an Indian vessel fails to comply with its communication requirements in contravention of section 120.

121 Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

46. If any master or owner of a vessel does not carry onboard the information required by section 121.

47. If the master or owner of the vessel causes a vessel to be loaded in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 122.

122(1) Penalty which may extend to four lakh rupees and to such additional penalty not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees for every inch or fraction of an inch by which the appropriate load lines on each side of the vessel are submerged or would have been submerged if the vessel had been in salt waters and had no list, as the principal officer thinks fit to impose, having regard to the extent to which the earning capacity of the vessel is or would have been increased by reason of the submersion.

123(1) Penalty which may extend to two

lakh rupees.

48. If the owner, agent or master of a vessel carries passengers without certificates required under Part VI in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 123.

123(3) Penalty which may extend to

two lakh rupees.

49. If the owner, agent or master of a vessel carrying passengers fails to make a statement about the passengers onboard such vessel in contravention of sub-section (3) of section 123.

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50. If the master or owner of a vessel causes a vessel to proceed to sea without valid certificates in contravention of section 124.

51. If a person commits misconduct specified in any of the clauses under sub-section (1) of section 125.

52. If any person carries or attempts to carry cargo without the required certificates in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 126.

53. If any person carries or attempts to carry passengers without the required certificates in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 126.

124 Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

125(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

126(1) Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

126(2) Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

127(1), (2) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees and ten lakh rupees for every repeat contravention and the vessel may also be detained.

54. If any person or master sends or takes or attempts to send or take to sea unseaworthy vessel in contravention of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 127. 55. If the ship owner or master of a vessel or seafarer fails to take all reasonable means to ensure the seaworthiness of a vessel in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 128.

56. If any vessel, company or port facility fails to comply with the requirements for safety and security management in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 129.

57. If any owner or master of an Indian vessel causes polluting substance to be discharged anywhere into the sea or owner or master of a foreign vessel causes polluting substance to be discharged within the coastal waters in contravention of section 133, then—

(a) where such discharge is of harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form;

(b) where such discharge is of sewage;

128(1) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees and five lakh rupees for every repeat contravention.

129(1) Penalty which may extend to twenty-five lakh rupees.

133

133 Penalty which may extend to ten lakh rupees and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future;

133 penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future;

133 penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees and such security as may be considered necessary for100 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (d) where the discharge is of any other polluting substances.

58. If the ship owner, master or any other person permits any vessel or port or platform or man-made structures at sea to engage in dumping in contravention of sub-section (6) of section 133.

59. If any vessel proceeds to sea without valid certificates in contravention of section 135.

60. If the master of a vessel fails to maintain books of records in contravention of section 136.

61. If any master or owner of a vessel which is detained under sub-section (3) of section 137 causes such vessel to proceed to sea before its release in contravention of section 137. 62. If the master of a vessel fails to report the particulars of an incident in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 138.

63. If any port authority or officer fails to comply with the directions issued by the Central Government under sub-section (2) of section 142.

64. If a master or person in-charge of a vessel fails to render assistance in case of collision in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 158.

65. If a master fails to enter a statement in relation to a collision in the official logbook in contravention of section 159.

66. If the master or ship owner or his agent fails to transmit a report of the accident or damage to the Director-General or the nearest principal officer in contravention of section 160.

67. If the owner or agent of any Indian vessel fails, without reasonable cause, to give notice of loss of Indian vessel to the Director-General in contravention of section 161.

securing any damages that may arise in future;

133 penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future.

133(6) Penalty which may extend to two lakh rupees and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future.

135 Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

136 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

137(3) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

138(1) Penalty which may extend to one lakh and fifty thousand rupees.

142(2) Penalty which may extend to ten lakh rupees.

158(1) Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

159 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

160 Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

161 Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 101

68. If any person fails to maintain compulsory insurance or other financial security for maritime claims in contravention of section 172.

172 Penalty which may extend to fifteen lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

190(1), (2) Penalty which may extend to one 69. If any master or ship owner does not carry the certificate required under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 190.

lakh rupees.

207(1), (2) Penalty which may extend to 70. If any master or ship owner does not carry the certificate required under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 207.

71. If any person refuses or wilfully neglects to comply with a notice or makes any false statement in contravention of sub-section (4) of section 217.

72. If the primary response party fails to engage in maritime emergency response under section 226.

73. If the owner or master of a vessel fails to conclude contracts with salvors under section 251.

74. If a salvor fails to perform his duties under sub-section (1) of section 252.

75. If the owner or master of a vessel or the owner of other property fails to perform his duties under sub-section (2) of section 252.

76. If the owner of a vessel fails to comply with the requirements for safety, security and prevention of pollution and insurance in contravention of section 264.

77. If any person fails to comply with the manning requirements under sub-section (2) of section 265.

78. If the ship owner, master, tindal or skipper of a vessel fails to produce certificates of competency or proficiency or any other certificate in contravention of section 270.

79. If the owner or his agent or skipper of an Indian fishing vessel fails to enter into an agreement in contravention of clause (a) of section 271.

80. If the ship owner or master permits a vessel to ply or proceed to sea without certificates in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 273.

fifteen lakh rupees.

217(4) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

226 Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

251 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

252(1) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

252(2) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

264 Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

265(2) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

270 Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

271(a) Penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.

273(1) Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees.

102 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 275 Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

81. If the ship owner or master or tindal or skipper of a vessel fails to maintain or cause to be maintained a statement of crew in contravention of section 275.

276 Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

82. If the ship owner or master or tindal or skipper of a vessel fails to provide notice of jettisoning of cargo in contravention of section 276.

277(3) Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

83. If the ship owner or agent or master or officer of a vessel fails to provide all reasonable facilities to the proper officer for a survey or audit in contravention of sub-section (3) of section 277.

296(2) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

84. If any person hinders or obstructs any officer or person in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 296.

300(2) Penalty which may extend to fifty

thousand rupees.

85. If any ship owner or master or tindal or skipper or seafarer or port or any person or authority breaches any condition subject to which any exemption is granted under sub-section (2) of section 300.

301 Penalty which may extend to five

lakh rupees.

86. If any ship owner or his agent or master or seafarer or tindal or maritime training institute or recruitment placement service provider or port or any person or body of persons fails to comply with the directions given under section 301.

304(1) Penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees and the vessel may also be detained.

87. If any owner or master of a vessel allows a vessel to fly with the flag of a State in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 304.

307(4) Penalty which may extend to ten

lakh rupees.

88. If any person acts in contravention of control measures invoked by the principal officer under sub-section (4) of section 307.

310(1) Penalty which may extend to five

lakh rupees.

89. If any port fails to discharge the obligations under the conventions in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 310.

311(1) Penalty which may extend to one

lakh rupees.

90. If any port authority or State Maritime Board or any other authority or agency fails to render services or assistance or take measures in respect of any abandoned vessel under sub-section (1) of section 311.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 103 314 Penalty which may extend to

seventy lakh rupees.

91. If the registered owner of an Indian vessel fails to maintain compulsory adequate insurance coverage or such other financial security in contravention of section 314.

General Penalty which may extend to

fifteen lakh rupees.

92. If any vessel is detained under the provisions of this Act for which no penalty is provided.

93. If any person in the case of any declaration made in the presence of, or produced to, Registrar under Part III or in any document or other evidence produced to such Registrar—

General Penalty which may extend to

two lakh rupees.

(i) wilfully makes or assists in making or procures to be made, any false statement concerning the title to or ownership of or the interest existing in any vessel or any share in a vessel; or

(ii) utters, produces or makes use of any declaration or document containing any such false statement knowing the same to be false.

94. If any person,—

General Penalty which may extend to

two lakh rupees.

(a) forges or fraudulently alters any certificate of discharge or a certificate as to the work of a seafarer or a continuous discharge certificate or a copy of any such certificate; or

(b) fraudulently uses any certificate of discharge or a certificate as to the work of a seafarer or a continuous discharge certificate or a copy of any such certificate which is forged or altered or does not belong to him.

General Penalty which may extend to

two lakh rupees.

95. If any person wilfully destroys or mutilates or renders illegible any entry in an official logbook or wilfully makes or procures to be made or assists in making a false or fraudulent entry in or omission from an official logbook.

104 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

General Penalty which may extend to one lakh rupees for the first contravention and five lakh rupees for every subsequent contravention.

96. If the master or owner or agent of a special trade passenger vessel, after having obtained any of the certificates referred to in Part VI, fraudulently does or suffers to be done anything whereby the certificate becomes inapplicable to the altered state of the vessel, or special trade passengers or other matters to which the certificate relates.

(3) The offences mentioned in column (2) of the table below, shall be punishable to the extent mentioned in column (4) of the said table, with reference to such offences, respectively.

Serial No.

Table

Imprisonment or fine or both

Offences Section

to which

offence

is

referred

(1) (2) (3) (4) 1. If any person causes a vessel to proceed to sea without a valid incertificate of registration contravention of section 15.

2. If any person uses Indian national colour in contravention of sub-section (4) of section 37.

3. If an owner or a master of an Indian vessel knowingly conceals the Indian character of the vessel in contravention of section 38.

4. If any person goes to sea without holding a certificate granted under the Act.

5. If any person causes a vessel or sailing or fishing vessel to proceed to sea without the required certificated personnel.

6. If any person carries on the business of recruitment and placement service agency in contravention of clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 62.

7. If any person demands or receives any remuneration from any seafarer or person in contravention of clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 62.

15 Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

37(4) Imprisonment which may extend to two years, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

38 Imprisonment which may extend to two years, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

General Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

62(2)(a) Imprisonment which may extend to one year, or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or both.

62(2)(c) Imprisonment which may extend to three months, or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or both.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 105

8. If any seafarer does or refuses or omits to do anything in contravention of section 97.

9. If any seafarer is guilty of an offence specified in clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

97 Imprisonment which may extend to two years, or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees or both.

99(1)(d) Imprisonment which may extend to one month and also for every twenty-four hours of continuance of such disobedience or neglect, forfeiture out of his wages of a sum not exceeding six days' pay or any expenses which may have been properly incurred in hiring a substitute.

10. If any seafarer is guilty of an offence specified in clause (e) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

99(1)(e) Imprisonment which may extend to three months, or fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees or both.

11. If any seafarer is guilty of an offence specified in clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 99.

99(1)(f) Forfeiture out of his wages of a sum equal to the loss sustained and also imprisonment which may extend to three months.

General Fine which may extend to 12. If a seafarer on or before being engaged wilfully and fraudulently makes a false statement of the name of his last vessel or alleged last vessel or wilfully and fraudulently makes a false statement of his own name.

13. If any owner or master of an Indian vessel causes polluting substance to be discharged anywhere into the sea or owner or master of a foreign vessel causes polluting substance to be discharged within the coastal waters in contravention of section 133, then—

(a) where the discharge is of oil and oily mixtures from vessels;

(b) where the discharge is of noxious liquid substances.

fifty thousand rupees.

133

133 Fine which may extend to twenty-five lakh rupees, or imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or both, and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future;

133 Fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees, or imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or both, and such security as may be considered necessary for securing any damages that may arise in future.

106 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

14. If the owner, agent, master, charterer, operator, lessee or licensee of the vessel fails to comply with any notice issued under sub-section (2) of section 138.

15. If the owner of any Indian vessel or any equipment fails to comply with the directions of the Central Government issued under sub-section (1) of section 139.

16. If the owner, manager, operator, company, pilot, harbour master, master, or other person in charge fails to give notice of a marine casualty to the officer in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 231.

138(2) Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or both, and if the offence is a continuing one, the offender shall be liable to a further fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees per day for every day during which the offence continues after conviction.

139(1) Imprisonment which may extend to six months or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or both, and if the offence is a continuing one, the offender shall be liable to a further fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees per day for every day during which the offence continues after conviction.

231(2) Fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees and in default of payment, simple imprisonment which may extend to three months.

236(1), (2) Fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees and in default of payment, imprisonment which may extend to three months.

17. If the master or owner or the operator of an Indian vessel or any ship other than an Indian vessel fails to report a wreck in contravention of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 236. 18. If the owner or operator of a ship fails to immediately mark or maintain the mark of the wreck in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 238.

19. If the master permits a vessel to proceed to sea before such vessel is released from detention by any competent authority in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 290.

20. If the owner, master or agent of the vessel takes to sea any person authorised under this Act to detain or survey the vessel in contravention of sub-section (3) of section 290.

21. If the master or owner or agent permits a nuclear vessel to proceed to any port or place in contravention of sub-section (1) of section 298.

238(1) Fine which may extend to two lakh rupees and in default of payment, imprisonment which may extend to six months.

290(2) Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

290(3) Imprisonment which may extend to one year, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

298(1) Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees, or both.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 107

22. If the master or owner or agent fails to comply with the order issued under sub-section (2) of section 298.

298(2) Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees, or both.

23. If any owner of a ship fails to comply with directions of the Director-General under sub-section (1) of section 302.

302(1) Imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both.

282. (1) The authority for imposing the penalty under sub-section (2) of

section 281 shall be the principal officer.

Authority for imposition of penalty and procedure therefor.

(2) Any person aggrieved by the order of the principal officer imposing the penalty under sub-section (1) may within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of such order, prefer an appeal before the Director-General in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

(3) The Director-General shall dispose of such appeal within a period of

thirty days from the date of receipt of the appeal.

(4) No such order shall be passed under this section unless the parties

have been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

(5) Any contravention of the provisions of this Act for which penalty has been provided may be compounded for the first contravention by an officer designated by the Central Government by notification in this behalf.

(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, if any penalty imposed by the principal officer or the Director-General under this Part is not deposited, the amount shall be recovered as an arrear of land revenue.

Place of trial and jurisdiction of court.

283. (1) Any person committing any offence under this Act or any rules made thereunder may be tried for such offence in any place in which he may be found or in any court which the Central Government may by notification, direct in this behalf, or in any court in which he might be tried under any other law for the time being in force.

(2) No court inferior to that of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall

try any offence under sub-section (3) of section 281.

46 of 2023.

Special provision regarding punishment.

284. Notwithstanding anything contained in section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it shall be lawful for a Judicial Magistrate of the first class to pass any sentence authorised by or under this Act on any person convicted of an offence under this Act or any rules made thereunder.

Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors.

285. The Central Government or the State Government may, by notification, appoint a person who is in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years as a Special Public Prosecutor for the purposes of any case or class of cases under this Act.

286. The penalties to which a master or owner of a special trade passenger vessel is liable under section 281 shall be enforced only on a report made by the proper officer in this behalf.

Penalties in respect of masters or owners of special trade passenger vessels.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "special trade passenger vessel" means a mechanically propelled vessel carrying more than thirty special trade passengers.

Offences by companies.

287. (1) If the person committing an offence under this Act is a company, every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to, the company for the conduct of its business, as well as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly:

108 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall render any such person liable to any punishment provided in this Act, if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company, and it is proved that the offence was committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on the part of, any director, manager, secretary, or any other officer of the company, such director, manager, secretary, or other officer shall also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section,—

(a) "company" includes a co-operative society, a firm or other

association of individuals; and

(b) "director", in relation to a firm, means a partner in the firm.

Depositions to be received in evidence when witness cannot be produced.

288. (1) Where, the testimony of any witness is required in relation to any legal proceeding before any court or officer or authority under this Act, and the defendant or the person accused does not produce the witness, then any deposition previously made by the witness in relation to the same subject-matter before any court in India or, if elsewhere, before any Indian ambassador, shall be admissible in evidence—

(a) if the deposition is authenticated by the signature of the presiding

officer of such court or ambassador, before whom it is made;

(b) if the defendant or the person accused had an opportunity by

himself or his agent of cross-examining the witness;

in the presence of the person accused.

(2) It shall not be necessary in any case to prove the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed such deposition, and a certificate by such person that the defendant or person accused had an opportunity of cross-examining the witness, and that the deposition, if made in a criminal proceeding, was made in the presence of the person accused, shall, unless the contrary is proved, be sufficient evidence that he had that opportunity and that it was so made.

Power to detain foreign vessel that has occasioned damage.

289. (1) Whenever any damage has in any part of the world been caused to property belonging to the Government or to any citizen of India or a company by a vessel other than an Indian vessel and that vessel is found within Indian jurisdiction, such vessel shall be detained by an order of the High Court upon an application alleging that the damage was caused by the misconduct or want of skill of the master or any other seafarer of that vessel.

(2) The order of detention under sub-section (1) shall remain in force until such time as the ship owner, master or consignee thereof has satisfied any claim in respect of the damage or has given security to the satisfaction of the High Court to pay all costs and damages that may be awarded.

(3) Whenever it appears that before an application can be made under this section, the vessel will have departed from India or the territorial waters of India, any proper officer may detain the vessel for such time as to allow the application to be made and that officer shall not be liable for any cost or damages in respect of the detention unless the same is proved to have been made without reasonable grounds.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 109

(4) In any legal proceedings in relation to any damage referred to in sub-section (1), the person giving security shall be made a defendant and shall for the purposes of such proceeding be deemed to be the owner of the vessel that has occasioned the damage.

Power to enforce detention of vessel.

290. (1) Where under this Act a vessel is authorised or ordered to be detained, any commissioned officer of the Indian Navy or Indian Coast Guard or any port officer, police, pilot, harbour master, conservator of port or customs commissioner may detain the vessel under instructions of the proper officer.

(2) If any vessel after detention or after service on the master for any notice of, or order for, such detention proceeds to sea before she is released by any competent authority, the master of the vessel shall be guilty of an offence under this Act.

(3) When a vessel so proceeding to sea takes to sea any person authorised under this Act to detain or survey the vessel, the owner, master or agent of such vessel shall each be liable to pay all expenses of, and incidental to, such person being so taken to sea and shall also be guilty of an offence under this Act.

(4) When any owner or master or agent is convicted of an offence under sub-section (3), the court making the order of conviction may inquire and determine the amount payable on account of expenses by such owner, master or agent and may direct that the same shall be recovered from him in the manner provided for the recovery of fines.

Levy of wages, etc., by distress of movable property or vessel.

291. (1) When an order under this Act for the payment of any wages or other sums of money is made by any court or other officer or authority and the money is not paid at the time or in the manner directed, the sum mentioned in the order with such further sum as may be thereby awarded for costs, may be levied by distress and sale of the movable property of the person directed to pay the same under a warrant to be issued for that purpose by such court.

(2) Where any court or other officer or authority has power under this Act to make an order directing payment to be made of any seafarer's wages, fines or other sums of money, then, if the person so directed to pay the same is the master, owner or agent of a vessel and the same is not paid at the time or in the manner directed by such court or other officer or authority, the court or officer or authority may, in addition to any other power which it may have for the purpose of compelling payment by warrant, direct the amount remaining unpaid to be levied by distress and sale of the vessel and her equipment.

292. Where, for the purposes of this Act, any document is to be served Service of documents.

on any person, that document may be served—

(a) in any case by delivering a copy thereof personally to the person to be served, or by leaving the same at his last place of residence, or by post; and

(b) if the document is to be served on the master of a vessel, where there is one, by leaving the same for him onboard that vessel, with the person being or appearing to be in command or charge of the vessel; and

(c) if the document is to be served on the master of a vessel where there is no master and the vessel is in India, on the owner of the vessel, or, if such owner is not in India, on some agent of the owner residing in India, or, where no such agent is known or can be found, by affixing a copy thereof on the vessel or at a suitable place on the bridge.

110 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 PART XV

MISCELLANEOUS

Birth and death of persons onboard vessel during a voyage.

293. The master of any vessel performing a voyage shall, on arrival at the next port or place of call, intimate the proper officer, the date of any birth or death of any person occurring during the voyage and the cause of death or any other relevant details, as the Central Government may by order, specify in this behalf.

294. (1) If any person dies onboard or is missing from an Indian vessel, the master shall forthwith inform the Director-General and the proper officer of the port or the next port of call.

Inquiry into cause of death onboard or person missing from Indian vessel.

(2) On receipt of information under sub-section (1), the proper officer shall enquire into the cause of death and make an endorsement to that effect in the official logbook, either that the statement of the cause of death in the book is in his opinion true or the contrary according to the result of inquiry.

(3) If, in the course of any such inquiry, it appears to the proper officer that death is caused onboard the vessel by violence or other improper means, he shall either report the matter to the Director-General or, if the emergency of the case so requires, shall take immediate steps for bringing the offender to trial.

45 of 2023.

Certain persons deemed to be public servants.

295. The following persons shall be deemed to be public servants within the meaning of clause (28) of section 2 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, namely:—

(a) every surveyor;

(b) every person appointed under this Act to report information as to

marine casualties under Part XI;

or inquiry and all persons whom he calls to his aid;

(d) every person directed to make an investigation into an explosion

or fire on a vessel;

(e) every other officer or person appointed under this Act to perform

any functions thereunder.

296. (1) Every person who is empowered by this Act to make an

investigation or inquiry or to board, survey, inspect or detain a vessel,—

Power of persons authorised to investigate, inquire, etc.

(a) may go onboard any vessel and inspect the same or any part thereof, or any of the machinery, equipment or articles onboard thereof, or any certificate of the master or other officer to which the provisions of this Act or any of the rules made thereunder apply, not unnecessarily detaining or delaying the vessel from proceeding on any voyage, and if in consequence of any incident to the vessel or for any other reason it is considered necessary so to do, may require the vessel to be taken into dock for the purpose of inspection or survey;

(b) may enter and inspect any premises, the entry and inspection of

which appears to be requisite for the purpose of this section;

(c) may, by summons under his hand, require the attendance of all such persons as he thinks fit to call before him and examine them for the purpose of this section, and may require answers or returns to any enquiries he thinks fit to make;

(d) may require and enforce the production of all relevant books,

papers, or documents;

(e) may administer oaths or may in lieu of requiring or administering an oath, require every person examined by him to make and subscribe a declaration of the truth of the statements made by him in his examination; and

(f) may muster the crew of any such vessel.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 111

(2) No person shall hinder or obstruct any officer or person referred to in sub-section (1) from going onboard any vessel or otherwise impede him in the execution of his duties or the exercise of his powers under this Act.

Power to permit alternative provisions and arrangement.

297. Where this Act requires that the provisions or arrangements for a vessel shall meet the obligations under the convention, or otherwise, the Central Government may, after satisfying itself by trials or based on the convention or its protocol or its amendments or otherwise, that any such provision or arrangement is as effective as that so required, by order, direct or permit such other provisions or arrangements to be used or provided.

298. (1) No nuclear vessel shall proceed to any port or place in India including

territorial waters thereof without permission of the Central Government.

Control of nuclear vessels and security measures.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, "nuclear vessel" means a

vessel with a nuclear power plant.

(2) The Central Government may, by general or special order, issue such directions, as it deems fit, to the registered owners of the vessels, for taking such security measures as may be necessary.

299. The Central Government may, by notification, direct that the provisions of this Act or any of them shall not apply to vessels belonging to the Government of any State or to any class of such vessels.

Exemption of Government vessels, foreign and Indian.

Power to exempt.

300. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, the Central Government may, by order in writing and upon such conditions, if any, as it may think fit to impose, exempt any vessel or tindal or skipper or seafarer or port or any class of vessels, from any specified requirement contained in or prescribed in pursuance of this Act or dispense with the observance of any such requirement in the case of any such vessel or tindal or skipper or seafarer or port or any class of vessels, if it is satisfied that the requirement is substantially complied with or that compliance with the requirement is or ought to be dispensed with in the circumstances of the case:

Provided that no exemption which is prohibited by the safety convention or pollution prevention convention shall be granted under this sub-section.

(2) Where an exemption is granted under sub-section (1) subject to any conditions, a breach of any of those conditions shall, without prejudice to any other remedy, be deemed to be an offence under this section.

Power of Director-General to give directions.

301. The Director-General may, if he is satisfied in the public interest or in the interest of Indian shipping that it is necessary so to do, give by notice, circular, order or guidelines in writing, such directions as he thinks fit to any vessel or seafarer or tindal or ship owner or his agent or maritime training institute or recruitment placement service provider or port or person or body of persons.

Special provisions with respect to defaulting ship owners.

302. (1) The Director-General may by order in writing and upon such conditions, if any, as he may think fit to impose, direct the ship owner who fails to comply with the provisions of this Act, or rules made thereunder or is not taking action for the safety and prevention of any harm to life, property or the environment which may be caused by a vessel owned by such ship owner but not abandoned by him, to take such measures as may be directed:

Provided that if the ship owner fails to comply with such directions, the Director-General may take necessary action including confiscation or forfeiture of the vessel or cargo, if any, or both, and dispose of the same as may be deemed appropriate.

(2) The cost incurred by the Director-General in averting the harm mentioned under sub-section (1) due to failure of timely action by the ship owner shall be recovered from such ship owner as Government dues.

112 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

(3) The Director-General shall be competent to adjust the cost referred to in sub-section (2), with the funds generated by disposal of the vessel or the cargo, or both.

Right to pursue foreign vessels in high seas.

303. The Central Government, if it has a reason to believe that any foreign vessel has violated any law within the coastal waters, may authorise any vessel under its control to pursue into the high seas such foreign vessel for investigations and thereafter seize the vessel if considered necessary, for further proceedings:

Provided that as far as practicable, such foreign vessel shall be given a signal

to stop before pursuing the vessel into the high seas.

304. (1) Where it is established that a vessel within India or her coastal waters is not legally entitled to fly the flag of a State or has lost such right, the Central Government may take charge of such vessel and detain the same as a vessel without nationality including its cargo, as may be deemed appropriate, in such manner as may be prescribed.

Power of Central Government with respect to vessel without nationality.

(2) A vessel which sails under the flags of two or more States, using them

according to convenience, may be deemed to be a vessel without nationality.

305. No suit or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for

anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act.

Protection of action taken in good faith.

306. The Central Government may enter into agreement with other States

Agreement with other States. or organisations for effective implementation of the provisions of this Act.

Control measures and detention of vessels.

307. (1) No vessel shall enter into or sail out of or operate within the port, terminal, anchorages, port facilities, Indian offshore facilities or the territorial waters of India, without complying with such requirements as to construction, equipment, safety and security, cargo operations, pollution prevention, safe manning, maritime labour standards, insurance, classification or such other relevant requirements for the purposes of this Act as may be prescribed.

(2) The principal officer may order any unsafe vessel or vessel which appears to him to be an unsafe vessel, to be provisionally detained for the purpose of being surveyed.

(3) The surveyor may inspect the vessel referred to in sub-section (2) and if it is found on such inspection that the vessel is an unsafe vessel or has failed to comply with the provisions of this Act, report it to the principal officer.

(4) On receipt of report under sub-section (3), the principal officer may by order, invoke such control measures as may be necessary, till such time the vessel complies with the provisions of this Act or may allow such vessel to proceed to sea on such conditions as deemed fit, if it does not pose a risk to safety of life onboard or at sea, or an unreasonable threat of harm to the environment.

(5) Control measures under sub-section (4) may include—

(a) denial of entry into port;

(b) expanded inspection;

(d) stoppage of operations or restriction of operations including

movement within the port;

(e) requirement of any rectification of deficiencies within the specified

period;

(f) detention of vessel;

(g) expulsion of the vessel from port or place; or

(h) such other measures as may be prescribed.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 113

(6) The master or owner of the vessel may, within seven days from the receipt of the order issued under sub-section (4), prefer an appeal before the Director-General who may retain or modify the control measures or order release of the vessel subject to such conditions as he may deem fit.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, "unsafe vessel" means a

vessel, including an unseaworthy vessel, which—

(a) poses a risk to safety of life; or

(b) poses an unreasonable threat of harm to environment by reason of its safe manning, hull, machinery, equipment, training and working conditions of seafarers or operational safety being substantially below the required standards; or

Costs of detention and damages.

308. (1) When a vessel is detained under this Act, the owner of a vessel shall be liable to pay to the Central Government the costs incidental to the detention and survey of the vessel, as may be determined by the Director-General, and the vessel shall not be released until such costs are paid and faults are rectified.

(2) The form and manner of determination of claims for costs of detention under sub-section (1) and compensation or damages for detention of a vessel shall be such as may be prescribed.

Procedure for detention of vessel other than Indian vessel.

