THE
JHARKHAND GAZETTE
EXTRAORDINARY
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
2 Magh, 1942(S)
No. 59
Ranchi, Friday, 22th January, 2021
DEPARTMENT OF PERSONNEL, ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS & RAJBHASHA
NOTIFICATION N
8th January, 2021
THE JHARKHAND COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION RULES, 2021
No.-11/Lo.Se.Aa-01-03/2020 ka-162 --In exercise of the power conferred by the proviso to the Article 309 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of Jharkhand hereby enacts the following rules - The Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination Rules, 2021
GENERAL
1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement :- (a) These rules may be called the "Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination Rules, 2021".
(b) These shall extend to the whole State of Jharkhand.
(c) These rules shall come into force from the date of their publication in the State official Gazette.
2. Definitions :- In these rules, unless there is anything repugnant in the subject or context:-
(a) "Appendix" means the Appendix appended to these rules;
(b) "Commission" means the Jharkhand Public Service Commission;
(c) "Department" means the Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms andJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 2 Rajbhasha;
(d) "Direct Recruitment" means the recruitment made in accordance with these rules;
(e) "Examination" means the Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission;
(f) "Government" means the Government of Jharkhand;
(g) "Governor" means the Governor of Jharkhand;
(h) "Primitive Tribal Group" means the tribes identified among the 32 Scheduled Tribes listed in the State of Jharkhand under the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order 1950 (as amended). These tribes are Asur, Birhor, Birjia, Korwa, Savar (alongwith Hill Kharia), Mal Pahariya, Pahariya and Sauria Paharia as notified vide resolution No. 5555 dated 28.06.2016;
(i) "Scheduled Castes" means the castes specified in Part-VIA of the Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order, 1950 (as amended) and notified by the Central Government in respect of Jharkhand;
(j) "Scheduled Tribes" means the tribes specified in Part – XXII of the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950 (as amended) and notified by the Central Government in respect of Jharkhand;
(k) "State" means the State of Jharkhand;
(l) "Person with Benchmark Disability" (PwBD) means a person with not less than forty percent of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority, as defined in the RIGHT OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES ACT, 2016;
(m) "Economically Weaker Section" (EWS) means that Economically Weaker Section as may be notified by the Government from time to time on the basis of family income and other indicators of economic disadvantage;
(n) Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I) and Backward Classes (Annexure-II)- Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I) and Backward Classes (Annexure-II) means and includes all the classes which have been specified in Annexure-I and II of the Jharkhand Pado Evum Sewaon Ki Riktiyon Mein Arakshan (Anusuchit Jatiyon, Anusuchit Janjatiyon Evum Pichehre Vargon Ke Liye) Adhinium, 2001;
RECRUITMENT
3. Method of recruitment :-
(i) Candidates shall be selected for appointment to direct quota vacancies in the services listed below through the examination conducted in accordance with theseJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 3 rules. :-
| Sl. No. | Name of Service |
| 1. | Jharkhand Administrative Service |
| 2. | Jharkhand Police Service |
| 3. | Jharkhand Prison Service |
| 4. | Jharkhand Probation Service |
| 5. | Jharkhand Finance Service |
| 6. | Jharkhand Information Service |
| 7. | Jharkhand Labour Service (General Cadre) |
| 8. | Jharkhand Education Service Class – II |
| 9. | Jharkhand Co-operative Service |
| 10. | Jharkhand Social Security Service |
| 11. | Jharkhand Employment Service |
| 12. | Jharkhand Excise Service |
| 13. | Jharkhand Registration Service |
| 14. | Jharkhand Home Guard (Gazetted) Service |
| 15. | Jharkhand Municipal Service/Cadre |
(ii) Government may add to or delete from the services mentioned above or change their names,
(iii) These rules will not be applicable for appointment through the Limited Competitive Examination for state services,
(iv) The above-mentioned services shall be governed by the promotion and service condition rules framed by the concerned cadre controlling departments. The rules relating to the services, to which recruitment shall be made through Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination would be made available on the website of respective cadre controlling departments,
(v) The concerned cadre controlling department shall calculate the number of vacancies each year on the 1st January with respect to the service to be filled in that particular year by direct recruitment and shall provide requisition for appointment to the Commission after roster clearance through the Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and Rajbhasha.
4. (i) The Commission shall announce vacancies in accordance with the requisitions received from the concerned cadre controlling departments each year in such manner as it may deem fit to be filled by direct recruitment and shall invite applications from the eligible candidates.
(ii) The Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination conducted by the Commission shall be known after the year of publication of advertisement of examination under these rules.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 4Provided that, in case due to unforeseen reasons, the Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination is not held in a particular year(s), then the Commission will hold the Examination for two (or more) years together by clubbing the vacancies.
5. (i) The Commission, as notified from time to time, will conduct the Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination in the manner prescribed in these rules and appendices.
(ii) The dates on which and the places at which the Preliminary and Main Examination will be held shall be fixed by the Commission.
