Jammu and Kashmir Gazette, No. 24, 10 September 2026

REGD NO. JK––33

THE

JAMMU AND KASHMIR OFFICIAL GAZETTE

Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [ No. 24

	CONTENTS	English Pages	Vernacular pages
	PART I-A– Appointments, promotions, transfers and leave of absence sanctioned by the Governor, Government and the Ministers .... PART I-B– Notifications, Communiques and General Orders by the Government and the Ministers .... PART II-A– Appointments, promotions, transfers leave of absence sanctioned by Heads of Departments .... PART II- B– Notifications, Notices and Orders by Heads of Departments, Provincial Heads, Magistrates and other officers competent to issue public notices under any law or rule .... PART II-C– Notifications, Notices and Orders by Election Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Jammu and Kashmir and other Officers of the Department, Election Petitions Judgements of Election Tribunal .... PART III– Laws, Regulations and Rules passed thereunder .... PART IV– Reprints from the Government of India Gazette or Gazettes of others Governments.... PART V– Information and Statistics .... (a) Rates and prices in the State.... (b) Rates and wages .... (c) Crop Report and Forecasts .... (d) Whether Observations .... (e) Vital Statistics .... SUPPLEMENT-A– Trade Monthly Imports and Exports from the State .... SUPPLEMENT-B– Police .... SUPPLEMENT-C– Advertisements ....	244-248 189-190 and 6005-6262 and	85-88

Printed at the Government Press, Srinagar.

244 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

PART I-A

Jammu & Kashmir Government–Orders

By order.

——— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 245

Notification

No. 1585 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Mohammad Yaseen S/o Gh. Hassan Mir R/o Kalantra Payeen, Mohalla Eidgah, Tehsil Kreeri, District Baramulla vide Notification No. 1096 of 2023/RG/LP dated 02.06.2023 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

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Notification

No. 1584 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Madiha Niyaz Hakak D/o Niyaz Ahmad Hakak R/o Umer Colony Lal Bazar Tehsil Khas District Srinagar vide Notification No. 3990 of 2025/RG/LP dated 31.12.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1583 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Maharvish Jan D/o Mohammad Asan Lone R/o Nehama Tehsil Kakapora District Pulwama vide Notification No. 3592 of 2025/RG/LP dated 14.11.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

–––––

Notification

No. 1582 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Manmeet Singh Dutta S/o S Iqbal Singh R/o Diver, Tehsil Tral, District Pulwama vide Notification No. 2683 of 2025/RG/LP dated 22.08.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

——— 246 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

No. 1578 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Mohamad Yasir Hajam S/o Abdul Salam Hajam R/o Durhama, Bhat Mohalla, Tehsil Wagoora, District Baramulla vide Notification No. 2329 of 2025/RG/LP dated 19.07.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

——— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 247

Notification

No. 1577 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Junaid Khursheed S/o Khursheed Ahmad Rather R/o Village Balsoo, Tehsil & District Kulgam vide Notification No. 2670 of 2025/RG/LP dated 22.08.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1576 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Iqra Yaseen D/o Shahzad Ahmad Bhat R/o Kralapora Bilal Aabad Lane No. 01, Tehsil B. K. Pora, District Budgam vide Notification No. 2314 of 2025/RG/LP dated 19.07.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1575 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Insha Javeed D/o Javeed Ahmad Bhat R/o Firdous Colony Eidgah, District Srinagar vide Notification No. 592 of 2022/RG/LP dated 27.05.2022 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1574 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Ishrat Bashir D/o Bashir Ahmad Mir R/o Kangroosa Rafiabad Tehsil Dangiwacha District Baramulla vide Notification No. 3605 of 2025/RG/LP dated 14.11.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

——— 248 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

Notification

No. 1573 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Mr. Irfan Ahmad Pandith S/o Wazir Ahmad Pandith R/o Shirpora Gavegarin New Colney, Mohalla Shirpora Wagoora, District Baramulla vide Notification No. 1566 of 2025/RG/LP dated 16.05.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1572 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates

By order.

———

Notification

No. 1571 of 2026/RG/LP Dated : 13-07-2026

Provisional admission as an Advocate, granted under the Advocates Act, 1961 in favour of Ms. Inayat Manzoor D/o Manzoor Ahmad Baig R/o Naz Colony Sector-A Bandipora vide Notification No. 1562 of 2025/RG/LP dated 16.05.2025 has been declared as Absolute/Final.

By order.

Sd/-

SYED MUJTABA HUSSAIN,

Registrar Administration.

————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24 ——————————————————————————————– Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed

as a separate compilation.

PART I—B

Jammu and Kashmir Government—Notifications.

———

GOVERNMENT OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR CIVIL SECRETARIAT—HOME DEPARTMENT J&K.

Subject :—Award of Jammu and Kashmir Police Medal for Meritorious Service to the Police personnel on the occasion of Independence Day, 2026.

———

Reference :— Letter No. CB(A&M)JKPMS-ID-2026/401 dated 22.08.2026, received from Director General of Police, J&K.

Corrigendum to the Government Order No.

416-Home of 2026 dated 14.08.2026.

In Government Order No. 416-Home of 2026 dated 14.08.2026, issued under endorsement No. Home/Award/2021/CC-40981190 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24 dated 14.08.2026, the PID No. against S. No. 03 in respect of Ms. Manjit Kour shall be read as "JKPS017294" instead of "JKPS017322".

All other contents of the Government Order shall remain unchanged.

By order of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Sd/-

CHANDRAKER BHARTI, IAS, Principal Secretary to the Government ————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24 ——————————————————————————————– Separate paging is given to this part in order that it may be filed

as a separate compilation.

PART II—B

Notifications, Notices and Orders by the Heads of Departments.

———

IN THE COURT OF ADDITIONAL SESSIONS JUDGE (SPECIAL JUDGE UNDER NDPS ACT),

UDHAMPUR

Present : Y.P Sharma

J. O Code : JK00124 File No. 142/NDPS/Challan

Registration No. Challan/45/2021

Date of Institution : 30.10.2021

Date of Order : 25.07.2026

UT of JK through Police Station, Udhampur FIR No. 354/2021 Offences U/s 8/15/29 NDPS Act.

1. Lakhvinder Singh S/o Chota Singh R/o W. No. 19 Gali No. 1, Byas Colony Jakhal, Fatehabad Haryana.

General Warrant of Arrest Under Section 512 Cr. PC.

To SHO Police Station, Udhampur Through Ld. APP6006 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24 Whereas, in the above said case titled, the accused namely Lakhvinder Singh S/o Chota Singh R/o W. No. 19 Gali No. 1, Byas Colony Jakhal, Fatehabad Haryana who is facing trial before this court has absconded since 29.01.2022 and his immediate arrest in the near future is not possible and the bail bonds stands forfeited.

As such the General Warrant of Arrest under section 512 Cr. PC is issued against the above said accused. This is to authorize you to arrest the accused wherever they are found and produce the accused before the court. The general warrant of arrest shall remain in existence till the accused are arrested and the warrant are recalled by the court.

Given under my hand and the seal of the court today on 25.07.2026.

Sd/- Y. P. SHARMA, Additional Sessions Judge, Udhampur.

——— GOVERNMENT OF UT OF JAMMU & KASHMIR OFFICE OF THE DEPUTY COMMISSIONER GANDERBAL

Mini-Secretariat Duderhama

Subject :—Acquisition of land measuring 07 Kanals & 01 Marlas under Khasra No. 118 min, 385 min & 44 min of Estate Sonamarg Tehsil Gund involved Sonamarg Byepass Road for improvement work at KM 1.300.

Reference :—SDM/KGN/LAS/F-07K/2026/111-14, dated 12/05/2026.

Notification No. 161-DCG of LAS-2026

Date : 11/08/2026

Whereas, it appears to the appropriate Government that a land quantum of 07 Kanals & 01 Marlas under survey No.'s 118 min, 385 & 44 min of estate Sonamarg Tehsil Gund, District Ganderbal is required for public purposes namely "Acquisition of land measuring 07 Kanals & 01 Marlas under Khasra no. 118 min, 385 min & 44 min of Estate Sonamarg Tehsil Gund involved Sonamarg Byepass Road for improvement work at KM 1.300 of SSG Road."; and

Whereas, on the basis of Indent placed by the requiring body vide No. 2003/SUMBAL/14/E2LA dated 18/05/2024 and after completing the SIA Study and consideration of report vide No. 69/LASTG/2024 dated 22/08/2024 & TG/OQ/2024/631-32 dated 04/11/2024 by the Appropriate Government, the Collector Land Acquisition, Kangan issued aNo. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6007 preliminary notification vide No. No. SDM/KGN/LAS/26/90-99 dated 25/02/2026 under Section-11 of Right to Fair Compensation Transparency in Land Acquisition Rehabilitation & Resettlement Act, 2013 for the land measuring 07 Kanals & 01 Marlas under Khasra No. 118 min, 385 min & 44 min of estate Sonamarg Tehsil Gund involved Sonamarg Byepass Road for improvement work at KM 1.300, for calling upon interested persons to file objections, if, any; and

Whereas, as per the report vide no. SDM/KGN/LAS/F- 07K/2026/111-14 Dated:12/05/2026 furnished by the Collector Land Acquisition (Sub-Divisional Magistrate) Kangan no objection was received within the stipulated time and the land is required for the public purpose; and

Whereas, the Officer Commanding Beacon, vide communication No. 2000/Land/153/E2LA dated 03/08/2026, has furnished the Indent duly authenticated by the Chief Engineer, HQ CE (P) Beacon, in respect of the aforesaid land measuring 07 Kanals & 01 Marla, required for the Sonamarg Byepass Road for improvement works at Km 1.300.

Whereas, the "Appropriate Government", the District Collector Ganderbal is satisfied after considering the report made by the Collector that the land particulars which are given below is required for public purposes ;

S.	Name of	Name of	Survey	Type	Type of Land	Area
No.	Tehsil	village	No.	of Title Private/ Government Common	Rural/Urban	under Acquisition
						K.	M.

1			385 Min	Private	Rural	02	01
2	Gund	Sonamarg	118 Min	Private	Rural	03	00
3			44 Min	Private	Rural	02	00
			Total			07	01

Now, therefore, it is hereby declared under the provisions of Section-19 of the Right to Fair Compensation, Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation & Resettlement Act, 2013 that the said land is required for public purposes i.e. "Acquisition of land measuring 07 Kanals & 01 Marlas under Khasra No. 118 min, 385 & 44 min of estate Sonamarg Tehsil Gund involved Sonamarg Byepass Road for improvement work at KM 1.300".

6008 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

There is no involuntary displacement of persons due to the aforesaid acquisition, with no adverse impact and no rehabilitation is involved.

The land plan and the statement can be inspected in the office of the Collector on any working day.

Sd/- District Collector, Ganderbal.

———

IN THE COURT OF MUNSIFF/JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE 1ST CLASS BONIYAR

Coram : Mr. Hiteshwar Kesar CNR No. : JKBA070000452017

D.O.I. : 07-12-2017

D.O.O : 28-07-2026

In the case of :— Javaid Ahmad Mir S/o Firoz-ud-din Mir R/o Bijhama Tehsil Boniyar District Baramulla

Complainant

Versus

Aijaz Ahmad Mir S/o Abdul Rehman Mir R/o Shumnag Tehsil & District Kupwara

Accused

General Warrant of Arrest U/s 138 Negotiable Instrument Act.

Against:— Aijaz Ahmad Mir S/o Abdul Rehman Mir R/o Shumnag Tehsil & District Kupwara.

To All Police Officials of Jammu & Kashmir U.T.

A complaint application has been presented in this Court against the accused Aijaz Ahmad Mir S/o Abdul Rehman Mir R/o Shumnag Tehsil & District Kupwara and he has been proceeded U/s 138 NIA and through this General Warrant of Arrest it is directed that all the police officials of U.T of Jammu & Kashmir are authorized to arrest the accused person and whenever the accused is arrested, he shall be produced in this Court.

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6009

This warrant shall remain in force till the arrest of the accused person is recalled.

Sd/-

Munsiff/Judicial Magistrate 1st Class Boniyar.

———

IN THE COURT OF JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE FIRST CLASS, MAHORE

Present : Himanshoo Atri (JK00332) State of J&K through V/s Angrez Singh

Police Station Chassana

FIR No. : 49/2019 of P/S Chassana

Offence : U/s 341/323/382/201 of RPC

General Warrant of Arrest against Accused

Angrez Singh S/o Chatter Singh R/o Tulli, Tehsil Chassana District Reasi

Police of UT of J&K

In above tilted case, proceeding in terms of section 299 CrPC has been initiated against accused Angrez Singh S/o Chatter Singh R/o Tulli Tehsil Chassana District Reasi.

As such, you are directed to arrest the accused whereever found within the territorial jurisdiction of the UT of Jammu and Kashmir and produce him before this court. This warrant of arrest shall remain in force till arrest of accused person.

Issued under my hand and seal of this office today on 28th day of July 2026.

Sd/-

Judicial Magistrate 1st Class, Mahore.

———

6010 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

IN THE COURT OF JUDICIAL MAGISTRATE FIRST CLASS, MAHORE

Present : Himanshoo Atri (JK00332)

State of J&K through V/s Balinder Singh Police Station Arnas.

FIR No. : 05/2023 of P/S Arnas

Balinder Singh S/o Mani Ram

R/o Serhda Tehsil Rajindl,

District Kaithal Haryana.

Offence : U/s 279 of IPC

General Warrant of Arrest against Accused

Balinder Singh S/o Mani Ram R/o Serhda Tehsil Rajindl, District Kaithal Haryana.

Police of UT of J&K

In above tilted case, proceeding in terms of section 299 CrPC has been initiated against accused Balinder Singh S/o Mani Ram R/o Serhda Tehsil Rajindl District Kaithal Haryana

Issued under my hand and seal of this office today on 23rd day of July, 2026.

Sd/-

Judicial Magistrate 1st Class, Mahore.

———

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6011

NOTIFICATION

It is notified for the information of the general public that my ward's name in Aadhaar Card has been wrongly entered as Danif Hussain Mir while my ward's correct name is Danifa Hussain. Now, I want the same to be corrected.

Mohd Hussain Mir F/o Danifa Hussain R/o Kadipora, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

No legal responsibility is accepted for the publication of Advertisements/Public Notices in this Part of the Official Gazette of UT of J&K. Persons notifying the Advertisements/Public Notices shall remain solely responsible for the legal consequences and also for any misrepresentation etc.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

It is hereby notified to general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4522 7172 3099 my name has been wrongly mentioned as Tnazeela Manan instead of Tanzeela Manan. Therefore, in this regard I want to change the same.

Tanzeela Manan D/o Mirza Abdul Manan R/o Kathi Darwaza, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6012 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5821 0931 1212 mentioned as Bashir Ahmad Gujar Phamda while as my actual name is Bashir Ahmad Phamda. Therefore, in this regard I wanted to change the above and correct details in my Adhaar card.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I, Shanaz Parveen W/o Showkat Ali R/o Gharkote, Tehsil Uri, District Baramulla, Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir hereby inform the general public that my name has been inadvertently recorded as Shahnaz Begum in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8065 5386 1993. My true and correct name is Shanaz Parveen, which is duly reflected in my Domicile Certificate and other official records. It is hereby declared that "Shahnaz Begum" and "Shanaz Parveen" refer to one and the same person, i.e., myself. Henceforth, I shall be known and identified by my correct name, Shanaz Parveen, for all official, legal, and other purposes.

My name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card as Sahal Ahmad Sheikh instead of Sahil Bashir as per School records. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Sahil Bashir S/o Bashir Ahmad Sheikh R/o Kangripora, Tehsil Khag, District Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sabzar Ahmad Vaid F/o Mohammad Salman Vaid R/o Bijbehara, Tehsil Bijbehara, District Anantnag do hereby inform the general public that my ward's name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card as Mohd Kazim Vaid. The correct and actual name is Mohammad Salman Vaid. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6017

NOTIFICATION

I, Najma Banoo D/o Salam Din R/o Ganote, Tehsil & District Ramban have applied for necessary corrections in my name and DoB which have been wrongly entered in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3313 0613 0186 as Nazma Banoo and DoB 06-07-1998 instead of my correct name Najma Banoo and DoB 02-02-2004.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mehreen Mushtaq D/o Mushtaq Ahmed Naik, R/o Harwari Dhanmasta, Tehsil Ukhral, District Ramban, J&K -182145 have applied for correction of my name in my Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 3401 9641 8537 from Mareen Mushtaq to Mehreen Mushtaq.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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6018 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

It is hereby notified general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 9890 1356 9695 my name has been wrongly mentioned as Noori instead of Noora Begum Khusu. Therefore, in this regard I want to change the same.

Noora Begum Khusu R/o Usmanabad, Bemina, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I, Ajay Kumar S/o Suram Chand R/o Sambal Danga, District Udhampur declare that my child's name has been wrongly written in her Aadhaar Card as Trishika instead of Trisha. Now, I want its Correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6019

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5683 5174 8448 my name has been mentioned as Sameena whileas as my correct name is Saima Aijaz. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my Aadhaar Card.

Saima Aijaz W/o Aijaz Ahmad Khan R/o Umer Colony Mughal Road, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5926 0219 1473 from Toyba Bano to Toiba Shabir. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Toiba Shabir D/o Shabir Ahmad Bhat R/o Trikanjan, Boniyar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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6020 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

NOTIFICATION

My name and DoB has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 7096 4265 5403 as Navreena Bilal and DoB as 12-02-2007 instead of Nowreen and DoB as 06-05-2007. Now, I am applying for its correction of the same.

Nowreen D/o Bilal Ahmad R/o Nassarpora, Khag, Budgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name, parentage and address under Aadhaar No. 5417 3201 8250 from Rohi Hassan D/o Ghulam Hassan Bhat R/o Sherwanibad Bener Kahdura Baramulla to Rukhsana Begum W/o Showkat Ahmad Beigh R/o Taripora Wansaran Baramulla. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6023

NOTIFICATION

In my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 9889 8149 8237 my name has been enrolled as Kulsuma Begum instead of Qulsooma Gulzar. Now, I want to apply for it's correction.

Qulsooma Gulzar W/o Zahoor Ahmad Bhat R/o Khaitangan, Dardpora, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I, Minaal Rashid Bhat D/o Shaheena (previously recorded as Mehsheed Rashid) R/o Chanapora, Srinagar, hereby declare that my mother's name has been changed from Mehsheed Rashid to Shaheena. I request that this correction be updated and reflected in all my official records, including my CBSE Class 10th and Class 12th marksheets. Henceforth, my mother's name shall be known as Shaheena for all official purposes.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6024 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my daughter's DoB in Aadhaar Card under Aadhaar Card No. 2351 2786 6917 from 4-12-2013 to 1-3-2013. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Farooq Ahmad Najar F/o Salma Bano R/o Salamabad, Dachina, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

This is to inform general public that the name of my son and his Father's name as mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 6566 8830 5305 has been incorrectly recorded as Mudasir Hassanand Father's name Gh. Hassan Khan while as his actual name is Mudasar Hussain and Father's name Gulam Hussain. Now, I want to apply for the correction of same in his Aadhaar from old name Mudasir Hassan to new name Mudasar Hussain. In future he will be known as Mudasar Hussain.

I have changed my name from (Old Name) Fatimah Batool to (New Name) Fatima Batool. In future I will be known as (New Name) Fatima Batool.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6031

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name and parentage from (Old Name) Mohammad Amin Nanda S/o Ghulam Ahmad Nanda to (New Name) Mohd Amin Nanda S/o Gh Ahmad Nanda. In future my name and parentage will be known as (New Name) Mohd Amin Nanda S/o Gh Ahmad Nanda.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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NOTIFICATION

I, Christy Sotra D/o Emnual Sotra R/o H.No.133, Christian Colony, Vir Marg, Jammu have applied for necessary corrections in my father's name which have been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhar Card, PAN Card and other Govt/Pvt records as Emnual Masih instead of his correct name Emnual Sotra.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

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6034 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I have changed name of our son from Mohd Hammad Mir (Old Name) to Mohammad Hammad Shehzan (New Name). In future he will be known as Mohammad Hammad Shehzan.

Shehzan Hameed F/o Mohammad Hammad Shehzan R/o Rawalpora, Srinagar, J&K.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (Old Name) Iftikher Hussain Khan to (New Name) Raja Iftikhar Hussain. In Future, I will be known as (New Name) Raja Iftikhar Hussain.

Raja Iftikhar Hussain R/o Panir Jagir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

————

————

NOTIFICATION

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sona Ullah Ganaie F/o Gousia Akhter R/o Ajas, Bandipora do hereby declare for the information of the general public and all concerned authorities that due to an inadvertent error my ward's particulars in Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 4392 4031 7310 have been incorrectly recorded as Gosiea instead of correct name Gousia Akhter. Now, I have applied before the competent authority for correction of the above- mentioned particulars in my ward's Aadhaar records.

Sona Ullah Ganaie F/o Gousia Akhter R/o Ajas, Bandipora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6041

NOTIFICATION

I, Hayat W/o Nazir Ahmad Langoo R/o Madina Colony, Malla Bagh, Srinagar, Kashmir, Post Office Kashmir University, Tehsil Eidgah, District Srinagar want to submit that I am having valid Aadhaar Card under No. 6587 0997 4113 from the concerned authorities in which the spelling of my name has been wrongly mentioned as Hayata instead of Hayat. Now, I want rectification of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Rohi Bano D/o Ali Mohd Pahloo R/o Saderkoot Payeen Ajas, Bandipora do hereby declare for the information of the general public and all concerned authorities that due to an inadvertent error my particulars in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 2014 7537 2204 have been incorrectly recorded as Roheena Jan instead of Correct Name Rohi Bano. Now, I have applied before the competent authority for correction of the above mentioned particulars in my Aadhaar records.

My name in my Aadhaar bearing No. 9709 8030 5116 has been wrongly mentioned as Rather Mohamad Hazim instead of Mohammad Hazim Gulzar. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Gulzar Ahmad Rather F/o Mohammad Hazim Gulzar R/o Mehmoodabad, District Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Suhana Manzoor D/o Manzoor Ahmad Mir R/o Tangbal, Tehsil and District Kulgam declare that the name and DoB of my brother has been wrongly mentioned in the Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3182 5971 7066 as Suhail Ahmad Mir and 03-03-2010 instead of Correct name and DoB as Saahil Manzoor, 04-07-2012. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6044 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Iqbal Bhat F/o Adni Iqbal R/o Imoh, Achabal, District & Tehsil Ananatnag declare that the name of my ward namely Adni Iqbal has been wrongly reflected as Aydan Iqbal in the Aadhaar records. That the correct particulars of my ward are as Adni Iqbal D/o Mohd Iqbal Bhat R/o Imoh, Achabal, Anantnag. Now, I have applied for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is information for general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 6596 1208 7931 as Aarizoo Jan instead of Aarizoo Nazir. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Aarizoo Nazir D/o Nazir Ahmad Koli R/o Gogripora Dayani Pora, Tehsil D.H. Pora.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6045

NOTIFICATION

I, Shamus Din Baig S/o Abdul Gaffar Baig R/o Gool Salballa, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Shmus Din Baig instead of correct Shamus Din Baig in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 8555 7582 2761.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6050 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Ashraf S/o Munshi Khan R/o Village Dramman (Darman Daraj), Tehsil Kotranka, Sub District Budhal, District Rajouri, J&K- 185233 hereby declare that my son's name is wrongly recorded as Amaran Ahmed in his Aadhaar Card UID No. 5191 5154 2443. The correct name is Mohd Imran. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Tariq Ahmed Mughal S/o Abdul Rashid Mughal R/o Kalimasta, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban hereby give notice that I am changing the name of my daughter from Hazia Bano to her new and correct name Aria Kouser in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3276 4496 7743.The new name Aria Kouser shall be used and recorded/corrected in her Aadhaar Card and all other official, educational and personal documents/records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6051

NOTIFICATION

I, Kali Begum W/o Ali Mohd R/o Dehdha, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Zulfiqar Ahmmed instead of correct Zulfiqar Ahmed in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7640 5451 2077.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Rayaz Ahmed S/o Ghulam Nabi Mughal R/o Gool Parthmullah, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Riyaz Ahmed Mughal instead of correct Rayaz Ahmed in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5737 6167 8829.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6052 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I, Nazir Ahmed S/o Mohd Ismail R/o Dachan Gool, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban applying correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Bedi Bano instead of correct Beeda Bano in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7397 7230 8093.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Rubina Akhter (New Name) W/o Mumtaz Ali R/o Hara Kalimasta, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban, Jammu & Kashmir, applying for change of my name from Mubina Begum to Rubina Akhter in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6409 3903 9220, PAN Card and other documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6053

NOTIFICATION

I, Gulzar Ahmed S/o Ghulam Mohd R/o Kalimasta, Tehsil Gool, District Ramban, Jammu & Kashmir, applying for change of my daughter's name as 1. Mehroom Gulzar, born on 24-06-2016, Aadhaar Card No. 4916 0603 3212 has been changed to Saima Βanο. 2. Parveen Gulzar, born on 30-06-2018, Aadhaar Card No. 6326 0821 6549, has been changed to Ayesha Bano.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Kuldeep Singh S/o Nanak Chand R/o Bhagan Kot, Gool Gulabgarh, Reasi, J&K applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Surav Singh instead of correct Saurabh Thakur his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4167 3530 3342.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6054 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6056 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (Old name) Suriaya Naqishband to (New name) Suriya Bano. In future I will be known as (New name) Suriya Bano.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

In Aadhaar record bearing Aadhaar No. 5636 0121 6763 my name has been recorded as Syed Arshid Andrabi S/o Syed Taj Ul Din Andrabi instead of Syed Arshad Ahmad S/o Syed Taj Ud Din. It needs correction

Syed Arshad Ahmad S/o Syed Taj Ud Din R/o Hariweth, Kulgam.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mansha Bi W/o Mohd Shoket R/o Sangla, Tehsil Surankote, District Poonch applying for correction of my name which is wrongly written as Munsha Bi in Aadhaar Card bearing registration No. 6099 8511 5644 instead of Mansha Bi. Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card from Mohd Shoib to Shoaib Ahmed. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6067

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public that the name of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6719 3161 3544 as Fayiqa Nazir instead of Faieeka Nazir. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Nazir Ahmad Khan F/o Faieeka Nazir R/o Keller, Shopian.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is hereby notified for the information of all concerned that the name in my Aadhaar bearing No. 2224 3770 2513 was incorrectly registered as Gh Mohi Ud Din Malik S/o Abdullah Malik R/o Dolipora, Kreeri, Baramulla instead of Gh Mohi Din Malik S/o Abdullah Malik R/o Dolipora, Kreeri, Baramulla. Now, I want to correct it.

Gh Mohi Din Malik S/o Abdullah Malik R/o Dolipora, Kreeri, Baramulla.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6068 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

I, Basharat Hussain S/o Noor Hussain R/o Village Kosalian, Tehsil Haveli, District Poonch applying for the correction of my name which is wrongly written as Bisharat Hussain instead of Basharat Hussain in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3804 8217 0457 and other documents.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is informed to the general public that my name was wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar Card Vide No. 2655 5928 2124 as Shakeel Ahmed instead of Mohd Shakeel. Now, I want to correct it.

Mohd Shakeel S/o Wali Mohd R/o Kunderdhan, Reasi.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6071

NOTIFICATION

I have change my (Old Name) from Haneefa Bano W/o Bashir Ahmad Dar to (New Name) Gulshana Banu. In future I will be known as Gulshana Banu W/o Bashir Ahmad Dar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I am adding surname Bhat to my son's existing name in his school records at GD Goenka Public School Lal Bazar Srinagar studying in class 5th, Roll No. 5, Admission No. 1925, Section Tulip, from Ammaar Showkat S/o Showkat Ahmad Bhat to Ammaar Showkat Bhat S/o Showkat Ahmad Bhat. Now, the same is to be corrected and recorded.

Showkat Ahmad Bhat F/o Ammaar Showkat Bhat R/o Batpora-B, Hazratbal, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6072 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6077

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my Aadhaar Card name bearing No. 3815 4390 7285 from Khursheed Ahmad Bhat to Khurshid Ahmed Bhatt. Now, I am applying for the correction.

Khurshid Ahmed Bhatt S/o Gh Nabi Bhatt DoB same 29-04-1966 R/o Dahama Lankrshan Vilgam, 193224.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name and address in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 3226 7404 7246 from Zeenat Bano R/o Lalpora, Bulbul Abad to Fazeelat Bano R/o Kawhar Bala. Now, I am applying for its correction

Fazeelat Bano D/o Mohammad Ashraf Famda R/o Kawhar Bala.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my ward's name is wrongly written as Sidra Zubair instead of Mairah Zubair. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Zubair Ahmad Bhat F/o Mairah Zubair R/o Guihard Bindoo Zalangam, Kokarnag, Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6081

NOTIFICATION

I, Meena Akhtar W/o Ab Gani Lone R/o Grawgund Kulpora, Tehsil Litter, District Pulwama do hereby inform the general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card No. 3906 0022 7177 as Meena Akhter whereas my correct name is Meena Akhtar. Now, I have applied for correction of my name in the Aadhaar records.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to change my son's name in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5042 1222 7866 from Muhammad Humayun Lone to Asim Mustafa Lone. Now, I am applying for correction.

Mustafa Mohamad F/o Asim Mustafa Lone R/o Barbar Shah, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Parveen Akhter W/o Farooq Ahmed R/o Nagola, Tehsil Dansal, District Jammu have applied for correction of my daughter's name which has been wrongly written as Nazreena Akhtar instead of correct name Nazreen Akhter in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7470 3089 6706.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6085

NOTIFICATION

My name has been wrongly written as Fatima Begum in my Aadhaar Card bearing Aadhaar No. 5547 3596 7314 while my correct name is Khati Begum W/o Gh Hassan Dar which needs to be corrected.

Khati Begum W/o Gh Hassan Dar R/o Khisipora, Kreeri.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

My name in Aadhaar 6588 0871 9803 is wrongly mentioned as Zubir Shabir instead of Zubair Ahmad Bhat. Now, I wish to apply for its Correction.

Zubair Ahmad Bhat S/o Shabir Ahmad Bhat R/o Hadipora, Rafiabad, District Baramulla, Jammu and Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6086 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No.24

NOTIFICATION

It is notified for the information of general public that my name mentioned in Aadhaar Card Aadhaar No. 735965880746 is Parvaiz Ahmad which is wrong however my actual name is Parvaz Ahmad Sheikh. Now, I intend to rectify my name in my Aadhaar Card.

NOTIFICATION

I, Sarfraz Ahmed S/o Mushtaq Ahmed Khan F/o Elham Sarfraz R/o Galhuta, Tehsil Mendhar, District Poonch applying for correction of my daughter's name which is wrongly written as Etham Sarfraz instead of correct name Elham Sarfraz in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3141 1270 1317.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Rehimtulla Dar S/o Ghulam Hussain Dar R/o Paristan, Tehsil Pogal Paristan (Ukhral), District Ramban applying for correction of my son's name which is wrongly written as Zahid Ahmed instead of correct Mohd Zahid in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3142 6158 7130.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6089

NOTIFICATION

I, Shawkit Ahmed S/o Nawaz Ahmed R/o Bhungara, Tehsil Pogal Paristan (Ukhral), District Ramban applying for correction of my son's name and father name which are wrongly written as Alyas Ahmed S/o Showkat Ali instead of correct Illayas Ahmed S/o Shawkit Ahmed in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3815 6743 1428.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name & parentage from Mohammad Farooz Sheikh S/o Abdul Razak Sheikh (old Name) to Mohd Farooz Sheikh S/o Ab Razak Sheikh (New Name). In future I will be known as Mohd Farooz Sheikh S/o Ab Razak Sheikh (New Name).

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6097

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my name is wrongly written as Zohan Iqbal instead of Mohammad Abu Bakar. Now I want to apply for its correction.

I, Rakesh Kumar S/o Bhola Ram R/o Kharah Tehsil Kharah Balli District Jammu have applied for correction of my and my father's name and address which has been wrongly written as Ramesh Kumar S/o Kartar Chand R/o Gopal Nagar Jalandhar (pb) instead of correct name Rakesh Kumar S/o Bhola Ram R/o Kharah Tehsil Kharah Balli District Jammu. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6099

NOTIFICATION

This is information to general public that my son's name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7418 7059 1827 as Naveed

I, Lalita Sharma W/o Vijay Kumar R/o H.No. 39, W/. No. 13 Shiv Nagar R.S.Pura District Jammu do hereby declare that my name and DoB is wrongly written in my Passport Bearing No N9700486 as Champa Sharma instead of correct name Lalita Sharma and DoB 16/06/1961 instead of correct 06/02/1968 Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is inform to the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my ward's name is wrongly written as Habis Javaid instead of Ayaan Jawaid Parray Now, I am applying for its correction

Jawaid Ahmad Parray F/o Ayaan Jawaid Parray R/o Zaldoora Gundinowrose Dooru Anantnag.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6102 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I, Bashir Ahmed F/o Mohd Ishfaq R/o Village Hari Tehsil Mahore, District Reasi J&K UT 182315 state that my son's name has been wrongly written as Ashfaq Ahmed instead of Mohd Ishfaq in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 970470354196. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Shabir Ahmad Teli S/o Ghulam Mohammad Teli R/o Guirow Ziran Tehsil Tangmarg, District Baramulla, J&K, do hereby declare that the name of my ward has been Inadvertently recorded as Saina Asnain in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4272 0569 9432 whereas her correct and actual name as per her Birth Certificate is Ayesha Shabir. Now, I am applying for its correction.

This is inform to general public that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3505 7827 4042 as Liyaqat Ali Khan Pathan S/o Zaffar Ali Khan Pathan instead of Layakat Ali Pathan S/o Zaffar Ali Pathan. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Name of the applicant, Layakat Ali Pathan S/o Zaffar Ali Pathan R/o Manigah Tehsil & District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my daughter in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3802 7131 2090 from Ayait Fayaz to Malik Aayat Ul Nissa. Now, I am applying for its correction.