309. (1) On receipt of information from the Government of any State which is a party to any convention under this Act, that any vessel other than an Indian vessel within the territorial waters of India has contravened the provisions of such convention, the Central Government may detain the vessel for such period and subject to such conditions as may be deemed necessary.

(2) When a vessel other than an Indian vessel is detained under this Act, a copy of the order for the provisional detention of the vessel shall forthwith be served on the ambassador of the State to which the vessel belongs at or nearest to the port in which such vessel is detained.

310. (1) The Director-General shall,—

(a) ensure that the obligations under the conventions are discharged

by the ports;

Obligations of ports under conventions and monitoring thereof by Director-General.

(b) supervise, monitor and ensure that such obligations are effectively

discharged by the ports.

(2) The Director-General may call for such information and pass such

directions as he may deem fit, for the discharge of obligations by the ports.

Power of Central Government in respect of abandoned vessels.

311. (1) The Central Government may give such directions in writing, as it deems appropriate, to a port authority or State Maritime Board or any other authority or agency to render services or assistance or take measures in respect of any abandoned vessel which is abandoned on or near the coast of India or within the coastal waters.

(2) The directions given under sub-section (1) shall be aimed at ensuring safety, security, preventing the abandoned vessel from posing a threat to life or property or environment, including protection of India's coastline or related interests from pollution or threat of pollution arising out of the abandoned vessel.

(3) Any costs or expenses incurred by the Central Government or any authority or agency, for taking any measures in respect of an abandoned vessel under sub-section (1), shall constitute a debt due to the Central Government and may be recovered from the proceeds received from the sale of the vessel or its cargo.

114 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25

(4) The procedure for reimbursement of costs or expenses, including the manner of determination of the rates for services rendered, to the authority or agency complying with the directions of the Central Government under sub-section (1), shall be such as may be prescribed.

22 of 2017.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, the debt due to the Central Government under sub-section (3), shall be a charge on the vessel and shall have first priority after the following maritime liens—

(a) claims for wages and other sums due to the master, officers and other members of the vessel's complement in respect of their employment on the vessel, including costs of repatriation and social insurance contributions payable on their behalf;

(b) claims in respect of loss of life or personal injury occurring, whether on land or on water, in direct connection with the operation of the vessel.

312. The Central Government may, by order, cancel or suspend any

certificate granted under this Act to any seafarer for any specified period,—

Power to cancel, suspend, etc., certificate of seafarers.

(a) if an inquiry report or investigation report reveals that the seafarer

is incompetent or is guilty of misconduct; or

(b) in a case of collision, where the seafarer has failed to render

assistance; or

(c) if the seafarer has been convicted of any offence under this Act or any non-bailable offence has been committed by such seafarer under any other law for the time being in force in India or outside India; or

(d) if any casualty has been caused by wrongful act or default of the

seafarer; or

(e) if the seafarer to whom the certificate has been granted contravenes

any provisions of this Act:

Provided that no order under this section shall be passed unless the person

concerned has been given an opportunity of being heard.

Re-hearing.

313. Whenever an investigation or inquiry is made under this Act, the Central Government may order the case to be re-heard either generally or as to any part thereof, and shall so order, if—

(a) new and important evidence which could not be produced at the

time of investigation is discovered; or

(b) for any other reason, there is in its opinion, a miscarriage of justice.

Maintenance of insurance or such other financial security.

314. Without prejudice to the insurance or other financial security required to be maintained under Chapters II, III and IV of Part IX, Part X and Chapter I of Part XII, every registered owner of an Indian vessel shall, for the purpose of covering his liability under this Act, be required to compulsorily maintain adequate insurance coverage or such other financial security as may be prescribed.

315. (1) Where any provision of this Act or the rules made thereunder

provide for—

Use and maintenance of electronic records.

(a) the filing of any form, application or any other document with any office, authority, body or agency owned or controlled by the Government in a particular manner;

(b) the issue or grant of any certificate, licence, permit, sanction,

approval or endorsement, by whatever name called, in a particular manner; orNo. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 115 (c) the receipt or payment of money in a particular manner, then notwithstanding anything contained in such provision, such requirement shall be deemed to have been satisfied if such filing, issue, grant, receipt or payment is effected by means of such electronic form.

(2) The Central Government shall, for the purpose of sub-section (1),

prescribe—

(a) the manner and form in which such electronic forms and documents

shall be filed, created or issued; and

(b) the manner or method of payment of any fee or charges for filing,

creation or issue of any electronic document under clause (a).

(3) Any agreement, record, database, logbooks, record books and such other documents required to be stored, maintained or updated by the Central Government or the Director-General or by any other person under this Act or the rules made thereunder, may be maintained in electronic form.

Classification of vessels.

316.(cid:3) The Central Government, based on activities performed or services provided by vessels, may by general or special order, classify the vessels into different categories.

Transparency of charges.

317.(cid:3) (1) The Central Government, in such circumstances as it may, by notification, specify in this behalf, require every service provider or agent in respect of any Indian vessel or other vessel operating in coastal waters in relation to import, export or domestic transportation, to specify in the Bill of Lading or any other transport document, all charges to be paid by an exporter, importer, consignor or consignee in India, subject to the terms and conditions for the specification of such charges and the issuance of the Bill of Lading or any other transport document, as may be specified in that notification:

Provided that the charges to be paid by such exporter, importer, consignor

or consignee shall include both fixed and conditional charges:

Provided further that no service provider or agent shall levy any charges other than charges specified by him in the Bill of Lading or any other transport document.

(2) If the service provider or agent fails to specify the charges under sub-section (1) or levies any charges other than the charges specified by him in the Bill of Lading or any other transport document, he shall be liable to penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees.

(3) The authority for imposing the penalty under sub-section (2) shall be such

officer as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf.

(4) Any person aggrieved by the order of imposition of penalty under this section may prefer an appeal in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed, before such officer as the Central Government may, by notification, specify:

Provided that no order under this section shall be passed without giving

the person a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

318.(cid:3) The Director-General shall have the power to call for such information as may be required to ensure compliance with the provisions of this Act.

Power of Director-General to call for information.

General power to make rules.

319.(cid:3) (1) Without prejudice to any other power to make rules contained elsewhere in this Act, the Central Government may make rules generally to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

116 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (a) the salary, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of

the officers under sub-section (2) of section 8;

(b) the powers and functions of the senior radio surveyors and radio

inspectors under sub-section (2) of section 10;

of section 13;

(d) other functions of the body under clause (d) of sub-section (4) of

section 13;

(e) the form and manner in which a person aggrieved may prefer an

appeal before the Director-General under sub-section (2) of section 282;

(f) the manner of detention of vessel under sub-section (1) of section 304;

(g) other relevant requirements under sub-section (1) of section 307;

(h) such other measures which shall constitute control measures under

clause (h) of sub-section (5) of section 307;

(i) such other requirements under the Explanation to section 307;

(j) the form and manner of determination of claims and compensation

or damages for detention of a vessel under sub-section (2) of section 308;

(k) the procedure for reimbursement of costs or expenses, including the manner of determination of the rates for services rendered to the authority or agency under sub-section (4) of section 311;

(l) insurance coverage or other financial security to be maintained by

registered owner of an Indian vessel under section 314;

(m) the manner and form of filing, creating or issuing electronic forms and documents and the manner or method of payment of fee or charges for such filing, creating or issuing under clause (a) and clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 315;

(n) procedure for preferring an appeal under sub-section (4) of section 317;

(o) the form and manner of informing the Central Government of any requirement or prohibition imposed or threatened to be imposed pursuant to the measures taken by any other country under sub-section (2) of section 323; and

(p) any other matter which is required to be or may be prescribed.

320. (1) All rules made under this Act shall be published in the Official

Provisions with respect to rules. Gazette.

(2) In making a rule under this Act, the Central Government may direct that a breach thereof shall be liable to penalty which may extend to fifty thousand rupees, and if the breach is a continuing one, with further penalty which may extend to five thousand rupees for every day after the first day during which the breach continues.

(3) Every rule made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or both Houses agree that the rule should not be made, the rule shall, thereafter, have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule.

Power to remove difficulties.

321. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order, published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as appear to it to be necessary, for removing the difficulty:

Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry

of a period of three years from the date of commencement of this Act.

No. 11-25] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 117 (2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after

it is made, before each House of Parliament.

Power to constitute committees.

322. (1) The Central Government may, if it thinks fit, constitute one or more committees consisting of such number of persons as it may appoint thereto, representing the interests principally affected or having special knowledge of the subject-matter, for the purpose of advising it when considering the making or alteration of any rules or scales of fees under this Act or for any other purpose connected with this Act.

(2) There shall be paid to the members of any such committee such

travelling and other allowances as the Central Government may fix.

(3) The committees may be constituted under this section to advise the Central Government either generally as regards any rules or scales of fees or as regards any class or classes of rules or scales of fees in particular or for any other purpose connected with this Act.

Power of Central Government to protect interest of Indian Shipping.

323.(1) The Central Government may, by order in writing, specify that the provisions of this section shall apply to measures taken by any other country for regulating the terms and conditions upon which goods or passengers may be carried by sea, which constitute an infringment of the jurisdiction of India, in so far as they apply to—

(a) things done or to be done outside the territorial jurisdiction of that

country; and

(b) persons carrying on lawful business in India.

(2) Where an order issued under sub-section (1) is in force, every person who is subject to such measures taken by another country shall inform the Central Government of any requirement or prohibition imposed or threatened to be imposed on him pursuant to such measures in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, "requirement" includes any requirement to submit any contract or other document for approval thereunder.

(3) Where any information under sub-section (2) is received from any person, or there are grounds to believe that such information is likely to be received, the Central Government may, by an order in writing, give to such person directions prohibiting compliance with any such measure as it considers necessary.

(4) The Central Government may, by an order in writing, prohibit or restrict any person from complying with the requirement to produce any commercial document or information compiled from commercial documents, to a court of another country, if it appears to the Central Government that such document is not within the territorial jurisdiction of that country, and constitutes or may constitute an infringement of the jurisdiction of India.

324. (1) The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 (except Part XIV but not including Repeals and savings.

44 of 1958. 19 of 1838. section 411A therein) and the Coasting Vessels Act, 1838 is hereby repealed.

(2) Notwithstanding such repeal,—

(a) any rule, regulation, bye-law, order, notification or exemption made, issued or granted under any enactment hereby repealed shall, until revoked, have effect as if it had been made, issued or granted under the provisions of this Act;

(b) any office established or created, officer or person appointed and anybody elected or constituted under any enactment hereby repealed shall continue and shall be deemed to have been established, created, appointed, elected, or constituted under this Act;

construed as referring to this Act or to the provision of this Act;

(d) any fine levied under any enactment hereby repealed may be

recovered as if it had been levied under this Act;

118 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-25 (e) any offence committed under any enactment hereby repealed may

be prosecuted and punished as if it had been committed under this Act;

(f) any vessel registered under the enactments hereby repealed shall be

deemed to have been registered under this Act;

(g) any mortgage of vessels recorded in any register book maintained at any port in India under any enactment hereby repealed shall be deemed to have been recorded in the register book under the corresponding provision of this Act;

(h) any licence, certificate of competency or service, certificate of survey, A or B certificate, safety certificate, qualified safety certificate, safety equipment certificate, exemption certificate, international or Indian load line certificate or any other certificate or document issued, made or granted under any enactment hereby repealed and in force at the commencement of this Act, shall be deemed to have been issued, made or granted under this Act and shall, unless cancelled under this Act, continue in force until the date shown in the certificate or document;

(i) any proceeding pending before any court under any enactment hereby repealed may be tried or disposed of under the corresponding provisions of this Act;

(j) any inspection, investigation or inquiry ordered to be done under the provisions of any enactment hereby repealed shall continue to be proceeded with as if such inspection, investigation or inquiry is ordered to be done under the corresponding provisions of this Act.

10 of 1897.

(3) The mention of particular matters in this section shall not be held to prejudice or affect the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, with regard to the effect of repeals.

PART XVI

AMENDMENT TO THE MARINE AIDS TO NAVIGATION ACT, 2021

325. In the Marine Aids to Navigation Act, 2021, after section 48, the

Amendment of Act 20 of 2021.

following section shall be inserted, namely:—

"48A. The Director-General appointed under the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 may issue such directions as may be necessary, to the Director General appointed under this Act for the purposes of implementation of this Act.".

Power of Director-General appointed under Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 to issue directions.