6. Age :-
(i) A candidate should have completed the minimum age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 35 years on the 1st day of the following month from the date of publication of the advertisement for the examination under these rules.
(ii) (a) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable as below or as amended by the Government from time to time-
| Sl. No. | Category | Upper Age Limit |
| 1. | Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure- I)/ Backward Classes (Annexure-II) | 37 years |
| 2. | Female (Unreserved / Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I)/ Backward Classes (Annexure-II)) | 38 years |
| 3. | Scheduled Tribes/ Scheduled Castes (Male and Female) | 40 years |
| 4. | Economically Weaker Section (EWS) | 35 years |
| 5. | Persons with Benchmark Disability(PwBD) | A relaxation of 10 years in their respective category. |
| 6. | Ex-Servicemen | A relaxation of 5 years in their respective category. |
(b) A candidate who has rendered at least 03 (three) years of regular service under the Government, shall be granted 5 years relaxation in the upper age limit.
(iii) A candidate belonging to the Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I)/ Backward Classes (Annexure-II), Female, Scheduled Castes /Scheduled Tribes/ Economically Weaker Section (EWS) category and also covered under any other clause such as Persons with Benchmark Disability, Ex-Servicemen or clause 6 (ii)(b) will be eligible for grant of cumulative age relaxation under both the categories.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 5(iv) Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under Rule 6 (ii) above, Candidates of Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to the Candidates of Persons with Benchmark Disability by the Government.
7. The date of birth, accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a Certificate Recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation Certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only at the time of applying for the Main Examination. No other document relating to age shall be accepted.
8. Number of Attempts:-
There shall be no limitation on number of attempts, if a candidate is eligible otherwise.
9. Nationality :-
A candidate must be a citizen of India.
10. Minimum Academic Qualification :-
A candidate must hold a degree of any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or a Foreign University approved by the Central Government from time to time or possess an equivalent qualification.
11. Candidates must pay the fees prescribed by the Commission in it's advertisement with regard to the examination.
12. All candidates in government service, whether in a permanent or in temporary capacity or as work charge employees, or those serving under public enterprises other than casual or daily rated employees will be required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the examination.
Candidates should note that in case communication is received from their employer to the Commission regarding withholding permission to the candidates applying for the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.
13. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the examination shall be final. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to theJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 6 examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Preliminary Examination, Main (Written) Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Preliminary Examination, Main (Written) Examination or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.
14. No candidate will be admitted to the Preliminary/Main Examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination.
15. No request for withdrawal of candidature received from a candidate after he has submitted his application will be entertained by the Commission under any circumstances.
16. A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—
(i) Obtaining support for his candidature by the following means, namely :—
(a) offering illegal gratification to; or
(b) applying pressure on; or
(c) blackmailing or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or
(ii) impersonation; or
(iii) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with;
or
(v) uploading irrelevant photos in the application form in place of actual
photo/signature; or
(vi) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(vii) resorting to the following means in connection with his candidature for the examination, namely :—
(a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with work relating to the examination; or
(c) influencing the examiners; or
(viii) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(ix) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(x) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like;
orJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 7 (xi) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination; or
(xii) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(xiii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or
(xiv) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;
may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable :-
(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination for which he is a candidate; and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :—
(i) by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Government from any employment under them; and
(c) if he is already in service under Government, to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules :
Provided that no penalty, under this rule shall be imposed except after:—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing to the Commission as he may wish to make in this behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period of one month allowed to him into consideration.
17. (i) Candidates who obtain minimum qualifying marks of 40% in aggregate shall only be considered by the Commission while preparing the selection list for Main Examination and for preparing the merit list for the purpose of Interview Test.
However the minimum qualifying marks shall be relaxable as per following criteria:-
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 8| Sl.No | Category | Minimum Qualifying Marks |
| 1. | Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Females | 32% |
| 2. | Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure – I) | 34% |
| 3. | Backward Classes (Annexure – II) | 36.5% |
| 4. | Primitive Tribal Group | 30% |
| 5 | Economically Weaker Section (EWS) | 40% |
Marks obtained in Main (Written) Examination Paper 'I' Language (General Hindi and General English) which is only qualifying in nature will not be added to the aggregate marks for calculation of percentage of marks, or for preparation of merit list for Interview Test or for preparation of final merit list.
(ii) The adequate number of candidates to be admitted to the Main Examination will be approximately 15 (fifteen) times the total number of advertised vacancies to be filled in the year of the various Services and posts provided they are otherwise eligible but in the said range all those candidates irrespective of category who secure the same percentage of marks as may be fixed by the Commission for any lowest range will be admitted to the Main Examination.
Provided further that if adequate number of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes/Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I)/ Backward Classes (Annexure-II)/Economically Weaker Section are not available amongst the candidates to be declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination, the commission may at their discretion keep the cut off marks maximum up to 8 (eight) percent less than that kept for the last selected candidate, but it shall not be less than the minimum marks mentioned in sub-rule (i).