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 5438 1556 8847 my name has been mentioned as Jegmet Yanskeet while as my actual & correct name is Gigmet Angmo as per my DoB, Voter ID Card etc. Now, I am applying for its correction.

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6550 0274 2692 my name has been mentioned as Tsering Dolma while as my actual & correct name is Chering Dolma which is as per my Pension Card. Now, I am applying for its correction.

I, Bilkeesa Akhter D/o Ghulam Rasool Tantray R/o Panchpora Marhama Tehsil Bijbehara, District Anantnag do hereby declare that my name has been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7453 2114 6075 as Bilks Rasool. Instead of the correct and actual name is Bilkeesa Akhter. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is to inform the general public that in my Aadhaar Card and Pan Card bearing No. 8497 9568 0159 and QTHPK7115L my name has been wrongly entered as Mushtaq Ahmad Khan instead of Hamza Pathan. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Hamza Pathan S/o Muhammad Rafiq Khan R/o Anderwan Ganderbal, Jammu and Kashmir 191201.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6117

NOTIFICATION It is to inform the general public that in my ward's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 7093 8452 9486 his name has been wrongly entered as Piyaush Dev Singh instead of Palvinder Thakur Now, I am applying for its correction.

Baljeet Singh F/o Palvinder Thakur

R/o Khawas, Khorbani Rajouri, J&K.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

It is to inform the general public that in my ward's Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6088 8587 4527 his name has been wrongly entered as Branshu Sambyal instead of Veeranshu Sambyal Now, I am applying for its correction.

Govind Singh F/o Veeranshu Sambyal R/o Khawas, Rajouri, J&K 185201.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6118 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct the name of my daughter in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 6696 5661 5967 from Rukey Jan to Rukia Manzoor. Now, I am applying for its correction.

Masrat Manzoor D/o Manzoor Ahmad Wani R/o Badijahlan District Kulgum.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6165

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform to general public, that my child's name has been wrongly mentioned in his Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3209 0841 2237. Now, I want to change his name from Huraina (old name) to Hoorain (new name) as per school certificate records.

Mohd Yousuf Shah F/o Hoorain R/o Sogam, Lolab.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that my name has been incorrectly recorded in my Aadhaar card bearing No. 4329 7219 2657 as Shugufta Bano instead of my correct name Shaheena Bano as per my DoB certificate. Now, I intend to apply for the correction of the same.

I, Baby W/o Pitamber Singh R/o Thakurpura, Tehsil Marheen, District Kathua, JK-UT, hereby declare that my name has been wrongly mentioned as Surksha Rani in my Aadhaar Card and PAN Card. My correct name is Baby. Now, I am applying for correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6177

NOTIFICATION

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

My name in Aadhaar bearing No. 5365 6266 0067 is wrongly mentioned as Zakir Hilal instead of Zakir Ahmad Bhat. Now, I wish to apply for its correction.

Zakir Ahmad Bhat S/o Hilal Ahmad Bhat R/o Chitloora Rafiabad, District Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6181

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in Aadhaar Card records my name is wrongly written as Ayahat Jan instead of Adyat Ishfaq. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

I, Mohd Asim Beg want to change my name in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3090 0108 1988 from Mohd Asim Beigh to Mohd Asim Beg. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Shafi Hajam want to change my daughter's name in her Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3542 6937 4296 from Muskan Shafi to Aaliya Shafi. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6186 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I, Sleema Bano W/o Ab Majid Lone R/o Tikker, Kupwara. I hereby declare that my name has been wrongly mentioned as Saleema Bano in passport records Under Passport No. N5232630. The correct name is Sleema Bano. Now, I am applying for correction in the passport records accordingly.

Sleema Bano W/o Ab Majid Lone R/o Tikker, Kupwara, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Sunil Singh S/o Sh Chatter Singh R/o Ward No 6, Court Road Udhampur, J&K, Pin-182101 have applied for correction of my name & my father's name which has been wrongly written as Sunil singh Mujhal and Chatter Singh Mujhal (father's name) instead of correct name Sunil Singh and Chatter Singh in my Demat account with JKBFSL (J&K Bank Financial services Ltd.) under ID: IN30234910340229. Now, the same is to be corrected.

This is an information for general public that in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 3425 1311 3376 my name has been mistakenly mentioned as Mataba Bagum W/o Abdul Majeed Bhat while as my actual and correct name as per my Domicile Certificate is Mahtaba Begum W/o Abdul Majid Bhat. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Mahtaba Begum W/o Abdul Majid Bhat. R/o Nadihal Bandipora, District Bandipora, J&K-193502.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Muzaffar Ahmad Wani S/o Noor ud din Wani R/o Kaloosa Nathpora, Tehsil & District Bandipora, J&K-193502, do hereby declare that the actual and correct particulars of my daughter are Aiman Jan D/o Muzaffar Ahmad Wani, DoB 09-07-2016 as per Domicile Certificate and School Record. However, in her Aadhaar Card No. 2182 0835 5286, her particulars have been wrongly recorded as Iman Muzaffar D/o Muzaffar Wani, DoB 20-10-2015. Now, I intend to get the aforesaid incorrect particulars corrected in the Aadhaar records of my daughter.

Muzaffar Ahmad Wani F/o Aiman Jan.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6211

NOTIFICATION

My particulars have been wrongly mentioned in my Aadhaar Card No. 7690 6012 8528 record as Mehrul Nisa D/o Mohd Maqbool Najar R/o Nuner, Ganderbal whileas my correct particulars as per School certificate is Mehrun Nisa D/o Mohd Maqbool Najar R/o Nuner, Ganderbal. Now, I want its correction.

This is inforamtion for the general public that my name has been recorded differently in various documents and record as Syed Asif Rafiq Shah Bukhari in my Aadhaar Card Syed Asif Rafeeq in my PAN Card Dr. Syed Asif Rafiq in my Driving Licence S. Asif Rafiq Shah and in my old Passport, Date of Birth records and Degree Certificates. Now, I want to correct this an all documents and shall henceforth be known and identified by my correct and complete name as Syed Asif Rafiq Bukhari.

I, Manzoor Ahmad S/o Gh Rasool Ganie R/o Larsun, Bardulla intends to correct my name in my school records/Aadhaar Card and other documents which have been wrongly shown as Manzoor Ahmad S/o Gh Rasool Ganie R/o Larsun instead of Manzoor Ahmad Ganie S/o Gh Rasool Ganie R/o Larsun, Bardulla.

I want to correct my name/mother's name in my School/CBSE records at Delhi Public School Srinagar, of class 12th, Section H2, Roll No. 13628905, Regn. No. C226/23526/0225, from Mehreen to Farjumand and mother's name from Rabia to Rabia Insar as per my documents. Now, I am applying for the correction of the same.

In the Aadhaar Card of my daughter issued vide No. 8432 6467 4621, her name has been enrolled as Ansura instead of Fatima Amjed. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

I, Parveen Akhter W/o Mukhtiar Ahmed R/o Makol, Sunderbani, District Rajouri applying for correction of son's name which is wrongly written as Ishatyq Ahmed instead of correct Ashtiaq Ahmed in Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4969-5747-5282. Now, I want its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

In my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 2664 4820 6520 my name has been mentioned as Arshid Ahmad Handoo whileas my correct name is Arshad Ahmad Handoo and my address is mentioned as Buruni Ander Wari, Nadi Kadal, Srinagar. Whileas my correct address is Buruni Andervari, Naid Kadal, Srinagar. Now, I want to apply for the correction of the same in my Aadhaar Card.

Arshad Ahmad Handoo S/o Bashir Ahmad Handoo R/o Buruni Andervari, Naid Kadal, Srinagar.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6254 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name in bank accounts bearing Account No. 1501040100008516 from Mohammad Yaqoob Doie Gujjar to Mohd Yaqoob Gojar. Now, I am applying for correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I have changed my name from (old name) Mohd Younis to (new name) Mohammad Younis Bhat. In future, I will be known as (new name) Mohammad Younis Bhat.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

No. 24] The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. 6255

NOTIFICATION

I, Naman Verma S/o Sh Ram Pal Verma R/o H.No. 75 W.No. 4, Bus Stand Udhampur, Tehsil and District Udhampur, J&K UT 182101 declare that in my Class 10th Marksheet, the names of my father & mother has been recorded as Ram Paul & Vinita whereas in Aadhaar Card of my father bearing No. 7899-2372-8154, his name has been recorded as Ram Pal Verma & in Aadhaar Card of my mother bearing No. 2927-1680-9426, her name is recorded as Binita Devi. That both names Ram Paul and Ram Pal Verma pertain to one and the same person i.e. my father and both names, namely Vinita & Binita Devi pertain to one and the same person i.e. my mother. That true, correct and lawful names of my father & mother is Ram Pal Verma & Binita Devi. Now, I am applying for its correction.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I, Rakesh Sharma F/o Adrijaa Sharma hereby declare that the name of my daughter has been wrongly mentioned in Aadhaar card as Rudrakshi Sharma instead of correct name Adrijaa Sharma and hence I have applied for correction/change of name in the Aadhaar records from Rudrakshi Sharma to Adrijaa Sharma.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this

connection.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

———— 6256 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

This is to inform the general public that in PAN Card records my name and father's name is wrongly written as Muzaffar Ahmad Rah S/o Abdul Rahim Rah instead of Muzaffer Ah Rah S/o Ab Rahim Rah. Now, I want to apply for its correction.

Muzaffer Ah Rah S/o Ab Rahim Rah R/o Frestabal, Pampore.

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6258 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohd Ayoob Mir have changed my ward's name from Mohammad Usman Mir (old name) to Mohd Usmaan Mir (new name). In future, he will be known as Mohd Usmaan Mir.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

NOTIFICATION

I want to correct my name/parentage in my Aadhaar Card bearing No. 4220 1438 0749 from Nazir Ahmad Nadaf S/o Ghulam Nabi Nadaf to Nazir Ahmad Bhat S/o Ghulam Nabi Bhat. Now, the same is to be corrected.

I have changed my old name Gazla Akhter D/o Gh Hassan Yetto to new name Gazala Akhter D/o Gh Hassan Yettoo. In future, I will be known as new name Gazala Akhter D/o Gh Hassan Yettoo.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

————

6262 The J&K Official Gazette, the 10th Sept., 2026/19th Bhad., 1948. [No. 24

NOTIFICATION

I, Mohammad Farooq Khan F/o Shafait Ahmad R/o Kandi Karnah, Kupwara. I hereby declare that my son's name has been wrongly mentioned as Shafit Ahmed Khan in Aadhaar records. The correct name is Shafait Ahmad I am applying for correction in his Aadhaar Card records accodingly.

Mohammad Farooq Khan F/o Shafait Ahmad R/o Kandi Karnah, District Kupwara.

It is certified that I have complied with other legal requirements in this connection.

Disclaimer

By order.

General Manager, Government Press, Srinagar.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-71 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

_____

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 11th August, 2023/Sravana 20, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 11th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE NATIONAL DENTAL COMMISSION ACT, 2023

NO. 21 OF 2023

[11th August, 2023.]

An Act to regulate the profession of dentistry in the country, to provide for quality and affordable dental education, to make accessible high quality oral healthcare and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the National Dental Commission Act, 2023.

(2) It extends to the whole of India.

Short title, extent and commencement.

(3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision.

2 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-71

Definitions.

2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "Autonomous Board" means any of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 16;

(b) "Chairperson" means the Chairperson of the National Dental Commission appointed under section 4;

(d) "Council" means the Dental Advisory Council constituted under section 11;

(e) "Dental Assessment and Rating Board" means the Board constituted under section 16;

(f) "dental auxiliary" includes a dental hygienist or a dental mechanic or a dental operating room assistant or such other category as may be specified by the Commission;

(g) "dental hygienist" means a person not being a dentist or a medical practitioner who scales, cleans or polishes teeth, or gives instruction in dental hygiene;

(h) "dental institution" means any institution within or outside India which grants degrees, diplomas, certificates for certification courses or licences in dentistry and includes affiliated colleges, deemed to be Universities and institutions mentioned in the Schedule;

(i) "dental mechanic" means a person qualified to perform laboratory work required for the prosthetic rehabilitation of dental and maxillofacial structures and orthodontic appliances;

(j) "dental operating room assistant" means a person who assists the dentist in sterilising and handing over instruments as required by the dentist at the chair side;

(k) "dentist" means a person who practices dentistry;

(l) "dentistry" includes the science, practice and research in dental and oral health, directed towards—

(i) facilitating healthy development of dentition, jaws and dentofacial structures;

(ii) prevention of oral diseases and promotion of oral health;

(iii) diagnosis and use of diagnostic tests, investigations and procedure to decide the normal and abnormal state or diseases of teeth, gums, jaws and related tissues necessary for the functions of the oral cavity;

(iv) performing procedures for the optimisation of dental and oral health, which may include restoration, rehabilitation, surgery or a combination thereof, to restore the functions, structural anatomy and aesthetics of the stomatognathic system and the masticatory apparatus;

(v) creating awareness and working knowledge of the effects of systemic health on dentition and oral cavity and to perform the duties of an active member of the healthcare team, including basic life support;

(vi) promoting good systemic health through diagnosis and necessary interventions related to oral health conditions; and

(vii) bringing awareness of oral health related issues of the society and of nation and to facilitate implementation of the updated policies of the Government or Government bodies in this regard;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 3 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

(m) "Ethics and Dental Registration Board" means the Board constituted under section 16;

(n) "Fund" means the National Dental Commission Fund referred to in sub-section (1) of section 39;

(o) "leader" means the Head of a Department or the Head of an Institute or organisation;

(p) "licence" means a licence to practice dentistry granted under sub-section (1) of section 31;

(q) "Member" means a Member of the Commission appointed under section 4 and includes the Chairperson thereof, or, as the case may be, a Member of the Autonomous Board referred to in section 17 and includes the President thereof;

(r) "National Register" means the National Register for Dentists or the National Register for Dental Auxiliaries, as the case may be, maintained by the Ethics and Dental Registration Board under section 30;

(s) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette and the expression "notify" shall be construed accordingly;

(t) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;

(u) "President" means the President of an Autonomous Board appointed under section 18;

(v) "recognised dental qualification" means a dental qualification recognised under section 33 or section 34 or section 35, as the case may be;

(w) "regulations" means the regulations made by the Commission under this Act;

(x) "registered professional" means any dentist or dental auxiliary who is registered in the National Register or the State Register under section 30;

(y) "Schedule" means the Schedule to this Act;

(z) "State Dental Council" means a dental council constituted under any law for the time being in force in any State or Union territory for regulating the practice and registration of practitioners of dentistry in that State or Union territory and includes a Joint Dental Council referred to in sub-section (7) of section 29;

(za) "State Register" means the State Register for Dentists or the State Register for Dental Auxiliaries, as the case may be, maintained under any law for the time being in force in any State or Union territory for registration of dentists or dental auxiliaries, as the case may be;

(zb) "Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board" means the Board constituted under section 16;

3 of 1956.

(zc) "University" shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (f) of section 2 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and includes a health University.

CHAPTER II

NATIONAL DENTAL COMMISSION

Constitution of National Dental Commission.

3. (1) The Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, with effect from such date as it may appoint, constitute a Commission, to be known as the National Dental Commission, to exercise the powers conferred upon, and to perform the functions assigned to it, under this Act.

4 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-71

(2) The Commission shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power, subject to the provisions of this Act, to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract, and shall, by the said name, sue or be sued.

(3) The head office of the Commission shall be at New Delhi.

4. (1) The Commission shall consist of the following persons to be appointed by the Central Government, namely:—

Composition of Commission.

(a) a Chairperson;

(b) eight ex officio Members; and

(2) The Chairperson shall be a dentist of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in dentistry from any University or institutes of national importance and having experience of not less than twenty years in the field of dentistry, out of which at least ten years shall be as a leader in the area of dental education.

(3) The following persons shall be the ex officio Members of the Commission, namely:—

(a) the President of the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board;

(b) the President of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board;

(d) the Director General of Health Services, Directorate General of Health Services, New Delhi;

(e) Chief of the Centre for Dental Education and Research, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi;

(f) Head of the Oral Health Sciences Centre, Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh;

(g) one person, not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India, to represent the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, to be nominated by that Ministry;

(h) the Chairperson, National Medical Commission or nominee from that Commission.

(4) The following persons shall be appointed as part-time Members of the Commission, namely:—

(a) three Members, to be appointed from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing, who have special knowledge and professional experience in such areas including management, law, medical ethics, health research, consumer or patient rights advocacy, science and technology and economics, in such manner as may be prescribed, for a term of four years;

(b) ten Members to be appointed on rotational basis from amongst the nominees of the States and Union territories under clauses (c) and (d) of sub-section (2) of section 11 in the Dental Advisory Council, in such manner as may be prescribed, for a term of two years;

(c) nine members to be appointed on rotational basis from amongst the nominees of the States and Union territories under clause (e) of sub-section (2) of section 11 in the Dental Advisory Council, in such manner as may be prescribed, for a term of two years;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 5 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5

(d) two dental faculties, from any Central or State or Autonomous Government Institutes, doing exemplary work in the field of dental education, to be nominated by the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed, for a term of four years.

5. (1) The Central Government shall appoint—

(i) the Chairperson referred to in sub-section (2) of section 4;

(ii) part-time Members referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (4) of section 4;

(iii) the Secretary referred to in section 8; and

Search-cum- Selection Committee for appointment of Chairperson and Members.

(iv) the President and Members of Autonomous Boards referred to in section 16,

on the recommendation of a Search-cum-Selection Committee consisting of—

(a) the Cabinet Secretary—Chairperson;

(b) three experts, possessing outstanding qualifications and experience of not less than twenty-five years in the field of dental education, public health education and health research, to be nominated by the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed—Members;

(c) one person, possessing outstanding qualifications and experience of not less than twenty-five years in the field of management or law or economics or science and technology, to be nominated by the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed—Member;

(d) the Secretary to the Government of India in charge of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, to be the Convener—Member.

(2) The Central Government shall, within one month from the date of occurrence of any vacancy, including by reason of death, resignation or removal, of the Chairperson or Member or Secretary of the Commission or the President or Member of the Autonomous Board, as the case may be, or within three months before the end of tenure of such person, make a reference to the Search-cum-Selection Committee for filling up of the vacancy.

(3) The Search-cum-Selection Committee shall recommend a panel of at least three names for every vacancy referred to it.

(4) The Search-cum-Selection Committee shall, before recommending any person for appointment as the Chairperson or Member or Secretary, satisfy itself that such person does not have any financial or other interest which is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as such Chairperson or Member or Secretary.

(5) No appointment of the Chairperson or Member or Secretary of the Commission or the President or Member of the Autonomous Board, as the case may be, shall be invalid merely by reason of any vacancy or absence of a Member in the Search-cum-Selection Committee.

(6) Subject to the provisions of sub-sections (2) to (5), the Search-cum-Selection Committee may regulate its own procedure.

6. (1) The Chairperson appointed under sub-section (2) of section 4, and Member of the Commission appointed or nominated under clauses (a) and (d) of sub-section (4) of section 4 shall not be eligible for any extension of term beyond four years or for reappointment and such person shall cease to hold office after attaining the age of seventy years.

Term of office and conditions of service of Chairperson and Members.

(2) The term of office of an ex officio Member shall continue as long as he holds the office by virtue of which he is such Member.

(3) Where a Member, other than an ex officio Member, is absent from three consecutive ordinary meetings of the Commission and the cause of such absence is not attributable to6 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-71 any valid reason in the opinion of the Commission, such Member shall be deemed to have vacated the seat.

(4) The salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of, the Chairperson and Members appointed or nominated under clauses (a) and (d) of sub-section (4) of section 4, other than an ex officio Member, shall be such as may be prescribed.

(5) The Chairperson or a Member or Secretary of the Commission may,—

(a) relinquish his office by giving in writing to the Central Government a notice of not less than three months; or

(b) be removed from his office in accordance with the provisions of section 7:

Provided that such person may be relieved from duties earlier than three months or be allowed to continue beyond three months until a successor is appointed, if the Central Government so decides.

(6) The Chairperson and every Member of the Commission shall make declaration of his assets and liabilities at the time of entering upon his office and at the time of demitting his office and also declare his professional and commercial engagement or involvement in such form and manner as may be prescribed, and such declaration shall be published on the website of the Commission.

(7) The Chairperson or a Member appointed or nominated under clauses (a) and (d) of sub-section (4) of section 4 or the Secretary, ceasing to hold office as such, shall not accept, for a period of two years from the date of demitting such office, any employment, in any capacity, including as a consultant or an expert, in any private dental institution, whose matter has been dealt with by such person, directly or indirectly:

Provided that nothing herein shall be construed as preventing such person from accepting an employment in a body or institution, including dental institution, controlled or maintained by the Central Government or a State Government:

Provided further that nothing herein shall prevent the Central Government from permitting the Chairperson or Member or Secretary of the Commission to accept any employment in any capacity, including as a consultant or expert in any private dental institution whose matter has been dealt with by such Chairperson or Member or Secretary.

7. (1) The Central Government may, by order, remove from office the Chairperson or any other Member, who—

(a) has been adjudged an insolvent; or

Removal of Chairperson and Member of Commission.

(b) has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or

(d) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; or

(e) has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Member; or

(f) has so abused his position as to render his continuance in office prejudicial to public interest.

(2) No Member shall be removed under clauses (e) and (f) of sub-section (1) unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter.

8. (1) There shall be a Secretariat for the Commission to be headed by a Secretary, to be appointed by the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of section 5.

(2) The Secretary of the Commission shall be a person of proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed.

(3) The Secretary shall be appointed by the Central Government for a term of four Appointment of Secretary, experts, professionals, officers and other employees of Commission.

years and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 7 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

(4) The Secretary shall also be the Member Secretary of each of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 16.

(5) The Secretary shall discharge such functions of the Commission, and of each of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 16, as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The Commission may, for the efficient discharge of its functions under this Act, appoint such officers and other employees of the Commission, other than Secretary, as it considers necessary, against the posts created by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Commission.

(7) The salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the Secretary, officers and other employees of the Commission shall be such as may be prescribed.

(8) The Commission may engage, in accordance with the procedure specified by regulations, such number of experts, consultants and professionals of integrity and outstanding ability, who have special knowledge and experience in such fields, including dental education, public health, management, health economics, quality assurance, patient advocacy, health research, science and technology, administration, finance, accounts and law, as it deems necessary, to assist the Commission in the discharge of its functions under this Act:

Provided that the Commission may, to facilitate global mobility and employability of registered professionals, invite such number of experts and domain specialists from a foreign country, as it deems necessary, who have special knowledge of dental curriculum, practical training and pattern of examination including licentiate examination of that country, to the meetings of the Commission, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

9. (1) The Commission shall meet at least once every quarter at such time and place as may be appointed by the Chairperson.

Meetings, etc., of Commission.

(2) The Chairperson shall preside at the meeting of the Commission and if, for any reason, the Chairperson is unable to attend the meeting of the Commission, any other Member, being the President of an Autonomous Board, nominated by the Chairperson, shall preside at the meeting.

(3) Unless the procedure to be followed at the meetings of the Commission is otherwise provided by regulations, one-half of the total number of Members of the Commission including the Chairperson shall constitute the quorum and all the acts of the Commission shall be decided by a majority of the members present and voting and in the event of equality of votes, the Chairperson, or in his absence, the President of the Autonomous Board nominated under sub-section (2), shall have the casting vote.

(4) The general superintendence, direction and control of the administration of the Commission shall vest in the Chairperson.

(5) No act done by the Commission shall be questioned on the ground of the existence of a vacancy in, or a defect in the constitution of, the Commission.

Powers and functions of Commission.

10. (1) The Commission shall, for ensuring coordinated and integrated development of education and maintenance of the standards of delivery of services, take all such steps, as it may think fit, and revise the same periodically, as may be specified by regulations.

(2) The Commission shall perform the following functions, namely:—

(a) lay down policies and regulate standards for the governance of dental education, examination and training and make necessary regulations in this behalf;

(b) promote adoption of additional degrees or diplomas, higher qualifications, including certification courses and development of soft skills for advancement of career of the dentists and dental auxiliaries;

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(c) regulate dental institutions, dental researches, dentists and dental auxiliaries and make necessary regulations in this behalf;

30 of 2019.

(d) ensure that all admissions to undergraduate dental course, namely, Bachelor of Dental Surgery in all dental institutions which are governed by the provisions of this Act or any other law for the time being in force, shall be through National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test conducted under section 14 of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019;

(e) to identify and regulate any other category of dental auxiliaries;

(f) to collaborate with industry and institutions for use of cutting-edge technology and hybrid education to drive innovation and research in the field of dental education and examinations and make necessary regulations in this behalf;

(g) assess the requirements in dental healthcare, including human resources for dental health, career progression of dentists and dental auxiliaries and healthcare infrastructure and develop a road map for meeting such requirements;

(h) promote, coordinate and frame guidelines and lay down policies by making necessary regulations for the proper functioning of the Commission, the Autonomous Boards, the Dental Advisory Council, the State Dental Councils and the Joint Dental Councils;

(i) ensure coordination among the Autonomous Boards;

(j) take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance by the State Dental Councils of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act for their effective functioning under this Act;

(k) exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of the Autonomous Boards;

(l) promote preventive dental care services;

(m) lay down policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in dental profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by dentists;

(n) frame guidelines for determination of fees and all other charges in respect of fifty per cent. of seats in private dental institutions and deemed to be Universities which are governed under the provisions of this Act;

(o) take measures to enhance skills and competency of registered professionals for facilitating global mobility;

(p) exercise such other powers and perform such other functions as may be prescribed.

(3) The Commission may delegate such of its functions (except the power to make regulations) to the Autonomous Boards as it may deem necessary.

(4) The Commission may give such directions, as may deem necessary, to a State Council for carrying out all or any of the provisions of this Act and the State Council shall comply with such directions.

(5) All orders and decisions of the Commission shall be authenticated by the signature of the Secretary.

(6) The Commission may delegate such of its powers of administrative and financial matters, as it deems fit, to the Secretary.

(7) The Commission may constitute sub-committees and delegate such of its powers to such sub-committees as may be necessary to enable them to accomplish specific tasks.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 9 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9

CHAPTER III

DENTAL ADVISORY COUNCIL

11. (1) The Central Government shall constitute an advisory body to be known as the Dental Advisory Council.

(2) The Council shall consist of a Chairperson and the following members, namely:—

Constitution and composition of Dental Advisory Council.

(a) the Chairperson of the Commission shall be the ex officio Chairperson of the Council;

(b) every ex officio member of the Commission appointed under sub-section (3) of section 4, and the part-time members appointed under clauses (a) and (d) of sub-section (4) of that section, shall be the ex officio members of the Council;

(c) one member to represent each State, who is the Dean or Principal of a Government Dental College in that State, to be nominated by that State Government:

Provided that the term of office of the member shall continue as long as he holds the post by virtue of which he has been nominated, subject to a maximum of four years;

(d) one member to represent each Union territory, who is the Dean or Principal of a Government Dental College in that Union territory, to be nominated by the Ministry of Home Affairs in the Government of India:

Provided that the term of office of the member shall continue as long as he holds the post by virtue of which he has been nominated, subject to a maximum of four years:

Provided further that if there is no Government Dental College in any State or Union territory, the State Government or in case of a Union territory, the Ministry of Home Affairs shall nominate a member possessing such dental qualifications and experience, as may be prescribed;

(e) one member to represent each State and each Union territory from amongst the members of the State Dental Council, to be nominated by that State Dental Council for a term of four years and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment:

Provided that if such member ceases to be a member of the State Dental Council before the completion of his four year term, then, he shall cease to be a member of the Dental Advisory Council as well, and in such an eventuality, the State Dental Council shall nominate another member to represent that State or Union territory, as the case may be, for the remaining term of office of the member in whose place he is so nominated;

(f) the Chairman, University Grants Commission;

(g) the Director, National Assessment and Accreditation Council;

(h) three members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons holding the post of Director in the institutions of national importance or Vice-Chancellor in the Universities;

(i) Director General of Indian Council for Medical Research or his nominee not below the rank of Scientist 'H';

(j) Director General Dental Services, Army Dental Corps or nominee.

12. (1) The Council shall be the primary platform through which the States and Union territories may put forth their views and concerns before the Commission and help in shaping the overall agenda, policy and action relating to dental education and training.

Functions of Dental Advisory Council.

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(2) The Council shall advise the Commission on measures to determine and maintain, and to coordinate maintenance of, the minimum standards in all matters relating to dental education, training and research.

(3) The Council shall advise the Commission on measures to enhance equitable access to dental education and uniform system of examination.

13. (1) The Council shall meet at least once a year at such time and place as may be decided by the Chairperson.

Meetings of Dental Advisory Council.

(2) The Chairperson shall preside at the meeting of the Council and if for any reason the Chairperson is unable to attend a meeting of the Council, such other member as nominated by the Chairperson shall preside over the meeting.

(3) Unless the procedure is otherwise provided by regulations, fifty per cent. of the members of the Council including the Chairperson shall form the quorum and all acts of the Council shall be decided by a majority of the members present and voting.

CHAPTER IV

NATIONAL EXAMINATION

National Eligibility-cum- Entrance Test.

30 of 2019.

14. (1) All admissions to the undergraduate course of Bachelor of Dental Surgery in all dental institutions which are governed by the provisions of this Act or any other law for the time being in force shall be through National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test conducted under section 14 of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019.

(2) Till such time as the National Exit Test (Dental) becomes operational under section 15, all admissions to the postgraduate courses of Master of Dental Surgery in all dental institutions which are governed by the provisions of this Act or any other law for the time being in force shall be through National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (MDS) to be conducted by the designated authority appointed by the Central Government.

(3) The Commission shall specify by regulations the manner of conducting common counselling by the designated authority for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate seats in all the dental institutions which are governed by the provisions of this Act:

Provided that the designated authority appointed or nominated by the Central Government shall conduct the common counselling for all India seats and the designated authority of the State Government shall conduct the common counselling for the seats at the State level.

CHAPTER V

NATIONAL EXIT TEST (DENTAL)

National Exit Test (Dental).

15. (1) A common final year undergraduate dental examination, to be known as the 'National Exit Test (Dental)' shall be held for granting licence to practice dentistry as dentists and for enrolment in the State Register or the National Register, as the case may be.

(2) The Commission shall conduct the National Exit Test (Dental) through such designated authority and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) The National Exit Test (Dental) shall become operational on such date, within three years from the date of commencement of this Act, as may be appointed by the Central Government, by notification.

(4) Any person with a foreign dental qualification shall have to qualify National Exit Test (Dental) for the purpose of obtaining licence to practice dentistry as dentist and for enrolment in the State Register or the National Register, as the case may be, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(5) The National Exit Test (Dental) shall be the basis for admission to the postgraduate dental education in dental institutions which are governed under the provisions of this ActSEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 11 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 11 or under any other law for the time being in force and shall be done in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The Commission shall specify by regulations the manner of conducting common counselling by the designated authority for admission to the postgraduate seats in the dental institutions referred to in sub-section (5).

(7) The designated authority of the Central Government shall conduct the common counselling for All India seats and the designated authority of the State Government shall conduct the common counselling for the seats at the State level.

CHAPTER VI

AUTONOMOUS BOARDS

16. (1) The Central Government shall, by notification, constitute the following Autonomous Boards, under the overall supervision of the Commission, to perform the functions assigned to such Boards under this Act, namely:—

Constitution of Autonomous Boards.

(a) the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board;

(b) the Dental Assessment and Rating Board; and

(2) Every Autonomous Board shall carry out its functions under this Act in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

17. (1) Every Autonomous Board shall consist of a President, not more than two whole-time Members and not more than two part-time Members.

Composition of Autonomous Boards.

(2) The President of each Autonomous Board, two whole-time Members and one part-time Member of the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board, and one whole-time Member and one part-time Member of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board and of the Ethics and Dental Registration Board, shall be persons of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any discipline of dentistry from any University and having hands-on clinical experience of not less than fifteen years, out of which at least seven years shall be as a leader in the area of dental education.

(3) The second whole-time Member of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall be a person of outstanding ability and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any of the disciplines of management, quality assurance, law or science and technology from any University, having experience of not less than fifteen years in such field, out of which at least seven years shall be as a leader.

(4) The second whole-time Member of the Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall be a person of outstanding ability who has demonstrated public record of work on dental or medical ethics or a person of outstanding ability possessing a postgraduate degree in any of the disciplines of quality assurance, public health, law or patient advocacy from any University and having experience of not less than fifteen years in such field, out of which at least seven years shall be as a leader.

(5) The second part-time Member of the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board, the Dental Assessment and Rating Board and the Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall be chosen from amongst the Members appointed under clause (c) of sub-section (4) of section 4 in such manner as may be prescribed.

18. The Central Government shall appoint the President and Members of the Autonomous Boards, except Members referred to in sub-section (5) of section 17, on the recommendations made by the Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted under section 5 in accordance with the procedure specified in that section.

Search-cum- Selection Committee for appointment of President and Members.

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19. (1) The President and Members (other than part-time Members) of each Autonomous Board shall hold the office for a term not exceeding four years and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment:

Term of office and conditions of service of President and Members.

Provided that part-time Members of each Autonomous Board shall hold the office for a term of two years:

Provided further that the President or a Member shall cease to hold office after attaining the age of seventy years.

(2) The salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the President and Members (other than part-time Members) of an Autonomous Board shall be such as may be prescribed:

Provided that part-time Members of each Autonomous Board shall be entitled for such allowances as may be prescribed.