Sd/-

DR. RAJIV MANI, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 ———————————————————————————————

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(cid:11)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)

New Delhi, the 21st December, 2025/Agrahayana 30, 1947 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the

20th December, 2025 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE VIKSIT BHARAT—GUARANTEE FOR ROZGAR AND AJEEVIKA MISSION (GRAMIN): VB—G RAM G (विकसित भारत—जी राम जी) ACT, ²⁰²⁵

(cid:49)(cid:3464)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:3464)(cid:3455)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)

[20th December,(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:64)

An Act to establish a rural development framework aligned with the national vision of Viksit Bharat @2047, by providing a statutory (cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:16)(cid:191)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:191)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:3) members volunteer to undertake unskilled manual work; to promote empowerment, growth, convergence and saturation for a prosperous and resilient rural Bharat; and for matters connected therewith or (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:17)

WHEREAS to align the rural development framework with the national vision of Viksit Bharat @2047 by providing an enhanced statutory wage(cid:3)employment guarantee of one hundred and twenty-five days in each financial year to such rural households whose adult members volunteer to undertake unskilled manual work, thereby enabling them to participate more effectively in the expanded livelihood security framework;

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37

AND WHEREAS to focus on empowerment, growth, convergence and saturation through public works aggregating into forming Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack, with a thematic focus on water security through water-related works, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure and special works to mitigate extreme weather events;

AND WHEREAS to facilitate adequate farm-labour availability during peak agricultural seasons, and, in view of the wage(cid:3)employment guarantee for the rural workforce;

AND WHEREAS to institutionalise convergence, saturation-driven planning and whole of government delivery through Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, integrated with the PM Gati Shakti to address the varying needs of Gram Panchayats, and powered by geospatial systems, digital public infrastructure, District and State planning mechanisms, with such plans aggregated at the Block, District, State and National levels;

AND WHEREAS to modernise governance, accountability and citizen engagement through a comprehensive digital ecosystem, including biometric authentication at various levels, global positioning system or mobile based worksite monitoring, real-time management information system dashboards, proactive public disclosures, and use of Artificial Intelligence for planning, (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:16)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-sixth Year of the Republic of India

as follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1(cid:17) ((cid:20)) This Act may be called the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and

Short title and (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)(cid:29) VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by

notification, appoint:

Provided that the different dates may be appointed for different States or for different areas in a State and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

((cid:68)) "adult" means a person who has completed the eighteenth year

of age;

((cid:69)) "applicant" means the head of a household or any of its other adult

members who has applied for employment under the Scheme;

((cid:70)) "Block" means a community development area within a district

comprising a group of Gram Panchayats;

((cid:71)) "Central Council" means the Central Gram(cid:76)n Rozgar Guarantee

Council constituted under section 12;

((cid:72)) "Centrally Sponsored Scheme" means a scheme in which the Central(cid:3) Government provides full or partial financial assistance and the State Governments undertake its implementation;

((cid:73)) "District Programme Coordinator" means an officer of the State Government designated as such officer under sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 17 for the implementation of the Scheme in a district;

No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

((cid:74)) "household" means the members of a family related to each other by blood, marriage or adoption and normally residing together and sharing meals or holding a common ration card;

((cid:75)) "implementing agency" includes any department of the Central Government or a State Government, a Zila Parishad, Panchayat at intermediate level, Gram Panchayat or any local authority or the Government undertaking, to undertake the implementation of any work taken up under the Scheme;

((cid:76)) "intermediate level" means a level between the village and district levels as specified under clause ((cid:70)) of (cid:68)rticle 243 to the Constitution of India;

((cid:77))(cid:3) "National Level Steering Committee" means a steering committee

constituted by the Central Government under sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 14;

((cid:78)) "normative allocation" means the allocation of the fund made by the

Central Government to the State;

((cid:79)) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette

and the term "notify" or (cid:179)notified(cid:180), shall be construed accordingly;

(cid:11)(cid:80)(cid:12) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;

(cid:11)(cid:81)(cid:12) "Programme Officer" means an officer appointed(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:20)(cid:12)

of section(cid:3)18;

((cid:82)) "rural area" means any area in a State except those areas covered by any urban local body or a Cantonment Board established or constituted under any law for the time being in force;

((cid:83)) "Schedule" means Schedules appended to this Act;

((cid:84)) "Scheme" means the Scheme notified by the State Government under

sub-section ((cid:20)) of section (cid:22);

((cid:85)) "State" means a State specified in the First Schedule to the

Constitution and includes a Union territory;

((cid:86)) "State Council" means the State Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Council

constituted under sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 13;

((cid:87)) "State Level Steering Committee" means a steering committee

constituted under sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 15;

((cid:88)) "unskilled manual work" means any physical work which any adult

person is capable of doing without any skill or special training;

((cid:89)) "Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack" means the consolidated aggregation comprising proposed works emerging from the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans aggregated at the District and State levels, and aligned with the four thematic domains of works specified in Schedule I;

((cid:90)) "Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan" means a future-ready, convergence- based local development plan aligned with the vision of Viksit Bharat @2047, formulated by the Gram Panchayat through a participatory and evidence-based process, and serving as the basis for identification and prioritisation of works under this Act, as provided in sub-section ((cid:22)) of section 4;

((cid:91)) "wage rate" means the wage rate referred to in section 10;

((cid:92)) "work" means any work undertaken or executed under the Scheme.

4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37

CHAPTER II

IMPLEMENTATION FRAMEWORK

3(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The State Government, shall within six months from the date of commencement of this Act, by notification, make a Scheme consistent with the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:17)

State Government implementation framework for (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The Scheme made under sub-section ((cid:20)) shall be implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, under which the financial liability shall be shared between the Central Government and the State Government in accordance with the fund(cid:3)sharing pattern provided under sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 22 of this Act,(cid:3) including enhanced share of the Central Government in respect of the North-Eastern States and Himalayan States, and the responsibility of the State Government to bear (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Planning framework in alignment with vision of Viksit (cid:37)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:35)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:23)(cid:26)(cid:17)(cid:3)

4(cid:17)(cid:3)((cid:20)) All works undertaken under this Act shall be originated from the Viksit(cid:3) Gram Panchayat Plans prepared under sub-section ((cid:22)), and consolidated at the(cid:3) Block, District and State levels and further aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack, which shall comprise a comprehensive listing (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21))(cid:3) The Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack shall encompass(cid:3)

four thematic focus domains, namely:—

((cid:68)) water security through water-related works;

((cid:69)) core rural infrastructure;

((cid:70)) livelihood-related infrastructure; and

((cid:71)(cid:12) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) Rural works planning under this Act shall be undertaken through Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, prepared by the Gram Panchayats and integrated with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, so as to enable spatially optimised infrastructure development and strengthened inter-departmental convergence in (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) For the purposes of sub-section ((cid:22)), Gram Panchayats shall be categorised into Category A, Category B and Category C, in accordance with the provisions (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:17)

((cid:24)) The Central Government shall determine the State-wise normative allocation for each financial year, based on objective parameters as may be (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:25)) Any expenditure incurred by a State in excess of its normative allocation shall be borne by the State Government in such manner and by such procedure as may be prescribed by (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Guarantee of wage employment to (cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:17)

5(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) Save as otherwise provided, the State Government shall, in such rural area in the State as may be notified by the Central Government, provide to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work, not less than one hundred and twenty-five days of guaranteed employment in a financial (cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) Every person who has done the work given to him under the Scheme shall

be entitled to receive wages at the wage ra(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) Save as otherwise provided in this Act, the disbursement of daily wages shall be made on a weekly basis or in any case not later than a fortnight after the (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5 ((cid:23)) The Central Government or the State Government, may within the limits of economic capacity and development, make provisions for securing work to every adult member of a household under the Scheme for any period beyond the period guaranteed under sub-section ((cid:20)(cid:12)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

6(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act or rules made thereunder, and to facilitate adequate availability of agricultural labour during peak agricultural seasons, no work shall be commenced or executed under this Act, during such peak seasons as may be notified under sub-section ((cid:21)(cid:12)(cid:17)

Facilitating adequate agricultural labour availability during peak agricultural (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17) ((cid:21)) The State Governments shall notify in advance, a period aggregating to sixty days in a financial year, covering the peak agricultural seasons of sowing and (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The State Government may issue distinct notifications for different areas of the State, including districts, blocks or Gram Panchayats, based on agro-climatic zones, local patterns of agricultural activities or other relevant factors, and every such notification shall have a binding eff(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) All authorities responsible for planning, sanctioning or executing works under this Act shall ensure that all works are undertaken only outside the notified (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

Relaxations during natural calamities and extraordinary (cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17) 7(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, the State Government may recommend to the Central Government, the need for special operational relaxations during natural calamities or other extraordinary circumstances for the purpose of ensuring timely res(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The Central Government may, upon consideration of the recommendations received from the State Government, make specific relaxations, including temporary expansion of permissible works, relaxed documentation norms, or enhanced wage (cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) Notwithstanding anything in sub-section ((cid:21)), the Central Government may

(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:91)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

CHAPTER III

8(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) For the purposes of giving effect to the provisions of section 3, every State Government shall, make a Scheme, for providing a guarantee of one hundred and twenty-five days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household in the rural areas covered under the Scheme and whose adult members, by application, volunteer to do unskilled manual work subject to the conditions (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Viksit Bharat— Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin): VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) Scheme(cid:17) ((cid:21)) The State Government shall publish a summary of the Scheme made under sub-section ((cid:20)) in at least two local newspapers, one of which shall be in a vernacular language circulating in the area or areas to which the Scheme applies, and shall also make such summary publicly available through electronic means, including the (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The Scheme made under sub-section ((cid:20)) shall conform to and provide for

the (cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:17)

9(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The State Government may, without prejudice to the conditions specified in Schedule II, specify in the Scheme the conditions for providing (cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Conditions for providing guaranteed (cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The persons employed under the Scheme made under this Act, shall be

entitled to such facilities not less than the minimum facilities specified in (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:17)6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (cid:58)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

10(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85) the purposes of this Act, which shall apply to all unskilled manual work provided under the Scheme:

Provided that different wage rates may be notified by the Central Government

for different areas:

(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:17) Provided further that the wage rate so notified shall not be less than the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:42)andhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005:

(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:17) Provided also that until a wage rate is notified by the Central Government (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:3) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, shall continue to apply in the (cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Payment of unemployment (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

11(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) If an applicant for employment under the Scheme is not provided such employment within fifteen days of receipt of his application seeking employment or from the date on which the employment has been sought in the case of an advance application, whichever is later, he shall be entitled to a daily unemployment (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) Subject to such terms and conditions of eligibility as may be prescribed by the State Government and subject to the provisions of this Act and the Scheme and the economic capacity of the State Government, the unemployment allowance payable under sub-section ((cid:20)) shall be paid to the applicants of a household, subject to the guarantee provided under this Act, at such rate as may be specified by the State Government, by notification, in consultation with the State Council:

Provided that no such rate shall be less than one-fourth of the notified wage rate for the first thirty days during the financial year and not less than one-half of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The liability of the State Government to pay unemployment allowance to

a household during any financial year shall cease as soon as—

((cid:68)) the applicant is directed by the Gram Panchayat or Programme Officer to report for work either by himself or depute at least one adult member of the household; or

((cid:69)) the period for which employment is sought, comes to an end and no

member of the household of the applicant had turned up for employment; or

((cid:70)) the adult members of the household of the applicant have received in total at least one hundred and twenty-five days of work within the financial year; or

((cid:71)) the household of the applicant has earned as much from the wages and (cid:88)(cid:81)employment allowance taken together which is equal to the wages for (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:16)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The unemployment allowance payable to the household of an applicant jointly, shall be sanctioned and disbursed by the Programme Officer or such local authority (including the Panchayat at the District, intermediate or village level) as (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:73)(cid:17)

((cid:24)) Every payment of unemployment allowance under sub-section ((cid:20)), shall be made or offered not later than fifteen days from the date on which it became due (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:25)) The State Government may prescribe the procedure for the payment of

unemployment all(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

CHAPTER IV

IMPLEMENTING AND MONITORING AUTHORITIES

Central Gramin Rozgar Guarantee (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:17) 12(cid:17) ((cid:20)) With effect from such date as the Central Government may, by notification, appoint, there shall be constituted a Council to be (cid:78)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86) the(cid:3) Central Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Council to discharge the functions and perform (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The Central Council shall consist of Chairperson, representatives of Central Government and State Governments, not more than fifteen non-official members representing Panchayati Raj Institutions, organisations of workers and weaker section of the society and a Member-Secretary not below the rank of Joint (cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The composition, terms and conditions of appointment, tenure, and meeting procedures shall be such, as may be prescribed by the Central (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) The Central Council shall perform such functions, duties and advisory roles relating to evaluation, monitoring, implementation support and reporting under this Act(cid:15) as may be assigned to it by the Central Government, and the(cid:3) detailed functions, responsibilities and modalities of functioning shall be such, as (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

State Gramin Rozgar Guarantee (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:17) 13(cid:17) ((cid:20))(cid:3) For the purposes of regular monitoring and reviewing the implementation(cid:3) of the provisions of this Act at the State level, every State Government shall, by notification, constitute a State Council to be known as the State Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Council, consisting of a Chairperson and such number of official members as may be determined by the State Government and not more than fifteen non-official members nominated by the State Government from Panchayati Raj Institutions, organisations of workers and weaker section of the society:

Provided that not less than one-third of the non-official members nominated under this sub-section shall be women:

Provided further that not less than one-third of the non-official members shall belong to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The terms and conditions subject to which the Chairperson and members(cid:3) of the State Council may be appointed and the time, place and procedure of the meetings (including the quorum at such meetings) of the (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:11)(cid:22)(cid:12) The duties and functions of the State Council shall include—

(cid:11)(cid:68)(cid:12) advising the State Government on all matters concerning the Scheme and its implementation in the State;

((cid:69)) reviewing the monitoring and redressal mechanisms from time to

time and recommending improvements;

((cid:70)) monitoring the implementation of this Act and the Scheme in the

State and coordinating such implementation with the Central Council;

((cid:71)) preparing the annual report to be laid before the State Legislature by

the State Government;

((cid:72)) any other duty or function as may be assigned to it by the Central

Council or (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The State Council shall have the power to undertake an evaluation of the Scheme operating in the State and for that purpose to collect or cause to be collected statistics pertaining to the rural economy and the implementation of the Scheme and (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 National Level Steering (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

14(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The Central Government shall, by notification, constitute a National Level Steering Committee to recommend decisions relating to normative allocations to States and to advise on matters requiring inter-ministerial consultation, including convergence framework and to provide high level oversight for the effective (cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The National Level Steering Committee shall consist of such senior officials of the Central Government and such other members as may be determined by the Central Government, and the terms and conditions of their appointment shall (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The National Level Steering Committee shall—

((cid:68)) recommend decisions relating to normative allocations to States;

((cid:69)) recommend policy measures on matters requiring inter-ministerial

consultation, including convergence initiatives and frameworks;

((cid:70)) provide high level strategic oversight for effective implementation of

this Act;

((cid:71)) review performance of States and recommend corrective or

supportive measures;

((cid:72)) facilitate coordination among the Ministries and Departments of the Central Government and between the Central Government and State Governments for effective convergence and implementation of the provisions of this Act;

((cid:73)) advise on standards, guidelines, monitoring systems, digital and geospatial public infrastructure necessary for implementation of the provisions of this Act; and

((cid:74)) perform such other functions as may be assigned to it by the Central

(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

State Level Steering (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:17)

15(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The State Government shall, constitute a State Level Steering Committee to provide operational guidance, coordination, and monitor the implementation of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The State Level Steering Committee constituted under sub-section ((cid:20)), shall be presided over by the Chief Secretary of the State or by an officer not below the rank of Additional Chief Secretary nominated by the State Government and shall comprise of the following members(cid:15) namely:—

((cid:68)) Principal Secretary or Secretary of the respective Department;