(3) The provisions of sub-sections (3), (5), (6) and (7) of section 6 relating to other terms and conditions of service of, and section 7 relating to removal from the office of, the Chairperson and Members of the Commission shall also be applicable to the President and Members of the Autonomous Boards.

Advisory committees of experts.

20. (1) Each Autonomous Board, except the Ethics and Dental Registration Board, shall be assisted by such advisory committees of experts as may be constituted by the Commission for the efficient discharge of the functions of such Boards under this Act:

Provided that the advisory committee for the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board shall also have at least one member from amongst personnel of each category of the dental auxiliaries to be nominated by the Chairperson of the Commission, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(2) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall be assisted by such ethics committees of experts as may be constituted by the Commission for the efficient discharge of the functions of that Board under this Act.

Staff of Autonomous Boards.

21. The experts, consultants, professionals, officers and other employees appointed under section 8 shall be made available to the Autonomous Boards in such number, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations by the Commission:

Provided that the experts and domain specialists from foreign countries invited by the Commission under sub-section (8) of section 8 shall also be made available to the Autonomous Boards in such number and manner, as may be specified by regulations.

22. (1) Every Autonomous Board shall meet at least once every month, or earlier, as the case may be, at such time and place as it may appoint.

Meetings, etc., of Autonomous Boards.

(2) All decisions of the Autonomous Boards shall be made by majority of votes of the President and Members.

(3) Subject to the provisions of section 28, a person who is aggrieved by any decision of an Autonomous Board may prefer an appeal to the Commission against such decision within thirty days of the communication of such decision; and the Commission shall, after giving an opportunity of being heard, dispose of the appeal within a period of sixty days from the date of such appeal:

Provided that the President of the concerned Board shall not attend proceedings of the hearing of the appeal made against the decision of his Board.

23. (1) The President of each Autonomous Board shall have such administrative and financial powers as may be delegated to it by the Commission to enable such Board to function efficiently.

Powers of Autonomous Boards and delegation of powers.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 13 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 13

(2) The President of an Autonomous Board may further delegate any of his powers to a Member or an officer of that Board, and such person shall exercise his powers subject to the general control, supervision and direction of the President.

24. (1) The Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board shall perform the following functions, namely: —

(a) determine minimum requirements and standards of dental education at undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries in accordance with the regulations made under this Act, and oversee all aspects relating thereto;

Powers and functions of Under- Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board.

(b) develop competency based dynamic curriculum at undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries for addressing the needs of basic dental care services, including public dentistry and community dental care, in accordance with the provisions of regulations made under this Act with a view to develop appropriate skill, knowledge, attitude, values and ethics to provide dental care, impart dental education and conduct dental research;

(c) frame guidelines for setting up of dental institutions for imparting undergraduate courses and postgraduate courses for dentists and dental auxiliaries, having regard to the needs of the country and the global norms, in accordance with the regulations made under this Act;

(d) determine the minimum requirements and standards for conducting courses and examinations at undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries in dental institutions, having regard to the needs of creativity at local levels, including designing of some courses by individual institutions, in accordance with provisions of the regulations made under this Act;

(e) determine standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education in dental institutions providing undergraduate and postgraduate dental education for dentists and dental auxiliaries in accordance with provisions of the regulations made under this Act;

(f) facilitate development and training of faculty members teaching undergraduate courses for dentists and dental auxiliaries;

(g) facilitate research and the international student and faculty exchange programme relating to undergraduate and postgraduate dental education;

(h) specify norms for compulsory annual disclosures, electronically or otherwise, by dental institutions, in respect of their functions which have a bearing on the interest of all stakeholders, including students, faculty, State Dental Councils, Joint Dental Council, the Commission and the Central Government;

(i) grant recognition to a dental qualification at the undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries.

(2) The Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board shall, in the discharge of its duties, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the Commission, as it deems necessary.

25. (1) The Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall perform the following functions, namely:—

Powers and functions of Dental Assessment and Rating Board.

(a) determine the procedure for assessing and rating the dental institutions for their compliance with the standards laid down by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board in accordance with the regulations made under this Act;

(b) grant permission for establishment of a new dental institution, or to start any postgraduate course or to increase number of seats, in accordance with the provisions of section 28;

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(c) conduct inspections of dental institutions using Information Technology based tools or otherwise for assessing and rating such institutions in accordance with the regulations made under this Act:

Provided that the Dental Assessment and Rating Board may, if it deems necessary, hire and authorise any other third party agency or accreditation body or persons for carrying out inspections of dental institutions for assessing and rating such institutions:

Provided further that where inspection of dental institutions is carried out by such third party agency or accreditation body or persons authorised by the Dental Assessment and Rating Board, it shall be obligatory on such institutions to provide access to such agency or person;

(d) conduct, or where it deems necessary, empanel independent rating agencies to conduct, inspection to assess and rate all dental institutions, within such period of their opening, and every year thereafter, at such time, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that the Dental Assessment and Rating Board may conduct evaluation and assessment of any dental institution at any time, either directly or through any other expert having integrity and experience of dental profession and without any prior notice and assess and evaluate the performance, standards and benchmarks of such dental institution;

(e) make available on its website or in public domain the assessment and ratings of dental institutions at regular intervals in accordance with the regulations made under this Act;

(f) take such measures, including issuing warning, imposition of monetary penalty, reducing intake or stoppage of admissions and recommending to the Commission for withdrawal of recognition, against a dental institution for failure to maintain the minimum essential standards specified by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board, in accordance with the regulations made under this Act:

Provided that the monetary penalty so imposed shall not be less than one-tenth, and not more than five times, of the total amount charged, by whatever name called, by such institution for one full batch of students of undergraduate course or postgraduate course, as the case may be:

Provided further that the Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall consult the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board before recommending to the Commission for withdrawal of recognition of a dental institution that fails to maintain the minimum essential standards specified by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board.

(2) The Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall, in the discharge of its functions, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the Commission, as it deems necessary.

26. (1) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall perform the following functions, namely:—

(a) maintain an online and live National Registers of all licensed dentists and dental auxiliaries in accordance with the provisions of section 30;

Powers and functions of Ethics and Dental Registration Board.

(b) regulate the standards, scope of practice, professional conduct and promote dental ethics in accordance with the regulations made under this Act:

Provided that the Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall ensure compliance of the code of professional and ethical conduct through the State Dental Council in aSEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 15 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 15 case where such State Dental Council has been conferred power to take disciplinary actions in respect of professional or ethical misconduct by dentists under respective State Acts;

(c) approve or reject the application for registration or suspend or cancel registration or licence granted to dentists and dental auxiliaries on grounds of professional and ethical misconduct;

(d) develop mechanisms to have continuous interaction with State Dental Councils to effectively promote and regulate the conduct of dentists and professionals;

(e) exercise appellate jurisdiction under sub-section (5) of section 29 with respect to the actions taken by a State Dental Council.

(2) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall, in the discharge of its duties, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the Commission, as it deems necessary.

27. (1) No person shall establish a new dental college or start any postgraduate course or increase number of seats without obtaining prior permission of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board:

Provided that the Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall consult the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board before approving or disapproving such permission.

Permission for establishment of new dental college or to start postgraduate course or to increase number of seats.

(2) For the purposes of obtaining permission under sub-section (1), a person may submit a scheme to the Dental Assessment and Rating Board in such form, containing such particulars, accompanied by such fee, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations.

(3) The Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall, having due regard to the criteria specified in section 28, consider the scheme received under sub-section (2) and either approve or disapprove such scheme within a period of six months from the date of such receipt:

Provided that the Dental Assessment and Rating Board shall consult the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board before approving such scheme:

Provided further that before disapproving the scheme, an opportunity to rectify the defects, if any, shall be given to the person concerned.

(4) Where a scheme is approved under sub-section (3), such approval shall be the permission under sub-section (1) to establish new dental college or to start any postgraduate course or to increase number of seats, as the case may be.

(5) Where a scheme is disapproved under sub-section (3), or where no decision is taken within six months of submitting a scheme under sub-section (1), the person concerned may prefer an appeal to the Commission for approval of the scheme within fifteen days of such disapproval or, as the case may be, lapse of six months, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The Commission shall decide the appeal received under sub-section (5) within a period of sixty days from the date of receipt of the appeal and in case the Commission approves the scheme, such approval shall be the permission under sub-section (1) to establish a new dental college or to start any postgraduate course or to increase number of seats, as the case may be, and in case the Commission disapproves the Scheme, or fails to give its decision within the specified period, the person concerned may prefer a second appeal to the Central Government within thirty days of communication of such disapproval or, as the case may be, lapse of specified period.

(7) The Dental Assessment and Rating Board may conduct evaluation and assessment of any dental institution at any time, either directly or through any other expert having16 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-71 integrity and experience in dental profession, without any prior notice and assess and evaluate the performance, standards and benchmarks of such dental institution.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the term "person" includes a University, trust or any other association of persons or body of individuals, but does not include the Central Government.

28. While approving or disapproving a scheme under section 27, the Dental Assessment and Rating Board, or the Commission, as the case may be, shall take into consideration the following criteria, namely:—

Criteria for approving or disapproving scheme.

(a) adequacy of financial resources;

(b) whether adequate academic faculty and other necessary facilities have been provided to ensure proper functioning of dental college or undertaken to be provided within the time-limit specified in the scheme;

(c) whether adequate hospital facilities have been provided or undertaken to be provided within the time-limit specified in the scheme;

(d) such other factors as may be specified by regulations.

CHAPTER VII

STATE DENTAL COUNCIL OR JOINT DENTAL COUNCIL

29. (1) The State Government shall, within one year of the commencement of this Act, take necessary steps to establish a State Dental Council having the following composition, namely:—

State Dental Council or Joint Dental Council.

(a) a dentist of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity and possessing a postgraduate degree in any discipline of dentistry from any University or institute of national importance with experience of not less than twenty years in the field of dentistry, out of which at least ten years shall be as a leader, to be appointed by the State Government—Chairperson;

(b) one representative of the department of medical education or health services in the State Government not below the rank of Additional Director— Member, ex officio;

(c) four persons to be elected by dentists registered in the State Register from among themselves, in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Government— Members;

(d) two persons, having experience of not less than ten years in any field of dentistry from any Government Dental College in that State, to be nominated by the State Government—Members:

Provided that if the State does not have a Government Dental College, the State Government may nominate one of the senior-most dentist with minimum of ten years' service in any Government hospital or in the dental department of a Government Medical College;

(e) two persons having experience of not less than ten years in any field of dentistry from any recognised private dental college in the State, to be nominated by the State Government—Members:

Provided that if the State does not have a private dental college, the State Government may nominate one of the senior-most dentist with minimum of ten years' service in any private hospital or in the dental department of a private medical college;

(f) two persons of eminence having experience of not less than ten years in any field of dentistry, to be nominated by the State Government—Members.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 17 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 17

(2) The State Dental Council shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract and shall by the same name sue or be sued.

(3) The Chairperson of the State Dental Council and Members elected or nominated under clauses (c), (d), (e) and (f) of sub-section (1) shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years from the date on which they enter upon their office and shall not be eligible for extension or reappointment:

Provided that such person shall cease to hold office after attaining the age of seventy years.

(4) Where a State Act confers power upon the State Dental Council to take disciplinary actions in respect of any professional or ethical misconduct by a registered dentist or professional, the State Dental Council shall act in accordance with the regulations made, and the guidelines framed, under this Act:

Provided that till such time as a State Dental Council is established in a State, the Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall receive the complaints and grievances relating to any professional or ethical misconduct against a registered dentist or professional in that State in accordance with such procedure as may be specified by regulations:

Provided further that the Ethics and Dental Registration Board or the State Dental Council, as the case may be, shall give an opportunity of being heard to the dentist or professional concerned before taking any action, including imposition of any monetary penalty against such person.

(5) A registered professional or any other person who is aggrieved by any action taken by a State Dental Council under sub-section (4) may prefer an appeal to the Ethics and Dental Registration Board within sixty days against such action, and the Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall decide on the appeal within a period of sixty days and the decision, if any, of the Ethics and Dental Registration Board thereupon shall be binding on the State Dental Council, unless a second appeal is preferred under sub-section (6).

(6) A registered professional or any other person who is aggrieved by the decision of the Ethics and Dental Registration Board may prefer an appeal to the Commission within sixty days of communication of such decision and the Commission shall dispose of such appeal within a period of ninety days from the date of that appeal.

(7) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this section, two or more States Governments may enter into an agreement to constitute a Joint Dental Council with representation of the participating States, not exceeding the composition specified in sub-section (1), to be in force for such period and subject to renewal for such further period, as may be specified in the agreement.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this Act,—

(a) "State" includes Union territory and the expressions "State Government" and "State Dental Council", in relation to a Union territory, shall respectively mean the "Central Government" and "Union Territory Dental Council";

(b) the expression "professional or ethical misconduct" includes any act of commission or omission as may be specified by regulations.

CHAPTER VIII

NATIONAL REGISTER AND STATE REGISTER

National Register and State Register.

30. (1) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall maintain an online and live National Register for Dentists containing the name, address, all recognised qualifications possessed by a licensed dentist and such other particulars as may be specified by regulations.

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(2) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall also maintain a separate online and live National Register for each category of dental auxiliaries, containing the name, address, recognised qualifications possessed by the dental auxiliaries and such other particulars as may be specified by regulations.

(3) The National Register referred to in sub-sections (1) and (2) shall be maintained in such form, including in electronic or digital form and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(4) The manner in which a name or qualification may be added to, or removed from, the National Register and the grounds for removal thereof, shall be such as may be specified by regulations.

(5) The National Register shall be a public document within the meaning of section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

1 of 1872.

(6) The National Register shall be made available to the public in form of a digital portal accessible on the website of the Ethics and Dental Registration Board in such manner and form as may be specified by regulations.

(7) Every State Dental Council shall maintain and regularly update the State Register for Dentists and the State Register for dental auxiliaries in the specified electronic format and supply a physical copy of the same to the Ethics and Dental Registration Board within three months of the commencement of this Act.

(8) The Ethics and Dental Registration Board shall ensure electronic synchronisation of the National Register and the State Registers in such manner that any change in one register is automatically reflected in the other register.

31. (1) Any person who qualifies the National Exit Test (Dental) held under section 15 shall be granted a licence to practice dentistry and shall have his name and qualifications enrolled in the National Register or a State Register, as the case may be:

16 of 1948.

Provided that a person who has been registered in the Indian Dental Register maintained under the Dentists Act, 1948 prior to the coming into force of this Act and before the National Exit Test (Dental) becomes operational under sub-section (3) of section 15, shall be deemed to have been registered under this Act and be enrolled in the National Register maintained under this Act.

Rights of persons to have licence to practice and to be enrolled in National Register or State Register and their obligations thereto.

(2) No person who has obtained dental qualification from a dental institution established in any country outside India and is recognised as a dentist in that country, shall, after the commencement of this Act and the National Exit Test (Dental) becomes operational under sub-section (3) of section 15, be enrolled in the National Register unless he qualifies the National Exit Test (Dental).

(3) When a person whose name is entered in the State Register or the National Register, as the case may be, obtains any title, diploma or other qualification for proficiency in sciences or public health or dentistry which is a recognised dental qualification under section 33 or section 34 or section 35, as the case may be, he shall be entitled to have such title, diploma or qualification entered against his name in the State Register or the National Register, as the case may be, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

32. (1) No person other than a person who is enrolled in the State Register or the Bar to practice.

National Register, as the case may be, shall—

(a) be allowed to practice dentistry as a qualified dentist;

(b) hold office as a dentist or any other office, by whatever name called, which is meant to be held by a dentist;

(c) be entitled to sign or authenticate a medical or fitness certificate or any other certificate relating to dentistry, required by any law to be signed or authenticated by a duly qualified dentist;

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1 of 1872.

(d) be entitled to give evidence at any inquest or in any court of law as an expert under section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 on any matter relating to dentistry:

Provided that a foreign citizen who is enrolled in his country as a dentist in accordance with the law regulating the registration of dentists in that country may be permitted temporary registration in India for such period and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(2) Any person who contravenes any of the provisions of this section shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to five lakh rupees or with both.

CHAPTER IX

RECOGNITION OF DENTAL QUALIFICATIONS

33. (1) The dental qualification granted by any University or dental institution in India shall be listed and maintained by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board in such manner as may be specified by regulations and such dental qualification shall be a recognised dental qualification for the purposes of this Act.

Recognition of dental qualifications granted by Universities or dental institutions in India.

(2) Any University or dental institution in India which grants an undergraduate or postgraduate dental qualification not included in the list maintained by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board shall apply to that Board for granting recognition to such qualification.

(3) The Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board shall examine the application for grant of recognition to a dental qualification within a period of six months in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(4) Where the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board decides to grant recognition to a dental qualification, it shall include such dental qualification in the list maintained by it and also specify the date of effect of such recognition.

(5) Where the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board decides not to grant recognition to a dental qualification, the University or the dental institution concerned may prefer an appeal to the Commission for grant of recognition within sixty days of the communication of such decision, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The Commission shall examine the appeal received under sub-section (5) within sixty days from the date of filing of appeal and after giving an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders, as it thinks fit.

(7) Where the Commission decides not to grant recognition to the dental qualification or fails to take a decision within the specified period, the University or the dental institution concerned may prefer a second appeal to the Central Government within thirty days of the communication of such decision or lapse of the specified period, as the case may be.

16 of 1948.

(8) All dental qualifications which have been recognised before the date of commencement of this Act and are included in Part I and Part II of the Schedule to the Dentists Act, 1948, shall also be recognised dental qualifications for the purposes of this Act, and shall be listed and maintained by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

34. (1) Any primary dental qualification or higher dental qualification which is recognised for enrolment as a dentist in a foreign country shall, in respect of a person who qualifies the National Exit Test (Dental) for primary dental qualification, or the Screening Test for higher dental qualification, be deemed to be a recognised dental qualification for the purposes of this Act.

Recognition of dental qualifications granted by dental institutions outside India.

(2) The Commission shall, for the purposes of sub-section (1), conduct Screening Test for higher dental qualification through such designated authority, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations.

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16 of 1948.

(3) All dental qualifications which have been recognised before the date of commencement of this Act and are included in Part III of the Schedule to the Dentists Act, 1948, shall also be recognised dental qualifications for the purposes of this Act, and shall be listed and maintained by the Commission in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

35. (1) The dental qualifications granted by any statutory or other dental body in India which are covered by the categories listed in the Schedule shall be recognised dental qualifications for the purposes of this Act.

Recognition of dental qualifications granted by statutory or other body in India.

(2) The Central Government may, on the recommendation of the Commission, and having regard to the objects of this Act, by notification, add to, or, as the case may be, omit from, the Schedule any categories of dental qualifications granted by a statutory or other body in India and on such addition, or as the case may be, omission, the dental qualifications granted by such statutory or other body in India shall be, or shall cease to be, recognised dental qualifications for the purposes of this Act.

36. (1) Where, upon receiving the recommendation from the Dental Assessment and

Rating Board under section 25, or otherwise, if the Commission is of the opinion that—

(a) the courses of study and examination to be undergone in, or the proficiency required from candidates at any examination held by, a University or dental institution do not conform to the standards specified by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board; or

Withdrawal of recognition granted to dental qualification granted by dental institutions in India.

(b) the standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education in dental institution as determined by the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board are not adhered to by any University or dental institution, and such University or dental institution has failed to take necessary corrective action to maintain specified minimum standards,

the Commission may initiate action in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (2):

Provided that the Commission shall, before taking any action for suo motu withdrawal of recognition granted to the dental qualification awarded by a University or dental institution, impose penalty in accordance with the provisions of clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 25.

(2) The Commission shall, after making such further inquiry as it deems fit, and after holding consultations with the concerned State Government and the authority of the concerned University or dental institution, comes to the conclusion that the recognition granted to a dental qualification ought to be withdrawn, it may, by order, withdraw recognition granted to such dental qualification and direct the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board to amend the entries against the University or dental institution concerned in the list maintained by that Board to the effect that the recognition granted to such dental qualification is withdrawn with effect from the date specified in that order.

37. Where, after verification with the authority in any country outside India, the Commission is of the opinion that a recognised dental qualification granted by dental institutions outside India which is included in the list maintained by it is to be de-recognised, it may, by order, de-recognise such dental qualification and remove it from the list maintained by the Commission with effect from the date of such order.

De-recognition of dental qualifications granted by dental institutions outside India.

CHAPTER X

GRANTS, ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

Grants by Central Government.

38. The Central Government may, after due appropriation made by Parliament by law in this behalf, make to the Commission grants of such sums of money as the Central Government may think fit.

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39. (1) There shall be constituted a fund to be called "the National Dental Commission Fund" which shall form part of the public account of India and there shall be credited thereto—

National Dental Commission Fund.

(a) all fees, penalties and charges received by the Commission and the Autonomous Boards;

(b) all sums received by the Commission from such other sources as may be decided by it.

(2) The Fund shall be applied for making payment towards—

(a) the salaries and allowances payable to the Chairperson, Members appointed or nominated under clauses (a) and (d) of sub-section (4) of section 4 and the Secretary of the Commission, the Presidents and Members of the Autonomous Boards and the administrative expenses including the salaries and allowances payable to the officers and other employees of the Commission and Autonomous Boards;

(b) the expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions of this Act, including in connection with the discharge of the functions of the Commission and the Autonomous Boards.

Audit and accounts.

40. (1) The Commission shall maintain proper accounts and other relevant records and prepare an annual statement of accounts in such form as may be prescribed, in consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(2) The accounts of the Commission shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at such intervals as may be specified by him and any expenditure incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable by the Commission to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(3) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and any other persons appointed by him in connection with the audit of the accounts of the Commission shall have the same rights and privileges and authority in connection with such audit as the Comptroller and Auditor-General generally has in connection with the audit of Government accounts and in particular, shall have the right to demand the production of, and complete access to, records, books, accounts, connected vouchers and other documents and papers and to inspect the office of the Commission.

(4) The accounts of the Commission as certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India or any other person appointed by him in this behalf, together with the audit report thereon, shall be forwarded annually by the Commission to the Central Government which shall cause the same to be laid, as soon as may be after it is received, before each House of Parliament.

41. (1) The Commission shall furnish to the Central Government, at such time, in such form and in such manner, as may be prescribed or as the Central Government may direct, such reports and statements, containing such particulars in regard to any matter under the jurisdiction of the Commission, as the Central Government may, from time to time, require.

Furnishing of returns and reports to Central Government.

(2) The Commission shall prepare, once every year, in such form and at such time as may be prescribed, an annual report, giving a summary of its activities during the previous year and copies of the report shall be forwarded to the Central Government.

(3) A copy of the report received under sub-section (2) shall be laid by the Central Government, as soon as may be after it is received, before each House of Parliament.

CHAPTER XI

MISCELLANEOUS

42. (1) Without prejudice to the foregoing provisions of this Act, the Commission and the Autonomous Boards shall, in exercise of their powers and discharge of their functions under this Act, be bound by such directions on questions of policy as the Central Government may give in writing to them from time to time:

Power of Central Government to give directions to Commission and Autonomous Boards.

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Provided that the Commission and the Autonomous Boards shall, as far as practicable, be given an opportunity to express their views before any direction is given under this sub-section.

(2) The decision of the Central Government as to whether a question is one of policy

or not shall be final.

43. (1) The Central Government may give such directions on questions of policy, as it may deem necessary, to a State Government for carrying out all or any of the provisions of this Act and the State Government shall comply with such directions.

(2) The decision of the Central Government as to whether a question is one of policy Power of Central Government to give directions to State Governments.

or not shall be final.

44. (1) The Commission shall furnish such reports, copies of its minutes, abstracts of its accounts, and other information to the Central Government as that Government may require.

Information to be furnished by Commission and publication thereof.

(2) The Central Government may publish, in such manner as it may think fit, the reports, minutes, abstracts of accounts and other information furnished to it under sub-section (1).

45. Every University and dental institution governed under this Act shall maintain a website at all times and display on its website all such information as may be required by the Commission or an Autonomous Board, as the case may be.

Obligation of Universities and dental institutions.

Completion of courses of studies in dental institutions.

46. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any student who was studying for a degree, diploma or certificate in any dental institution immediately before the commencement of this Act shall continue to so study and complete his course for such degree, diploma or certificate, and such institution shall continue to provide instructions and examination for such student in accordance with the syllabus and studies as existed before such commencement, and such student shall be deemed to have completed his course of study under this Act and shall be awarded degree, diploma or certificate under this Act.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, where recognition granted to a dental institution has lapsed, whether by efflux of time or by its voluntary surrender or for any other reason whatsoever, such dental institution shall continue to maintain and provide the minimum standards required to be provided under this Act till such time as all candidates who are admitted in that dental institution complete their study.

Joint sittings of Commission with relevant regulatory bodies.

47. The Commission shall, at least once a year, hold a meeting with the National Medical Commission, the Pharmacy Council of India, the Indian Nursing Council, National Commission for Indian System of Medicine, the National Commission for Homoeopathy and the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions or the corresponding National Regulator for regulating the above professions, at such time and place as they mutually appoint, to enhance the interface between different workforce categories in modern system of medicine, develop consensus on issues and promote team based approach to healthcare delivery.

48. Every State Government may, for the purposes of addressing or promoting public dentistry and community dental care in rural areas, take necessary measures to enhance the capacity of the dental professionals.

State Government to promote preventive and promotive dental care in rural areas.

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45 of 1860.

49. The Chairperson, Members, officers and other employees of the Commission and the President, Members and officers and other employees of the Autonomous Boards shall be deemed, when acting or purporting to act in pursuance of any of the provisions of this Act, to be public servants within the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.

Chairperson, Members, officers of Commission and of Autonomous Boards to be public servants.

Protection of action taken in good faith.

50. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Government, the Commission or any Autonomous Board or a State Dental Council or any Committee thereof, or any officer or other employee of the Government or of the Commission acting under this Act for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.

Cognizance of offences.

51. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under this Act except upon a complaint in writing made in this behalf by an officer authorised by the Commission or the Ethics and Dental Registration Board or a State Dental Council, as the case may be.

52. (1) If, at any time, the Central Government is of opinion that—

(a) the Commission is unable to discharge the functions and duties imposed on it by or under the provisions of this Act; or

Power of Central Government to supersede Commission.

(b) the Commission has persistently made default in complying with any direction issued by the Central Government under this Act or in the discharge of the functions and duties imposed on it by or under the provisions of this Act,

the Central Government may, by notification, supersede the Commission for such period, not exceeding six months, as may be specified in the notification:

Provided that before issuing a notification under this sub-section, the Central Government shall give a reasonable opportunity to the Commission to show cause as to why it should not be superseded and shall consider the explanations and objections, if any, of the Commission.

(2) Upon the publication of a notification under sub-section (1) superseding the Commission,—

(a) all the Members shall, as from the date of supersession, vacate their offices as such;

(b) all the powers, functions and duties which may, by or under the provisions of this Act, be exercised or discharged by or on behalf of the Commission, shall, until the Commission is re-constituted under sub-section (3), be exercised and discharged by such person or persons as the Central Government may direct;

(c) all property owned or controlled by the Commission shall, until the Commission is re-constituted under sub-section (3), vest in the Central Government.

(3) On the expiration of the period of supersession specified in the notification issued under sub-section (1), the Central Government may—

(a) extend the period of supersession for such further term not exceeding six months, as it may consider necessary; or

(b) re-constitute the Commission by fresh appointment and in such case the Members who vacated their offices under clause (a) of sub-section (2) shall not be deemed disqualified for appointment:

Provided that the Central Government may, at any time before the expiration of the period of supersession, whether as originally specified under sub-section (1) or as extended under this sub-section, take action under clause (b) of this sub-section.

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(4) The Central Government shall cause a notification issued under sub-section (1) and a full report of any action taken under this section and the circumstances leading to such action to be laid before both Houses of Parliament at the earliest.

53. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act.

Power of Central Government to make rules.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the manner of appointing ten Members of the Commission on rotational basis from amongst the nominees of the States and Union territories in the Dental Advisory Council under clause (b) of sub-section (4) of section 4;

(b) the manner of appointing nine members of the Commission under clause (c) of sub-section (4) of section 4;

(c) the manner of nominating two members from amongst dental faculties, under clause (d) of sub-section (4) of section 4;

(d) the salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and Members under sub-section (4) of section 6;

(e) the form and the manner of making declaration under sub-section (6) of section 6;

(f) the qualifications and experience to be possessed by the Secretary of the Commission under sub-section (2) of section 8;

(g) the salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the Secretary, officers and other employees of the Commission under sub-section (7) of section 8;

(h) the other powers and functions of the Commission under clause (p) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(i) the dental qualifications and experience to be possessed by a member under the second proviso to clause (d) of sub-section (2) of section 11;

(j) the manner of choosing second part-time Members under sub-section (5) of section 17;

(k) the salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the President and Members of an Autonomous Board and the allowances payable to part-time Members under sub-section (2) of section 19;

(l) the form for preparing annual statement of accounts under sub-section (1) of section 40;

(m) the time within which, and the form and the manner in which, the reports and statements shall be furnished by the Commission under sub-section (1) of section 41;

(n) the form and the time for preparing annual report under sub-section (2) of section 41;

(o) the amount of compensation payable to employees under the proviso to sub-section (5) of section 58;

(p) any other matter in respect of which provision is to be made by rules.

Power to make regulations.

54. (1) The Commission may, after previous publication, by notification, make regulations consistent with this Act and the rules made thereunder to carry out the provisions of this Act.

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(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such regulations may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the functions to be discharged by the Secretary of the Commission under sub-section (5) of section 8;

(b) the procedure in accordance with which experts, consultants and professionals may be engaged, or the experts and domain specialists from foreign country may be invited, and the number of such experts and professionals under sub-section (8) of section 8;

(d) the quality and standards to be maintained in dental education under clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(e) the manner of regulating dental institutions, dental research, dentists and dental auxiliaries under clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(f) the manner of functioning of the Commission, the Autonomous Boards, the State Dental Councils and the Joint Dental Councils under clause (h) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(g) the procedure to be followed at the meetings of the Dental Advisory Council under sub-section (3) of section 13;

(h) the manner of conducting common counselling by the designated authority for admission to the undergraduate and postgraduate dental education under sub-section (3) of section 14;

(i) the designated authority, and the manner for conducting the National Exit Test (Dental) under sub-section (2) of section 15;

(j) the manner in which a person with foreign dental qualification shall qualify National Exit Test (Dental) and the manner of his enrolment in the State Register or the National Register under sub-section (4) of section 15;

(k) the manner in which admission to the postgraduate dental education shall be made on the basis of National Exit Test (Dental) under sub-section (5) of section 15;

(l) the manner of conducting common counselling by the designated authority for admission to the postgraduate dental education under sub-section (6) of section 15;

(m) the manner of nominating one member from amongst personnel of each category of the dental auxiliaries to the advisory committee for the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board under the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 20;

(n) the number of, and the manner in which, the experts, professionals, officers and other employees, including the experts and domain specialists from foreign countries invited by the Commission, under sub-section (8) of section 8 shall be made available by the Commission to the Autonomous Boards under section 21;

(o) the competency based dynamic curriculum at undergraduate level and postgraduate level under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 24;

(p) the manner of imparting undergraduate courses and postgraduate courses for dentists and dental auxiliaries by dental institutions under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 24;

(q) the minimum requirements and standards for conducting courses and examinations at undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries in dental institutions under clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 24;

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(r) the standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education at undergraduate level and postgraduate level for dentists and dental auxiliaries in dental institutions under clause (e) of sub-section (1) of section 24;

(s) the procedure for assessing and rating of dental institutions under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 25;

(t) the manner of carrying out inspections of dental institutions for assessing and rating such institutions under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 25;

(u) the manner of conducting, and the manner of empaneling independent rating agencies to conduct assessment and rating of dental institutions and the time period for such assessment and rating under clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 25;

(v) the manner of making available on website or in public domain the assessment and ratings of dental institutions under clause (e) of sub-section (1) of section 25;

(w) the measures to be taken against a dental institution for failure to maintain the minimum essential standards under clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 25;

(x) the manner of regulating professional conduct and promoting dental ethics under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 26;

(y) the form of scheme, the particulars thereof, the fee to be accompanied and the manner of submitting scheme for establishing new dental college or for starting any postgraduate course or for increasing number of seats under sub-section (2) of section 27;

(z) the manner of preferring an appeal to the Commission for approval of the scheme under sub-section (5) of section 27;

(za) the other factors under clause (d) of section 28;

(zb) the manner of taking disciplinary action by a State Dental Council for professional or ethical misconduct of registered dentist or professional and the procedure for receiving complaints and grievances by Ethics and Dental Registration Board under sub-section (4) of section 29;

(zc) the act of commission or omission which amounts to professional or ethical misconduct under clause (b) of the Explanation to section 29;

(zd) other particulars to be contained in the National Register for Dentists under sub-section (1) of section 30;

(ze) the particulars to be contained in the National Register for Dental Auxiliaries under sub-section (2) of section 30;

(zf) the form, including the electronic form and the manner of maintaining the National Registers, under sub-section (3) of section 30;

(zg) the manner in which any name or qualification may be added to, or removed from, the National Register and the grounds for removal thereof, under sub-section (4) of section 30;

(zh) the manner of entering the title, diploma or qualification in the State Register or the National Register, under sub-section (3) of section 31;

(zi) the period for which, and the manner in which, a foreign citizen who is enrolled in his country as a dentist may be permitted temporary registration in India, under the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 32;

(zj) the manner of listing and maintaining dental qualifications granted by a University or dental institution in India under sub-section (1) of section 33;

(zk) the manner of examining the application for grant of recognition under sub-section (3) of section 33;

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(zl) the manner of including a dental qualification in the list maintained by the Board under sub-section (4) of section 33;

(zm) the manner of preferring an appeal to the Commission for grant of recognition under sub-section (5) of section 33;

(zn) the manner of listing and maintaining dental qualifications which have been granted recognition before the date of commencement of this Act under sub-section (8) of section 33;

(zo) the designated authority for conducting Screening Test for higher dental qualification, and the manner of conducting the Screening Test under sub-section (2) of section 34;

(zp) the manner of listing and maintaining dental qualifications which have been granted recognition before the date of commencement of this Act under sub-section (3) of section 34.