((cid:69)) the Director or Commissioner (in-charge of the Scheme);

((cid:70)) Principal Secretaries or Secretaries of relevant Departments of the

State Government;

((cid:71)) such number of subject-matter experts, as may be determined by the

State Government;

((cid:72)) representatives of technical or research institutions; and

((cid:73)) one member nominated by the Department of Rural Development,

Ministry of Rural Development, Gov(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:17)

(cid:11)(cid:22)(cid:12) The State Level Steering Committee shall—

(cid:11)(cid:68)(cid:12) oversee State wide planning and convergence with other

programmes;

((cid:69)) review of district performance and ensure timely preparation of the

aggregate State plan;

No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9

((cid:70)) coordinate with the National Level Steering Committee and

implement directions issued therefrom;

((cid:71)) support digital systems, monitoring arrangements, and process

improvements at the State level; and

((cid:72)) perform such other functions as may be assigned to it by the State

(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

16(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The Panchayats at the district, intermediate and village levels shall be the principal authorities for planning, implementation and monitoring of the Scheme made under t(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Principal authorities for planning and implementation (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17) ((cid:21)) The Panchayat at the district level, shall oversee and coordinate implementation of the Scheme in the district, including finalisation and approval of the aggregate district level plan, supervision and monitoring of works, ensuring convergence, and perform such other functions as may be assigned to it by the State (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) The Panchayat at the intermediate level, shall prepare and finalise the

aggregate Block level plan, support Gram Panchayats in planning and implementation, supervise works at Gram Panchayat and Block levels, (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The Gram Panchayat shall register households, receive and process applications for work, prepare the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, execute the works assigned to it, maintain such records as may be specified by the State Government, (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

District Programme (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17) 17(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The District Collector or any officer of equivalent rank as the State Government may decide, shall be designated as the District Programme Coordinator (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The District Programme Coordinator shall be responsible for the implementation of the Scheme in the district in accordance with the provisions of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) The functions of the District Programme Coordinator shall be as follows,

namely:—

((cid:68)) the District Programme Coordinator shall be responsible for the consolidation and finalisation of the district aggregate plan and shall oversee convergence, implementation and monitoring of the Scheme at the district level in accordance with the provisions of this Act;

((cid:69)) the District Programme Coordinator shall ensure compliance with the provisions of this Act and with the directions and guidelines issued by the Central Government and the State Government, and shall accord such administrative sanctions and clearances as may be required for the timely and effective implementation of the Scheme, including those relating to digital, geospatial and monitoring systems;

((cid:70)) the District Programme Coordinator shall coordinate with Programme Officers, and shall review, monitor and supervise their performance using the monitoring framework, management information system and accountability mechanisms established under this Act and the Scheme;

((cid:71)) the District Programme Coordinator shall conduct periodic inspections of works undertaken under the Scheme, ensure adherence to quality and productivity standards, and shall redress the grievances of applicants through digital public infrastructure and designated grievance redressal systems in such manner as may be prescribed by the Central (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 ((cid:23)) The Programme Officer and all other officers of the State Government and local authorities and bodies functioning within the district, shall assist the District (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:24)) The District Programme Coordinator, shall prepare an aggregate plan for the district under his jurisdiction by consolidating the approved Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans and aggregated Block Plans and the proposals received from the Zila (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

Programme (cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

18(cid:17) ((cid:20)) At every Panchayat at intermediate level, the State Government shall appoint a person who is not below the rank of Block Development Officer with such qualifications and experience as may be determined by the State Government as (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The Programme Officer shall assist the Panchayat at the intermediate level

in discharging its functions under this Act a(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) The Programme Officer shall be responsible for matching the demand for employment with the employment opportunities arising from works in the area (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The Programme Officer shall prepare an aggregate plan for the Block under his jurisdiction by consolidating the approved Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:24)) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-section ((cid:21)), the functions of the

Programme Officer shall include—

((cid:68)) monitoring all works and projects undertaken by the Gram Panchayats and other implementing agencies within the Block, ensuring alignment with the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans;

((cid:69)) sanctioning and ensuring payment of unemployment allowance to

eligible households in accordance with the provisions of this Act;

((cid:70)) ensuring prompt and fair payment of wages to all labourers employed under the Scheme within the Block, including through digital and biometric authenticated payment systems, as may be specified by the Central Government;

((cid:71)) ensuring that regular social audits of all works within the jurisdiction of each Gram Panchayat are conducted by the Gram Sabha, and that timely and appropriate action is taken on objections and findings arising from such audits;

((cid:72)) dealing promptly with all complaints and grievances relating to the implementation of the Scheme within the Block, through the grievance redressal mechanisms established under sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 25 of this Act;

((cid:73)) ensuring the geo-tagging, digital recording, and management information system reporting of all works undertaken within the Block, and compliance with monitoring, productivity, and transparency framework, specified by the Central Government under this Act;

((cid:74)) facilitating inter-departmental convergence at the Block level to support saturation-driven planning and the execution of works under the Scheme; and

((cid:75)) any other function as may be assigned to him by the District

(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:25)) The Programme Officer shall perform his function under the direction,

control and superintendence of the District (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 11 (cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17) The Gram Panchayat shall be responsible for—

Responsibilities of Gram (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:68)(cid:12) registration of households and issuance of Gramin Rozgar Guarantee

Cards;

((cid:69)) receiving work applications and maintaining records of Gramin

Rozgar Guarantee Cards;

((cid:70)) preparing the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans;

((cid:71)) every Gram Panchayat shall, after considering the recommendations of the Gram Sabha and the Ward Sabhas, keeping in view of the demand for works, prepare a Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan on saturation basis;

((cid:72)) the Programme Officer shall (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72) works in terms of its cost under the Scheme to be implemented through the Gram Panchayats;

((cid:73)) the Programme Officer shall supply each Gram Panchayat with—

((cid:76)) the muster rolls for the works sanctioned to be executed by it;

((cid:76)(cid:76)) a list of employment opportunities available elsewhere to the

residents of the Gram Panchayat;

((cid:74)) the Gram Panchayat shall allocate employment opportunities among

the applicants and ask them to report for work;

((cid:75)) the works taken up by a Gram Panchayat under the Scheme, shall

meet the required technical standards and measurements;

(cid:11)(cid:76)(cid:12) executing works allotted to it by the Programme Officer; and

(cid:11)(cid:77)(cid:12) (cid:68) Gram Panchayat may take up any work under the Scheme from Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan within the area of the Gram Panchayat, as may (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

Social audit of works by Gram (cid:54)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:17) 20(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The Gram Sabha, shall monitor and review the execution of all works undertaken under the Scheme within the jurisdiction of the Gram Panchayat, in accordance with the provisions of t(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The Gram Sabha shall conduct regular social audits of all works taken up under the Scheme within the Gram Panchayat, in such manner as may be prescribed (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) The Gram Panchayat shall make available to the Gram Sabha all records and documents required for conduct of the social audit, including muster rolls, bills, vouchers, measurement books, sanction orders, digital records, geo-tagged photographs, and all other connected books of account and papers, whether (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:17)(cid:3)

21(cid:17) The State Government, shall provide the necessary staff and technical support to the District Programme Coordinator and the Programme Officer as may (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Responsibilities of State Government in implementing (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

CHAPTER V

NATURE OF THE SCHEME AND FUND SHARING PATTERN

22(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The Scheme implemented under this Act shall be a Centrally

(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Nature of Scheme and fund sharing (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:17) ((cid:21)) For the purposes of this Act, the fund(cid:3)sharing pattern between the Central Government and the State Governments shall be 90:10 for the North Eastern States, Himalayan States and Union territory (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:46)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:25)(cid:19)(cid:29)(cid:23)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)12 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 ((cid:22)) For the Union territories without legislature, the Central Government shall bear the entire expenses of the Scheme in the manner as may be prescribed by the (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The Central Government shall determine the State-wise normative allocation for each financial year, based on objective parameters as may be (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:24)) Any expenditure incurred by a State in excess of its normative allocation shall be borne by the State Government in such manner and procedure as may be (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:25)) In accordance with the State-wise normative allocation determined under

this Act, the share of the Central Government shall include expenditure towards—

((cid:68)) payment of wages for unskilled, semi-skilled and skilled labour

employed under the Scheme;

((cid:69)) the material component of works, subject to the provisions in

Schedule I;

((cid:70)) such administrative expenses as may be specified by the Central Government, including salary and allowances of Programme Officers and supporting staff, administrative expenses of the Central Council, facilities required under Schedule II, and such other items as may be prescribed by the (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:26)) In accordance with the State-wise normative allocation determined under

this Act, the share of the State Government shall include expenditure towards—

((cid:68)) payment of wages for unskilled, semi-skilled and skilled labour

employed under the Scheme;

((cid:69)) the material component of works, subject to the provisions in

Schedule I;

((cid:70)) such administrative expenses as may be specified by the Central Government, including salary and allowances of Programme Officers and supporting staff, administrative expenses of the State Council, facilities required under Schedule II, and such other items as may be prescribed by the (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:27)) The State Government, shall bear the expenditure towards unemployment (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CHAPTER VI

TRANSPARENCY AND ACCOUNTABILITY

Transparency and (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

23(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The District Programme Coordinator and all implementing agencies in the district shall be responsible for the proper utilisation and management of the funds (cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The manner of maintaining proper books and accounts relating to the employment of labourers and the expenditure incurred in connection with the implementation of the provisions of this Act, shall be such, as may be prescribed by (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) The State Government may determine the arrangements to be made for the proper execution of works under the Scheme and to ensure transparency and (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) All payments of wages and unemployment allowances shall be made directly to the person concerned in such manner, as may be prescribed by the Central (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 13 ((cid:24)) If any dispute or complaint arises concerning the implementation of the (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

((cid:25)) The Programme Officer shall enter every dispute or complaint in a complaint register maintained by him and shall dispose of such dispute or complaint within a period of seven days of its receipt; and where the matter relates to any other authority, (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

24(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72) foregoing provisions, transparency and accountability

in the implementation of the provisions of this Act, shall be ensured through—

((cid:68)) biometric authentication of workers, functionaries, and transactions,

Technology- enabled transparency and public (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17) in such manner(cid:15) as may be specified by the Central Government;

((cid:69)) geospatial technology(cid:16)enabled planning, including geo-referencing, satellite imagery, digital mapping of works, and other approved spatial technologies, as may be specified by the Central Government;

((cid:70)) mobile application(cid:16)based and dashboard-based monitoring systems providing real-time visibility of demand, works, workforce deployment, payments, progress and other indicators, as may be specified by the Central Government;

((cid:71)) weekly public disclosure systems, including digital and physical disclosure of key metrics, muster rolls, payments, sanctions, inspections and grievances, as may be specified by the Central Government;

((cid:72)) strengthening of the social audit mechanism, and the adoption of such(cid:3) other technology-enabled systems(cid:15) as may be prescribed by the (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Grievance redressal (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:80)(cid:17) 25(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The State Government shall, determine a time-bound and multi-tier grievance redressal mechanism at the Block level and the District level for dealing with any complaint made by any person in respect of implementation of the Scheme and lay down the procedure for disposal of such complaints in such manner(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) These mechanisms shall address grievances related to applicants, which

include,—

((cid:68)) failure of the Gram Panchayat or Programme Officer to provide employment within the stipulated period referred to in sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 11;

((cid:69)) non-payment or delayed payment of wages;

((cid:70)) non-payment of unemployment allowance;

((cid:71)) lack of specified worksite facilities as specified in Schedule II;

((cid:72)) discrimination, harassment, or violation of worker rights, including

those (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Audit of (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17) 26(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The Central Government may(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81) consultation with (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) and Auditor(cid:16)General of India, appropriate arrangements for(cid:3) audits of the accounts of the Schemes at all (cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The accounts of the Scheme shall be maintained in such form and in such

manner(cid:15) as may (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

CHAPTER VII

MISCELLANEOUS

27(cid:17) Whoever contravenes any provision of this Act, shall be liable to pay the Penalties for (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17) penalty which may extend to t(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)14 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 Power to (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

28(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The Central Government may, by notification, direct that the powers exercisable by it (excluding the power to make rules) may, in such circumstances and subject to such conditions and limitations, be exercisable also by the State Government or such officer subordinate to the Central Government or the State (cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The State Government may, by notification, direct that the powers exercisable by it (excluding the power to make rules and Schemes) may, in such circumstances and subject to such conditions and limitations, be exercisable also by (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Power of Central Government to (cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

29(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The Central Government may give such directions as it may consider necessary to the State Government for the effective implementation of the provisions of(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section ((cid:20)), the Central Government may, on receipt of any complaint regarding any issue or improper utilisation of funds granted under this Act in respect of any Scheme, if (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72) satisfied that there is a case, cause an investigation into the complaint made by any agency designated by it and if necessary, order stoppage of release of funds to the Scheme and institute appropriate remedial measures for its proper implementation (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Act to have overriding (cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

30(cid:17) The provisions of this Act or the Scheme made thereunder shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or in any instrument having effect by virtue of such law:

Provided that where a State Act exists or is enacted to provide employment guarantee for unskilled manual work to rural households consistent with the provisions of this Act under which the guarantee of the households is not less than and the conditions of employment are not inferior to what is guaranteed under this Act, the State Government shall have the option of implementing its own enactment:

Provided further that in such cases the financial assistance shall be paid to the concerned State Government in such manner as shall be determined by the Central Government, which shall not exceed what the State would have been entitled to receive under t(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)

31(cid:17) ((cid:20)) If the Central Government is satisfied that it is necessary or expedient

Power to amend (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

to do so, it may, by notification, amend (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) (cid:40)very notification issued under sub-section ((cid:20)) shall be laid(cid:3)before each

House of (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Protection of action taken in (cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:17)

(cid:23)(cid:24)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)(cid:3) 32(cid:17) No suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall lie against the District Programme Coordinator, Programme Officer or any other person who is, or who is deemed to be, a public servant within the meaning of clause ((cid:21)(cid:27)) of section 2 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in respect of anything which is in good faith done (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)