Rules and regulations to be laid before Parliament.

55. Every rule and every regulation made, and every notification issued, under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or regulation or notification or both Houses agree that the rule or regulation or notification should not be made, the rule or regulation or notification shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule or regulation or notification.

56. (1) The State Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions of section 29 and section 48 of this Act.

Power of State Government to make rules.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing powers under sub-section (1), such rules may provide for the following matters, namely:—

(a) the salary and allowances payable to, and other conditions of service of, the Chairperson and Members of the State Dental Council and Joint Dental Council;

(b) the manner of filling up of vacancies arising in the State Dental Council and Joint Dental Council;

(3) Every rule made by the State Government under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of State Legislature, where there are two Houses and where there is one House of State Legislature, before that House.

Power to remove difficulties.

57. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may appear to it be necessary, for removing the difficulty:

Provided that no order shall be made under this section after the expiry of a period of two years from the commencement of this Act.

(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament.

Repeal and saving.

16 of 1948.

58. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may appoint in this behalf, the Dentists Act, 1948 shall stand repealed and the Dental Council of India constituted under section 3 of the said Act shall stand dissolved.

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(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Act referred to in sub-section (1), it shall not affect,—

(a) the previous operation of the Act so repealed or anything duly done or suffered thereunder; or

(b) any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under the Act so repealed; or

(d) any proceeding or remedy in respect of any such right, privilege, obligation, liability, penalty as aforesaid, and any such proceeding or remedy may be instituted, continued or enforced, and any such penalty may be imposed as if that Act had not been repealed.

(3) On the dissolution of the Dental Council of India, the person acting as the President and Members of the Dental Council of India holding office as such immediately before such dissolution shall vacate their respective offices and such President and Members shall be entitled to claim compensation not exceeding three months' pay and allowances for the premature termination of term of their office or of any contract of service.

(4) Every officer who has been appointed on deputation basis in the Dental Council of India shall, on its dissolution, stand reverted to his parent cadre, Ministry or Department, as the case may be.

(5) The services of other employees who have been, before the dissolution of the Dental Council of India, employed on regular basis by the Dental Council of India, shall continue for no longer than one year after the commencement of this Act, as an interim arrangement and thereafter, further continuity or otherwise of their services shall be determined by the Commission on the basis of their performance appraisal or evaluation:

Provided that such employees of the erstwhile Dental Council of India shall be entitled to such compensation which shall not be less three months' pay and allowances, as may be prescribed.

16 of 1948.

(6) Notwithstanding the repeal of the aforesaid enactment, any order made, any licence to practice issued, any registration made, any permission to start new dental college or to start higher course of studies or for increase in the admission capacity granted, any recognition of dental qualifications granted, under the Dentists Act, 1948, which are in force as on the date of commencement of this Act, shall continue to be in force till the date of their expiry for all purposes, as if they had been issued or granted under the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.

Transitory provisions.

59. (1) The Commission shall be the successor in interest to the Dental Council of India including its subsidiaries or owned trusts and all the assets and liabilities of the Dental Council of India shall be deemed to have been transferred to the Commission.

16 of 1948.

(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Dentists Act, 1948, the educational standards, requirements and other provisions of the said Act and the rules and regulations made thereunder shall continue to be in force and operate till new standards or requirements are specified under this Act or the rules and regulations made thereunder:

Provided that anything done or any action taken as regards the educational standards and requirements under the enactment under repeal and the rules and regulations made thereunder shall be deemed to have been done or taken under the corresponding provisions of this Act and shall continue in force accordingly unless and until superseded by anything done or by any action taken under this Act.

16 of 1948.

(3) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Dentists Act, 1948, the State Council and the Joint State Council constituted respectively under section 21 and section 23 of the said Act shall continue to operate until a new State Dental Council is established by the State Government in accordance with the provisions of section 29 of this Act.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 29 No. 11-71] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 29

THE SCHEDULE

(See section 35)

LIST OF CATEGORIES OF DENTAL QUALIFICATIONS GRANTED BY STATUTORY OR OTHER DENTAL BODY IN INDIA

Sl. No. Categories of dental qualifications

1. All dental qualifications granted by All India Institutes of Medical Sciences.

2. All dental qualifications granted by the Oral Health Sciences Centre, Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh.

3. All dental qualifications granted by the Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research, Puducherry.

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

_____

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 11th August, 2023/Sravana 20, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 11th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION ACT, 2023

(NO. 22 OF 2023)

[11th August, 2023.]

An Act to provide for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognises both the right of individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process such personal data for lawful purposes and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:––

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.

Short title and commencement.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision.

2 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

Definitions.

24 of 1997.

(a) "Appellate Tribunal" means the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal established under section 14 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997;

(b) "automated" means any digital process capable of operating automatically in response to instructions given or otherwise for the purpose of processing data;

(d) "certain legitimate uses" means the uses referred to in section 7;

(e) "Chairperson" means the Chairperson of the Board;

(f) "child" means an individual who has not completed the age of eighteen years;

(g) "Consent Manager" means a person registered with the Board, who acts as a single point of contact to enable a Data Principal to give, manage, review and withdraw her consent through an accessible, transparent and interoperable platform;

(h) "data" means a representation of information, facts, concepts, opinions or instructions in a manner suitable for communication, interpretation or processing by human beings or by automated means;

(i) "Data Fiduciary" means any person who alone or in conjunction with other persons determines the purpose and means of processing of personal data;

(j) "Data Principal" means the individual to whom the personal data relates and where such individual is—

(i) a child, includes the parents or lawful guardian of such a child;

(ii) a person with disability, includes her lawful guardian, acting on her behalf;

(k) "Data Processor" means any person who processes personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary;

(l) "Data Protection Officer" means an individual appointed by the Significant Data Fiduciary under clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(m) "digital office" means an office that adopts an online mechanism wherein the proceedings, from receipt of intimation or complaint or reference or directions or appeal, as the case may be, to the disposal thereof, are conducted in online or digital mode;

(n) "digital personal data" means personal data in digital form;

(o) "gain" means—

(i) a gain in property or supply of services, whether temporary or permanent; or

(ii) an opportunity to earn remuneration or greater remuneration or to gain a financial advantage otherwise than by way of legitimate remuneration;

(p) "loss" means—

(i) a loss in property or interruption in supply of services, whether temporary or permanent; or

(ii) a loss of opportunity to earn remuneration or greater remuneration or to gain a financial advantage otherwise than by way of legitimate remuneration;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 3 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

(q) "Member" means a Member of the Board and includes the Chairperson;

(r) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette and the expressions "notify" and "notified" shall be construed accordingly;

(s) "person" includes—

(i) an individual;

(ii) a Hindu undivided family;

(iii) a company;

(iv) a firm;

(v) an association of persons or a body of individuals, whether incorporated or not;

(vi) the State; and

(vii) every artificial juristic person, not falling within any of the preceding sub-clauses;

(t) "personal data" means any data about an individual who is identifiable by or in relation to such data;

(u) "personal data breach" means any unauthorised processing of personal data or accidental disclosure, acquisition, sharing, use, alteration, destruction or loss of access to personal data, that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of personal data;

(v) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;

(w) "proceeding" means any action taken by the Board under the provisions of this Act;

(x) "processing" in relation to personal data, means a wholly or partly automated operation or set of operations performed on digital personal data, and includes operations such as collection, recording, organisation, structuring, storage, adaptation, retrieval, use, alignment or combination, indexing, sharing, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making available, restriction, erasure or destruction;

(y) "she" in relation to an individual includes the reference to such individual irrespective of gender;

(z) "Significant Data Fiduciary" means any Data Fiduciary or class of Data Fiduciaries as may be notified by the Central Government under section 10;

(za) "specified purpose" means the purpose mentioned in the notice given by the Data Fiduciary to the Data Principal in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder; and

(zb) "State" means the State as defined under article 12 of the Constitution.

3. Subject to the provisions of this Act, it shall—

Application of Act. (a) apply to the processing of digital personal data within the territory of India where the personal data is collected––

(i) in digital form; or

(ii) in non-digital form and digitised subsequently;

(b) also apply to processing of digital personal data outside the territory of India, if such processing is in connection with any activity related to offering of goods or services to Data Principals within the territory of India;

4 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

(i) personal data processed by an individual for any personal or domestic purpose; and

(ii) personal data that is made or caused to be made publicly available by—

(A) the Data Principal to whom such personal data relates; or

(B) any other person who is under an obligation under any law for the time being in force in India to make such personal data publicly available.

Illustration.

X, an individual, while blogging her views, has publicly made available her personal data on social media. In such case, the provisions of this Act shall not apply.

CHAPTER II

OBLIGATIONS OF DATA FIDUCIARY

4. (1) A person may process the personal data of a Data Principal only in accordance with the provisions of this Act and for a lawful purpose,—

Grounds for processing personal data.

(a) for which the Data Principal has given her consent; or

(b) for certain legitimate uses.

(2) For the purposes of this section, the expression "lawful purpose" means any purpose which is not expressly forbidden by law.

Notice.

5. (1) Every request made to a Data Principal under section 6 for consent shall be accompanied or preceded by a notice given by the Data Fiduciary to the Data Principal, informing her,—

(i) the personal data and the purpose for which the same is proposed to be processed;

(ii) the manner in which she may exercise her rights under sub-section (4) of section 6 and section 13; and

(iii) the manner in which the Data Principal may make a complaint to the Board,

in such manner and as may be prescribed.

Illustration.

X, an individual, opens a bank account using the mobile app or website of Y, a bank. To complete the Know-Your-Customer requirements under law for opening of bank account, X opts for processing of her personal data by Y in a live, video-based customer identification process. Y shall accompany or precede the request for the personal data with notice to X, describing the personal data and the purpose of its processing.

(2) Where a Data Principal has given her consent for the processing of her personal data before the date of commencement of this Act,—

(a) the Data Fiduciary shall, as soon as it is reasonably practicable, give to the Data Principal a notice informing her,––

(i) the personal data and the purpose for which the same has been processed;

(ii) the manner in which she may exercise her rights under sub-section (4) of section 6 and section 13; and

(iii) the manner in which the Data Principal may make a complaint to the Board,

in such manner and as may be prescribed.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 5 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5

(b) the Data Fiduciary may continue to process the personal data until and unless the Data Principal withdraws her consent.

Illustration.

X, an individual, gave her consent to the processing of her personal data for an online shopping app or website operated by Y, an e-commerce service provider, before the commencement of this Act. Upon commencement of the Act, Y shall, as soon as practicable, give through email, in-app notification or other effective method information to X, describing the personal data and the purpose of its processing.

(3) The Data Fiduciary shall give the Data Principal the option to access the contents of the notice referred to in sub-sections (1) and (2) in English or any language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.

Consent.

6. (1) The consent given by the Data Principal shall be free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous with a clear affirmative action, and shall signify an agreement to the processing of her personal data for the specified purpose and be limited to such personal data as is necessary for such specified purpose.

Illustration.

X, an individual, downloads Y, a telemedicine app. Y requests the consent of X for (i) the processing of her personal data for making available telemedicine services, and (ii) accessing her mobile phone contact list, and X signifies her consent to both. Since phone contact list is not necessary for making available telemedicine services, her consent shall be limited to the processing of her personal data for making available telemedicine services.

(2) Any part of consent referred in sub-section (1) which constitutes an infringement of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder or any other law for the time being in force shall be invalid to the extent of such infringement.

Illustration.

X, an individual, buys an insurance policy using the mobile app or website of Y, an insurer. She gives to Y her consent for (i) the processing of her personal data by Y for the purpose of issuing the policy, and (ii) waiving her right to file a complaint to the Data Protection Board of India. Part (ii) of the consent, relating to waiver of her right to file a complaint, shall be invalid.

(3) Every request for consent under the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder shall be presented to the Data Principal in a clear and plain language, giving her the option to access such request in English or any language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution and providing the contact details of a Data Protection Officer, where applicable, or of any other person authorised by the Data Fiduciary to respond to any communication from the Data Principal for the purpose of exercise of her rights under the provisions of this Act.

(4) Where consent given by the Data Principal is the basis of processing of personal data, such Data Principal shall have the right to withdraw her consent at any time, with the ease of doing so being comparable to the ease with which such consent was given.

(5) The consequences of the withdrawal referred to in sub-section (4) shall be borne by the Data Principal, and such withdrawal shall not affect the legality of processing of the personal data based on consent before its withdrawal.

Illustration.

X, an individual, is the user of an online shopping app or website operated by Y, an e-commerce service provider. X consents to the processing of her personal data by Y for the purpose of fulfilling her supply order and places an order for supply of a good while making payment for the same. If X withdraws her consent, Y may stop enabling X to use the app or website for placing orders, but may not stop the processing for supply of the goods already ordered and paid for by X.

(6) If a Data Principal withdraws her consent to the processing of personal data under sub-section (5), the Data Fiduciary shall, within a reasonable time, cease and cause its Data Processors to cease processing the personal data of such Data Principal unless such processing without her consent is required or authorised under the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder or any other law for the time being in force in India.

6 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

Illustration.

X, a telecom service provider, enters into a contract with Y, a Data Processor, for emailing telephone bills to the customers of X. Z, a customer of X, who had earlier given her consent to X for the processing of her personal data for emailing of bills, downloads the mobile app of X and opts to receive bills only on the app. X shall itself cease, and shall cause Y to cease, the processing of the personal data of Z for emailing bills.

(7) The Data Principal may give, manage, review or withdraw her consent to the Data Fiduciary through a Consent Manager.

(8) The Consent Manager shall be accountable to the Data Principal and shall act on her behalf in such manner and subject to such obligations as may be prescribed.

(9) Every Consent Manager shall be registered with the Board in such manner and subject to such technical, operational, financial and other conditions as may be prescribed.

(10) Where a consent given by the Data Principal is the basis of processing of personal data and a question arises in this regard in a proceeding, the Data Fiduciary shall be obliged to prove that a notice was given by her to the Data Principal and consent was given by such Data Principal to the Data Fiduciary in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

7. A Data Fiduciary may process personal data of a Data Principal for any of following Certain legitimate uses. uses, namely:—

(a) for the specified purpose for which the Data Principal has voluntarily provided her personal data to the Data Fiduciary, and in respect of which she has not indicated to the Data Fiduciary that she does not consent to the use of her personal data.

Illustrations.

(I) X, an individual, makes a purchase at Y, a pharmacy. She voluntarily provides Y her personal data and requests Y to acknowledge receipt of the payment made for the purchase by sending a message to her mobile phone. Y may process the personal data of X for the purpose of sending the receipt.

(II) X, an individual, electronically messages Y, a real estate broker, requesting Y to help identify a suitable rented accommodation for her and shares her personal data for this purpose. Y may process her personal data to identify and intimate to her the details of accommodation available on rent. Subsequently, X informs Y that X no longer needs help from Y. Y shall cease to process the personal data of X;

(b) for the State and any of its instrumentalities to provide or issue to the Data Principal such subsidy, benefit, service, certificate, licence or permit as may be prescribed, where––

(i) she has previously consented to the processing of her personal data by the State or any of its instrumentalities for any subsidy, benefit, service, certificate, licence or permit; or

(ii) such personal data is available in digital form in, or in non-digital form and digitised subsequently from, any database, register, book or other document which is maintained by the State or any of its instrumentalities and is notified by the Central Government,

subject to standards followed for processing being in accordance with the policy issued by the Central Government or any law for the time being in force for governance of personal data.

Illustration.

X. a pregnant woman, enrols herself on an app or website to avail of government's maternity benefits programme, while consenting to provide her personal data for the purpose of availing of such benefits. Government may process the personal data of X processing to determine her eligibility to receive any other prescribed benefit from the government;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 7 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

(c) for the performance by the State or any of its instrumentalities of any function under any law for the time being in force in India or in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India or security of the State;

(d) for fulfilling any obligation under any law for the time being in force in India on any person to disclose any information to the State or any of its instrumentalities, subject to such processing being in accordance with the provisions regarding disclosure of such information in any other law for the time being in force;

(e) for compliance with any judgment or decree or order issued under any law for the time being in force in India, or any judgment or order relating to claims of a contractual or civil nature under any law for the time being in force outside India;

(f) for responding to a medical emergency involving a threat to the life or immediate threat to the health of the Data Principal or any other individual;

(g) for taking measures to provide medical treatment or health services to any individual during an epidemic, outbreak of disease, or any other threat to public health;

(h) for taking measures to ensure safety of, or provide assistance or services to, any individual during any disaster, or any breakdown of public order.

53 of 2005.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, the expression "disaster" shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (d) of section 2 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005; or

(i) for the purposes of employment or those related to safeguarding the employer from loss or liability, such as prevention of corporate espionage, maintenance of confidentiality of trade secrets, intellectual property, classified information or provision of any service or benefit sought by a Data Principal who is an employee.

General obligations of Data Fiduciary.

8. (1) A Data Fiduciary shall, irrespective of any agreement to the contrary or failure of a Data Principal to carry out the duties provided under this Act, be responsible for complying with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder in respect of any processing undertaken by it or on its behalf by a Data Processor.

(2) A Data Fiduciary may engage, appoint, use or otherwise involve a Data Processor to process personal data on its behalf for any activity related to offering of goods or services to Data Principals only under a valid contract.

(3) Where personal data processed by a Data Fiduciary is likely to be—

(a) used to make a decision that affects the Data Principal; or

(b) disclosed to another Data Fiduciary,

the Data Fiduciary processing such personal data shall ensure its completeness, accuracy and consistency.

(4) A Data Fiduciary shall implement appropriate technical and organisational measures to ensure effective observance of the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

(5) A Data Fiduciary shall protect personal data in its possession or under its control, including in respect of any processing undertaken by it or on its behalf by a Data Processor, by taking reasonable security safeguards to prevent personal data breach.

(6) In the event of a personal data breach, the Data Fiduciary shall give the Board and each affected Data Principal, intimation of such breach in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

(7) A Data Fiduciary shall, unless retention is necessary for compliance with any law for the time being in force,—

(a) erase personal data, upon the Data Principal withdrawing her consent or as8 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72 soon as it is reasonable to assume that the specified purpose is no longer being served, whichever is earlier; and

(b) cause its Data Processor to erase any personal data that was made available by the Data Fiduciary for processing to such Data Processor.

Illustrations.

(I) X, an individual, registers herself on an online marketplace operated by Y, an e-commerce service provider. X gives her consent to Y for the processing of her personal data for selling her used car. The online marketplace helps conclude the sale. Y shall no longer retain her personal data.

(II) X, an individual, decides to close her savings account with Y, a bank. Y is required by law applicable to banks to maintain the record of the identity of its clients for a period of ten years beyond closing of accounts. Since retention is necessary for compliance with law, Y shall retain X's personal data for the said period.

(8) The purpose referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (7) shall be deemed to no longer be served, if the Data Principal does not––

(a) approach the Data Fiduciary for the performance of the specified purpose;

and

(b) exercise any of her rights in relation to such processing,

for such time period as may be prescribed, and different time periods may be prescribed for different classes of Data Fiduciaries and for different purposes.

(9) A Data Fiduciary shall publish, in such manner as may be prescribed, the business contact information of a Data Protection Officer, if applicable, or a person who is able to answer on behalf of the Data Fiduciary, the questions, if any, raised by the Data Principal about the processing of her personal data.

(10) A Data Fiduciary shall establish an effective mechanism to redress the grievances of Data Principals.

(11) For the purposes of this section, it is hereby clarified that a Data Principal shall be considered as not having approached the Data Fiduciary for the performance of the specified purpose, in any period during which she has not initiated contact with the Data Fiduciary for such performance, in person or by way of communication in electronic or physical form.

Processing of personal data of children.

9. (1) The Data Fiduciary shall, before processing any personal data of a child or a person with disability who has a lawful guardian obtain verifiable consent of the parent of such child or the lawful guardian, as the case may be, in such manner as may be prescribed.

Explanation.—For the purpose of this sub-section, the expression "consent of the parent" includes the consent of lawful guardian, wherever applicable.

(2) A Data Fiduciary shall not undertake such processing of personal data that is likely to cause any detrimental effect on the well-being of a child.

(3) A Data Fiduciary shall not undertake tracking or behavioural monitoring of children or targeted advertising directed at children.

(4) The provisions of sub-sections (1) and (3) shall not be applicable to processing of personal data of a child by such classes of Data Fiduciaries or for such purposes, and subject to such conditions, as may be prescribed.

(5) The Central Government may, if satisfied that a Data Fiduciary has ensured that its processing of personal data of children is done in a manner that is verifiably safe, notify for such processing by such Data Fiduciary the age above which that Data Fiduciary shall be exempt from the applicability of all or any of the obligations under sub-sections (1) and (3) in respect of processing by that Data Fiduciary as the notification may specify.

10. (1) The Central Government may notify any Data Fiduciary or class of Data Fiduciaries as Significant Data Fiduciary, on the basis of an assessment of such relevant factors as it may determine, including—

Additional obligations of Significant Data Fiduciary.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 9 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9

(a) the volume and sensitivity of personal data processed;

(b) risk to the rights of Data Principal;

(d) risk to electoral democracy;

(e) security of the State; and

(f) public order.

(2) The Significant Data Fiduciary shall—

(a) appoint a Data Protection Officer who shall—

(i) represent the Significant Data Fiduciary under the provisions of this Act;

(ii) be based in India;

(iii) be an individual responsible to the Board of Directors or similar governing body of the Significant Data Fiduciary; and

(iv) be the point of contact for the grievance redressal mechanism under the provisions of this Act;

(b) appoint an independent data auditor to carry out data audit, who shall evaluate the compliance of the Significant Data Fiduciary in accordance with the provisions of this Act; and

(i) periodic Data Protection Impact Assessment, which shall be a process comprising a description of the rights of Data Principals and the purpose of processing of their personal data, assessment and management of the risk to the rights of the Data Principals, and such other matters regarding such process as may be prescribed;

(ii) periodic audit; and

(iii) such other measures, consistent with the provisions of this Act, as may be prescribed.

CHAPTER III

RIGHTS AND DUTIES OF DATA PRINCIPAL

11. (1) The Data Principal shall have the right to obtain from the Data Fiduciary to whom she has previously given consent, including consent as referred to in clause (a) of section 7 (hereinafter referred to as the said Data Fiduciary), for processing of personal data, upon making to it a request in such manner as may be prescribed,—

Right to access information about personal data.

(a) a summary of personal data which is being processed by such Data Fiduciary and the processing activities undertaken by that Data Fiduciary with respect to such personal data;

(b) the identities of all other Data Fiduciaries and Data Processors with whom the personal data has been shared by such Data Fiduciary, along with a description of the personal data so shared; and

(2) Nothing contained in clause (b) or clause (c) of sub-section (1) shall apply in respect of the sharing of any personal data by the said Data Fiduciary with any other Data Fiduciary authorised by law to obtain such personal data, where such sharing is pursuant10 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72 to a request made in writing by such other Data Fiduciary for the purpose of prevention or detection or investigation of offences or cyber incidents, or for prosecution or punishment of offences.

Right to correction and erasure of personal data.

12. (1) A Data Principal shall have the right to correction, completion, updating and erasure of her personal data for the processing of which she has previously given consent, including consent as referred to in clause (a) of section 7, in accordance with any requirement or procedure under any law for the time being in force.

(2) A Data Fiduciary shall, upon receiving a request for correction, completion or updating from a Data Principal,—

(a) correct the inaccurate or misleading personal data;

(b) complete the incomplete personal data; and

(3) A Data Principal shall make a request in such manner as may be prescribed to the Data Fiduciary for erasure of her personal data, and upon receipt of such a request, the Data Fiduciary shall erase her personal data unless retention of the same is necessary for the specified purpose or for compliance with any law for the time being in force.

Right of grievance redressal.

13. (1) A Data Principal shall have the right to have readily available means of grievance redressal provided by a Data Fiduciary or Consent Manager in respect of any act or omission of such Data Fiduciary or Consent Manager regarding the performance of its obligations in relation to the personal data of such Data Principal or the exercise of her rights under the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

(2) The Data Fiduciary or Consent Manager shall respond to any grievances referred to in sub-section (1) within such period as may be prescribed from the date of its receipt for all or any class of Data Fiduciaries.

(3) The Data Principal shall exhaust the opportunity of redressing her grievance under this section before approaching the Board.

Right to nominate.

14. (1) A Data Principal shall have the right to nominate, in such manner as may be prescribed, any other individual, who shall, in the event of death or incapacity of the Data Principal, exercise the rights of the Data Principal in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

(2) For the purposes of this section, the expression "incapacity" means inability to exercise the rights of the Data Principal under the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder due to unsoundness of mind or infirmity of body.

15. A Data Principal shall perform the following duties, namely:—

Duties of Data Principal.

(a) comply with the provisions of all applicable laws for the time being in force while exercising rights under the provisions of this Act;

(b) to ensure not to impersonate another person while providing her personal data for a specified purpose;

(c) to ensure not to suppress any material information while providing her personal data for any document, unique identifier, proof of identity or proof of address issued by the State or any of its instrumentalities;

(d) to ensure not to register a false or frivolous grievance or complaint with a Data Fiduciary or the Board; and

(e) to furnish only such information as is verifiably authentic, while exercising the right to correction or erasure under the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 11 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 11

CHAPTER IV

SPECIAL PROVISIONS

Processing of personal data outside India.

16. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, restrict the transfer of personal data by a Data Fiduciary for processing to such country or territory outside India as may be so notified.

(2) Nothing contained in this section shall restrict the applicability of any law for the time being in force in India that provides for a higher degree of protection for or restriction on transfer of personal data by a Data Fiduciary outside India in relation to any personal data or Data Fiduciary or class thereof.

Exemptions.

17. (1) The provisions of Chapter II, except sub-sections (1) and (5) of section 8, and those of Chapter III and section 16 shall not apply where—

(a) the processing of personal data is necessary for enforcing any legal right or claim;

(b) the processing of personal data by any court or tribunal or any other body in India which is entrusted by law with the performance of any judicial or quasi-judicial or regulatory or supervisory function, where such processing is necessary for the performance of such function;

(c) personal data is processed in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence or contravention of any law for the time being in force in India;

(d) personal data of Data Principals not within the territory of India is processed pursuant to any contract entered into with any person outside the territory of India by any person based in India;

(e) the processing is necessary for a scheme of compromise or arrangement or merger or amalgamation of two or more companies or a reconstruction by way of demerger or otherwise of a company, or transfer of undertaking of one or more company to another company, or involving division of one or more companies, approved by a court or tribunal or other authority competent to do so by any law for the time being in force; and

(f) the processing is for the purpose of ascertaining the financial information and assets and liabilities of any person who has defaulted in payment due on account of a loan or advance taken from a financial institution, subject to such processing being in accordance with the provisions regarding disclosure of information or data in any other law for the time being in force.

31 of 2016.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, the expressions "default" and "financial institution" shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in sub-sections (12) and (14) of section 3 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

Illustration.

X, an individual, takes a loan from Y, a bank. X defaults in paying her monthly loan repayment instalment on the date on which it falls due. Y may process the personal data of X for ascertaining her financial information and assets and liabilities.

(2) The provisions of this Act shall not apply in respect of the processing of personal data—

(a) by such instrumentality of the State as the Central Government may notify, in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, maintenance of public order or preventing incitement to any cognizable offence relating to any of these, and the processing by the Central Government of any personal data that such instrumentality may furnish to it; and12 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 12 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72 (b) necessary for research, archiving or statistical purposes if the personal data is not to be used to take any decision specific to a Data Principal and such processing is carried on in accordance with such standards as may be prescribed.

(3) The Central Government may, having regard to the volume and nature of personal data processed, notify certain Data Fiduciaries or class of Data Fiduciaries, including startups, as Data Fiduciaries to whom the provisions of section 5, sub-sections (3) and (7) of section 8 and sections 10 and 11 shall not apply.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, the term "startup" means a private limited company or a partnership firm or a limited liability partnership incorporated in India, which is eligible to be and is recognised as such in accordance with the criteria and process notified by the department to which matters relating to startups are allocated in the Central Government.

(4) In respect of processing by the State or any instrumentality of the State, the provisions of sub-section (7) of section 8 and sub-section (3) of section 12 and, where such processing is for a purpose that does not include making of a decision that affects the Data Principal, sub-section (2) of section 12 shall not apply.

(5) The Central Government may, before expiry of five years from the date of commencement of this Act, by notification, declare that any provision of this Act shall not apply to such Data Fiduciary or classes of Data Fiduciaries for such period as may be specified in the notification.

CHAPTER V

DATA PROTECTION BOARD OF INDIA

Establishment of Board.

18. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may, by notification, appoint, there shall be established, for the purposes of this Act, a Board to be called the Data Protection Board of India.

(2) The Board shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power, subject to the provisions of this Act, to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract and shall, by the said name, sue or be sued.

(3) The headquarters of the Board shall be at such place as the Central Government may notify.

19. (1) The Board shall consist of a Chairperson and such number of other Members as the Central Government may notify.

(2) The Chairperson and other Members shall be appointed by the Central Government in such manner as may be prescribed.

Composition and qualifications for appointment of Chairperson and Members.

(3) The Chairperson and other Members shall be a person of ability, integrity and standing who possesses special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of data governance, administration or implementation of laws related to social or consumer protection, dispute resolution, information and communication technology, digital economy, law, regulation or techno-regulation, or in any other field which in the opinion of the Central Government may be useful to the Board, and at least one among them shall be an expert in the field of law.

20. (1) The salary, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and other Members shall be such as may be prescribed, and shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.

Salary, allowances payable to and term of office.

(2) The Chairperson and other Members shall hold office for a term of two years and shall be eligible for re-appointment.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 13 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 13

21. (1) A person shall be disqualified for being appointed and continued as the

Chairperson or a Member, if she—

(a) has been adjudged as an insolvent;

(b) has been convicted of an offence, which in the opinion of the Central

Government, involves moral turpitude;

Disqualifications for appointment and continuation as Chairperson and Members of Board.

(d) has acquired such financial or other interest, as is likely to affect prejudicially

her functions as a Member; or

(e) has so abused her position as to render her continuance in office prejudicial

to the public interest.

(2) The Chairperson or Member shall not be removed from her office by the Central

Government unless she has been given an opportunity of being heard in the matter.

Resignation by Members and filling of vacancy.

22. (1) The Chairperson or any other Member may give notice in writing to the Central Government of resigning from her office, and such resignation shall be effective from the date on which the Central Government permits her to relinquish office, or upon expiry of a period of three months from the date of receipt of such notice, or upon a duly appointed successor entering upon her office, or upon the expiry of the term of her office, whichever is earliest.

(2) A vacancy caused by the resignation or removal or death of the Chairperson or any other Member, or otherwise, shall be filled by fresh appointment in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(3) The Chairperson and any other Member shall not, for a period of one year from the date on which they cease to hold such office, except with the previous approval of the Central Government, accept any employment, and shall also disclose to the Central Government any subsequent acceptance of employment with any Data Fiduciary against whom proceedings were initiated by or before such Chairperson or other Member.

Proceedings of Board.

23. (1) The Board shall observe such procedure in regard to the holding of and transaction of business at its meetings, including by digital means, and authenticate its orders, directions and instruments in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) No act or proceeding of the Board shall be invalid merely by reason of—

(a) any vacancy in or any defect in the constitution of the Board;

(b) any defect in the appointment of a person acting as the Chairperson or other

Member of the Board; or

merits of the case.

(3) When the Chairperson is unable to discharge her functions owing to absence, illness or any other cause, the senior-most Member shall discharge the functions of the Chairperson until the date on which the Chairperson resumes her duties.

Officers and employees of Board.

24. The Board may, with previous approval of the Central Government, appoint such officers and employees as it may deem necessary for the efficient discharge of its functions under the provisions of this Act, on such terms and conditions of appointment and service as may be prescribed.

45 of 1860.

25. The Chairperson, Members, officers and employees of the Board shall be deemed, when acting or purporting to act in pursuance of provisions of this Act, to be public servants within the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.

Members and officers to be public servants.

14 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 14 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

26. The Chairperson shall exercise the following powers, namely:—

Powers of Chairperson.

(a) general superintendence and giving direction in respect of all administrative matters of the Board;

(b) authorise any officer of the Board to scrutinise any intimation, complaint, reference or correspondence addressed to the Board; and

(c) authorise performance of any of the functions of the Board and conduct any of its proceedings, by an individual Member or groups of Members and to allocate proceedings among them.

CHAPTER VI

POWERS, FUNCTIONS AND PROCEDURE TO BE FOLLOWED BY BOARD

27. (1) The Board shall exercise and perform the following powers and functions, namely:—

Powers and functions of Board.

(a) on receipt of an intimation of personal data breach under sub-section (6) of section 8, to direct any urgent remedial or mitigation measures in the event of a personal data breach, and to inquire into such personal data breach and impose penalty as provided in this Act;

(b) on a complaint made by a Data Principal in respect of a personal data breach or a breach in observance by a Data Fiduciary of its obligations in relation to her personal data or the exercise of her rights under the provisions of this Act, or on a reference made to it by the Central Government or a State Government, or in compliance of the directions of any court, to inquire into such breach and impose penalty as provided in this Act;

(c) on a complaint made by a Data Principal in respect of a breach in observance by a Consent Manager of its obligations in relation to her personal data, to inquire into such breach and impose penalty as provided in this Act;

(d) on receipt of an intimation of breach of any condition of registration of a Consent Manager, to inquire into such breach and impose penalty as provided in this Act; and

(e) on a reference made by the Central Government in respect of the breach in observance of the provisions of sub-section (2) of section 37 by an intermediary, to inquire into such breach and impose penalty as provided in this Act.

(2) The Board may, for the effective discharge of its functions under the provisions of this Act, after giving the person concerned an opportunity of being heard and after recording reasons in writing, issue such directions as it may consider necessary to such person, who shall be bound to comply with the same.

(3) The Board may, on a representation made to it by a person affected by a direction issued under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2), or on a reference made by the Central Government, modify, suspend, withdraw or cancel such direction and, while doing so, impose such conditions as it may deem fit, subject to which the modification, suspension, withdrawal or cancellation shall have effect.

Procedure to be followed by Board.

28. (1) The Board shall function as an independent body and shall, as far as practicable, function as a digital office, with the receipt of complaints and the allocation, hearing and pronouncement of decisions in respect of the same being digital by design, and adopt such techno-legal measures as may be prescribed.

(2) The Board may, on receipt of an intimation or complaint or reference or directions as referred to in sub-section (1) of section 27, take action in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder.

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 15 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 15

(3) The Board shall determine whether there are sufficient grounds to proceed with an inquiry.

(4) In case the Board determines that there are insufficient grounds, it may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, close the proceedings.

(5) In case the Board determines that there are sufficient grounds to proceed with inquiry, it may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, inquire into the affairs of any person for ascertaining whether such person is complying with or has complied with the provisions of this Act.

(6) The Board shall conduct such inquiry following the principles of natural justice and shall record reasons for its actions during the course of such inquiry.

5 of 1908.

(7) For the purposes of discharging its functions under this Act, the Board shall have the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in respect of matters relating to—

(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining her on oath;

(b) receiving evidence of affidavit requiring the discovery and production of documents;

(d) such other matters as may be prescribed.

(8) The Board or its officers shall not prevent access to any premises or take into custody any equipment or any item that may adversely affect the day-to-day functioning of a person.

(9) The Board may require the services of any police officer or any officer of the Central Government or a State Government to assist it for the purposes of this section and it shall be the duty of every such officer to comply with such requisition.

(10) During the course of the inquiry, if the Board considers it necessary, it may for reasons to be recorded in writing, issue interim orders after giving the person concerned an opportunity of being heard.

(11) On completion of the inquiry and after giving the person concerned an opportunity of being heard, the Board may for reasons to be recorded in writing, either close the proceedings or proceed in accordance with section 33.

(12) At any stage after receipt of a complaint, if the Board is of the opinion that the complaint is false or frivolous, it may issue a warning or impose costs on the complainant.

CHAPTER VII

APPEAL AND ALTERNATE DISPUTE RESOLUTION

29. (1) Any person aggrieved by an order or direction made by the Board under this Act may prefer an appeal before the Appellate Tribunal.

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal.

(2) Every appeal under sub-section (1) shall be filed within a period of sixty days from the date of receipt of the order or direction appealed against and it shall be in such form and manner and shall be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed.

(3) The Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of the period specified in sub-section (2), if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within that period.

(4) On receipt of an appeal under sub-section (1), the Appellate Tribunal may, after giving the parties to the appeal, an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against.

16 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 16 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

(5) The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the Board and to the parties to the appeal.

(6) The appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal under sub-section (1) shall be dealt with by it as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be made by it to dispose of the appeal finally within six months from the date on which the appeal is presented to it.

(7) Where any appeal under sub-section (6) could not be disposed of within the period of six months, the Appellate Tribunal shall record its reasons in writing for not disposing of the appeal within that period.

24 of 1997.

(8) Without prejudice to the provisions of section 14A and section 16 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, the Appellate Tribunal shall deal with an appeal under this section in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.

24 of 1997.

(9) Where an appeal is filed against the orders of the Appellate Tribunal under this Act, the provisions of section 18 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 shall apply.

(10) In respect of appeals filed under the provisions of this Act, the Appellate Tribunal shall, as far as practicable, function as a digital office, with the receipt of appeal, hearing and pronouncement of decisions in respect of the same being digital by design.

30. (1) An order passed by the Appellate Tribunal under this Act shall be executable by it as a decree of civil court, and for this purpose, the Appellate Tribunal shall have all the powers of a civil court.

Orders passed by Appellate Tribunal to be executable as decree.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), the Appellate Tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by that court.

Alternate dispute resolution.

31. If the Board is of the opinion that any complaint may be resolved by mediation, it may direct the parties concerned to attempt resolution of the dispute through such mediation by such mediator as the parties may mutually agree upon, or as provided for under any law for the time being in force in India.

Voluntary undertaking.

32. (1) The Board may accept a voluntary undertaking in respect of any matter related to observance of the provisions of this Act from any person at any stage of a proceeding under section 28.

(2) The voluntary undertaking referred to in sub-section (1) may include an undertaking to take such action within such time as may be determined by the Board, or refrain from taking such action, and or publicising such undertaking.

(3) The Board may, after accepting the voluntary undertaking and with the consent of the person who gave the voluntary undertaking vary the terms included in the voluntary undertaking.

(4) The acceptance of the voluntary undertaking by the Board shall constitute a bar on proceedings under the provisions of this Act as regards the contents of the voluntary undertaking, except in cases covered by sub-section (5).

(5) Where a person fails to adhere to any term of the voluntary undertaking accepted by the Board, such breach shall be deemed to be breach of the provisions of this Act and the Board may, after giving such person an opportunity of being heard, proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 33.

CHAPTER VIII

PENALTIES AND ADJUDICATION

Penalties.

33. (1) If the Board determines on conclusion of an inquiry that breach of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder by a person is significant, it may, after giving theSEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 17 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 17 person an opportunity of being heard, impose such monetary penalty specified in the Schedule.

(2) While determining the amount of monetary penalty to be imposed under sub-section (1), the Board shall have regard to the following matters, namely:—

(a) the nature, gravity and duration of the breach;

(b) the type and nature of the personal data affected by the breach;

(d) whether the person, as a result of the breach, has realised a gain or avoided any loss;

(e) whether the person took any action to mitigate the effects and consequences of the breach, and the timeliness and effectiveness of such action;

(f) whether the monetary penalty to be imposed is proportionate and effective, having regard to the need to secure observance of and deter breach of the provisions of this Act; and

(g) the likely impact of the imposition of the monetary penalty on the person.

34. All sums realised by way of penalties imposed by the Board under this Act, shall be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.

Crediting sums realised by way of penalties to Consolidated Fund of India.

CHAPTER IX

MISCELLANEOUS

Protection of action taken in good faith.

35. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall lie against the Central Government, the Board, its Chairperson and any Member, officer or employee thereof for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder.

36. The Central Government may, for the purposes of this Act, require the Board and any Data Fiduciary or intermediary to furnish such information as it may call for.

Power to call for information.

37. (1) The Central Government or any of its officers specially authorised by it in this behalf may, upon receipt of a reference in writing from the Board that—

(a) intimates the imposition of monetary penalty by the Board on a Data Fiduciary

Power of Central Government to issue directions.

in two or more instances; and

(b) advises, in the interests of the general public, the blocking for access by the public to any information generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted, in any computer resource that enables such Data Fiduciary to carry on any activity relating to offering of goods or services to Data Principals within the territory of India,

after giving an opportunity of being heard to that Data Fiduciary, on being satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so to do, in the interests of the general public, for reasons to be recorded in writing, by order, direct any agency of the Central Government or any intermediary to block for access by the public or cause to be blocked for access by the public any such information.

(2) Every intermediary who receives a direction issued under sub-section (1) shall be bound to comply with the same.

21 of 2000.

(3) For the purposes of this section, the expressions "computer resource", "information" and "intermediary" shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in the Information Technology Act, 2000.

18 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 18 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

38. (1) The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any other law for the time being in force.

Consistency with other laws.

(2) In the event of any conflict between a provision of this Act and a provision of any other law for the time being in force, the provision of this Act shall prevail to the extent of such conflict.

Bar of jurisdiction.

39. No civil court shall have the jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter for which the Board is empowered under the provisions of this Act and no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power under the provisions of this Act.

Power to make rules.

40. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, and subject to the condition of previous publication, make rules not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the manner in which the notice given by the Data Fiduciary to a Data Principal shall inform her, under sub-section (1) of section 5;

(b) the manner in which the notice given by the Data Fiduciary to a Data Principal shall inform her, under sub-section (2) of section 5;

(d) the manner of registration of Consent Manager and the conditions relating thereto, under sub-section (9) of section 6;

(e) the subsidy, benefit, service, certificate, licence or permit for the provision or issuance of which, personal data may be processed under clause (b) of section 7;

(f) the form and manner of intimation of personal data breach to the Board under sub-section (6) of section 8;

(g) the time period for the specified purpose to be deemed as no longer being served, under sub-section (8) of section 8;

(h) the manner of publishing the business contact information of a Data Protection Officer under sub-section (9) of section 8;

(i) the manner of obtaining verifiable consent under sub-section (1) of section 9;

(j) the classes of Data Fiduciaries, the purposes of processing of personal data of a child and the conditions relating thereto, under sub-section (4) of section 9;

(k) the other matters comprising the process of Data Protection Impact Assessment under sub-clause (i) of clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(l) the other measures that the Significant Data Fiduciary shall undertake under sub-clause (iii) of clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(m) the manner in which a Data Principal shall make a request to the Data Fiduciary to obtain information and any other information related to the personal data of such Data Principal and its processing, under sub-section (1) of section 11;

(n) the manner in which a Data Principal shall make a request to the Data Fiduciary for erasure of her personal data under sub-section (3) of section 12;

(o) the period within which the Data Fiduciary shall respond to any grievances under sub-section (2) of section 13;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 19 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 19

(p) the manner of nomination of any other individual by the Data Principal under sub-section (1) of section 14;

(q) the standards for processing the personal data for exemption under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 17;

(r) the manner of appointment of the Chairperson and other Members of the Board under sub-section (2) of section 19;

(s) the salary, allowances and other terms and conditions of services of the Chairperson and other Members of the Board under sub-section (1) of section 20;

(t) the manner of authentication of orders, directions and instruments under sub-section (1) of section 23;

(u) the terms and conditions of appointment and service of officers and employees of the Board under section 24;

(v) the techno-legal measures to be adopted by the Board under sub-section (1) of section 28;

(w) the other matters under clause (d) of sub-section (7) of section 28;

(x) the form, manner and fee for filing an appeal under sub-section (2) of section 29;

(y) the procedure for dealing an appeal under sub-section (8) of section 29;

(z) any other matter which is to be or may be prescribed or in respect of which provision is to be, or may be, made by rules.

Laying of rules and certain notifications.

41. Every rule made and every notification issued under section 16 and section 42 of this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or notification or both Houses agree that the rule or notification should not be made or issued, the rule or notification shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule or notification.

Power to amend Schedule.

42. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, amend the Schedule, subject to the restriction that no such notification shall have the effect of increasing any penalty specified therein to more than twice of what was specified in it when this Act was originally enacted.

(2) Any amendment notified under sub-section (1) shall have effect as if enacted in this Act and shall come into force on the date of the notification.

Power to remove difficulties.

43. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act as may appear to it to be necessary or expedient for removing the difficulty.

(2) No order as referred to in sub-section (1) shall be made after the expiry of three years from the date of commencement of this Act.

(3) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament.

24 of 1997.

Amendments to certain Acts.

44. (1) In section 14 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, in clause (c), for sub-clauses (i) and (ii), the following sub-clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

20 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 20 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-72

21 of 2000.

"(i) the Appellate Tribunal under the Information Technology Act, 2000;

(ii) the Appellate Tribunal under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

27 of 2008.

of India Act, 2008; and

(iii) the Appellate Tribunal under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.".

(2) The Information Technology Act, 2000 shall be amended in the following manner, 21 of 2000.

namely:—

(a) section 43A shall be omitted;

39 of 1970.

(b) in section 81, in the proviso, after the words and figures "the Patents Act, 1970", the words and figures "or the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023" shall be inserted; and

22 of 2005.

(3) In section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, in sub-section (1), for clause (j), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—

"(j) information which relates to personal information;".

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 21 No. 11-72] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 21

THE SCHEDULE

[See section 33 (1)]

Sl. No. Breach of provisions of this Act or rules made thereunder

Penalty

(1)

(2)

(3)

1. Breach in observing the obligation of Data Fiduciary to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent personal data breach under sub-section (5) of section 8.

May extend to two hundred and fifty crore rupees.

2. Breach in observing the obligation to give the Board or affected Data Principal notice of a personal data breach under sub-section (6) of section 8.

May extend to two hundred crore rupees.

3. Breach in observance of additional obligations in relation to children under section 9.

May extend to two hundred crore rupees.

4. Breach in observance of additional obligations of Significant Data Fiduciary under section 10.

May extend to one hundred and fifty crore rupees.

5. Breach in observance of the duties under section 15.

May extend to ten thousand rupees.

6. Breach of any term of voluntary undertaking accepted by the Board under section 32.

Up to the extent applicable for the breach in respect of which the proceedings under section 28 were instituted.

7. Breach of any other provision of this Act or the rules made thereunder.

May extend to fifty crore rupees.

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA,

Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-73 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

_____

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 11th August, 2023/Sravana 20, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 11th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE INDIAN INSTITUTES OF MANAGEMENT (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023

NO. 23 OF 2023

[11th August, 2023.]

An Act further to amend the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as

follows:––

1. (1) This Act may be called the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Short title and commencement.

Act, 2023.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.

33 of 2017.

Amendment of section 4.

2. In section 4 of the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Act), after sub-section (1), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—

'(1A) On and from the date of commencement of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023, the National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai, shall be called the ''Indian Institute of Management, Mumbai'' and all the provisions of this Act shall apply to the said Institute.'.

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-73 2 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—

3. In section 5 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 5.

(i) in clause (d),—

(a) for the words "every person employed by every existing Institute", the words "every person, other than a Director employed by every existing Institute" shall be substituted;

(b) after the second proviso, the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—

"Provided also that the provisions of the first proviso shall also be applicable to the Directors of the Institutes;";

(ii) after clause (f), the following Explanation shall be inserted, namely:—

'Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that in relation to the Indian Institute of Management, Mumbai, the reference to the following expressions in sections 4 and 5—

(i) ''On and from the commencement of this Act'';

(ii) ''before such commencement'';

(iii) ''before commencement of this Act''; and

(iv) ''before the commencement of this Act'',

shall be construed as the reference to the date on which the provisions of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023 comes into force.'.

4. In section 10 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 10.

(a) in sub-section (2), in clause (a), for the words "to be appointed by the Board", the words "to be nominated by the Visitor" shall be substituted;

(b) after sub-section (5), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—

"(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, if the Board is suspended or dissolved under such conditions or procedure as may be prescribed, the Central Government shall constitute an interim Board for a period of six months or till a regular Board is constituted as per the provisions of this Act.".

5. After section 10 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 10A.

"10A. (1) The President of India shall be the Visitor of every Institute.

Visitor.

(2) The Visitor may appoint one or more persons to review the work and progress of any Institute and to hold inquiries into the affairs thereof and to report thereon in such manner as the Visitor may direct.

(3) The Board may also recommend to the Visitor, an inquiry as deemed proper against the Institute which has not been functioning in accordance with the provisions and objectives of this Act.

(4) Upon receipt of any such report referred to in sub-section (2), the Visitor may take such action and issue such directions as he considers necessary in respect of any of the matters dealt with in the report and the Institute shall be bound to comply with such directions.".

6. In section 12 of the principal Act, after sub-section (1), the following sub-section Amendment of section 12.

shall be inserted, namely:—

"(1A) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, an outgoing Member shall, unless the Board otherwise directs, continue in office until another person is appointed or nominated as a Member in his place.".

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 3 No. 11-73] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

7. In section 16 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 16.

(a) in sub-section (2), for the words "appointed by the Board, on such terms", the words "appointed by the Board with prior approval of the Visitor, in such manner and subject to such terms" shall be substituted;

(b) for sub-section (3), the following sub-sections shall be substituted, namely:—

"(3) The Director shall be appointed out of the panel of names recommended by a search-cum-selection committee to be constituted by the Board consisting of—

(a) the Chairperson of the Board, who shall be the Chairperson of the search-cum-selection committee;

(b) one Member to be nominated by the Visitor; and

(c) two Members chosen from amongst eminent administrators, industrialists, educationists, scientists, technocrats and management specialists.

(3A) The procedure to be adopted for selection of the Director shall be such as may be prescribed.";

(c) in sub-section (7), in the opening portion, for the words "The Board may remove from office the Director", the words "The Board, with prior approval of the Visitor, may remove from office the Director" shall be substituted;

(d) after sub-section (9), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—

"(10) The services of the Director may be terminated by the Visitor, in such manner as may be prescribed.".

8. Section 17 of the principal Act shall be omitted.

Omission of section 17.

9. In section 29 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—

Amendment of section 29.

(i) for clause (a), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—

"(a) an eminent person to be nominated by the Visitor as Chairperson;";

(ii) for clause (d), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—

"(d) the Chairperson of each Institute—Member, ex officio;".

10. In section 34 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—

Amendment of section 34.

(i) for clause (a), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

"(a) the conditions and the procedure subject to which the Board may be suspended or dissolved under sub-section (6) of section 10;

(aa) such other powers and duties of the Board under clause (w) of sub-section (2) of section 11;";

(ii) after clause (b), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(ba) the procedure to be adopted for selection of the Director under sub-section (3A) of section 16;

(bb) the manner of termination of services of the Director under sub-section (10) of section 16;".

4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-73 4 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—SEC. 1]

11. In section 39 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), after clause (c), the following Amendment of section 39. clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(d) the Board of National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai, functioning as such immediately before the commencement of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023 shall continue to so function until a new Board is constituted for that Institute under this Act, but on such constitution of a new Board under this Act, the Members of the Board holding office before such constitution shall cease to hold office;

(e) the Academic Council constituted in relation to National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai, before the commencement of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023 shall continue to so function until a new Academic Council is constituted for that Institute under this Act, but on the constitution of a new Academic Council under this Act, the Academic Council of the National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai shall cease to function;

(f) until the first regulations in relation to National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai are made under this Act, the rules and bye-laws of the National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai as in force immediately before the commencement of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023 shall continue to apply to the National Institute of Industrial Engineering, Mumbai with necessary modifications and adaptations insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.".

Amendment of Schedule.

12. On and from the date of commencement of the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Act, 2023, in the Schedule to the principal Act, after Sl. No. 20 and the entries relating thereto, the following Sl. No. and entries shall be inserted, namely:—

"21. Maharashtra National Institute Mumbai Indian Institute of Industrial of Management, Engineering, Mumbai, Mumbai.". a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860).

Sd/

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-74 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

_____

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 14th August, 2023/Sravana 23, 1945 (Saka) The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 12th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE CONSTITUTION (SCHEDULED CASTES) ORDER (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023

NO. 24 OF 2023

[12th August, 2023.]

An Act further to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 to modify the list of Scheduled Castes in the State of Chhattisgarh.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

Short title.

1. This Act may be called the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Act, 2023.

2 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—SEC. 1] 2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-74

C.O. 19.

2. In the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, in the Schedule, in Part XXIII.—

Chhattisgarh, for entry 33, the following entry shall be substituted, namely:—

"33. Mahar, Mahara, Mahra, Mehar, Mehra".

Amendment of Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 14th August, 2023/Sravana 23, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 12th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE ANUSANDHAN NATIONAL RESEARCH FOUNDATION ACT, 2023

NO. 25 OF 2023

[12th August, 2023.]

An Act to establish the Anusandhan National Research Foundation to provide high level strategic direction for research, innovation and entrepreneurship in the fields of natural sciences including mathematical sciences, engineering and technology, environmental and earth sciences, health and agriculture, and scientific and technological interfaces of humanities and social sciences, to promote, monitor and provide support as required for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as

follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Short title and commencement.

Act, 2023.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision.

2 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75

Definitions.

2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "appointed date" means such date as the Central Government may, by notification, appoint under sub-section (2) of section 1;

(b) "Chief Executive Officer" means the Chief Executive Officer of the Foundation;

(d) "Executive Council" means the Council constituted under sub-section (1) of section 7;

(e) "Foundation" means the Anusandhan National Research Foundation established under section 3;

(f) "Funds" means the Funds referred to in sub-section (2) of section 13;

(g) "Governing Board" means the Governing Board of the Foundation constituted under section 5;

(h) "Member" means a Member of the Governing Board or the Executive Council and includes the President, Vice-President and Chairperson, as the case may be;

(i) "notification" means the notification published in the Official Gazette and the expression "notified" shall be construed accordingly;

(j) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act; and

(k) "regulations" means the regulations made by the Executive Council under this Act.

CHAPTER II

ANUSANDHAN NATIONAL RESEARCH FOUNDATION

Establishment of Foundation.

3. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may, by notification, appoint, there shall be established for the purposes of this Act, a Foundation to be known as the Anusandhan National Research Foundation.

(2) The Foundation, referred to in sub-section (1), shall be a body corporate, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power subject to the provisions of this Act, to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract and shall, by the said name, sue or be sued.

Objectives of Foundation.

4. (1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Foundation shall serve as the apex body to provide high level strategic direction for research, innovation and entrepreneurship in the fields of natural sciences including mathematical sciences, engineering and technology, environmental and earth sciences, health and agriculture, and scientific and technological interfaces of humanities and social sciences.

(2) Without prejudice to the provisions contained in sub-section (1), the Foundation shall undertake suitable initiatives including the following, namely:—

(a) preparing the roadmap for short, medium and long term research and development;

(b) seeding, growing and facilitating research at academic and research institutions, particularly at universities and colleges where research capacity is at a nascent stage, through programmes such as research and development projects, fellowships, academic chairs, and creation of centres of excellence;

(d) assisting in setting up research infrastructure and environment that is conducive for scientific pursuit with specific focus on matters of national priorities, emerging frontiers and strategic research;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 3 No. 11-75] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

(e) increasing India's role and participation in key areas of national and global importance;

(f) supporting translation of research undertaken into capital intensive technologies;

(g) evolving nationally coordinated programmes to identify scientific and practical solutions for societal, developmental, financial and techno-economic challenges;

(h) coordinating across the Central Government, State Governments, public authorities, industries, and research institutions, to document and analyse the expenditure on scientific research and their outcomes during each financial year, and report the same to the Central Government;

(i) evolving participation in international collaborative projects and fostering exchange of scientific information;

(j) encouraging collaboration with scientists from within and outside India, including scientists of Indian origin, with a view to enrich the Indian scientific ecosystem; and

(k) encouraging the Public Sector Enterprises as well as the private sector entities to invest in the activities of the Foundation.

(3) In addition to the objectives referred to in sub-section (2), the Foundation shall also, to the extent practicable, either by itself, or through a suitable agency identified in this behalf, undertake an annual survey of outcomes of scientific research in India, with a view to create a central repository, for the collection, interpretation and analysis of information and data surrounding such research, and the aim of such a repository would include providing information for policy formulation and advising the Central Government and State Governments as well as the private sector:

Provided that the survey referred to in this sub-section shall exclude any strategic areas of research as determined by the Governing Board.

(4) The Foundation shall perform the aforesaid objectives through a Governing Board constituted under section 5.

Governing Board.

5. (1) There shall be constituted a Governing Board, which shall provide high level strategic direction, perform and monitor the implementation of the objectives of the Foundation.

(2) The Governing Board referred to in sub-section (1) shall consist of the following, namely:—

(a) the Prime Minister of India, ex officio—President;

(b) the Union Minister of Science and Technology, ex officio—Vice-President;

(d) a Member from the NITI Aayog dealing with science and technology, ex officio—Member;

(e) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Science and Technology, ex officio—Member;

(f) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research, ex officio—Member;

(g) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Biotechnology, ex officio—Member;

(h) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Higher Education, ex officio—Member; and4 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75 (i) the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, ex officio—

Member-Secretary.

(3) The President of the Governing Board may nominate or appoint the following Members to the Governing Board, namely:—

(a) not exceeding two Members from the Prime Minister's Science, Technology and Innovation Council;

(b) not exceeding five Members from business organisation or industry;

(d) not exceeding two Members from institutions engaged in scientific and technological research and development; and

(e) not exceeding six experts who have specialised knowledge in the areas of health, mathematical and physical sciences, biological sciences, engineering and technology, innovation and partnership, computer and information sciences, and engineering.

(4) The qualifications, experience, honorarium and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Members and experts of the Governing Board referred to in sub-section (3) shall be such as may be prescribed.

Meetings of Governing Board.

6. (1) The Governing Board shall meet at such times and places, and shall observe such rules of procedure in regard to the transaction of business at its meetings including quorum at such meetings, as may be specified by the regulations.

(2) If the President for any reason is unable to attend a meeting of the Governing Board, any of the Vice-Presidents shall preside over the meeting.

7. (1) The President of the Governing Board shall constitute an Executive Council to Executive Council.

implement the provisions of this Act.

(2) The Executive Council referred to in sub-section (1) shall consist of the following, nominated by the President of the Governing Board, namely:—

(a) the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, ex officio—

Chairperson;

(b) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Science and Technology, ex officio—Member;

(d) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of scientific and Industrial Research, ex officio—Member;

(e) Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry of Earth Sciences, ex officio—Member;

(f ) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Higher Education, ex officio—Member;

(g) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Health Research, ex officio—Member;

(h) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Defence Research and Development, ex officio—Member;

(i) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Atomic Energy, ex officio—Member;

(j) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Space, ex officio—Member;

(k) Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, ex officio—Member; andSEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 5 No. 11-75] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5 (l) the Chief Executive Officer of the Foundation appointed under section 11, ex officio—Member-Secretary.

(3) The President of the Governing Board may also nominate or appoint the following Members to the Executive Council, namely:—

(a) not exceeding two ex officio Members amongst Secretaries of such other Departments or Ministries of the Government of India, not referred to in sub-section (2), as may be notified by the Central Government; and

(b) not exceeding three Members amongst distinguished experts who have specialised knowledge in the areas of science and technology in academia, philanthropic sector, research laboratories and industries.

(4) The qualifications, experience, honorarium and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Members of the Executive Council referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (3) shall be such as may be prescribed.

Meetings of Executive Council.

8. (1) The Executive Council shall meet at such times and places, and shall observe such rules of procedure in regard to the transaction of business at its meetings including quorum at such meetings, as may be specified by the regulations.

(2) If the Chairperson for any reason is unable to attend a meeting of the Executive Council, the Member chosen by other Members shall preside over the meeting.

(3) The Chairperson shall, in addition to presiding over the meetings of the Executive Council, exercise and discharge such powers and duties, as may be delegated by the Governing Board.

9. No act or proceeding of the Governing Board or the Executive Council shall be invalidated merely by reason of—

(a) any vacancy in, or any defect in the constitution of the Governing Board or the Executive Council;

(b) any defect in the appointment of a person acting as a Member of the

Vacancies, etc., not to invalidate proceedings of Governing Board or Executive Council.

Governing Board or the Executive Council; and

(c) any irregularity in the procedure of the Governing Board or the Executive Council not affecting the merits of the case.

Functions of Executive Council.

10. The Executive Council shall implement the objectives of the Foundation based on the policy direction and guidance provided by the Governing Board, including the following functions, namely:—

(a) to consider applications for the grant of financial assistance in accordance with the eligibility criteria as determined necessary for such grants;

(b) to determine through regulations,—

(i) the requirements for registration, the form and manner for making of applications for financial assistance;

(ii) reports and certification to be furnished pursuant to availing the financial assistance;

(iii) the requirements of extension of financial assistance; and

(iv) the grounds for revocation of financial assistance;

(c) to facilitate and provide any assistance as may be required to ensure filing of applications for intellectual property rights pursuant to the research undertaken through financial assistance under this Act; and

(d) any other function as may be delegated to it from time to time by the Governing Board.

6 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 6 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75

11. (1) The President of the Governing Board may appoint a Chief Executive Officer, not below the rank of Additional Secretary to the Government of India, for efficient administration of the Foundation.

Chief Executive Officer and other officers and employees of Foundation.

(2) The qualifications, experience, salary and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Chief Executive Officer shall be such as may be prescribed.

(3) The Executive Council may appoint such other officers and employees as it considers necessary for the efficient discharge of its functions under this Act.

(4) The qualifications, experience, salary and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the other officers and employees of the Foundation shall be such as may be prescribed.

(5) The Executive Council may engage the services of such persons, both from within and outside India, as consultants and visiting scientists to the Foundation.

(6) The eligibility criteria and honorarium payable to the consultants and visiting scientists, referred to in sub-section (5), shall be such as may be specified by the regulations.

Constitution of Committees.

12. (1) The Executive Council may constitute such Committees as it may deem necessary for the efficient discharge of its duties and performance of its functions under this Act.

(2) The Executive Council may also co-opt persons, other than Members of the Governing Board or the Executive Council, as members of any Committees constituted under sub-section (1).

(3) The co-opted members shall have the right to attend the meetings of the Committees and take part in the proceedings of the Committees, but shall not have right to participate in decision making.

CHAPTER III

FINANCE, ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

13. (1) The Foundation shall receive monies from the following sources, namely:—

Funds of Foundation.

(a) grants and loans of such sums of money as the Central Government may consider necessary, after due appropriation made by Parliament by law in this behalf;

(b) any sums received for research and development, including through donations from any other source, including from public sector enterprises, the private sector, philanthropist organisations, foundations or international bodies;

(d) any income from investment of the amounts received by the Foundation;

(e) all amounts with the Fund for Science and Engineering Research under the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008 as on the appointed date; and 9 of 2009.

(f) such other sources as may be prescribed.

(2) The Governing Board shall constitute the following Funds, into which it shall allocate, in the manner as it determines fit, the amounts received from clauses (a), (b), (c), (d) and (f) of sub-section (1), namely:—

(a) the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Fund, which shall be used for the financing of activities under the Act, including expenses, salaries, allowances and other administrative exigencies for achieving the objectives of the Foundation;

(b) the Innovation Fund for supporting outstanding creativity in the areas supported by the Foundation;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 7 No. 11-75] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 7

9 of 2009.

(c) the Science and Engineering Research Fund for continuation of the projects and programmes initiated under the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008; and

(d) one or more Special Purpose Funds for any specific project or research.

(3) The Governing Board shall maintain the Science and Engineering Research Fund referred to in clause (c) of sub-section (2) for such time as it may determine necessary, and allocate to such Fund, the following amounts, namely:—

(a) all amounts under clause (e) of sub-section (1); and

(b) any further amounts from any of the other sources of Funds received by the Foundation, as may be determined to be necessary for the implementation of such projects and programmes, based on a review and assessment by the Executive Council.

(4) The Central Government shall frame such financial rules for the utilisation of the amounts in the Funds established under this Act.

Budget.

14. The Executive Council shall prepare a budget, maintain proper accounts in such form and manner at such time and at such intervals as may be prescribed for the next financial year, showing the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Foundation, as approved by the Governing Board, and forward the same to the Central Government.

Annual report.

15. The Executive Council shall prepare, in such form and manner and at such time in every financial year, as may be prescribed, its annual report, giving a full account of the Foundation's activities during the previous financial year and submit a copy of the same to the Central Government.

Accounts and audit.

16. (1) The Executive Council shall maintain proper accounts and other relevant records and prepare an annual statement of accounts in such form and manner as may be prescribed in consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(2) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India or any other person appointed in connection with the auditing of the accounts of the Foundation under this Act shall have the same rights and privileges and the authority in connection with such audit as the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has in connection with the auditing of the Government account and, in particular, shall have the right to demand the production of books, accounts connected vouchers and other documents and papers and to inspect any of the office of the Foundation under this Act.

(3) The accounts of the Foundation shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India annually and any expenditure incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable by the Foundation to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(4) The Executive Council shall furnish to the Central Government, before such date as may be prescribed, its audited copy of accounts together with auditor's report.

17. The Central Government shall cause the annual report and auditor's report to be laid, as soon as may be after they have received, before each House of Parliament.

Annual report and auditor's report to be laid before Parliament.

CHAPTER IV

MISCELLANEOUS

Certification and report to be furnished.

18. (1) Any person receiving financial assistance from the Foundation shall furnish certification and report to the Executive Council, in such form and manner and at such time as may be specified by the regulations.

(2) The Executive Council may authorise an officer to visit any academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industries and other organisations with which the8 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— 8 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75 person referred to in sub-section (1) is associated, at any time to verify the accuracy of the certification or report made under this section.

Power of Governing Board to delegate.

19. The Governing Board may, by general or special order in writing, published in the Official Gazette, delegate to the Executive Council, the Chairperson of the Executive Council or the Chief Executive Officer, subject to such conditions and limitations, if any, as may be specified in the order, such of its powers and functions including, but not limited to administrative and financial matters, as it may deem necessary.

20. (1) Without prejudice to the foregoing provisions of this Act, the Executive Council shall, in discharge of its powers and performance of its functions under this Act, be bound by such directions as the Governing Board may give in writing to it from time to time.

Power of Governing Board to issue directions.

(2) The Executive Council shall furnish to the Governing Board such information with respect to its activities as the Governing Board may, from time to time, require.

21. The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the provisions of any other law for the time being in force.

Application of other laws not barred.

Protection of action taken in good faith.

22. No prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Central Government or the Governing Board or Executive Council or any Member of the Governing Board or Executive Council, or any Committee, officer or employee of the Foundation, or any other person authorised by the Central Government or the Foundation, for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.

Power to make rules.

23. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, and subject to the condition of previous publication, make rules not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the qualifications, experience, honorarium and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Members and experts of the Governing Board under sub-section (4) of section 5;

(b) the qualifications, experience, honorarium and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Members of the Executive Council under sub-section (4) of section 7;

(c) the qualifications, experience, salary and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the Chief Executive Officer under sub-section (2) of section 11;

(d) the qualifications, experience, salary and allowances payable to and the other terms and conditions of service of the other officers and employees under sub-section (4) of section 11;

(e) the other sources from where the Foundation receive monies under clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 13;

(f) the financial rules for the utilisation of the amounts in the funds under sub-section (4) of section 13;

(g) the form, manner, time and interval for preparation of budget for the next financial year under section 14;

(h) the form, manner and time for preparation of annual report by the Executive Council under section 15;

(i) the form and manner of preparation of annual statement of accounts by the Executive Council under sub-section (1) of section 16;

SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 9 No. 11-75] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9

(j) the date of submission of audited copy of accounts together with the auditor's report under sub-section (4) of section 16;

(k) the manner of dealing with the monies transferred by the Board to the Foundation under second proviso to clause (b) of sub-section (3) of section 27; and

(l) any other matter which is to be or may be prescribed or in respect of which provision is to be made by rules.

24. (1) The Executive Council may, by notification and with the prior approval of the Central Government, make regulations not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act and any rules made thereunder to carry out the purposes of this Act.

Power of Executive Council to make regulations.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such regulations may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the time, place and the rules of procedure in regard to transaction of business at the meetings and quorum of the Governing Board under sub-section (1) of section 6;

(b) the time, place and the rules of procedure in regard to transaction of business at the meetings and quorum of Executive Council under sub-section (1) of section 8;

(c) the requirements for registration, form and manner for making applications for financial assistance, reports and certification to be furnished for the financial assistance, extension of financial assistance and grounds for revocation of financial assistance under clause (b) of section 10;

(d) the eligibility criteria and honorarium payable to the consultants and visiting scientists under sub-section (6) of section 11;

(e) the form, manner and time for furnishing certification and report to the Foundation under sub-section (1) of section 18; and

(f) any other matter which is required to be or may be specified by regulations or in respect of which provision is to be made by regulations.

Rules and regulations to be laid before Parliament.

25. Every rule and every regulation made under this Act, shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or regulation or both Houses agree that the rule or regulation should not be made, the rule or regulation shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule or regulation.

Power to remove difficulties.

26. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, on the recommendations of the Foundation, by an order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder, as may appear to it to be necessary or expedient for removing such difficulty:

Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry of two years from the date of commencement of this Act.

(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament.

9 of 2009.

Repeal and savings.

27. (1) The Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008 is hereby repealed and the Science and Engineering Research Board constituted under section 3 of the said Act (hereinafter referred to as the repealed Act) shall stand dissolved.

10 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—SEC. 1] 10 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-75

(2) The repeal of the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008 shall, however, 9 of 2009.

not affect:—

(a) any action taken pursuant to sub-section (3) of section 13;

(b) previous operation or anything duly done under the repealed Act;

(d) any proceeding pending or ongoing under the repealed Act.

(3) On the dissolution of the Science and Engineering Research Board—

(a) all assets, liabilities and other facilities forming part of or used in connection with the Science and Engineering Research Board, shall be deemed to be the assets of the Foundation; and

(b) any officer or employee who has been, immediately before the dissolution of the Science and Engineering Research Board, employed on regular basis by the Science and Engineering Research Board, shall become, on and from such dissolution, the officer and employee, respectively, of the Foundation in such manner as may be notified by the Central Government, with the same rights and privileges as to pension, gratuity and other like matters as would have been admissible to him if the rights in relation to the Science and Engineering Research Board had not been transferred to, and vested in, the Foundation, and shall continue to do so unless and until his employment in the Foundation, is duly terminated or until his remuneration, terms and conditions of employment are duly altered by the Foundation:

14 of 1947.

Provided that notwithstanding anything contained in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 or in any other law for the time being in force, the transfer of the services of any officer or other employee, employed in the Science and Engineering Research Board, to the Foundation shall not entitle such officer or other employee, any compensation under this Act or any other law for the time being in force and no such claim shall be entertained by any court, tribunal or other authority:

Provided further that where the Science and Engineering Research Board has established a provident fund, superannuation, welfare or other fund for the benefit of officers and other employees employed in the Science and Engineering Research Board, the monies relatable to the officers and other employees whose services have been transferred by or under this Act to the Foundation shall, out of the monies standing, on the dissolution of the Science and Engineering Research Board, to the credit of such provident fund, superannuation, welfare or other fund, stand transferred to, and vest in, the Foundation, and such monies which stand so transferred shall be dealt with by the said Foundation, in such manner as may be prescribed.

(4) The mention of the particular matters referred to in sub-section (3) shall not be held to prejudice or affect the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 with regard to the effect of repeal.

10 of 1897.

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

THE NATIONAL NURSING AND MIDWIFERY COMMISSION ACT, 2023

NO. 26 OF 2023

[12th August, 2023.]

An Act to provide for regulation and maintenance of standards of education and services by nursing and midwifery professionals, assessment of institutions, maintenance of a National Register and State Registers and creation of a system to improve access, research and development and adoption of latest scientific advancement and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Short title and commencement.

Act, 2023.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any reference in any provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision.

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Definitions.

2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "Autonomous Board" means any of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 11;

(b) "Chairperson" means the Chairperson of the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission appointed under section 4;

(d) "midwifery" means a skilled, knowledgeable, and compassionate care for childbearing women, new-born infants and families across the continuum from pre-pregnancy, pregnancy, birth, postpartum and the early weeks of life and includes—

(i) preventive measures;

(ii) promotion of normal birth;

(iii) detection of complications in mother and child;

(iv) accessing of medical care or other appropriate assistance;

(v) appropriate and timely referrals; and

(vi) carrying out emergency measures as per the scope of practice as specified by the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission;

(e) "midwifery associate" means a member of the health team, who has acquired the recognised qualification and is granted licence to practice as midwifery associate by the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission, who—

(i) assists doctors or nurse practitioners in midwifery in the delivery of babies; and

(ii) provides care during pregnancy, labour and postpartum period and instruct parents in baby care as per the scope of practice specified by the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission;

(f) "midwifery professional" means a person who has obtained the recognised basic or advance qualification and is granted licence to practice by the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission;

(g) "National Commission" means the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission constituted under section 3;

(h) "National Register" means the Indian Nurses and Midwives' Register maintained by the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board under section 25;

(i) "notification" means a notification published in the Gazette of India or the Official Gazette of a State, as the case may be, and the expression "notify" with its grammatical variation and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly;

(j) "nurse" means a healthcare professional who—

(i) has completed a formally recognised programme of basic, generalised nursing education and who has acquired the requisite qualification and is granted licence to practice nursing by the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission; and

(ii) demonstrates competency in the practice of nursing;

(k) "nurse practitioner" means a licensed nurse who—

(i) has completed a formally recognised advanced education and training programme and has acquired the requisite qualification and is granted licence to practice by the National Commission; and

(ii) demonstrates clinical competencies for the scope of practice, complex decision making and have expert knowledge in the area of specialisation;

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(l) "nurse practitioner in midwifery" means a licensed nurse, who—

(i) has completed a formally recognised advanced education and training programme and who has acquired the requisite qualification and is granted licence to practice by the National Commission; and

(ii) demonstrates clinical competency for the scope of practice, complex decision making and have expert knowledge in the area of specialisation;

(m) "nursing" means the autonomous and collaborative care of individuals of all ages, families, groups and communities, sick or well and includes the promotion of health, prevention of illness, care of physically ill, mentally ill, disabled and dying people in all healthcare and other community settings by—

(i) carrying out healthcare teaching;

(ii) participating fully as a member of the healthcare team; and

(iii) supervising and training nursing and healthcare auxiliaries, additional key nursing roles including advocacy, promotion of a safe environment, research, participation in shaping health policy, in-patient health systems management and education;

(n) "Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board" means the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board constituted under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 11;

(o) "Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board" means the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board constituted under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 11;

(p) "nursing and midwifery institution" means an educational and training institution or a research institution within India, recognised under this Act, which grants diploma or undergraduate or postgraduate or any other post degree diploma or certificate in nursing and midwifery, and includes affiliated colleges and deemed to be Universities;

(q) "nursing and midwifery leader" means any nursing or midwifery professional, who is the Dean of a nursing educational institution, or Principal or Vice-Principal of a college of nursing, or Nursing Superintendent, or Chief Nursing Officer of the Nursing and Midwifery Department, in any institution or healthcare facility and possessing such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed;

(r) "Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board" means the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board constituted under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 11;

(s) "nursing associate" means a member of the health team, who has acquired the recognised qualification and is granted licence to practice as nursing associate by the National Commission, who provides care for the sick and injured including those in need of nursing care in varied health settings within his authorised scope of practice;

(t) "nursing professional" means a nurse registered with the National Commission, having basic or advance qualification and includes a nurse practitioner in any speciality;

(u) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act;

(v) "qualification" means the level of courses such as diploma, undergraduate degree, postgraduate degree and higher qualification including certification courses, inclusive of the specified curriculum of such courses or programmes;

(w) "recognised nursing and midwifery qualification" means a nursing and midwifery qualification recognised under section 28 or section 29 or section 32, as the case may be;

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(x) "registered professional" means any associate or professional in nursing and midwifery who is registered with any of the State Commissions or, as the case may be, the National Commission under section 25;

(y) "regulations" means the regulations made by the National Commission under section 52;

(z) "State Commission" means the State Nursing and Midwifery Commission constituted under section 23;

(za) "State Register" means the State Register for Nursing Professionals and Midwifery Professionals or the State Register for Nurse Associates and Midwifery Associates, maintained by State Commission under section 25;

3 of 1956.

(zb) "University" shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (f) of section 2 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and includes an institution declared to be deemed University under section 3 of that Act.

CHAPTER II

NATIONAL NURSING AND MIDWIFERY COMMISSION

National Nursing and Midwifery Commission.

3. (1) The Central Government shall constitute a Commission, to be known as the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission, with effect from such date as it may, by notification, appoint, for exercising such powers and discharging such duties as are laid down under this Act.

(2) The National Commission shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power, subject to the provisions of this Act, to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract, and shall, by the said name, sue or be sued.

(3) The head office of the National Commission shall be at New Delhi.

4. The National Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, sixteen ex officio Members and twelve Members as follows, namely:—

Composition of National Commission.

(a) a person having outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity and possessing a postgraduate degree in nursing and midwifery profession from any University with experience of not less than twenty years in the field of nursing and midwifery, out of which at least ten years shall be as a nursing and midwifery leader, to be appointed by the Central Government—Chairperson;

(b) one representative of the Department of Health and Family Welfare, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India who is in-charge of nursing and midwifery—Member, ex officio;

(c) one representative of the Ministry of Defence not below the rank of Additional Director General, Military Nursing Services to the Government of India in the Directorate General of Armed Forces Medical Services—Member, ex officio;

(d) one representative of the Directorate General of Health Services not below the rank of Additional Director General—Member, ex officio;

(e) one person representing the National Medical Commission not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India—Member, ex officio;

(f) President of each of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 11—Members, ex officio;

(g) three persons, not below the rank of Chief Nursing Officer or Nursing Superintendent of any of the hospitals or Dean or Principal of College of Nursing, as the case may be, to be nominated by the Central Government from Central Government hospitals or Nursing and Midwifery Institutions of repute in such manner as may be prescribed—Members, ex officio;

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(h) one person from each of the six zones, as may be prescribed, not below the rank of Chairperson, who shall be a nursing and midwifery professional, representing the State Commissions, on biennial rotation in the alphabetical order as per the zonal distribution of States and Union territories, to be nominated in such manner as may be prescribed—Members, ex officio;

(i) six nursing members of eminence, one from each of the six zones, as may be prescribed, from nursing and midwifery profession of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any discipline of nursing and midwifery from any University and having experience of not less than fifteen years in the field of nursing and midwifery, out of which at least seven years shall be as a nursing and midwifery leader, to be nominated by the State Governments in such manner as may be prescribed—Members:

Provided that the States and Union territories represented under clauses (h) and (i) shall be distinct;

(j) four nursing and midwifery members of eminence, of which at least two shall be midwifery professionals, of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any discipline of nursing and midwifery from any University and having experience of not less than fifteen years in the field of nursing and midwifery, out of which at least seven years shall be as a nursing and midwifery leader, to be nominated by the Central Government in such manner as may be prescribed—Members;

(k) one person representing charitable institutions engaged in education or services in the field of nursing and midwifery and having such qualification and experience, to be appointed by the Central Government in such manner as may be prescribed—Member; and

(l) a person of eminence to be appointed by the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed, from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing, who have special knowledge and professional experience in such areas including management, law, medical ethics, health research, consumer or patient rights advocacy, science and technology and economics—Member.

5. (1) The Central Government shall appoint—

(i) the Chairperson and Members referred to in clauses (a), (j), (k) and (l) of section 4;

(ii) the Secretary referred in sub-section (2) of section 8; and

(iii) the President and Members of Autonomous Boards referred in

Search-cum- Selection Committee for appointment of Chairperson and Members of National Commission.

sub-sections (3), (4) and (5) of section 12,

on the recommendations of a Search-cum-Selection Committee consisting of—

(a) the Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare—Chairperson;

(b) four nursing and midwifery experts possessing outstanding qualifications and experience of not less than twenty-five years in the field of nursing and midwifery education, public health nursing education and nursing health research, to be nominated by the Central Government in such manner as may be prescribed—Members;

(d) an Additional Secretary or a Joint Secretary to the Government of India in-charge of nursing in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, to be the Convenor—Member.

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(2) The Central Government shall, within one month from the date of occurrence of any vacancy, including by reason of death, resignation or removal of the Chairperson or Secretary or a Member, or within three months before the end of tenure of the Chairperson or Secretary or Member, make a reference to the Search-cum-Selection Committee for filling up of the vacancy.

(3) The Search-cum-Selection Committee shall recommend a panel of at least three names for each vacancy.

(4) The Search-cum-Selection Committee shall, before recommending any person for appointment of the Chairperson or Secretary or Member, satisfy itself that such person does not have any financial or other interest which is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as such Chairperson or Secretary or Member.

(5) No appointment of the Chairperson or Secretary or Member of the National Commission or, as the case may be, the President or Member of the Autonomous Boards, shall be invalid merely by reason of any vacancy or absence of a Member in the Search-cum-Selection Committee.

(6) Subject to the provisions of sub-sections (2) to (5), the Search-cum-Selection Committee may regulate its own procedure.

6. (1) The Chairperson, Secretary and Members of the National Commission referred to in clauses (i), (j), (k) and (l) of section 4, shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years, as the Central Government may notify in this behalf, from the date on which they enter upon their office and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment.

(2) A person who has completed the age of sixty-five years on the date of application Term of office and conditions of service of Chairperson and Members of National Commission. shall not be eligible for the post of Member of the National Commission.

(3) The term of office of an ex officio Member shall continue as long as such Member holds the office by virtue of which he is a Member.

(4) Where a Member appointed to the National Commission under clause (i) or clause (j) or clause (k) or clause (l) of section 4, is absent from three consecutive ordinary meetings of the National Commission and the cause of such absence is not attributable to any valid reason in the opinion of the National Commission, such Member shall be deemed to have vacated the seat.

(5) The Chairperson of the National Commission and the Members of the National Commission referred to in clauses (i), (j), (k) and (l) of section 4, shall receive such salaries or travelling and other allowances as may be prescribed.

(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), the Chairperson or a Member of the National Commission referred to in clauses (i), (j), (k) and (l) of section 4, may—

(a) relinquish his office by giving in writing to the Central Government a notice of not less than three months; or

(b) be removed from his office in accordance with the provisions of section 7:

Provided that, if the Central Government so decides, such person may be relieved from duties earlier than three months or be allowed to continue beyond three months until a successor is appointed.

(7) The Chairperson and every Member of the National Commission shall make declaration of his assets and liabilities at the time of entering upon his office and at the time of demitting office and also declare his professional and commercial engagement or involvement in such form and manner as may be prescribed, and the said declaration shall be published on the website of the National Commission.

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(8) The Chairperson or a Member of the National Commission referred to in clauses (i), (j), (k) and (l) of section 4, ceasing to hold office as such, shall not accept, for a period of two years from the date of demitting such office, any employment, in any capacity including as a consultant or an expert, in any private nursing and midwifery institution, whose matter has been dealt with by such Chairperson or Member, either directly or indirectly:

Provided that nothing contained herein shall be construed as preventing such person from accepting an employment in a body or institution, including nursing and midwifery institution, controlled or maintained by the Central Government or a State Government:

Provided further that nothing contained herein shall prevent the Central Government from permitting the Chairperson or a Member of the National Commission to accept any employment in any capacity, including as a consultant or expert in any private nursing and midwifery institution whose matter has been dealt with by such Chairperson or Member.

7. (1) The Central Government may, by order, remove from office, the Chairperson or any other Member of the National Commission, who—

(a) has been adjudged an insolvent; or

Removal of Chairperson or Member of National Commission.

(b) has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or

(d) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; or

(e) has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Member; or

(f) has so misused his position as to render his continuance in office prejudicial to the public interest.

(2) No Member shall be removed under clauses (e) and (f) of sub-section (1) unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

8. (1) There shall be a secretariat for the National Commission to be headed by a Secretary, to be appointed by the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of section 5.

Secretary and other employees of National Commission.

(2) The Secretary of the National Commission shall be a person of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing such qualifications and experience, as may be prescribed.

(3) The Secretary shall hold the office for a term of four years and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment.

(4) The Secretary shall also be the Member Secretary of each of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 11.

(5) The Secretary shall discharge such functions of the National Commission and that of each of the Autonomous Boards constituted under section 11, as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The National Commission may, for the optimum discharge of its functions under this Act, appoint such officers, and other employees of the National Commission other than the Secretary, as it considers necessary, against the posts created by the Central Government as recommended by the National Commission.

(7) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of the Secretary, officers and other employees of the National Commission shall be such, as may be prescribed.

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(8) The National Commission may engage, in accordance with the procedure, such number of experts, consultants and professionals of integrity and outstanding ability, as may be specified by regulations, who have special knowledge of, and experience in such fields, including nursing and midwifery education, public health nursing, management, health economics, quality assurance, patient advocacy, nursing research, science and technology, administration, finance, information technology, statistics, nursing informatics, accounts and law, as it deems necessary, to assist the National Commission in the discharge of its functions under this Act.

(9) The National Commission may also invite, in accordance with the procedure, such number of experts and domain specialists from foreign countries to the meetings of the National Commission, as may be specified by regulations, who have special knowledge of nursing and midwifery curriculum, practical training and pattern of examination including licentiate examination of the relevant foreign country, as it deems necessary, to facilitate global mobility and employability of registered professional.

9. (1) The National Commission shall meet at least once in every quarter at such time and place as may be appointed by the Chairperson.

Meetings of National Commission, administration, etc.

(2) The Chairperson shall preside over the meetings of the National Commission and if for any reason the Chairperson is unable to attend such meeting, any other Member being the President of an Autonomous Board, as may be nominated by the Chairperson, shall preside over that meeting.

(3) Unless the procedure to be followed at the meetings of the National Commission is otherwise provided by regulations, one-half of the total number of Members of the National Commission including the Chairperson shall constitute the quorum at the meeting of the National Commission and all the acts of the National Commission shall be decided by a majority of the Members, present and voting and in the event of equality of votes, the Chairperson, or in his absence, the President of the Autonomous Board nominated under sub-section (2), shall have the casting vote.

(4) The general superintendence, direction and control of the administration of the National Commission shall vest in the Chairperson.

(5) No act done by the National Commission shall be questioned on the ground of the existence of a vacancy in, or a defect in the constitution of, the National Commission.

10. (1) The National Commission shall take all such steps as it may think fit for ensuring coordinated and integrated development of education and maintenance of the standards of delivery of services, with periodic revisions, as may be specified by regulations.

Powers and functions of National Commission.

(2) The National Commission may make regulations for the purposes of performing the following functions, namely:—

(a) to frame policies and regulate standards for the governance of nursing and midwifery education and training;

(b) to regulate nursing and midwifery institutions, researches, professionals and associates;

(d) to provide basic standards of education, physical and instructional facilities, assessment, examination, training, research, continuing professional education and maximum tuition fee payable in respect of various categories;

(e) to provide standards for nursing and midwifery faculty and clinical facility in teaching institutions;

(f) to provide for a uniform mechanism for admission into the nursing and midwifery institutions at various levels.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, it is clarified that the authority as may be designated by the Central Government shall make admissions into nursingNo. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 9 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 9 and midwifery institutions in such uniform manner at all India level, and the authority as may be designated by the State Government shall make admissions in the same manner into nursing and midwifery institutions at State level;

(g) to provide for a mechanism, either through final year undergraduate exam or otherwise, to ensure adequate competence of the nursing and midwifery professionals for enrolment in the National Register or State Register, as the case may be, and for granting licence to practice as a nursing and midwifery professional;

(h) to collaborate with industry and other institutions for use of cutting-edge technology and hybrid education to drive innovation and research in the field of nursing and midwifery;

(i) to integrate soft skills and elective courses in the curriculum of nursing and midwifery qualifications and to take measures to enhance skills and competency of registered professional for facilitating global mobility;

(j) to assess the nursing and midwifery requirements in healthcare, including human resources for various healthcare settings, provide mechanisms for career development pathways for all nursing and midwifery related cadres including appropriate lateral entry as applicable and advise the Central Government on matters pertaining thereto;

(k) to ensure policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in nursing and midwifery profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by nursing and midwifery professionals, including nursing associates and midwifery associates;

(l) to promote, co-ordinate and frame guidelines and lay down policies for the proper functioning of the National Commission, the Autonomous Boards, the Advisory Council and the State Commissions;

(m) to ensure coordination among the Autonomous Boards;

(n) to take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act by the State Commissions for their effective functioning;

(o) to exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of Autonomous Boards; and

(p) to perform such other functions as may be prescribed.

(3) The National Commission may delegate such of its functions, except the power to make regulations, to the Autonomous Boards as it may deem necessary.

(4) The National Commission shall, at least once a year, hold a meeting with the National Medical Commission, Pharmacy Council of India, National Commission for Indian System of Medicine, National Commission for Homoeopathy and National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, or the corresponding National Regulator for regulating the said professions, at such time and place as they mutually appoint, to enhance the interface between different workforce categories in modern system of medicine, develop consensus on issues and promote team based approach to healthcare delivery.

(5) Every order and decision of the National Commission shall be authenticated by the signature of its Secretary.

(6) The National Commission may delegate such of its powers of administrative and financial matters, as it deems fit, to its Secretary.

(7) The National Commission may constitute sub-committees and delegate such of its powers to such sub-committees as may be necessary to enable them to accomplish specific tasks.

CHAPTER III

AUTONOMOUS BOARDS

Autonomous Boards.

11. (1) The Central Government shall, by notification, constitute the following Autonomous Boards, under the overall supervision of the National Commission, to perform the functions assigned to such Boards under this Act, namely:—

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(a) the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board;

(b) the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board; and

(2) Every Autonomous Board referred to in sub-section (1) shall be an autonomous body which shall carry out its functions under this Act in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

12. (1) The Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board shall have not more than two whole-time Members and not more than two part-time Members other than a President.

Composition of Autonomous Boards.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board and the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall consist of a President, not more than two whole-time Members and not more than two part-time Members.

(3) The President of each Autonomous Board, two whole-time Members and one part-time Member of Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, and one whole-time Member and one part-time Member of Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board and Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board, shall be persons of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any discipline of nursing and midwifery from any University and having experience of not less than fifteen years, out of which at least seven years shall be as a nursing and midwifery leader to be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted under section 5.

(4) The second whole-time Member of the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board, to be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted under section 5, shall be a person of outstanding ability and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in any of the disciplines of management, quality assurance, law or science and technology from any University, having hands on clinical experience of not less than fifteen years in such field, out of which at least seven years shall be as the Head of a Department or the Head of an Institute or an organisation.

(5) The second whole-time Member of the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board, to be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted under section 5, shall be a person of outstanding ability who has demonstrated public record of work on nursing or medical ethics or a person of outstanding ability possessing a postgraduate degree in any of the disciplines of quality assurance, public health, law or patient advocacy from any University and having experience of not less than fifteen years in such field, out of which at least seven years shall be as the Head of a Department or the Head of an Institute or an organisation.

(6) The second part-time Member of the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board, the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board and the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, shall be chosen from amongst the nursing and midwifery Members representing the State Commissions under clause (h) of section 4, in such manner as may be prescribed.

13. (1) The President and the whole-time Members of each Autonomous Board shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment:

Term of office and conditions of service of President and Members.

Provided that the part-time Members of each Autonomous Board shall hold the office for a term of two years:

Provided further that a Member should be less than sixty-five years of age on the date of application for the office of Member.

(2) The vacancies of each Autonomous Board shall be filled in such manner as may be prescribed.

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(3) The salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the President and the whole-time Members of an Autonomous Board shall be such as may be prescribed.

(4) Every part-time Member of an Autonomous Board shall be entitled for such

allowances as may be prescribed.

(5) The provisions of sub-sections (4), (5), (6), (7) and (8) of section 6 relating to other terms and conditions of service, and section 7 relating to removal from the office, of the Chairperson and Members of the National Commission shall mutatis mutandis apply to the President and Members of the Autonomous Boards.

Advisory committees of experts.

14. (1) Each Autonomous Board, except the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board, shall be assisted by such advisory committees consisting of experts as may be constituted by the National Commission, for the efficient discharge of the functions of such Autonomous Board.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall be assisted by such ethics committees of experts as may be constituted by the National Commission for the efficient discharge of the functions of such Autonomous Board.

Staff of Autonomous Boards.

15. (1) The experts, consultants, professionals, officers and other employees appointed under section 8 shall be made available to the Autonomous Boards in such number and manner, as may be specified by regulations.

(2) The foreign experts and domain specialists from foreign countries invited by the National Commission under section 8 shall also be made available to the Autonomous Boards in such number and manner, as may be specified by regulations.

16. (1) Every Autonomous Board shall meet at least once in a month at such time and

place as it may appoint.

(2) Every decision of the Autonomous Boards shall be made by majority of votes of its

Meetings, etc., of Autonomous Boards.

respective President and Members.

(3) Subject to the provisions of section 21, a person aggrieved by any decision of an Autonomous Board, may prefer an appeal to the National Commission against such decision within thirty days of the communication of that decision and the National Commission shall, after giving an opportunity of being heard, dispose of the appeal within a period of sixty days from the date of such appeal.

17. (1) The President of each Autonomous Board shall have such administrative and financial powers as may be delegated to it by the National Commission to enable such Autonomous Board for optimum functioning.

Powers of Autonomous Boards and delegation of powers.

(2) The President of an Autonomous Board may further delegate any of his powers to

a Member or an officer of such Autonomous Board.

18. (1) The Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board

shall perform the following functions, namely:—

(a) determine the minimum requirements and standards of nursing and midwifery education and examination at undergraduate level and postgraduate level, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, and oversee all aspects relating thereto;

Powers and functions of Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board.

(b) develop dynamic competency based curriculum at undergraduate level and postgraduate level, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, with a view to develop appropriate skill, knowledge, attitude, values and ethics to provide healthcare, impart nursing and midwifery education and conduct research:

Provided that the competencies shall be aligned with the needs of the national health programme, across continuum of care in varied healthcare settings in order to ensure optimum healthcare delivery system;

(c) prescribe qualifications at the undergraduate level and postgraduate level in nursing and midwifery and such other particulars, as may be specified by regulations;

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(d) prescribe standards for setting up of nursing and midwifery institutions for imparting undergraduate and postgraduate courses, having regard to the needs of the country and the global norms, in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(e) determine the standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education in nursing and midwifery institutions providing undergraduate and postgraduate nursing and midwifery education, in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(f) facilitate development and training of faculty members for teaching, research as well as international student and faculty exchange programmes relating to undergraduate, nursing and midwifery education;

(g) specify norms for compulsory annual disclosures, clinical facilities, faculty, digitally or otherwise, by nursing and midwifery institutions, in respect of their functions that has a bearing on the interest of all stakeholders including students, faculty, State Commissions, the National Commission and the Central Government;

(h) regulate the standards and scope of practice of registered nursing and midwifery professionals, including nurse practitioners, nursing associates and midwifery associates who have obtained the nursing and midwifery qualification as provided by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, in such manner as may be specified by regulations; and

(i) regulate, in consultation with the National Medical Commission, the limited prescribing authority for nurse practitioners in all specialities, who have obtained the requisite nursing and midwifery qualification and qualify such criteria as may be provided by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board shall, in the discharge of its duties, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the National Commission, as it may deem necessary.

19. (1) The Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board shall perform the following functions, namely:—

Powers and functions of Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board.

(a) the procedure for assessing and rating the nursing and midwifery institutions for their compliance with the standards laid down by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, shall be such as may be specified by regulations;

(b) grant permission for establishment of a new nursing and midwifery institution, or to start any postgraduate level or higher qualification course, or to increase number of seats, in accordance with the provisions of section 21;

(c) conduct inspections of nursing and midwifery institution for assessing and rating such institutions in such manner as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board may, if it deems necessary, hire and authorise any other inspection agency or accreditation body or persons for conducting inspections of nursing and midwifery institutions for assessing and rating such institutions:

Provided further that where inspection of nursing and midwifery institution is conducted by such inspection agency or accreditation body or persons authorised by the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board, it shall be obligatory on such institution to provide access to such agency or person:

Provided also that the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board may conduct evaluation and assessment of any nursing and midwifery institution atNo. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 13 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 13 any time, either directly or through any other expert having integrity and experience of nursing and midwifery profession and without any prior notice and assess and evaluate the performance, standards and benchmarks of such nursing and midwifery institution;

(d) conduct, or where it deems necessary, empanel independent rating agencies to conduct, assess and rate all nursing and midwifery institutions, within such period of their opening, at such time, and in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(e) make available on its website or in public domain the assessment and ratings of nursing and midwifery institutions at regular intervals in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(f) take such measures, including issuing warning, imposition of monetary penalty, reducing intake or stoppage of admissions and recommending to the National Commission for withdrawal of recognition, against a nursing and midwifery institution for failure to maintain the minimum essential standards specified by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board, in such manner as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that the monetary penalty imposed shall not be less than one-tenth, and not more than five times, of the total amount charged, by whatever name called, by such institution for one full batch of students of undergraduate course or postgraduate course, as the case may be:

Provided further that the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board shall consult the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board before recommending to the National Commission for withdrawal of recognition of a nursing and midwifery institution that fails to maintain the minimum essential standards specified by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board shall, in the discharge of its functions, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the National Commission, as it may deem necessary.

20. (1) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall perform the following functions, namely:—

(a) maintain the National Register for all registered professionals in accordance with the provisions of section 25;

Powers and functions of Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board.

(b) approve or reject applications for registration of professionals governed under this Act;

(c) regulate professional conduct and promote nursing and midwifery ethics in such manner as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall ensure compliance of the code of professional and ethical conduct through the State Commission in a case where such State Commission has been conferred power to take disciplinary action in respect of professional or ethical misconduct by nursing and midwifery professionals under this Act;

(d) develop mechanisms to have continuous interaction with State Commissions to effectively promote and regulate the conduct of nursing and midwifery professionals;

(e) exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the actions taken by a State Commission under section 24; and

(f) provide for mechanisms for receiving complaints and grievance redressal.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall, in the discharge of its duties, make such recommendations to, and seek such directions from, the National Commission, as it may deem necessary.

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21. (1) No person shall establish a new nursing and midwifery institution, or start any postgraduate course, or increase number of seats, without obtaining prior permission of the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board:

Permission for establishment of new nursing or midwifery institution.

Provided that the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board shall consult the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board before according or refusing to accord such permission.

(2) For the purposes of obtaining permission under sub-section (1), a person may submit a proposal to the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board in such form, containing such particulars, accompanied by such fee, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations.

(3) The Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board shall, having due regard to the criteria specified in section 22, consider the proposal received under sub-section (2) and either approve or disapprove such proposal within a period of six months from the date of such receipt:

Provided that before disapproving such proposal, an opportunity to rectify the defects, if any, shall be given to the person concerned.

(4) Where a proposal is approved under sub-section (3), such approval shall be deemed to be the permission under sub-section (1) to establish a new nursing and midwifery institution or start any postgraduate course or increase number of seats, as the case may be.

(5) Where a proposal is disapproved under sub-section (3), or where no decision is taken within six months of submitting a proposal under sub-section (2), the person concerned may prefer an appeal to the National Commission for approval of that proposal within fifteen days of such disapproval or, as the case may be, lapse of six months, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(6) The National Commission shall decide the appeal received under sub-section (5) within a period of forty-five days from the date of receipt of the appeal and in case the National Commission approves the proposal, such approval shall be the permission under sub-section (1) to establish a new nursing and midwifery institution or start any postgraduate course or increase number of seats, as the case may be, and in case the National Commission disapproves the proposal, or fails to give its decision within the specified period, the person concerned may prefer a second appeal to the Central Government within thirty days of communication of such disapproval or, as the case may be, after the lapse of specified period.

22. The Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board or, as the case may be, the National Commission, shall, while approving or disapproving a proposal under section 21, take into consideration the following criteria, namely:—

Criteria for approving or disapproving proposal.

(a) adequacy of financial resources;

(b) whether adequate academic faculty and other necessary facilities have been provided to ensure proper functioning of nursing and midwifery institution or will be provided within the time-limit specified in the proposal;

(c) whether adequate hospital facilities have been provided or will be provided within the time-limit specified in the proposal; and

(d) such other factors as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that subject to the previous approval of the Central Government, the criteria may be relaxed for the nursing and midwifery institutions which are set up in such areas as may be specified by regulations.

CHAPTER IV

STATE NURSING AND MIDWIFERY COMMISSIONS

23. (1) Every State Government shall, within one year from the commencement of this Act, by notification, constitute a State Nursing and Midwifery Commission, where no such State Commission exists in that State by a State Law, for exercising such powers and discharging such duties as may be laid down under this Act.