33(cid:17) ((cid:20)) The Central Government shall, by notification, and subject to the condition of previous publication, make rules to carry out the provisions of this (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Power of Central Government to (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing

power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

((cid:68)) State-wise normative allocation for each financial year, based on

objective parameters under sub-section ((cid:24)) of section 4;

((cid:69)) manner and procedure to bear the excess expenditure and its

parameters under sub-section ((cid:25)) of section 4;

((cid:70)) the composition, terms and conditions of appointment, tenure and

procedure of meeting under sub-section ((cid:22)) of section 12;

No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 15

((cid:71)) the detailed functions, responsibilities and modalities under

sub-section ((cid:23)) of section 12;

((cid:72)) terms and conditions of appointment of officials of National Level

Steering Committee under sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 14;

((cid:73)) manner to redress the grievance under clause ((cid:71)) of sub-section ((cid:22)) of

section 17;

((cid:74)) manner of conducting social audit by Gram Sabha under

sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 20;

((cid:75)) manner to bear the expenses of Scheme under sub-section ((cid:22)) of

section 22;

((cid:76)) objective parameters to determine the State-wise normative allocation

under sub-section ((cid:23)) of section 22;

((cid:77)) manner and procedure to bear the excess expenditure under

sub-section ((cid:24)) of section 22;

((cid:78)) other items under clause ((cid:70)) of sub-section ((cid:25)) of section 22;

((cid:79)) other items under clause ((cid:70)) of sub-section ((cid:26)) of section 22;

((cid:80)) manner of payments of wages and unemployment allowances under

sub-section ((cid:23)) of section 23;

((cid:81)) social audit mechanism, and the adoption of such other

technology-enabled systems under clause ((cid:72)) of section 24;

((cid:82)) manner to lay down the procedure for disposal of complaints under

sub-section ((cid:20)) of section 25;

((cid:83)) the manner of transfer and vesting under sub-section ((cid:24)) of section 37;

((cid:84)) any other matter which is to be, or prescribed or in respect of which

(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Power of State Government to (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17) 34(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) The State Government may, by notification, and subject to the condition of previous publication, and consistent with the provisions of this Act and the rules (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) In particular, and without prejudice of the foregoing power, such rules may

provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

((cid:68)) terms and conditions of eligibility under sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 11;

((cid:69)) the procedure for payment of unemployment allowance under

sub-section ((cid:25)) of section 11;

((cid:70)) terms, conditions, time, place and procedure of meeting and quorum

under sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 13;

((cid:71)) expenditure towards unemployment allowance and delay

compensation under sub-section ((cid:27)) of section 22;

((cid:72)) manner of maintaining proper books and accounts under

sub-section ((cid:21)) of section 23;

((cid:73)) form and manner to maintain the accounts of the Scheme under

sub-section ((cid:21)) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:25)(cid:30)

((cid:74))(cid:3)any other matter which is to be, or prescribed or in respect of which(cid:3) provision is to be made by the State Government, for carrying out the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

Laying of rules (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17) 35(cid:17)(cid:3)((cid:20)) Every rule made by the Central Government under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or both Houses agree that the rule should not be made, the rule shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 ((cid:21)) Every rule or Scheme made by the State Government under this Act shall, as soon as may be after it is made, be laid before each House of the State Legislature where there are two Houses, and where there is one House of the State Legislature, (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)

Power to remove (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

36(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as appear to it to be necessary or exped(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) No order shall be made under this section after the expiry of three years

(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) Every order made under this section shall, as soon as may be after it is

made, be laid before each House (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

Repeal, savings and transitional p(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:17) 37(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) Save as provided in section 10, on and from such date as the Central Government may by notification appoint in this behalf (hereinafter referred to as the appointed date), the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, together with all rules, notifications, Schemes, orders and guidelines (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything duly done or any action taken under the repealed Act, including any notification issued, scheme sanctioned, employment generated, muster roll prepared, wage liability accrued, or proceeding initiated, shall, in so far as it is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, be deemed to have been done, taken, issued, sanctioned, accrued or incurred under the corresponding provisions of this Act, as if this Act had been in force at all (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) All appointments, engagements, authorisations, approvals and administrative arrangements made under the repealed Act and continuing immediately before the appointed date shall, unless inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, continue to be valid and in force until they are altered, superseded or (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) All inquiries, investigations, audits and legal proceedings pending immediately before the appointed date shall be continued, heard and disposed of as if the repealed Act had not been repealed, and such proceedings shall not abate by (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)

((cid:24)) All assets, liabilities, records, funds and obligations arising under, or relating to, the repealed Act shall stand transferred to and vest in the authorities constituted under this Act and shall be dealt with in such manner as may be (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 17

SCHEDULE I

[See section 8(3(cid:12)(cid:64)

Minimum features of Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission

(Gramin): VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) Scheme

(cid:20)(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:27)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71) the "Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin): VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) Scheme" and all documents pertaining to the said Scheme shall have a mention of the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin): VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:21)(cid:17) All Scheme documents pertaining to the said Scheme shall have a mention of the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin): VB—G RAM G ((cid:302)(cid:281)(cid:248)(cid:302)(cid:285)(cid:263) (cid:272)(cid:301)(cid:275)(cid:263)—(cid:255)(cid:305) (cid:275)(cid:301)(cid:273) (cid:255)(cid:305)) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)

(cid:22)(cid:17) The core objectives of the Scheme shall be as follows:—(a) The primary objective of this Act is to align the rural development framework with the national vision of Viksit Bharat @2047 by providing an enhanced statutory wage- employment guarantee of one hundred and twenty-five days in each financial year to such rural households whose adult members volunteer to undertake unskilled manual work, thereby enabling them to participate more effectively in the expanded (cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(b) To focus on empowerment, growth, convergence and saturation through public works aggregating into forming Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack, with a thematic focus on water security through water-related works, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure and special works to mitigate extr(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

seasons, and, in view of the wage-employment guarantee for the rural w(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(d) To institutionalise convergence, saturation-driven planning and whole of government delivery through Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, integrated with the PM Gati Shakti to address the varying needs of Gram Panchayats, powered by geospatial systems, digital public infrastructure, district and State planning mechanisms, with (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(e) To modernise governance, accountability and citizen engagement through a comprehensive digital ecosystem, including biometric authentication at various levels, global positioning system or mobile based worksite monitoring, real time management information system dashboards, proactive public disclosures and the use (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:23)(cid:17) Works under the Scheme—(1) Focus of the Scheme—Classification of Works: The Scheme shall focus on the following categories of works, as identified in the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans and aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National (cid:53)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(2) For the purposes of section 4 of the Act, the works to be taken up under the Scheme, shall fall under the following Categories, together with their thematic focus and intended outcomes, namely:—

(a) Category I—Water-Related Works (for Water Security)—

18 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37

(A) The focus shall include conservation, irrigation, groundwater recharge, source sustainability, rejuvenation of water bodies, watershed development and afforestation and the Illustrative works include—

(i) construction of canals, flood or diversion channels, check

dams, gully plugs and underground dykes;

(ii) construction or rejuvenation of ponds, percolation tanks, recharge pits, recharge shafts, injection wells and associated water harvesting structures;

(iii) irrigation open wells, micro-irrigation channels and field

water distribution systems;

(iv) reclamation of community waterlogged land;

(v) afforestation and plantation works linked with soil and

moisture conservation; and

(vi) rooftop rainwater harvesting and other decentralised

(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(B) Intended Outcomes—Strengthening of water security through integrated water resource management, recharge and conservation for long-(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(b) Category II—Core Rural Infrastructure—

(A) Thematic focus shall include core civic, social, governance and service-delivery infrastructure relating to education, health, drinking water, sanitation, connectivity, renewable energy and community services and the Illustrative works include—

(i) construction or upgradation of rural roads, culverts, cross-

drainage structures and village connectivity facilities;

(ii) construction of Gram Panchayat Bhawans, Anganwadi

centres, rural libraries and other public buildings;

(iii) construction of school infrastructure, including kitchen sheds, additional classrooms, laboratories, compound walls and playgrounds;

(iv) crematoria and community infrastructure;

(v) solid and liquid waste management assets, including stabilising ponds, community sanitary complexes, and waste segregation and collection centres;

(vi) installation of solar lighting systems and other renewable

rural energy infrastructure;

(vii) village parking areas, transport sheds and other common

rural amenities;

(viii) rural housing works permissible under the schemes of

the Central Government, including those permitted under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana—Gramin; (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)

(ix) repair and maintenance of works created under the Jal

Jeevan Mission for ensuring water suppl(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(B) Intended Outcome—Creation of foundational civic and social infrastructure ensuring basic amenities, improved service access and (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:17)

No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 19

((cid:36)) Thematic focus shall include productive assets and facilities that enhance rural livelihoods through agriculture, livestock, fisheries, value addition, skilling and enterprise development and the Illustrative works include—

((cid:76)) construction of training-cum-skill development centres

and work sheds for livelihood activities;

((cid:76)(cid:76)) rural haats or weekly markets and other market

infrastructure;

((cid:76)(cid:76)(cid:76)) food grain storage buildings, agricultural produce storage structures, cold storage units and other agri-value chain infrastructure;

((cid:76)(cid:89)) buildings for Self Help Groups and federation-level

institutions;

((cid:89)) compost structures, including vermicompost and NADEP

units;

((cid:89)(cid:76)) development of silvipasture grasslands, dairy infrastructure and shelters for cattle, goats, pigs, poultry and other livestock;

((cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:76)) fisheries-related infrastructure, including fish drying

yards;

((cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:76)(cid:76)) raising of nurseries and production of building material;

and

((cid:76)(cid:91)) Integrated projects promoting circular and cyclical (cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:37)) Intended Outcome—Strengthening of sustainable livelihoods, value addition, enterprise development and self-(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:71)) Category IV—Special works to mitigate Extreme Weather Events

and Disaster Preparedness—

((cid:36)) Thematic focus shall include disaster risk reduction, climate adaptation, and protection of rural communities and assets from floods, cyclones, storms, droughts, landslides, forest fires and other extreme weather events and the Illustrative works include—

((cid:76)) construction of cyclone shelters, flood shelters and

multipurpose disaster resilient structures;

((cid:76)(cid:76)) construction of diversion channels, embankments

and other disaster-mitigation works;

((cid:76)(cid:76)(cid:76)) stabilising ponds and water structures for flood

management;

((cid:76)(cid:89)) post-disaster rehabilitation, restoration and repair

of rural roads and community assets;

((cid:89)) windbreak and shelterbelt plantations; and

((cid:89)(cid:76)) forest fire management works, including fire

(cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:93)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

20 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37

((cid:37)) Intended Outcome—Creation of climate-resilient

(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:22)(cid:12) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) Maintenance of rural public assets created under the Act(cid:17)

((cid:24)) Works for individual beneficiaries, including but not limited to housing- related works under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana—Gramin, sanitation-related works, and other beneficiary-oriented developmental works undertaken under various schemes of the Central Government from time to time and expressly notified (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) beneficiaries shall be as notified by the Central Government, aligned with the eligibility criteria specified under the respective Central Government schemes, with all such works conforming to the norms, standards and guidelines issued by the (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:25)) Without prejudice to the generality of the above, works creating individual assets as notified by the Central Government shall be prioritised on land or homestead owned by households belonging to—

((cid:68)) the Scheduled Castes;

((cid:69)) the Scheduled Tribes;

((cid:70)) nomadic tribes;

((cid:71)) denotified tribes;

((cid:72)) economically weaker sections of the society as identified based on

criteria notified by the Central Government;

(cid:11)(cid:73)(cid:12) women-headed households;

(cid:11)(cid:74)(cid:12) households headed by persons with disabilities;

(cid:11)(cid:75)(cid:12) beneficiaries of land reforms;

(cid:11)(cid:76)(cid:12) beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana—(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)

(PMAY-G); and

((cid:77)) beneficiaries under the Scheduled Tribes and Other

(cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:39)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:11)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:12)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:3) (2 of 2007), and

after exhausting the eligible beneficiaries under the above categories, works may be taken up on the lands of small or marginal farmers as identified on the basis of criteria notified by the Central Government, subject to such conditions as may be notified by the Central Government, including the requirement that such households possess a valid job card and have at least one adult member willing to work on the (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:24)(cid:17) (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)the Scheme:—((cid:20)) All Central, State or local schemes, as may be notified by the Central Government for the purpose of convergence and saturation-based planning, shall be brought under a unified (cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:76)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) There shall be a systematic and participatory planning exercise undertaken at each tier of the Panchayati Raj system in accordance with (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:57)(cid:76)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72) prepared by the Gram Panchayats using GIS-based tools, PM Gati Shakti layers and other digital public infrastructure, and placed before the Gram Sabha forNo. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 21 (cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) to be undertaken by the Intermediate Panchayat, District Panchayat or other implementing agencies shall likewise be placed before (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:76)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3) Gram Panchayat Plans shall be aggregated at the Block, District and State levels to ensure coherence with sectoral priorities, broader rural development strategies, and saturation-based planning for comprehensive coverage of eligible assets and (cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:76)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3) Panchayat Plans shall be consolidated into the Viksit Bharat—National Rural (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:17)

(3) Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan—Every Gram Panchayat shall prepare saturation-(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:37)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:17)(cid:15)(cid:3) determined based on development parameters, including proximity to urban areas, (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86) shall be drawn exclusively from the approved Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan, prepared using PM Gati Shakti, GIS-(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(4) The works identified in the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans shall be executed through various (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:25)(cid:17) (cid:41)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)—A Unified Convergence Framework shall be established for coherent planning, execution and monitoring of all works undertaken in rural areas, and for this purpose—

(1)(cid:3)All Central, State or local schemes, as may be notified by the Central(cid:3) Government for the purpose of convergence and saturation-based planning, shall be brought under a unified planning process anchored in the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans(cid:17)