Constitution and composition of State Nursing and Midwifery Commission.

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(2) The State Nursing and Midwifery Commission shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual succession and a common seal, with power to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract and shall by the same name sue or be sued.

(3) The State Commission shall consist of the following Members, namely:—

(a) a person of outstanding ability, proven administrative capacity and integrity, possessing a postgraduate degree in nursing and midwifery from any University and having experience of not less than twenty years in the field of nursing and midwifery, out of which at least ten years shall be as a nursing and midwifery leader, to be nominated by the State Government—Chairperson;

(b) one Director or Additional Director or Joint Director representing nursing in the Health Department of the State Government—Member, ex officio:

Provided that if no such position exists in a State, the in-charge for nursing education and services may be appointed as such Member;

(c) two persons not below the rank of Dean or Head of the Department from any nursing or midwifery college or institute of the State Government—Members, ex officio;

(d) two persons of eminence, one from nursing and one from midwifery profession having such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the State Government, to be nominated by the State Government—Members;

(e) two persons of eminence, one from nursing and one from midwifery associates, to be nominated by the State Government having such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the State Government—Members;

(f) two persons, one from nursing and one from midwifery, representing charitable institutions engaged in education or services in connection with nursing and midwifery having such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the State Government, to be nominated by the State Government—Members.

(4) The Chairperson, and Members of the State Commission referred to in clauses (a), (d), (e) and (f) of sub-section (3), shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years, as the State Government may notify in this behalf, from the date on which they enter upon their office, and shall not be eligible for any extension or reappointment.

Functions of State Commission.

24. (1) The State Commission shall take all such steps as it may think fit for ensuring coordinated and integrated development of education and maintenance of the standards of delivery of services under this Act.

(2) The State Commission may, for the purposes of performing its functions,—

(a) enforce the professional conduct, code of ethics and etiquette to be observed by the nursing and midwifery professionals including associates in the State and take disciplinary action including the removal of name of a professional from the State Register;

(b) ensure standards of education, courses, curricula, physical and instructional facilities, staff pattern, staff qualifications, quality instructions, assessment, examination, training, research, continuing professional education as provided by the Autonomous Boards;

(d) issue certification of specialisation or other forms of certification to those who practice the profession of nursing and midwifery;

(e) conduct common counselling for admission to nursing associate and midwifery associate courses regulated under this Act;

(f) provide for a skill based examination to ensure adequate competence of Nursing and Midwifery Associates before enrolment in the State Register;

(g) ensure compliance of all the directives issued by the National Commission;

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(h) meet with Principals of all colleges of nursing and schools of nursing in the State at least once in every quarter to identify and resolve issues; and

(i) perform such other functions as may be entrusted to it by the State Government or Union territory Administration or the National Commission or as may be necessary for implementation of the provisions of this Act.

(3) Where a State Act confers power upon the State Commission to take disciplinary action in respect of any professional or ethical misconduct by a registered professional, the State Commission shall act in such manner as may be specified by regulations and the guidelines framed under this Act:

Provided that till such time as a State Commission is constituted in a State, the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall receive the complaints and grievances relating to any professional or ethical misconduct against a registered professional in that State in accordance with such procedure as may be specified by regulations:

Provided further that the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board or the State Commission, as the case may be, shall give an opportunity of hearing to the registered professional concerned before taking any action, including imposition of any monetary penalty against such person.

(4) A registered professional or any person, who is aggrieved by any action taken by a State Commission under sub-section (3), may prefer an appeal to the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board within a period of sixty days against such action, and the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall decide on the appeal within a period of sixty days, and the decision of the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board thereupon shall be binding on the State Commission, unless a second appeal is preferred under sub-section (5).

(5) A registered professional or any person, who is aggrieved by the decision of the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board, may prefer a second appeal to the National Commission within a period of sixty days of receipt of communication of such decision and the National Commission shall dispose of such appeal within a period of ninety days from the date of that appeal.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this Act, the expressions—

(a) "professional or ethical misconduct" includes any act of commission or omission as may be specified by regulations; and

(b) "State" includes Union territory and the expressions "State Government" and "State Nursing and Midwifery Commission", in relation to a Union territory, shall respectively mean the "Central Government" and "Union Territory Nursing and Midwifery Commission".

CHAPTER V

REGISTRATION

National Register and State Register.

25. (1) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall maintain an online and live Indian Nurses and Midwives' Register containing the name, address, all recognised qualifications possessed by a nursing professional, midwifery professional, nursing associate, midwifery associate and such other particulars as may be specified by regulations.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall maintain the National Register in such form, including digital form, and in such manner, as may be specified by regulations.

(3) The manner in which a name or qualification may be added to, or removed from, the National Register and the grounds for adding thereto or removal thereof, shall be such as may be specified by regulations.

(4) The National Register shall be a public document within the meaning of section 74

1 of 1872.

of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

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(5) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall make available the National Register to the public in the form of a digital portal accessible on the website of the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board in such manner and form as may be specified by regulations.

(6) Every State Commission shall maintain and regularly update, in digital form, the State Register for Nursing Professionals and Midwifery Professionals and the State Register for Nursing Associates and Midwifery Associates in the specified digital format and supply a physical copy of the same to the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board within three months of the commencement of this Act.

(7) The Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board shall ensure dynamic and electronic synchronisation of the National Register and the State Registers in such a manner that any change in one register is automatically reflected in the other register.

26. (1) Any person having a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification shall have his name and qualifications enrolled in the National Register or the State Register for Nursing and Midwifery Professionals, as the case may be, and shall be granted a licence to practice in such manner and following such procedures, as may be specified by regulations:

48 of 1947.

Provided that a person, who has been registered in the Nurses Register maintained under the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947 prior to the coming into force of this Act, shall be deemed to have been registered under this Act and be enrolled in the National Register or the State Register for Nursing and Midwifery Professionals, as the case may be, maintained under this Act.

Rights of persons to have licence to practice and to be enrolled in National Register or State Register for Nursing and Midwifery Professionals and their obligations thereto.

(2) A citizen of India, who has obtained a nursing and midwifery qualification recognised under section 29 or section 32 from a nursing and midwifery institution established in a country outside India, shall be entitled for registration under this Act in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) When a person, whose name is entered in the National Register or any State Register, as the case may be, obtains any title, diploma or other qualification for proficiency in nursing sciences or public health nursing, which is a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification under section 28 or section 29, as the case may be, he shall be entitled to have such title, diploma or qualification entered against his name in the National Register or the same State Register, as the case may be, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(4) The registration and licence granted under this section shall be renewed in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

27. (1) No person, other than a person who is enrolled in the National Register or State Bar to practice.

(a) be allowed to practice nursing or midwifery as a qualified nursing or midwifery professional or nursing or midwifery associate;

1 of 1872.

(b) be entitled to give evidence at any inquest or in any court of law as an expert under section 42 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 on any matter relating to nursing and midwifery:

Provided that a foreign citizen who is enrolled in his country as a nursing and midwifery professional in accordance with the law regulating the registration of nursing and midwifery professional in that country may be permitted temporary registration in India for such period and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

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CHAPTER VI

RECOGNITION OF NURSING AND MIDWIFERY QUALIFICATIONS

28. (1) Every nursing and midwifery qualification granted by any University or nursing and midwifery institution in India shall be listed and maintained by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board in such manner as may be specified by regulations, and such nursing and midwifery qualification shall be a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification for the purposes of this Act.

Recognition of nursing and Midwifery qualifications granted by Universities or nursing and midwifery institutions in India.

(2) Every University or nursing and midwifery institution in India which conducts any course for nursing or midwifery qualification, not included in the list maintained by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board may apply to that Board for granting recognition to such qualification.

(3) The Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board shall examine the application for grant of recognition to an undergraduate or postgraduate or speciality or clinical nurse speciality or nurse practitioner course in all specialities of nursing and midwifery qualification within a period of six months, in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(4) Where the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board decides to grant recognition to a nursing and midwifery qualification, it shall include such qualification in the list maintained by it and also specify the date of effect of such recognition.

(5) An institution or University aggrieved by the decision under sub-section (3) may, within sixty days from the communication of such decision, prefer an appeal to the National Commission and the National Commission shall, within a period of sixty days from the date of filing of such appeal, pass such orders as it thinks fit, after giving an opportunity of being heard.

(6) Where the National Commission decides not to grant recognition to the nursing and midwifery qualification or fails to take a decision within the specified period, the University or nursing and midwifery institution concerned may prefer a second appeal to the Central Government within a period of thirty days of the communication of such decision or after the lapse of specified period, as the case may be.

48 of 1947.

(7) All nursing and midwifery qualifications which have been recognised before the date of commencement of this Act and are included in the Part I and Part II of the Schedule to the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947, shall also be recognised nursing and midwifery qualifications for the purposes of this Act, and shall be listed and maintained by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(8) If any authority within a State, being recognised by the State Government in consultation with the State Commission or any autonomous body, if any, for the purpose of granting any qualification, grants a qualification which is not recognised by the National Commission, then, such authority may apply to the National Commission to have such qualification recognised, and the National Commission may declare that such qualification, or such qualification only when granted after a specified date, shall be a recognised qualification for the purposes of this Act.

(9) Every State Government may, for the purposes of addressing or promoting public health nursing and midwifery practice in rural areas, take necessary measures to enhance the capacity of the nursing and midwifery professionals.

29. (1) Where an authority in any country outside India, which by the law of that country is entrusted with the recognition of nursing and midwifery qualifications in that country, makes an application to the National Commission for granting recognition to such nursing and midwifery qualification in India, the National Commission may, subject to such verification as it may deem necessary, either grant or refuse to grant recognition to that nursing and midwifery qualification:

Recognition of nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by nursing and midwifery institutions outside India.

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Provided that the National Commission shall give a reasonable opportunity of being heard to such authority before refusing to grant such recognition.

(2) The nursing and midwifery qualification, which is granted recognition by the National Commission under sub-section (1), shall be a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification for the purposes of this Act, and such qualification shall be listed and maintained by the National Commission in such manner as may be specified by regulations:

Provided that practice by a person possessing such qualification shall be permitted in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) Where the National Commission refuses to grant recognition to the nursing and midwifery qualification under sub-section (1), the authority concerned may prefer an appeal to the Central Government against such decision within a period of thirty days of communication thereof and the Central Government shall dispose of the appeal within a period of ninety days from the date of such appeal.

(4) The mutual recognition of the qualifications for reciprocal registration of nursing and midwifery professionals between two countries shall be done in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

30. (1) The nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by any statutory or other recognised body in India before the commencement of this Act shall be recognised as nursing and midwifery qualifications in such manner as may be specified by the National Commission for the purposes of this Act.

Recognition of nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by statutory or other body in India.

(2) The Central Government may, on the recommendation of the National Commission, and having regard to the objects of this Act, by notification, add to, or, as the case may be, omit any category of nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by a statutory or other body in India and on such addition, or as the case may be, omission, the nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by such statutory or other body in India shall be, or shall cease to be, recognised nursing and midwifery qualifications for the purposes of this Act.

31. (1) Where, upon receiving the recommendations or report from the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board under section 19, or from a State Commission or a State Government or otherwise, if the National Commission is of the opinion that—

(a) the courses of study and examination to be undergone in, or the proficiency required from candidates at any examination held by, a University or nursing and midwifery institution do not conform to the standards specified by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board; or

Withdrawal of recognition granted to nursing and midwifery qualification granted by nursing and midwifery institutions in India.

(b) the standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education in the nursing and midwifery institution, as determined by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board are not adhered to by any University or nursing and midwifery institution, and such University or nursing and midwifery institution has failed to take necessary corrective action to maintain specified minimum standards,

the National Commission may initiate action in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (2).

(2) The National Commission shall, after making such further inquiry as it deems fit, and after holding consultations with the concerned State Government and the authority of the concerned University or nursing and midwifery institution, comes to the conclusion that the recognition granted to a nursing and midwifery qualification ought to be withdrawn, it may, by order, withdraw recognition granted to such qualification and direct the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board to amend the entries against the University or nursing and midwifery institution concerned in the list maintained by that Board to the effect that the recognition granted to such nursing and midwifery qualification is withdrawn with effect from the date specified in that order.

20 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 20 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—

32. Where the National Commission deems it necessary, it may, by an order published in the Official Gazette, direct that any nursing and midwifery qualification granted by a nursing and midwifery institution in a country outside India, after such date as may be specified in that order, shall be a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification for the purposes of this Act:

Special provision in certain cases for recognition of nursing and midwifery qualifications.

Provided that before providing the recognition, the equivalence in terms of curriculum, practical training and number of years of course may be examined in such manner as may be specified by regulations:

Provided further that practice by a person possessing such qualification shall be

permitted in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

33. Where, after verification with the authority in any country outside India, the National Commission is of the opinion that a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification which is included in the list maintained by it is to be derecognised, it may, by order, derecognise such nursing and midwifery qualification and remove it from the list maintained by the National Commission with effect from the date of such order.

Derecognition of nursing and midwifery qualifications granted by nursing and midwifery institutions outside India.

CHAPTER VII

NURSING AND MIDWIFERY ADVISORY COUNCIL

34. (1) The Central Government shall constitute an advisory body to be known as the

Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council.

(2) The Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council (hereafter in this Chapter referred to as the Advisory Council) shall consist of a Chairperson and the following Members, namely:—

(a) the Chairperson of the National Commission shall be the ex officio Chairperson

of the Advisory Council;

(b) one officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary representing Ministry of

Ayush—Member, ex officio;

(d) Secretary of the National Commission—Member, ex officio;

(e) one person to represent each State and each Union territory who shall be a Dean (Nursing) or Principal of a nursing and midwifery institution in that State or Union territory, as the case may be, or the representative of the State Nursing and Midwifery Commission, to be nominated by that State Government or by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India in the case of Union territory—Member;

(f) the Chairman, University Grants Commission—Member, ex officio;

(g) the Director, National Assessment and Accreditation Council—Member,

ex officio;

(h) one representative from Indian Council of Medical Research not below the

rank of Additional Director General—Member, ex officio;

(i) three Directors, one each to represent the Indian Institute of Technology, the Indian Institute of Management and the Indian Institute of Science, to be nominated by the Central Government—Members, ex officio;

(j) Head of any three national level professional nursing and midwifery association, to be nominated by the Chairperson of the Advisory Council, so that there shall be adequate representation of major stakeholders—Members.

(3) The Members nominated under clauses (e) and (j) of sub-section (2) shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years, as the Central Government may notify in this behalf, from the date on which they enter upon their office.

No. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 21 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 21

35. (1) The Advisory Council shall be the primary platform through which the States and Union territories may put forth their views and concerns before the National Commission and help in shaping the overall agenda, policy and action relating to nursing and midwifery education, services, training and research.

Functions of Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council.

(2) The Advisory Council shall advise the National Commission on measures to determine and maintain, and to co-ordinate maintenance of, the minimum standards in all matters relating to nursing and midwifery education, services, training and research.

(3) The Advisory Council shall advise the National Commission on measures to enhance equitable access to nursing and midwifery education, services, training and research.

36. (1) The Advisory Council shall meet at least once a year at such time and place as may be decided by its Chairperson.

Meetings of Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council.

(2) The Chairperson of the Advisory Council shall preside over the meeting of the Advisory Council and if for any reason the Chairperson is unable to attend a meeting of the Advisory Council, such other Member as may be nominated by the Chairperson shall preside over such meeting.

(3) Unless the procedure is otherwise provided by regulations, two-thirds of the Members of the Advisory Council including the Chairperson shall form the quorum and all acts of the Advisory Council shall be decided by a majority of the Members present and voting.

(4) The Members nominated under clauses (e) and (j) of sub-section (2) of section 34 shall hold office for a term not exceeding four years, as may be notified by the Central Government in this behalf.

CHAPTER VIII

GRANTS, AUDIT AND ACCOUNTS

Grants by Central Government. 37. The Central Government may, after due appropriation made by Parliament by law in this behalf, make to the National Commission grants of such sums of money as the Central Government may think fit.

38. (1) There shall be constituted a fund to be called the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Fund, which shall form part of the public account of India and there shall be credited thereto—

National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Fund.

(a) all fees, penalties and charges received by the National Commission and the Autonomous Boards;

(b) all sums received by the National Commission from such other sources as may be decided by it.

(2) The Fund shall be applied for making payment towards—

(a) the salaries and allowances payable to the Chairperson, Secretary and Members of the National Commission, the Presidents and Members of the Autonomous Boards and the administrative expenses including the salaries and allowances payable to the officers and other employees of the National Commission and Autonomous Boards;

(b) the expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions of this Act, including in connection with the discharge of the functions of the National Commission and the Autonomous Boards.

Audit and accounts.

39. (1) The National Commission shall maintain proper accounts and other relevant records and prepare an annual statement of accounts in such form as may be prescribed, in consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(2) The accounts of the National Commission shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at such intervals as may be specified by him and any expenditure22 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 22 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable by the National Commission to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

(3) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and any other person appointed by him in connection with the audit of the accounts of the National Commission shall have the same rights and privileges and authority in connection with such audit as the Comptroller and Auditor-General generally has in connection with the audit of Government accounts and in particular, shall have the right to demand the production of, and complete access to, records, books, accounts, connected vouchers and other documents and papers and to inspect the office of the National Commission.

(4) The accounts of the National Commission as certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India or any other person appointed by him in this behalf, together with the audit report thereon, shall be forwarded annually by the National Commission to the Central Government which shall cause the same to be laid, as soon as may be after it is received, before each House of Parliament.

Furnishing of returns and reports to Central Government.

40. (1) The National Commission shall furnish to the Central Government, at such time, in such form and in such manner, as may be prescribed or as the Central Government may direct, such reports and statements, containing such particulars in regard to any matter under the jurisdiction of the National Commission, as the Central Government may, from time to time, require.

(2) The National Commission shall prepare, once every year, in such form and at such time as may be prescribed, an annual report, giving a summary of its activities during the previous year and copies of the report shall be forwarded to the Central Government.

(3) A copy of the report received under sub-section (2) shall be laid by the Central

Government, as soon as may be after it is received, before each House of Parliament.

CHAPTER IX

MISCELLANEOUS

41. (1) Without prejudice to the provisions of this Act, the National Commission, the Autonomous Boards and the Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council shall, in exercise of their powers and discharge of their functions under this Act, be bound by such directions on questions of policy as the Central Government may give in writing to them from time to time:

Provided that the National Commission, the Autonomous Boards and the Advisory Council shall, as far as practicable, be given an opportunity to express their views before any direction is given under this sub-section.

(2) The decision of the Central Government whether a question is one of policy or not,

shall be final.

Power of Central Government to give directions to National Commission, Autonomous Boards and Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council.

42. The Central Government may give such directions, as it may deem necessary, to a State Government for carrying out all or any of the provisions of this Act and the State Government shall comply with such directions.

Power of Central Government to give directions to State Governments.

43. The National Commission may give such directions, as it may deem necessary, to a State Commission for carrying out all or any of the provisions of this Act and the State Commission shall comply with such directions.

Power of National Commission to give directions to State Commissions.

No. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 23 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 23

44. (1) The National Commission shall furnish such reports, copies of its minutes, abstracts of its accounts, and other information to the Central Government as that Government may require.

Information to be furnished by National Commission and publication thereof.

(2) The Central Government may publish, in such manner as it may think fit, the reports, minutes, abstracts of accounts and other information furnished to it under sub-section (1).

45. Every University and nursing and midwifery institution governed under this Act shall maintain a website at all times and display on its website all such information as may be required by the National Commission or an Autonomous Board, as the case may be.

Obligation of Universities and nursing and midwifery institutions.

Completion of courses of studies in nursing and midwifery institutions.

46. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any student who was studying for a degree, diploma or certificate in any nursing and midwifery institution, immediately before the commencement of this Act, shall continue to so study and complete his course for such degree, diploma or certificate, and such institution shall continue to provide instructions and examination for such student in accordance with the syllabus and studies as existed before such commencement, and that student shall be deemed to have completed his course of study under this Act and shall be awarded degree, diploma or certificate under this Act.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, where recognition granted to a nursing institution has lapsed, whether by efflux of time or by its voluntary surrender or for any other reason, such nursing institution shall continue to maintain and provide the minimum standards required to be provided under this Act till such time as all candidates who are admitted in that nursing institution complete their study.

47. The Chairperson, Members, officers and other employees of the National Commission and State Commissions, and the President, Members and officers and other employees of the Autonomous Boards, shall be deemed, when acting or purporting to act in pursuance of any of the provisions of this Act, to be public servants within the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.

45 of 1860.

Chairperson, Members, officers of National Commission and of Autonomous Boards, to be public servants.

Protection of action taken in good faith.

48. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Government, the National Commission or any Autonomous Board or a State Commission or any committee thereof, or any officer or other employee of the Government or of the National Commission acting under this Act for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.

Cognizance of offences.

49. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under this Act except upon a complaint in writing made in this behalf by an officer authorised by the National Commission or the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board or a State Commission, as the case may be.

50. (1) If, at any time, the Central Government is of the opinion that—

(a) the National Commission is unable to discharge the functions and duties

imposed on it by or under the provisions of this Act; or

Power of Central Government to supersede National Commission.

(b) the National Commission has persistently made default in complying with any direction issued by the Central Government under this Act or in the discharge of the functions and duties imposed on it by or under the provisions of this Act,

the Central Government may, by notification, supersede the National Commission for such period, not exceeding six months, as may be specified in such notification:

Provided that before issuing a notification under this sub-section, the Central Government shall give a reasonable opportunity to the National Commission to show cause24 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 24 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— as to why it should not be superseded and shall consider the explanations and objections, if any, of the National Commission.

(2) Upon the publication of a notification under sub-section (1) superseding the National Commission—

(a) all its Members shall, as from the date of supersession, vacate their offices as such;

(b) all the powers, functions and duties which may, by or under the provisions of this Act, be exercised or discharged by or on behalf of the National Commission, shall, until the National Commission is re-constituted under sub-section (3), be exercised and discharged by such nursing and midwifery professionals as the Central Government may direct; and

(c) all property owned or controlled by the National Commission shall, until the National Commission is re-constituted under sub-section (3), vest in the Central Government.

(3) On the expiration of the period of supersession specified in the notification issued under sub-section (1), the Central Government may—

(a) extend the period of supersession for such further term not exceeding six months, as it may consider necessary; or

(b) re-constitute the National Commission by fresh appointments and in such case the Members who vacated their offices under clause (a) of sub-section (2) shall not be deemed to be disqualified for appointment:

51. (1) The Central Government may, subject to the condition of previous publication, make rules for carrying out the provisions of this Act.

Power of Central Government to make rules.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the qualifications and experience required for a nursing and midwifery leader under clause (q) of section 2;

(b) the six zones referred to in clauses (h) and (i) and the manner of appointing Members of the National Commission under clauses (g), (h), (i), (j), (k) and (l), of section 4;

(c) the manner of nominating experts by the Central Government under clauses (b) and (c) of sub-section (1) of section 5;

(d) the salary and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and Members under sub-section (5) of section 6;

(e) the form and manner of making declaration under sub-section (7) of section 6;

(f) the qualifications and experience to be possessed by the Secretary of the National Commission under sub-section (2) of section 8;

(g) the salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of the Secretary, officers and other employees of the National Commission under sub-section (7) of section 8;

No. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 25 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 25

(h) the other functions of the National Commission under clause (o) of sub-section (2) of section 10;

(i) the manner of choosing Members under sub-section (6) of section 12;

(j) the manner of filling up of vacancies of each Autonomous Board under sub-section (2) of section 13;

(k) the salary and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of the President and Members of an Autonomous Board under sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 13;

(l) the form for preparing annual statement of accounts under sub-section (1) of section 39;

(m) the time within which, and the form and the manner in which, the reports and statements shall be furnished by the National Commission and the particulars with regard to any matter as may be required by the Central Government under sub-section (1) of section 40;

(n) the form and the time for preparing annual report under sub-section (2) of section 40;

(o) the amount of compensation for which the employees of the erstwhile Indian Nursing Council shall be entitled under the proviso to sub-section (5) of section 56; and

(p) any other matter in respect of which provision is to be made by rules for carrying out the purposes of this Act.

Power to make regulations.

52. (1) The National Commission may, subject to the condition of previous publication, make regulations consistent with this Act and the rules made thereunder to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such regulations may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the functions to be discharged by the Secretary of the National Commission under sub-section (5) of section 8;

(b) the procedure in accordance with which experts, consultants and professionals may be engaged and the number of such experts, consultants and professionals under sub-section (8) of section 8;

(c) the procedure in accordance with which and the number of experts and domain specialists are to be invited from foreign countries for meetings of the Commission under sub-section (9) of section 8;

(d) the procedure to be followed at the meetings of National Commission, including the quorum at its meetings under sub-section (3) of section 9;

(e) steps to be taken for the coordinated and integrated development of education and maintenance of the standards of delivery of services, with periodic revision under sub-section (1) of section 10;

(f) the purposes of performing its functions by the National Commission under sub-section (2) of section 10;

(g) the manner of making available and the number of experts, consultants, professionals, officers and other employees appointed including the experts and domain specialists invited from foreign countries under section 8, to the Autonomous Boards under section 15;

(h) the manner of determining the minimum requirements and standards of nursing and midwifery education and examination at undergraduate level and postgraduate level under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(i) the manner of developing dynamic competency based curriculum at undergraduate level and postgraduate level under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

26 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 26 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—

(j) prescribing qualifications at the undergraduate level and postgraduate level in nursing and midwifery and such other particulars under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(k) the standards for setting up of nursing and midwifery institutions for imparting undergraduate and postgraduate courses, having regard to the needs of the country and the global norms under clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(l) the manner of determining the standards and norms for infrastructure, faculty and quality of education in nursing and midwifery institutions providing undergraduate and postgraduate nursing and midwifery education under clause (e) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(m) the manner of regulating the standards and scope of practice of registered nursing and midwifery professionals, including nurse practitioners, nursing associates and midwifery associates who have obtained the nursing and midwifery qualification as provided by Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board under clause (h), and the manner of regulating the limited prescribing authority in consultation with the National Commission under clause (i), of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(n) the manner of determining the procedure for assessing and rating the nursing and midwifery institutions for their compliance with the standards laid down by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 19;

(o) the manner of carrying out inspections of nursing and midwifery institution for assessing and rating such institutions under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 19;

(p) the time and manner of conducting, or where it deems necessary, empanelling independent rating agencies to conduct, assess and rate all nursing and midwifery institutions, within such period of their opening under clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 19;

(q) the manner of making available on the website or in public domain the assessment and ratings of nursing and midwifery institutions at regular intervals, under clause (e) of sub-section (1) of section 19;

(r) the measures to be taken including the manner of issuing warning, imposition of monetary penalty, reducing intake or stoppage of admissions and recommending to the National Commission for withdrawal of recognition, against a nursing and midwifery institution for failure to maintain the minimum essential standards specified by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board under clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 19;

(s) the manner of regulating professional conduct and promoting nursing and midwifery ethics under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 20;

(t) the form, particulars and fee for submitting a proposal to the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board for the purposes of obtaining permission under sub-section (1) of section 21, under sub-section (2) of the said section;

(u) the manner of preferring appeal to the National Commission under sub-section (5) of section 21;

(v) other factors to be taken into consideration by the Nursing and Midwifery Assessment and Rating Board or, as the case may be, the National Commission while approving or disapproving a proposal under section 22, and the nursing and midwifery institutions set up in such areas which are eligible for relaxation of the criteria under the said section;

(w) the manner of taking disciplinary actions by the State Commission in respect of any professional or ethical misconduct by a registered professional under sub-section (3) of section 24;

No. 11-76] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 27 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 27

(x) the manner of receiving the complaints and grievances relating to any professional or ethical misconduct against a registered professional in a State by the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board under the first proviso to sub-section (3) of section 24;

(y) the acts of commission or omission which would amount to professional or ethical misconduct under the Explanation to section 24;

(z) such other particulars to be specified in the online and live National Register maintained by the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board under sub-section (1) of section 25;

(za) the form and manner in which the National Register is to be maintained under sub-section (2) of section 25;

(zb) the manner in which a name or qualification may be added to, or removed from, the National Register and the grounds for adding thereto or removal thereof under sub-section (3) of section 25;

(zc) the form and manner in which the National Register shall be made available to the public by placing it on the website of the Nursing and Midwifery Ethics and Registration Board under sub-section (5) of section 25;

(zd) the manner of granting a registration as nursing and midwifery professional to a person who has obtained a recognised nursing and midwifery qualification and getting his name and qualifications enrolled in the National Register or the State Register for Nursing and Midwifery Professionals under sub-section (1) of section 26;

(ze) the manner of getting entered the title, diploma or qualification against his name in the National Register or the State Register under sub-section (3) of section 26;

(zf) the manner of renewal of registration under sub-section (4) of section 26;

(zg) the period and manner in which a foreign citizen may be permitted temporary registration in India under the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 27;

(zh) the manner of listing and maintaining nursing and midwifery qualification granted by any University or nursing and midwifery institution in India by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board under sub-section (1) of section 28;

(zi) the manner of listing and maintaining nursing and midwifery qualification granted by any University or nursing and midwifery institution in India by the Nursing and Midwifery Undergraduate and Postgraduate Education Board under sub-section (2) of section 28;

(zj) the manner of examining the application for grant of recognition to an undergraduate or postgraduate or speciality or clinical nurse speciality or nurse practitioner course in all specialities of nursing and midwifery qualification under sub-section (3) of section 28;

48 of 1947.

(zk) the manner of listing and maintaining all nursing and midwifery qualifications which have been recognised before the date of commencement of this Act and are included in the Part I and Part II of the Schedule to the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947 under sub-section (7) of section 28;

(zl) the manner of listing and maintaining the nursing and midwifery qualification, which is granted recognition by the National Commission and the manner of practice by a person possessing such qualification under sub-section (2) of section 29;

(zm) the manner of mutual recognition of the qualifications for reciprocal registration of nursing and midwifery professionals between two countries under sub-section (4) of section 29;

(zn) the manner of examining the equivalence in terms of curriculum, practical28 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-76 28 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II— training and number of years of course under the first proviso to section 32;

(zo) the manner in which a person possessing necessary qualification shall be permitted to practice under the second proviso to section 32;

(zp) the procedure to be followed at the meetings of Nursing and Midwifery Advisory Council under sub-section (3) of section 36; and

(zq) any other matter in respect of which provision is to be made by regulations for carrying out the purposes of this Act.

53. (1) The State Government may, by notification, make rules for carrying out the provisions of section 23 and sub-section (9) of section 28.

Power of State Government to make rules.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for the qualifications and experience to be possessed by members to be nominated in the State Nursing and Midwifery Commission under clauses (d), (e) and (f) of sub-section (3) of section 23.

(3) Every rule made under this section shall, as soon as may be, after it is made, be laid before the State Legislature.

Laying of rules, regulations and notifications before Parliament.

54. Every rule and regulation made and every notification issued under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made or issued, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or regulation or notification; both Houses agree that the rule or regulation or notification should not be made or issued, the rule or regulation or notification shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule or regulation or notification.

Power to remove difficulties.

55. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may appear to it to be necessary, for removing the difficulty:

Provided that no order shall be made under this section after the expiry of a period of two years from the commencement of this Act.

(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament.

Repeal and saving.

48 of 1947.

56. (1) With effect from such date as the Central Government may appoint in this behalf, the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947 shall stand repealed and the Indian Nursing Council constituted under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the said Act shall stand dissolved.

(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Act referred to in sub-section (1), it shall not affect,—

(a) the previous operation of the Act so repealed or anything duly done or suffered thereunder; or

(b) any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under the Act so repealed; or

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(3) On the dissolution of the Indian Nursing Council, the person appointed as the President and every other person appointed as the Member of the Indian Nursing Council shall vacate their respective offices and such President and other Members shall be entitled to claim compensation, fees and allowances for the premature termination of term of their office for a period not exceeding ninety days.

(4) Every officer who has been appointed on deputation basis in the Indian Nursing Council shall, on its dissolution, stand reverted to his parent cadre, Ministry or Department, as the case may be.

(5) The services of other employees who have been, before the dissolution of the Indian Nursing Council, employed on regular basis by the Indian Nursing Council, shall continue for no longer than one year after the enactment of this Act, as an interim arrangement and thereafter, further continuity or otherwise of their services shall be determined by the National Commission on the basis of their performance appraisal or evaluation:

Provided that such employees of the erstwhile Indian Nursing Council shall be entitled to compensation which shall not be less than three months' pay and allowances, as may be prescribed.

48 of 1947.

(6) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947, any order made, any licence to practice issued, any registration made, any permission to start a new nursing college or institution, or to start higher course of studies, or for increase in the admission capacity granted, or any recognition of nursing qualifications granted, under the said Act, which are in force as on the date of commencement of this Act, shall continue to be in force till the date of their expiry for all purposes, as if they had been issued or granted under the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.

Transitory provisions.

57. (1) The National Commission shall be the successor in interest to the Indian Nursing Council including its subsidiaries or owned trusts and all the assets and liabilities of the Indian Nursing Council shall be deemed to have been transferred to the National Commission.

48 of 1947.

(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947, the educational standards, requirements and other provisions of the said Act and the rules and regulations made thereunder shall continue to be in force and operate till new standards or requirements are specified under this Act or the rules and regulations made thereunder:

Provided that anything done, or any action taken, as regards the educational standards and requirements under the enactment under repeal and the rules and regulations made thereunder, shall be deemed to have been done or taken under the corresponding provisions of this Act and shall continue in force accordingly unless and until superseded by anything done or by any action taken under this Act.

————

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-77 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 14th August, 2023/Sravana 23, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 12th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE COASTAL AQUACULTURE AUTHORITY

(AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023

NO. 27 OF 2023

[12th August, 2023.]

An Act amend the Coastal Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

1. (1) This Act may be called the Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Short title and commencement.

Act, 2023.

(2) Save as otherwise provided, it shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act.

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24 of 2005.

2. In section 2 of the Coastal Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005 (hereinafter referred Amendment of section 2.

to as the principal Act), in sub-section (1),—

(i) for clause (a), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

'(a) "aquaculture input" means any material used as an input in coastal aquaculture for the maintenance of quality of water and soil and for the growth and better health of organisms reared, or other aquatic life available, therein and includes seed, fertilizer, feed, growth supplement, probiotic, environment remediator and disinfectant;

(aa) "aqua mapping" means geospatial coastal area distribution maps depicting areas potential and suitable for coastal aquaculture;

(ab) "aqua zonation" means the zones of spatial planning for different species or methods of coastal aquaculture notified by a State Government or the Authority for sustainable coastal aquaculture;

(ac) "Authority" means the Coastal Aquaculture Authority established under sub-section (1) of section 4;

(ad) "biosecured facility" means a coastal aquaculture unit carrying on coastal aquaculture activity adopting such biosecurity measures for ensuring freedom from disease causing pathogens as may be specified in the guidelines issued for such activity;

(ae) "biosecurity" means any measure or strategy or integrated approach adopted to analyse, manage and prevent the risk of introduction or spread of harmful organisms, including viruses and bacteria, within the coastal aquaculture unit and to minimise the risk of transmission of infectious diseases;

(af) "Brood Stock Multiplication Centre" means a coastal aquaculture unit carrying on such coastal aquaculture activity which receives such post larvae or juvenile which are specific pathogen free or specific pathogen tolerant or specific pathogen resistant or such other post larvae or juvenile from a Nucleus Breeding Centre and rears it under strict biosecurity and close disease surveillance to ensure freedom from disease;';

(ii) for clause (c), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

'(c) "coastal aquaculture" or "coastal aquaculture activity" means rearing and cultivation of any life stages of fish, including crustacean, mollusc, finfish, seaweed or any other aquatic life under controlled conditions, either indoor or outdoor, in cement cisterns, ponds, pens, cages, rafts, enclosures or otherwise in saline or brackish water in coastal areas, including activities such as production of brood stock, seed, grow out, but does not include fresh water aquaculture;

(ca) "coastal aquaculture unit" means any facility that is engaged in coastal aquaculture or any allied activity connected therewith and includes Nucleus Breeding Centre, Brood Stock Multiplication Centre, hatchery and farm;';

(iii) for clause (d), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

29 of 1986.

'(d) "coastal area" means the area declared as the Coastal Regulation Zone in the Coastal Regulation Zone notification issued by the Central Government under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and includes such other area as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify;

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(da) "coastal environment" means the area of land and water in the coastal area, including complete system of living organisms and physical surroundings therein;

(db) "farm" means a coastal aquaculture unit where culturing of fish, including crustacean, mollusc, finfish, seaweed or any other aquatic life is done under controlled conditions in ponds, pens, cages, rafts, enclosures or otherwise, in saline or brackish water in coastal areas and includes nursery rearing, but does not include fresh water aquaculture;

(dc) "hatchery" means a coastal aquaculture unit carrying on coastal aquaculture activity of breeding and seed production of fish, including crustacean, mollusc, finfish, seaweed or any other aquatic life, in saline or brackish water and includes rearing of nauplii and live feed, but does not include fresh water aquaculture;';

(iv) in clause (e), the words "and the member-secretary" shall be omitted;

(v) after clause (e), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

'(ea) "Nucleus Breeding Centre" means a coastal aquaculture unit carrying on biosecured coastal aquaculture activity which has an established freedom from disease causing pathogens for the purpose of producing domesticated specific pathogen free, specific pathogen tolerant and specific pathogen resistant stocks;

(eb) "operator" means any person or firm that is engaged in the operation of the coastal aquaculture activity;

(ec) "owner", in relation to any coastal aquaculture unit, includes—

(i) his legal heirs or agent; and

(ii) an operator, a mortgagee, lessee, including sub-lessee or any other person in actual possession of such coastal aquaculture unit;

(ed) "pharmacologically active substance or antimicrobial agent" means a naturally occurring, semi-synthetic or synthetic substance that, at in vivo concentration, exhibits antimicrobial activity of killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms;';

(vi) after clause (g), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

'(h) "specific pathogen free" or "specific pathogen resistant" or "specific pathogen tolerant" means free of, resistant to, or tolerant to, such pathogens as may be listed by the World Organisation for Animal Health or any other pathogen notified by the Central Government, which is specific for candidate species used in the coastal aquaculture;

(i) "State" includes Union territory.'.

3. In section 4 of the principal Act, —

Amendment of section 4.

(A) in sub-section (3),—

(i) in clause (c), for the words "Department of Ocean Development", the words "Ministry of Earth Sciences" shall be substituted;

(ii) in clause (d), for the words "Ministry of Environment and Forests", the words "Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change" shall be substituted;

(iii) in clause (e), for the words "Ministry of Agriculture", the words "Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare" shall be substituted;

(iv) in clause (f), for the words "Ministry of Commerce", the words "Ministry of Commerce and Industry" shall be substituted;

(v) after clause (f), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—

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"(fa) one member to represent the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying of the Central Government;";

(vi) for clause (g), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—

"(g) one member to represent each of the coastal States and Union territories;";

(vii) clause (h) shall be omitted;

(B) after sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—

"(3A) When the office of the Chairperson is vacant, the Central Government may, till the appointment of a new incumbent to the said office, nominate any member of the Authority to exercise such of the powers, and perform such of the functions, of the Chairperson as may be prescribed.".

4. In section 7 of the principal Act, for sub-section (2), the following sub-section shall Amendment of section 7. be substituted, namely:—

"(2) If the Chairperson is unable to attend a meeting of the Authority, any other member of the Authority nominated by the Chairperson in this behalf, and in the absence of both Chairperson and nominated member, any other member chosen by the members present from amongst themselves, shall preside over the meeting.".

5. After section 7 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 7A.

Committees of Authority.

"7A. (1) Subject to any rules made in this behalf, the Authority may from time to time constitute such committees as may be necessary for the efficient discharge of its functions.

(2) Every committee shall consist of such number of persons and perform such functions and be subject to such terms and conditions as may be prescribed.".

6. After section 9 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 9A.

Secretary of Authority.

"9A. (1) The Central Government may appoint an officer of such rank, as it considers fit, to be a Secretary of the Authority, in such manner and subject to such terms and conditions as may be prescribed.

(2) The Secretary shall function as the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority who shall be responsible for—

(a) the day-to-day administration of the Authority;

(b) drawing up of proposal for the Authority's work programmes in consultation with the Authority;

(d) ensuring that the tasks of the Authority are carried out in accordance with the requirements of users, in particular with regard to the adequacy of the services provided and the time taken;

(e) the preparation of the statement of revenue and expenditure and the execution of the budget of the Authority;

(f) coordinating with the Central Government and with the committees of the Authority; and

(g) legally representing the Authority in all matters.

(3) Every year, the Secretary shall submit to the Authority for approval,—

(a) a general report covering all the activities of the Authority in the previous year;

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(b) the programmes of work;

(c) the annual accounts for the previous year; and

(d) the budget for the coming year.

(4) The Secretary shall, after the approval of the Authority, forward the general report and the programmes to the Central Government and shall have the general report published.

(5) The Secretary shall have administrative control over the officers and other employees of the Authority.

(6) The Secretary shall approve all financial expenditure of the Authority and send a report on the Authority's activities to the Central Government.".

7. In section 11 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 11.

(A) in sub-section (1),—

(i) in clause (a), for the words "aquaculture farms", the words "coastal aquaculture units" shall be substituted;

(ii) in clauses (b) and (c), for the word "farms", the word "units" shall be substituted;

(iii) for clause (d), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—

"(d) to order removal or demolition of any coastal aquaculture unit which is causing pollution after hearing the occupier of such unit;";

(iv) after clause (d), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(da) to regulate or prohibit the number, species and method of any coastal aquaculture in such area, as may be prescribed, through planning and execution of such programmes, including aqua zonation and aqua mapping for environmentally sustainable coastal aquaculture, as may be notified by the Central Government;

(db) to fix or adopt standards, certify, monitor, regulate or prohibit coastal aquaculture inputs, including probiotics, therapeutants and such other inputs used in coastal aquaculture, as may be prescribed, for the prevention, control and abatement of detriment to the coastal aquaculture or coastal environment;

(dc) to fix or adopt standards, certify, monitor and regulate the coastal aquaculture units, including coastal aquaculture activities carried out in such units with biosecurity and close disease surveillance to ensure freedom from disease, in such manner as may be prescribed;

(dd) to fix or adopt the standards for emission or discharge of effluents from coastal aquaculture unit:

Provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be fixed for different coastal aquaculture unit having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of effluents from such sources;

(de) to collect and disseminate information in respect of matters relating to coastal aquaculture;";

(B) in sub-section (2), for the word "farm", at both the places where it occurs, the word "unit" shall be substituted.

8. In section 12 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 12.

(a) for the words "land, pond, pen or enclosure", wherever they occur, the word "unit" shall be substituted;

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(b) after the proviso, the following provisos shall be inserted, namely:—

"Provided further that the requirement of notice under the first proviso may be waived by the Authority, in such cases and for such reasons to be recorded in writing, as it deems fit:

Provided also that the owner shall be liable to pay the cost of demolition and cost of damage to the environment, if any, assessed in such manner as may be prescribed.".

9. After section 12 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 12A.

"12A. The Authority may, by an order, prohibit the use, in any coastal aquaculture activity of—

Prohibition of certain materials.

(a) such pharmacologically active substance, antimicrobial agent or other material which may cause harm to human health as may be prescribed; or

(b) aquaculture inputs containing such substance, agent or material as may be specified under clause (a).".

10. In section 13 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 13.

(i) in sub-section (1), for the word "farm", the word "unit" shall be substituted;

(ii) in sub-section (3), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—

"Provided that the Authority may issue a certificate of registration for carrying out coastal aquaculture on the land allotted or assigned by the Government subject to such procedure and for such period, as may be prescribed, but not exceeding the period specified under clause (a) or clause (b), as the case may be.";

(iii) in sub-sections (4), (5) and (6), for the word "farm", wherever it occurs, the words "coastal aquaculture unit" shall be substituted;

(iv) for sub-section (7), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—

"(7) In the case of a farm comprising more than two hectares of water spread area and any other coastal aquaculture unit, no application for registration to commence any activity connected with coastal aquaculture shall be considered under sub-section (5) unless the Authority, after making such inquiry as it thinks fit, is satisfied that registration of such coastal aquaculture unit shall not be detrimental to the coastal environment.";

(v) in sub-section (8), with effect from the 16th December, 2005,—

(A) for clauses (a) and (b), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—

"(a) no coastal aquaculture shall be carried on in the ecologically sensitive areas or the geo-morphological features;

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(b) no coastal aquaculture, except hatchery, Nucleus Breeding Centre and Brood Stock Multiplication Centre shall be carried on in the No Development Zone in the case of sea, and in the buffer zone in the case of creeks, rivers and backwaters;

(c) no coastal aquaculture, except seaweed culture, pen culture, raft culture and cage culture activities shall be carried on in creek, rivers and backwaters within the Coastal Regulation Zone:";

(B) for the Explanation, the following Explanation shall be substituted, namely:—

'Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,—

(i) "High Tide Line" means the line on the land up to

which the highest water line reaches during the spring tide;

(ii) the expressions "ecologically sensitive areas", "geo-morphological features", "No Development Zone", "buffer zone" and "Coastal Regulation Zone" shall have the same meanings as defined in the Coastal Regulation Zone notification issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.';

29 of 1986.

(vi) in sub-section (9), for the word "farm", wherever it occurs, the word "unit" shall be substituted;

(vii) in sub-section (10),—

(a) for the word "farm", the words "coastal aquaculture unit" shall be substituted;

(b) the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—

"Provided that the Authority may condone the delay in making application for renewal, subject to payment of such fee for renewal of registration, as may be prescribed.";

(viii) in sub-section (11), for the word "farm", at both the places where it occurs, the words "coastal aquaculture unit" shall be substituted;

(ix) after sub-section (11), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—

"(12) The Authority may vary, amend or modify the certificate of registration issued under this section, in such manner as may be prescribed.

(13) In the event of the certificate of registration issued under this Act being defaced or mutilated or lost, the Authority may grant a duplicate certificate, on payment of such fee and in such manner, as may be prescribed.".

11. After section 13 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 13A.

Authorisation of officers.

"13A. (1) The Authority may, by order, authorise any officer of the Authority or the State Government or the Central Government, not below the rank of Assistant Director of Fisheries in a District to function as authorised officer to exercise such powers, to discharge such duties and perform such functions, as may be specified in that order.

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(2) The Central Government may, by notification, authorise any officer of the Authority or the State Government or the Central Government, not below the rank of Under Secretary to the Government of India, to function as an adjudicating officer, to adjudicate the penalties imposed under this Act.

(3) The Central Government may, by notification, authorise any officer of the Authority or the State Government or the Central Government, not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India, to function as the Appellate Authority, who may affirm, vary or set aside the order passed by the adjudicating officer.

5 of 1908.

(4) The adjudicating officer or the Appellate Authority, shall, for the purposes of discharging functions under this Act, have the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while trying a suit, in respect of the following matters, namely:—

(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses;

(b) requiring the discovery and production of documents;

(d) receiving evidence on affidavits;

(e) issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents.

(5) The adjudicating officer or the Appellate Authority shall be deemed to be a civil court for the purposes of sections 345 and 346 of the Code of Criminal

2 of 1974.

Procedure, 1973.".

12. For section 14 of the principal Act, the following sections shall be substituted, namely:—

Substitution of new sections 14 and 14A for section 14.

Penalty for carrying on coastal aquaculture in contravention of provisions of Act.

"14. Where any person carries on coastal aquaculture or traditional coastal aquaculture or causes the coastal aquaculture or traditional coastal aquaculture to be carried on in contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder or any guidelines or notifications issued thereunder, an officer authorised under section 13A shall take all or any of the following actions, namely:—

(a) suspension or stoppage of any activity in a coastal aquaculture unit for such period and in such manner as may be prescribed;

(b) imposition of penalty as specified in the Table below;

(d) destruction of the standing crop therein;

(e) suspension or cancellation of registration for such period and in such manner as may be prescribed.

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Table

Sl No.	Coastal Aquaculture/use of prohibited materials	Offences	Penalty
			First time offence	Second time offence	Third time and subsequent offences
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)
1.	Farm	Non- registration.	Rupees ten thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.	Rupees fifteen thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.	Rupees twenty- five thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.
		Non- compliance with the provisions of the Act, rules, regulations, guidelines and notifications, other than non- registration.	Rupees five thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.	Rupees ten thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.	Rupees fifteen thousand per hectare (or fraction of a hectare) of water spread area.
2.	Hatchery, Brood Stock Multiplication Centre, Nucleus Breeding Centre or such other coastal aquaculture unit	Non- registration.	Rupees fifty thousand.	Rupees seventy- five thousand.	Rupees one lakh.
		Non- compliance with the provisions of the Act, rules, regulations, guidelines and notifications, other than non- registration.	Rupees twenty- five thousand.	Rupees fifty thousand.	Rupees one lakh.
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)
3.	Use of materials prohibited under section 12A	Contravention of the provisions of clause (a) or clause (b) of section 12A.	Rupees fifty thousand.	Rupees seventy- five thousand.	Rupees one lakh.

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Appeal.

14A. (1) Any person aggrieved by an order of the adjudicating officer may within thirty days from the date on which the order is made, prefer an appeal to the Appellate Authority:

Provided that the Appellate Authority may entertain any appeal preferred after the expiry of the said period of thirty days, but before the expiry of ninety days from the date aforesaid, if it satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal in time.

(2) No appeal under this section shall be entertained by the Appellate Authority unless the appellant has at the time of filing the appeal deposited the amount of penalty payable under the order appealed against:

Provided that on an application made by the appellant in this behalf, the Appellate Authority may, if it is of the opinion that the deposit to be made under this sub-section shall cause undue hardship to the appellant, by order in writing, dispense with such deposit, either unconditionally or subject to such condition, as it may deem fit to impose.

(3) On the receipt of an appeal under sub-section (1), the Appellate Authority may, after holding such enquiry as it deems fit, and after giving the parties concerned reasonable opportunity of being heard, confirm, modify or set aside the order appealed against, and—

(a) if the sum deposited by way of penalty under sub-section (2) exceeds the penalty directed to be paid by the Appellate Authority, such excess amount shall be refunded to the appellant; or

(b) if the Appellate Authority sets aside the order imposing penalty, the whole of the sum deposited by the way of penalty shall be refunded to the appellant.

(4) The decision of the Appellate Authority under this section shall be final.".

13. After section 22 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

"22A. Any cost which is due and not paid as provided for by or under this Act and any sum directed to be recovered by way of penalty under section 14 shall be recoverable in the same manner as an arrear of land revenue.".

Insertion of new section 22A. Arrears of cost and penalty recoverable as arrears of land revenue.

14. In section 24 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—

Amendment of section 24.

(i) after clause (a), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—

"(aa) the powers to be exercised and the functions to be performed by the nominated member under sub-section (3A) of section 4;";

(ii) after clause (b), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(ba) the manner of constitution of committees under sub-section (1) of section 7A;

(bb) the number of persons in the committees, their functions, and the terms and conditions of the committees under sub-section (2) of section 7A;

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(bc) the manner of appointment and the terms and conditions for appointment of Secretary under sub-section (1) of section 9A;

(bd) the area in which the Authority may regulate or prohibit the number, species and method of any coastal aquaculture under clause (da) of sub-section (1) of section 11;

(be) the other inputs used in coastal aquaculture under clause (db) of sub-section (1) of section 11;

(bf) the manner of certification, monitoring and regulation of the coastal aquaculture units and the manner of carrying out coastal aquaculture activities with biosecurity and close disease surveillance to ensure freedom from disease in coastal aquaculture units under clause (dc) of sub-section (1) of section 11;";

(iii) in clause (e), for the words "land, pond, pen or enclosure under that section", the word "unit" shall be substituted;

(iv) after clause (f), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(fa) the manner of assessing the cost of damage to the environment under the third proviso to section 12;

(fb) prohibition of such other material which may cause harm to human health under clause (a) of section 12A;

(fc) the procedure and period under the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 13;";

(v) in clause (j), after the word and figures "section 13", the words "and the fee for renewal of registration under the proviso thereof" shall be inserted;

(vi) after clause (j), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

"(ja) the manner of varying, amending and modifying the certificate of registration under sub-section (12) of section 13;

(jb) the fee for grant of duplicate certificate and the manner of granting it under sub-section (13) of section 13;

(jc) the period and manner of suspension or stoppage of activity in a coastal aquaculture unit under clause (a) of section 14;

(jd) the period and manner for suspension or cancellation of registration under clause (e) of section 14;".

15. In section 25 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), in clause (d), for the word Amendment of section 25.

"farms", the word "units" shall be substituted.

16. In section 27 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 27.

(a) for sub-section (1), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—

29 of 1986.

'(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in clause (v) of sub-section (2) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 or clause (d) of sub-rule (3) of rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, in the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification or the Island Coastal Regulation Zone Notification issued by the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, in exercise of the powers conferred under the said Environment (Protection) Act, in the paragraph dealing with prohibited activities, after the last sub-paragraph, the following proviso shall be inserted and shall always be deemed to have been inserted with effect from the 19th day of February, 1991, namely:—

"Provided that nothing contained in this paragraph shall apply to coastal aquaculture.".';

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(b) in sub-section (2), the word "farm's" shall be omitted.

17. After section 27 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—

Insertion of new section 28.

29 of 1986.

Validation of certain provisions and amendments retrospectively.

"28. (1) Where a coastal aquaculture and activities connected therewith has been granted registration under this Act, then, notwithstanding anything contained in clause (v) of sub-section (2) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, or clause (d) of sub-rule (3) of rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986 or in any other law for the time being in force:—

(i) such registration granted under this Act shall prevail and remain valid;

29 of 1986.

(ii) such coastal aquaculture and activities connected therewith shall be a permitted activity under the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification or the Island Coastal Regulation Zone Notification issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;

29 of 1986.

(iii) all registrations granted for coastal aquaculture and activities connected therewith under this Act shall be valid permissions under the applicable rules, regulations and notifications notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 from time to time.

(2) The provisions of sub-section (1), and the provisions of sub-section (8) of section 13 as amended retrospectively with effect from the 16th December, 2005 by the Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Act, 2023, shall have and shall be deemed always to have effect for all purposes as if they had been in force at all material times, and accordingly,—

(i) notwithstanding anything contained in any judgment, decree or order of any court, tribunal or other authority, any action taken or anything done or purported to have been taken or done in accordance with the said provisions shall be deemed to be, and always to have been, for all purposes, as validly and effectively taken or done as if the said provisions had been in force at all material times;

(ii) no suit or other proceeding shall be instituted, maintained or continued in any court for any action taken or anything done or omitted to be done in accordance with the said provisions; and

(iii) no enforcement shall be made by any court of any decree or order or direction relating to removal or closure of any coastal aquaculture activity or demolition of any structure connected therewith or relating to any action taken or done or omitted to be done in accordance with the said provisions as if the provisions of sub-section (1), and the amendments made in sub-section (8) of section 13 had been in force at all material times.".

————

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-78 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 15th August, 2023/Sravana 24, 1945 (Saka) The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 15th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE INTER-SERVICES ORGANISATIONS (COMMAND, CONTROL AND DISCIPLINE) ACT, 2023

NO. 28 OF 2023

[15th August, 2023.]

An Act to empower the Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command of Inter-services Organisations in respect of service personnel who are subject to the Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950 and the Navy Act, 1957, who are serving under or attached to his command, for the maintenance of discipline and proper discharge of their duties, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. (1) This Act may be called the Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control Short title and commencement.

and Discipline) Act, 2023.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.

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Application of Act.

45 of 1950. 46 of 1950. 62 of 1957.

2. The provisions of this Act shall apply to all persons who are subject to the Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950 and the Navy Act, 1957, and to persons of such other forces as the Central Government may specify, by notification, under section 4, who are serving in or attached to an Inter-services Organisation.

Definitions.

3. (1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "Air Officer" means any officer of the Air Force above the rank of group captain;

(b) "Chief of Defence Staff" means an officer of the regular Army, or the Indian Navy, or the Air Force, as the case may be, appointed as such by the Central Government;

(c) "Commander-in-Chief" means a General Officer of the regular Army, or a Flag Officer of the Indian Navy, or an Air Officer of the Air Force, appointed as Commander-in-Chief of a Joint Services Command, and in his absence, the officer on whom the command devolves;

(d) "Commanding Officer" means the officer in actual command of the unit, ship or establishment and includes an officer appointed as such by the Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command, as the case may be, of an Inter-services Organisation;

(e) "Flag Officer" means an officer of the rank of Admiral of the Fleet, Admiral, Vice-Admiral or Rear-Admiral;

(f) "General Officer" means an officer of the regular Army above the rank of Brigadier;

(g) "Inter-services Organisation" means a body of troops including a Joint Services Command consisting of persons, subject to the Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950 and the Navy Act, 1957 or any two of the said Acts;

45 of 1950. 46 of 1950. 62 of 1957.

(h) "notification" means a notification published in the Official Gazette;

45 of 1950. 46 of 1950. 62 of 1957.

(i) "officer", in relation to an Inter-services Organisation, means an officer as defined in clause (xxiii) of section 4 of the Air Force Act, 1950, or clause (xviii) of section 3 of the Army Act, 1950, or clause (16) of section 3 of the Navy Act, 1957, as the case may be;

(j) "Officer-in-Command" of an Inter-services Organisation means either a General Officer of the regular Army, or a Flag Officer of the Indian Navy, or an Air Officer of the Air Force, appointed as the Officer-in-Command of an Inter-services Organisation, other than Joint Services Command, and in his absence, the officer on whom the command devolves;

(k) "regulations" means the regulations made under the respective Service Acts;

(l) "rules" means the rules made under this Act and under the respective Service Acts, as the case may be;

(m) "Service Acts" means the Air Force Act, 1950, or the Army Act, 1950, or the Navy Act, 1957 or any two of the said Acts or all the said Acts; and

45 of 1950. 46 of 1950. 62 of 1957.

(n) "service personnel" means persons who are subject to any of the Service Acts.

(2) Words and expressions used herein and not defined but defined in the Air Force Act, 1950, or the Army Act, 1950, or the Navy Act, 1957 shall have the meanings, respectively, assigned to them under the said Acts.

45 of 1950. 46 of 1950. 62 of 1957.

No. 11-78] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 3

CHAPTER II

SPECIAL PROVISION FOR CERTAIN FORCES

Special provision for certain forces under Central Government. 4. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, specify any force or any part thereof, raised and maintained in India under the authority of the said Government, to which all or any of the provisions of this Act shall, with or without modifications, apply and accordingly all the officers referred to in clause (i) of sub-section (1) of section 3 shall be deemed to be officers within the meaning of the respective Acts relating to the said forces.

(2) Upon issuance of a notification under sub-section (1), the authority to exercise all the disciplinary and administrative powers under the respective Acts governing such force or any part thereof including the powers conferred by warrants or commissions issued under such Acts governing that force or any part thereof, shall vest in the Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command, as the case may be, of the Inter-services Organisation.

(3) Where any of the provisions of this Act applies to a force or any part thereof as referred to in sub-section (2), the Central Government may, by notification, direct that by what authority or which officer, the jurisdiction, powers or duties incidental to the operation of the provisions of this Act shall be exercised or performed in respect of that force or any part thereof.

CHAPTER III

CONSTITUTION OF INTER-SERVICES ORGANISATION AND ITS OFFICERS

5. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, constitute an Inter-services Organisation, which may include a Joint Services Command, comprising of units or service personnel who are subject to any of the Service Acts, as may be placed under the command of the Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, the Officer-in-Command.

Constitution of Inter- services Organisation or Joint Services Command.

(2) The Central Government may, by an order published in the Official Gazette, direct that any power exercisable by the Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, the Officer-in-Command may also be exercisable by any other officer specially empowered in this behalf by the said Government.

6. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act,—

(a) the Inter-services Organisations constituted by the Central Government and functioning as such immediately before the date of commencement of this Act, shall be deemed to have been constituted under the provisions of this Act;

Existing Inter-services Organisations and Commander- in-Chief or Officer-in- Command to continue.

(b) the Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, the Officer-in-Command of an Inter-services Organisation, who has been appointed and functioning as such immediately before the date of commencement of this Act, shall be deemed to have been appointed under the provisions of this Act.

(2) Nothing contained in this Act shall render invalid any action taken or acts performed, immediately before the commencement of this Act, by the Inter-services Organisation, or by the Commander-in-Chief or by the Officer-in-Command, as the case may be, of an Inter-services Organisation, while functioning as such under any law applicable at that time.

Powers of Commander- in-Chief or Officer-in- Command.

7. (1) The Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, Officer-in-Command of an Inter-services Organisation, shall be the head of such Inter-services Organisation and shall exercise command and control over the personnel serving in or attached to that Inter-services Organisation, for the purpose of maintenance of discipline and proper discharge of their duties.

4 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-78 4 THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY [PART II—

(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), the Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, the Officer-in-Command of an Inter-services Organisation shall be competent to exercise all the disciplinary and administrative powers vested in and exercised by—

(a) the General Officer Commanding the Army;

(b) the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of a Naval Command;

(d) any other officer or authority specified in the Service Acts or in the rules and regulations made thereunder, including the powers conferred by warrants or commissions issued under the provisions of such Service Acts; and

(e) any other officer or authority as may be specified in the notification issued

under section 4.

Commanding Officer.

8. The Commanding Officer of an Inter-services Organisation shall, in addition to having command over any unit, ship or establishment, also perform such duties as may be assigned to him in respect of such Inter-services Organisation by its Commander-in-Chief or, as the case may be, the Officer-in-Command and shall be empowered to initiate all disciplinary or administrative actions over the personnel appointed, deputed, posted or attached to that Inter-services Organisation.

Superintendence of Central Government.

9. The superintendence of the Inter-services Organisation shall vest in the Central Government, which shall have the power to issue directions to each of such organisations, on any matters concerning national security or general administration, if it considers necessary and expedient so to do in the public interest.

Power to declare persons to be on active service.

10. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Service Acts, the Central Government may, by notification, declare that any service personnel or class of service personnel to whom the Service Acts apply shall, with reference to any Inter-services Organisation in which he or they may be serving in or attached to or with reference to any provision of this Act, be deemed to be on active service within the meaning of this Act and the Service Acts.

CHAPTER IV

MISCELLANEOUS

11. The Central Government may make rules for the purposes of carrying out the Power to make rules. provisions of this Act.

Overriding effect of this Act.

12. The provisions of this Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or in any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.

13. No suit, prosecution or any other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for

anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act.

Protection of action taken in good faith.

Power to remove difficulties.

14. (1) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may appear to be necessary for removing the difficulty:

Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry of a

period of three years from the commencement of this Act.

(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is

made, before each House of Parliament.

Laying of rules before Parliament.

15. Every rule made by the Central Government under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successiveNo. 11-78] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 5 SEC. 1] THE GAZETTE OF INDIA EXTRAORDINARY 5 sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in such rule or both Houses agree that the rule should not be made, the rule shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule.

————

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-79 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 15th August, 2023/Sravana 24, 1945 (Saka)

The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the

15th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE PHARMACY (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2023

NO. 29 OF 2023

[15th August, 2023.]

An Act further to amend the Pharmacy Act, 1948.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as

follows:—

Short title.

1. This Act may be called the Pharmacy (Amendment) Act, 2023.

8 of 1948.

2. After section 32B of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, the following section shall be inserted, Insertion of new section 32C.

namely:—

Jammu and Kashmir Act No. LIII of 2011 (1955 A.D.).

"32C. Notwithstanding anything contained in section 32, any person whose name has been entered in the register of pharmacists maintained under the Jammu and Kashmir Pharmacy Act, 2011 or possesses qualification (medical assistant/pharmacists) prescribed under the said Act shall be deemed to have been entered in the register of pharmacists prepared and maintained under Chapter IV of this Act, subject to condition that an application to be made in this behalf within a period of one year from the commencement of the Pharmacy (Amendment) Act, 2023 and on payment of such fee,

Special provision relating to persons registered or qualified under Jammu and Kashmir Pharmacy Act, 2011.

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-79

and in such manner, as may be prescribed by the Government of Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and Administration of Union territory of Ladakh.".

————

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.

————

CORRIGENDUM

THE FOREST (CONSERVATION) AMENDMENT ACT, 2023

NO. 15 OF 2023

In the FOREST (CONSERVATION) AMENDMENT ACT, 2023 (15 OF 2023), as published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 1, dated the 4th August, 2023, Issue No. 18, on page 2, in line 1, for "Nationality", read "Nationally".

————

EXTRAORDINARY REGD NO. JK–33 ——————————————————————————————— Vol. 139] Srinagar, Thu., the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-80 ———————————————————————————————

______________________________________________________________

PART IV

Reprints from the Government of India Gazette.

———

MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE

(Legislative Department)

New Delhi, the 18th August, 2023/Sravana 27, 1945 (Saka) The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 18th August, 2023 and is hereby published for general information:—

THE CENTRAL GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (AMENDMENT)

ACT, 2023

NO. 30 OF 2023

[18th August, 2023.]

An Act further to amend the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

1. (1) This Act may be called the Central Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Short title and commencement.

Act, 2023.

(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint:

Provided that different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision.

2 The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. [No. 11-80

12 of 2017.

2. In section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (hereinafter referred to Amendment of section 2.

as the principal Act),—

(a) after clause (80), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—

'(80A) "online gaming" means offering of a game on the internet or an electronic network and includes online money gaming;

(80B) "online money gaming" means online gaming in which players pay or deposit money or money's worth, including virtual digital assets, in the expectation of winning money or money's worth, including virtual digital assets, in any event including game, scheme, competition or any other activity or process, whether or not its outcome or performance is based on skill, chance or both and whether the same is permissible or otherwise under any other law for the time being in force;';

(b) after clause (102), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—

'(102A) "specified actionable claim" means the actionable claim involved in or by way of—

(i) betting;

(ii) casinos;

(iii) gambling;

(iv) horse racing;

(v) lottery; or

(vi) online money gaming;';

"Provided that a person who organises or arranges, directly or indirectly, supply of specified actionable claims, including a person who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic platform for such supply, shall be deemed to be a supplier of such actionable claims, whether such actionable claims are supplied by him or through him and whether consideration in money or money's worth, including virtual digital assets, for supply of such actionable claims is paid or conveyed to him or through him or placed at his disposal in any manner, and all the provisions of this Act shall apply to such supplier of specified actionable claims, as if he is the supplier liable to pay the tax in relation to the supply of such actionable claims;";

(d) after clause (117), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—

'(117A) "virtual digital asset" shall have the same meaning as assigned to

43 of 1961.

it in clause (47A) of section 2 of the Income-tax Act, 1961;'.

3. In section 24 of the principal Act,—

Amendment of section 24.

(a) in clause (xi), the word "and" ocurring at the end, shall be omitted;

(b) after clause (xi), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—

"(xia) every person supplying online money gaming from a place outside India to a person in India; and".

4. In the principal Act, in Schedule III, in paragraph 6, for the words "lottery, betting and gambling" the words "specified actionable claims" shall be substituted.

Amendment of Schedule III.

No. 11-80] The J&K Official Gazette, the 11th June, 2026/21st Jyai., 1948. 3

Transitory provision.

5. The amendments made under this Act shall be without prejudice to provisions of any other law for the time being in force, providing for prohibiting, restricting or regulating betting, casino, gambling, horse racing, lottery or online gaming.

————

Sd/-

DR. REETA VASISHTA, Secretary to the Govt. of India.