(2)(cid:3) All existing assets and proposed works, whether funded under this(cid:3) Act or through any other Central, State or local scheme, shall be mandatorily registered and tracked through the Viksit Bharat—National Rural Infrastructure Stack using the designated digital portal, which shall maintain a comprehensive register of rural public works, prevent duplication, integrate (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(3)(cid:3) The Ministry of Rural Development shall prepare and periodically(cid:3) update the management information system, a nationally harmonised, single digital backbone for rural public works covering water security, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure, and special works to mitigate extreme weather events; and all planning shall follow a strict bottom-up process beginning with the preparation of the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan, which shall be successively aggregated at the Block, District and State levels, and the aggregated State Plan shall be placed before the State Level Steering (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(4)(cid:3)Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack shall guide States,(cid:3) Districts and Panchayati Raj Institutions in identifying priority infrastructure gaps, standardising work designs, and ensuring that public investments contribute measurably to saturation outcomes at the Gram Panchayat, Block (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(5)(cid:3) This institutional architecture shall ensure a single-plan,(cid:3) multi-funding approach, promote convergence across departments and schemes, and align all rural development efforts with the Viksit Bharat (cid:35)2047(cid:3) (cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)22 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (cid:26)(cid:17) Intra-State distribution of normative Allocation—The State Government shall, upon receipt of the approved normative allocation from the Central Government, ensure equitable, need-based and transparent intra-State distribution of the allocation across districts and Gram Panchayats, taking into consideration the categorisation of Gram Panchayats and the assessed local needs for determining Gram Panchayat-wise allocations and corresponding district allocations; and the detailed methodology, parameters and procedural (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:27)(cid:17) Completion of Ongoing Works—At the time of opening new works, it shall(cid:3)be ensured that ongoing or incomplete works are prioritised for completion, (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:76)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:28)(cid:17) Technical Estimates and Standards for Works—Every work under this Act shall have a technical estimate and design sanctioned by an authority authorised by the State Government, based on the framework aligned with the Viksit Bharat (cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:19)(cid:17) For works involving construction, appropriate labour-intensive technologies, depending upon the availability of labour and the use of local (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:17) Bills of quantities shall use clear and commonly understood terminology

to ensure transparency for all (cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:21)(cid:17) Each work shall have a summary of the estimate, design and a technical

(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:20)(cid:22)(cid:17) All technical estimates, designs and outcome notes shall be generated or uploaded through digital systems integrated with the designated management (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:20)(cid:23)(cid:17) Administrative and Financial Sanctions—(1) Works finalised at the Gram(cid:3) Panchayat level through the approved Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan and aggregated at the Block and District levels shall be accorded administrative or financial sanction by the competent authority as per the requirements and within (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(2) The sanctioning authorities shall ensure that—

(a) the proposed works are drawn exclusively from the approved Viksit

Gram Panchayat Plan;

(b) the works are consistent with thematic domains, and the Viksit

Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack;

(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:24)(cid:17) (cid:48)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)—The muster rolls for works undertaken under this Act shall be maintained through digital systems and shall comply with the following requirements—

(a) Each muster roll shall be in English and the local language and have a unique electronically generated identity number (e-muster) issued through (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) of all workers who have demanded or been allocated work and shall be authenticated by the authorised functionary of the Gram Panchayat or the (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

(b) Attendance at the worksite shall be recorded daily by an authorised person using biometric attendance systems, and all attendance details shall be made available for public viewing on a daily basis through the designated (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 23 ((cid:70)) e-Muster rolls shall be processed by officials in the manner stipulated

(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:25)(cid:17) Measurement and Basis for Payment—((cid:20)) Payment of wages shall only be made based on measurements taken at the worksite by authorised technical personnel within three days of the closure of the muster roll, and recorded digitally through systems integrated w(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The State Government shall ensure the deployment of adequate technical (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) deployed, with delegated technical responsibilities, and shall be paid wages at (cid:86)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:17) (cid:58)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:47)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:78)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)—The State Government shall ensure that wages without any gender bias are linked to the quantum of work completed, in accordance with the Rural Schedule of Rates notified on the basis of time-and-motion studies for different types of work and different seasons, and (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17) (cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:86)—A separate Schedule of Rates shall be finalised for women, the elderly, persons with disabilities and persons with debilitating ailments to facilitate their productive participation in (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)

(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17) (cid:58)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)—((cid:68)) The Schedule of Rates shall be framed so that an adult person working for eight hours, inclusive of one hour of rest, (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

((cid:69)) Working hours of an adult worker may be flexible but shall not extend

(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:92)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17) (cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)—For all works undertaken under this Act, the cost

(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17) (cid:40)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:58)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:86)—((cid:20)) No contractor shall be engaged for the execution of any work or component financed through expenditure under this (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:36)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) accordance with the processes laid down under the Act, including mandatory (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) In cases of convergence where components of a work are financed under other schemes, the execution of those components may follow the norms of the (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)gramme implementation agencies shall be performed by using manual labour and no labour displacing (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:86)—All materials required for the execution of works shall be procured by the Gram Panchayat or the implementing agency through transparent procurement systems, including e-tendering processes, (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:23)(cid:17) (cid:50)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87) one-third shall be utilised at the Gram Panchayat level to employ and pay the Gram Rozgar Sahayak, other technical personnel as per the work done and for other (cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)—((cid:20)) Every Scheme prepared under this Act shall contain comprehensive provisions to ensure transparency and accountability at all levels of implementation, including Mandatory Public Disclosure and social audit(cid:17)24 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (2) Mandatory Public Disclosure—(a) Mandatory Public disclosure shall be undertaken through digital systems integrated with the designated management (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:17)

(b) Display at every worksite a "Janata Board" indicating details of the work, estimated labour days, material quantities in local terminology, and (cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:16)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(c) Digital and physical display of number of days of employment provided, wage payments, material payments, guarantees under the Act, works approved under the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan, and year-wise works taken up or completed (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(d) Public disclosure of all information relating to works, labour demand, employment provided, payments, material utilisation and physical progress under this Act shall be carried out through digital systems integrated with the designated (cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:78)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3) shall convene weekly disclosure meetings in the Gram Panchayat Bhawan to present the status of works, payments, grievances and other relevant information (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(e) The Ministry of Rural Development and the State Departments shall ensure(cid:3) that their official websites are regularly updated in compliance with clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (22 of 2005), with all information on the Act available in free, downloadable (cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(3) Social audit—(a) all works, expenditures and guarantees under this Act shall be subject to social audit at least once every six months in the manner as may be prescribed by the Central Government;

(b) the procedure, standards and modalities for conducting social audits shall

be as prescribed in the rules made under this Act;

(c) until such rules are notified, the provisions of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011 shall, mutatis mutandis(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(4) Concurrent evaluation mechanism—For ensuring measurable outcomes and real-time accountability, technology-enabled monitoring shall be mandated for tracking work execution and post-completion asset outcomes, (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:58)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:78)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3) (cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)(cid:3) A Concurrent Evaluation Mechanism, as may be specified by the Central Government through guidelines, shall provide continuous vigilance and enable (cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:21)(cid:25)(cid:17) Recovery of misappropriated amounts—(1) Any misappropriation of amounts spent under the Act shall be recoverable under the relevant revenue laws (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(2) The portion of such recoveries pertaining to the Central share shall be remitted to the Consolidated Fund of India through the mechanism established by (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 25 (cid:21)(cid:26)(cid:17) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:52)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)—The State Government shall ensure regular inspection and supervision of works by designated quality-control teams to verify adherence to quality standards, accuracy of measurements and conformity of (cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:17)

(cid:21)(cid:27)(cid:17) (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:48)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:80)—An effective grievance redressal mechanism shall be established under the Act, comprising the following components, namely:—

((cid:68)) Institutional mechanisms for receiving grievances at the Ward, Gram Panchayat, Block and District levels, with at least one designated day each week when officials shall be mandatorily available to receive grievances;

((cid:69)) Issuance of a dated acknowledgement for all grievances submitted in

writing, telephonically, online, or orally to any authorised functionary;

((cid:70)) Enquiry through spot verification or inspection and disposal shall be

completed within seven working days of receipt of the grievance;

((cid:71)) Upon completion of the enquiry, the concerned authority shall initiate immediate corrective action, and the grievance shall be resolved within fifteen days;

((cid:72)) Failure to dispose of a grievance within seven working days at the level determined, shall be treated as a contravention of the provisions of this Act and shall attract action in accordance with section 27 or any corresponding provision of this Act;

((cid:73)) Where (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72) evidence of financial irregularity is revealed during preliminary enquiry or through findings of the social audit report, the District Programme Coordinator shall, after obtaining legal advice, ensure that a First Information Report is lodged and necessary proceedings initiated;

((cid:74)) The concerned authority shall inform the complainant in writing, physically or digitally, of the conclusions of the enquiry and the steps taken for redressal;

((cid:75)) Action taken on grievances received by all implementing agencies shall be placed before the meetings of the Intermediate Panchayat and the District Panchayat for review and monitoring;

((cid:76)) Appeals against the orders of the Gram Panchayat shall lie before the Programme Officer; appeals against the orders of the Programme Officer shall lie before the District Programme Coordinator; appeals against the orders of the District Programme Coordinator shall lie before the State Grievance Redressal Authority or any officer designated by the State Government;

((cid:77)) All appeals shall be filed within forty-five days from the date of the

order;

((cid:78)) All appeals shall be disposed of within thirty days from the date of

receipt;

((cid:79)) Any grievance not resolved within fifteen days at the Ward, Gram Panchayat, Block or District level shall be automatically escalated to the next higher level through digital systems integrated with the designated management information system, and such escalations shall be continuously monitored el(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:17)26 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:17) (cid:50)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)—The State Government shall appoint an Ombudsperson for each District to receive grievances, conduct enquiries and issue awards in (cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) The Ombudsperson shall operate through digital platforms integrated with the (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)

(cid:22)(cid:19)(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)—Wherever contravention of any provision of this Act is established after due enquiry by the State Government, the District Programme Coordinator, the Programme Officer, the Ombudsperson or any other authority authorised by the State Government, action shall be taken in accordance (cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:26)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:22)(cid:20)(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)—The District Programme Coordinator, the Programme Officer and each Gram Panchayat shall prepare an annual report detailing facts, figures and achievements relating to the implementation of the Scheme within their (cid:77)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)de available to the public in physical (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

(cid:22)(cid:21)(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)rson desirous of obtaining a copy or relevant extracts therefrom may be provided such copies or extracts on (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

(cid:22)(cid:22)(cid:17) (cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:37)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3) (cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:86)—There shall be a dedicated plan for training, Information Education Communication, digital literacy (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:68)(cid:77)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 27

SCHEDULE II

[(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:72) section 9((cid:21)(cid:12)(cid:64)

(cid:20)(cid:17) (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)in Rozgar Guarantee Card—((cid:20)) Household Registration—The adult member of every household residing in any rural area and willing to undertake unskilled manual work, may submit the names, ages and address of the household to the Gram Panchayat within whose jurisdiction they reside, for the purpose of registration of the household and issuance of a Gramin (cid:53)(cid:82)(cid:93)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) Special Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card, where the job seeker is—

((cid:68)) a single woman; or

((cid:69)) a person with disability; or

((cid:70)) persons above sixty years of age; or

((cid:71)) a released bonded labourer; or

((cid:72)) a person belonging to a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group; or

((cid:73)(cid:12) (cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

((cid:22)) The Special Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card of a distinct colour, shall ensure special protection in the providing work, work evaluation, and worksite facilities, as applicable(cid:17)

((cid:23)) It shall be the duty of the Gram Panchayat, after making such enquiry, as it deems fit, to issue a Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card within fifteen days from the date of receipt of such application, containing therein a unique Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card number with details of the registered adult members of the household, their photos, Bank or Post office account number, insurance policy number and the Aadhaar numbers, (cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:24)) The Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card issued, shall be valid for three years,

(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:25)) No Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card shall be cancelled except on any of the

following grounds—

((cid:68)) where it is found to be a duplicate;

((cid:69)) where the entire household has permanently migrated to a place outside the jurisdiction of the Gram Panchayat and no longer resides in the village; or

((cid:70)) where all adult members of the registered household are deceased(cid:17)

((cid:26)) The State Government shall make arrangements for updating the following details in the (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)Rozgar Guarantee Card regularly while mentioning the key guarantees under the Act are clearly listed as follows:—

((cid:68)) number of days for which work was demanded;

((cid:69)) number of days of work allocated;

((cid:70)) description of the work allocated along with the muster roll number;

((cid:71)) measurement details;

((cid:72)) unemployment allowance, if any, paid;

((cid:73)) date-wise amount of wages paid;

((cid:74)) delay compensation paid if any;

((cid:75)(cid:12) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:17)28 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (cid:21)(cid:17) (cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)—((cid:20)) Every adult member of a registered household whose name appears in the Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card, shall be entitled to apply for unskilled manual work under the Scheme; and every such application shall be compulsorily registered, and a receipt issued with the date, which shall be entered (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The State shall proactively verify the requirements of the Vulnerable

(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) Application for work may be oral or written and made to the Ward member or to the Gram Panchayat or to the Programme Officer or any person authorised by the State Government or through digital platforms, or through any other means (cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) Applications for work may (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

((cid:24)) There shall be no limit on the number of days of employment for which a person may apply, or on the number of days of employment actually provided to (cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:77)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:25)) Normally, applications for work must be for at least six days of continuous

work(cid:17)

((cid:26)) Provision shall be made in the Scheme for advance application, that is, application which may be submitted earlier than the date from which employment (cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:27)) Provision shall be made in the Scheme for submission of multiple applications by the same person provided that the corresponding periods for which (cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:22)(cid:17) (cid:36)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)—((cid:20)) The Gram Panchayat and Programme Officer shall ensure that every applicant shall be provided unskilled manual work in accordance with the provisions of the Scheme within fifteen days of receipt of an application or the date from which he seeks work in case of advance application, (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) Priority shall be given to women in such a way that at least one-third of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:17)(cid:3) Efforts to increase participation of single women and the person with disabilities (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) Applicants who are provided with work shall be so intimated in writing, by means of a letter sent to him at the address given in the (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81) Rozgar(cid:3)Guarantee Card or through any other effective mode of communication or by a public notice displayed at the office of the Panchayats at district, (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)

((cid:23))(cid:3)A list of persons who are provided with the work shall be displayed on the(cid:3) notice board of the Gram Panchayat and at the office of the Programme Officer and at such other place as the Programme Officer may deem necessary and the list shall (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)

((cid:24))(cid:3)As far as possible, the employment shall be provided within a radius of(cid:3)

five kilometers of the village where the applicant resides at the time of appl(cid:92)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:17)(cid:3)No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 29 ((cid:25)) A new work under the Scheme can be commenced if at least ten labourers become available for work, provided that this condition shall not be applicable for new works, as determined by the State Government, in hilly areas and in respect of afforestation wo(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:26)) In case the employment is provided outside the radius specified in sub-paragraph ((cid:24)) of paragraph 3, it shall be provided within the Block, and the labourers shall be paid ten per cent(cid:17) of the wage rate as extra wages to meet additiona(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:27)) A period of employment shall be for at least six days continuously, with

(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:91)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:78)(cid:17)

(cid:23)(cid:17) (cid:58)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)—((cid:20)) For the purpose of transparency at the

worksite, the following shall be ensured—

((cid:68)) there shall be a project initiation meeting in which various provisions

of the work shall be explained to the workers;

((cid:69)) a copy of the sanction work order shall be available for public

inspection at the worksite;

((cid:70)) measurement record of each work and details of the workers shall be

available for public inspection;

((cid:71)) (cid:68) Citizens' Information Board shall be put up at every worksite and

updated regularly in the manner specified by the Central Government;

((cid:72)) (cid:87)he vigilance and Monitoring Committee set up according to the instructions of the Central Government may check all works and its evaluation report will be recorded in the Works Register in the format specified by the Central Government and submitted to the Gram Sabha during the Social A(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) The facilities of safe drinking water, shade for children and periods of rest, first aid box with adequate material for emergency treatment for minor injuries and other health hazards connected with the work being performed shall be provided at (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) In case the number of children below the age of five years accompanying the women working at any site is five or more, provisions shall be made to depute (cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:78)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:3)

(cid:24)(cid:17) Welfare—((cid:20)) If any personal injury is caused to any person employed under the Scheme by any accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, he (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21)) Where hospitalisation of the injured worker is necessary, the State Government shall arrange for such hospitalisation including accommodation, treatment, medicines and payment of daily allowance which is not less than half of (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) If a person employed under the Scheme meets with death or becomes permanently disabled by accident arising out of and in the course of employment, he or his legal heirs, as the case may be, shall be paid by the implementing agency an (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:3)as per entitlement under the (cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:60)(cid:82)(cid:77)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)

((cid:23)) If any personal injury is caused by accident to a child accompanying a person who is employed under the Scheme, such person shall be entitled to medical treatment free of cost; and in case of death or disablement of the child due to the said accident, (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68) shall be paid to the legal guardians as determined by the (cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:3)30 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-37 (cid:25)(cid:17) (cid:58)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)—((cid:20)) In case the payment of wages is not made within fifteen days from the date of closure of the muster roll, the wage seekers shall be entitled (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:19)(cid:17)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:8)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:92)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:21))(cid:3)Any delay in payment of compensation beyond a period of fifteen days(cid:3) from the date it becomes payable, shall be considered in the same manner as the delay in payment of wages(cid:17)

((cid:22))(cid:3) For the purpose of ensuring accountability in payment of wages and to(cid:3) calculate culpability of various functionaries or agencies, the States shall divide the processes leading to determination and payment of wages into various stages such as,—

((cid:68)) measurement of work;

((cid:69)) computerising the muster rolls;

((cid:70)) computerising the measurements;

((cid:71)) generation of wage lists; and

((cid:72)) uploading Fund Transfer Orders (FTOs), and specify stage-wise maximum time limits along with the functionary or agency which is (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The computer system shall have a provision to automatically calculate the compensation payable based on the date of closure of the muster roll and the date of (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:24)) The State Government shall pay the compensation upfront after due verification within the time limits as specified above and recover the compensation amount from the functionaries or agencies who are responsible for the delay in payment(cid:17)

((cid:25)) It shall be the duty of the District Programme Coordinator or Programme

(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:26)) The number of days of delay, the compensation payable and actually paid

shall be reflected in the Management Information System(cid:17)

((cid:27)) Effective implementation of sub-paragraph ((cid:20)) shall be considered

(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:26)(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79) Government, be made through the individual savings accounts of the workers in the (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:27)(cid:17) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:82) discrimination solely on the ground of gender and the provisions of the Equal (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:25)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:25)(cid:12)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:28)(cid:17) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79) system—The Gram Panchayat shall prepare and maintain or cause to be prepared and maintained such registers, vouchers and other documents in such form and in such manner as may be specified in the Scheme containing particulars of Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Cards and pass books issued, name, age and address of the head of the household and the adult (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:20)(cid:19)(cid:17) (cid:11)(cid:20)) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Schedule, in the event of any national calamity such as flood, cyclone, tsunami and earthquake resulting in mass dislocation of rural population, the adult members of rural households of areas so affected may—

No. 11-37] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 31

((cid:68)) seek for registration and get (cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)Rozgar Guarantee Card issued by the Gram Panchayat or Programme Officer of the area of temporary relocation;

((cid:69)) submit written or oral applications for work to the Programme

Officer or the Gram Panchayat of the area of temporary relocation; and

((cid:70)) apply for re-registration and re-issuance of Gramin Rozgar Guarantee

Card in the event of any loss or (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)

((cid:21)) The details of such Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Cards shall be intimated to

(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:22)) In the event of restoration of normalcy, the Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Card so issued shall be re-endorsed at original place of habitation and clubbed with the original Gramin (cid:53)(cid:82)(cid:93)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)

((cid:23)) The number of days of employment provided shall be counted while

(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)

(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:17) (cid:40)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92) grievance either orally or in writing, at all implementation levels for disposal as per the provisions of the Grievanc(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:17)

Sd/-

(cid:39)(cid:53)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:36)(cid:45)(cid:44)(cid:57)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:36)(cid:49)(cid:44)(cid:15) Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139 Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-38 ———————————————————————————————

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(cid:11)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)

New Delhi, the 21st December, 2025/Agrahayana 30, 1947 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the

20th December, 2025 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE REPEALING AND AMENDING ACT, 2025

(cid:49)(cid:3464)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:26)(cid:3)(cid:3464)(cid:3455)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)

[20th December,(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:64)

(cid:36)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-sixth Year of the Republic of

India as follows:––

(cid:54)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:17) 1(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)

2(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

Repeal of certain (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17) 3(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81) the Second Schedule are hereby amended to

the extent and in (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:17)

Amendment of certain (cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:17)2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-38 (cid:54)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:17) 4(cid:17) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87) in which the repealed enactment has been applied, incorporated or referred to;

and this Act shall not affect the validity, invalidity, effect or consequences of anything already done or suffered, or any right, title, obligation or liability already acquired, accrued or incurred, or any remedy or proceeding in respect thereof, or any release or discharge of or from any debt, penalty, obligation, liability, claim or demand, or any indemnity already granted, or the proof of any past act or thing;

nor shall this Act affect any principle or rule of law, or established jurisdiction, form or course of pleading, practice or procedure, or existing usage, custom, privilege, restriction, exemption, office or appointment, notwithstanding that the same respectively may have been in any manner affirmed or recognised or derived by, in or from any enactment hereby repealed;

nor shall the repeal by this Act of any enactment revive or restore any jurisdiction, office, custom, liability, right, title, privilege, restriction, exemption, (cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:17)No. 11-38] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

(cid:55)(cid:43)(cid:40)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:44)(cid:53)(cid:54)(cid:55)(cid:3)SCHEDULE

(See section 2)

REPEALS

Year (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17) Short Title

1 2

1886 (cid:59)(cid:44) (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:27)(cid:25)(cid:17)

1976 31 (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:47)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:88)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:25)(cid:17)

1978 41 The Britannia Engineering Company Limited (Mokameh Unit) and the Arthur Butler and Company (Muzaffarpore) Limited (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1978(cid:17)

1982 36 The Chaparmukh-Silghat Railway Line and the

Katakhal-La(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:47)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:27)(cid:21)(cid:17)

1984 55 The Hooghly Docking and Engineering Company Limited

(Acquisition and (cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:27)(cid:23)(cid:17)

1988 44 The Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (Determination of

(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:27)(cid:27)(cid:17)(cid:3)

2016                                  3                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:24)(cid:17)
2017                                  1                        The Payment of Wages (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:17)
2017                                  3                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:17)
2017                                  6                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:17)
2017                                11                         The Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2017.
2017                                30                         The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:26)(cid:17)
2018                                  7                        The  National  Bank  for  Agriculture  and  Rural  Development
                                                               (Amendment) Act, 2018(cid:17)
2018                                10                         The  High  Court  and  Supreme  Court  Judges  (Salaries  and

(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)

2018                                                    12                                        The Payment of Gratuity (Amendment) Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)
2018                                                    18                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)
2018                                                    19                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:78)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)
2018                                                    20                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)
2018                                                    28                                        The Commercial Courts, Commercial Division and Commercial
                                                                                                  (cid:36)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:17)
2019                                                    15                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)(cid:3)
2019                                                    19                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:75)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)(cid:3)
2019                                                    27                                        The  Airports  Economic  Regulatory  Authority  of  India
                                                                                                  (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2019                                                    32                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:72)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2019                                                    38                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2019                                                    41                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2019                                                    43                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2019                                                    48                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:80)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)
2020                                                       1                                      (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:78)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:83)(cid:87)(cid:70)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2020                                                       4                                      The  Constitution  (Scheduled  Tribes)  Order  (Amendment)
                                                                                                  (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2020                                                    13                                        (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)

4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-38

      1                            2                                                                                                                 3
2020                             17                       The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Second Amendment)
                                                          Act, 2020(cid:17)
2020                             18                       The  Salaries  and  Allowances  of  Ministers  (Amendment)
                                                          (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2020                             24                       (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2020                             25                       The                Indian                     Medicine  Central                                                 Council                        (Amendment)
                                                          (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2020                             39                       The Banking Regulation (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:17)
2021                               3                      (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:85)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                               6                      (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                               8                      The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             15                       The  Government  of  National  Capital  Territory  of  Delhi
                                                          (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)(cid:3)
2021                             21                       (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             22                       (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:39)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:37)(cid:82)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             26                       The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Co(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             27                       The Central Universities (Amendment) Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             28                       The  Airports  Economic  Regulatory  Authority  of  India
                                                          (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             30                       The  Deposit  Insurance  and  Credit  Guarantee  Corporation
                                                          (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             32                     The  Constitution  (Scheduled  Tribes)  Order  (Amendment)
                                                        (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             37                       The                   General                            Insurance                               Business                              (Nationalisation)
                                                          (cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             38                       The  National  Commission  for  Indian  System  of  Medicine
                                                          (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             39                       The  National  Commission  for  Homoeopathy  (Amendment)
                                                          Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2021                             43                       The  National  Institute  of  Pharmaceutical  Education  and

(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)

2021 44 The High Court and Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and

(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)

2021                    49                The Election Laws (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:17)
2022                      8               The  Constitution  (Scheduled  Castes  and  Scheduled  Tribes)

(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)

2022                                    9                       The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) (cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)
2022                                  10                          The Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)
2022                                  14                          The Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems
                                                                  (cid:11)(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:73)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)
2022                                  19                          (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:74)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)(cid:3)

No. 11-38] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5

1 2

2022 20 The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes)

(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)

2022 23 The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (Amendment)

(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)

2023 1 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second

(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)

2023 2 The Constitution (cid:11)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:12)(cid:3) (cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:11)(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)

(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:21)(cid:17)

2023 9 T(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 11 The Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment)

(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 12 (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 13 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment)

(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 14 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second

(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 16 The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)

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2023 17 The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation)

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2023 19 The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi

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2023 27 (cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:84)(cid:88)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)

2023 36 The Central Universities (cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:21)(cid:22)(cid:17)6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-38

THE SECOND SCHEDULE

(See section 3)

AMENDMENTS

Short Title Amendments

Year Act (cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:17)

1 2 3

1897 10 The General Clauses

(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:17)

In section 27, for the words "registered post", the words "speed post with registration" shall be substituted.

1908 5 The Code of Civil

(cid:51)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:19)(cid:27)(cid:17)

(cid:11)(cid:76)(cid:12) In section 148A, in sub-section (2), for the words "registered post, acknowledgement due", the words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery" shall be substituted;

(cid:11)(cid:76)(cid:76)(cid:12) In the (cid:41)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:87) Schedule,(cid:177)(cid:177)

(cid:11)(cid:68)(cid:12) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:57)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)rule 9,––

((cid:44)) in sub-rule (3), for the words(cid:3) "registered post acknowledgement due, addressed to the defendant or his agent empowered to accept the service or by speed post", the words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery addressed to the defendant or his agent empowered to accept the service" shall be substituted;

((cid:44)(cid:44)) in sub-rule (4), the brackets(cid:3) and words "(except by registered post acknowledgment due)" shall be omitted;

((cid:44)(cid:44)(cid:44))(cid:3) in sub-rule (5), in the proviso, for the words "registered post acknowledgement due, the declaration referred to in this sub-rule shall be made notwithstanding the fact that the acknowledgement", the words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery, the declaration referred to in this sub-rule shall be made notwithstanding the fact that the proof of delivery" shall be substituted;

(cid:11)(cid:69)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)sub-rule (2), for the words "registered post, acknowledgement due", the words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery" shall be substituted; and

((cid:70)) (cid:76)n (cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:59)(cid:44)(cid:59)(cid:15)(cid:3) in rule 3, in the(cid:3) proviso, in clause (a), for the words "registered post", the words "speed post with registration" shall be substituted.

No. 11-38] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

1 2 3

(i) In section 3, in sub-section (1), the

figures ", 213" shall be omitted;

1925 39 The Indian Succession Act, (cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:21)(cid:24)(cid:17)

(ii) section 213 shall be omitted;

(iii) in section 370,––

(a) in sub-section (1), for the words and figures "or section 213 to be established by letters of administration or probate", the words "to be established by letters of administration" shall be substituted;

(b) in sub-section (2), clause (b)

(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)

2005 53 The Disaster Management Act, (cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:17)

In section 30, in sub-section (2), in clause (vi), for the word "prevention", the word "preparation" shall be substituted.

Sd/-

(cid:39)(cid:53)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:36)(cid:45)(cid:44)(cid:57)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:36)(cid:49)(cid:44)(cid:15) Secretary to the Govt. of India.