18. (i) Candidates belonging to any of the reserved category and selected on the standards fixed for unreserved candidates shall not be adjusted against the reserved category vacancies.
(ii) Whenever candidates belonging to reserved category avail the benefits of relaxation of age, minimum qualifying marks fixed for reserved candidates appearing in examination at any stage then such candidates would be adjusted against the vacancies of a reserved category.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 919. (i) After interview, the candidates will be arranged by the Commission in the order of merit as determined by the aggregate marks finally awarded to each candidate in the Main (Written) Examination and Interview test.
Thereafter, the Commission shall, for the purpose of recommending candidates against unreserved vacancies, fix a qualifying mark (hereinafter referred to as general qualifying standard) with reference to the number of unreserved vacancies to be filled up on the basis of the Main Examination.
For the purpose of recommending reserved category candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I), Backward Classes (Annexure-II), Economically Weaker Section and candidates belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disability against reserved vacancies, the Commission may relax the general qualifying standard with reference to number of reserved vacancies to be filled up in each of these categories on the basis of the Main Examination.
Provided that the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I), Backward Classes (Annexure- II) and Economically Weaker Section who have not availed themselves of any of the concessions or relaxations in the eligibility or the selection criteria, at any stage of the examination and who after taking into account the general qualifying standards are found fit for recommendation by the Commission shall not be recommended against the vacancies reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I), Backward Classes(Annexure-II) and Economically Weaker Section.
(ii) Service allocation will be made by the Commission.
While making service allocation, the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I), Backward Classes (Annexure-II) and Economically Weaker Section recommended against unreserved vacancies may be adjusted against reserved vacancies by the Commission, if by this process they get a service of higher choice in the order of their preference. The Commission may lower the general qualifying standard if vacancy arises under un-reserved category by following this rule.
(iii) Commission shall allocate service to the candidates as per their choice and the merit list prepared under rule 19(i). Service and Category wise vacancies & a model merit list of 200 candidates are shown in Table-1 and Table-2 of the Appendix-II, respectively.
If a candidate belonging to a reserved category and selected under unreservedJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 10 category without availing any relaxed standard is allocated service of her/his choice under the unreserved category then she/he shall be adjusted against vacancy of unreserved category. However, if a candidate belonging to reserved category and selected under unreserved category without availing any relaxed standard cannot be allocated service of her/his choice under unreserved category and she/he may be allocated service of her/his choice under her/his reserved category then she/he shall be allocated service of her/his choice under reserved category as per rule 19(ii). A model selection list against 50 vacancies of different services is enclosed as Table-3 of the Appendix-II.
20. The Commission shall recommend such number of candidates for each service as decided by the Commission. The Commission shall arrange the name of the recommended candidates in order of their merit from the list of finally selected candidates. The Commission shall for each service also indicate the category of the candidate under which he/she has been selected.
21. The form and manner of communication of the results of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the results.
22. (i) Candidates will be recommended to the various services keeping in view their ranks in the examination and the preferences expressed by them in respect of services in their Detailed Application Form for the Main (Written) Examination. The appointment to various services will also be governed by the rules/regulations in force as applicable to the respective services at the time of appointment.
(ii) The candidate shall be considered for allocation to only one of those services for which he has indicated his preference in the prescribed manner subject to fulfilment of other conditions. The candidate shall not be allocated service for which he/she has not given choice.
23. Success in the examination confers no right to appointment unless Government is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate, having regard to his character and antecedents and certificates produced by him during the course of examination for the purpose of eligibility as well as claiming any kind of benefit for reservation is suitable in all respects for appointment to the Service. The decision of the Government in this regard shall be final.
24. A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the discharge of his duties as an officer of the service. A candidate who after such medical examination as Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe, is found not to satisfy these requirements will not be appointed.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 11Particulars of the nature of the medical test to which candidates will be subjected to before appointment and of the standards required shall be as per the Recruitment Rules of the concerned cadre controlling department.
25. The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities shall be the same as prescribed in " The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPwD Act, 2016)".
Provided further that the Persons with Benchmark Disability shall also be required to meet special eligibility criteria in terms of Functional Classification and Physical Requirements (abilities/disabilities) consistent with requirements of the identified service/post as may be prescribed by its cadre controlling authority.
26. Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Extremely Backward Classes(Annexure-I)/Backward Classes (Annexure-II)/ Economically Weaker Section(EWS) /PwBD/Ex-servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the rules. They should also be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as stipulated in the rules for such benefits, and these certificates should be dated not later than the closing date of the application of the examination.
Provided further that Economically Weaker Section (EWS) candidates shall submit their 'Income and Asset Certificate' (certificate of eligibility) at the time of submission of Detailed Application Form of the Main (written) Examination. 'The Income and Asset Certificate' of the applicant will be applicable as per the Circular issued by the Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and Rajbhasha.
27. (i) Reservation shall be provided as per the existing State Government Policy. A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of reservation only in case of particular caste to which the candidate belongs, is included in the list of reserved categories notified by the State/Central Government from time to time. Once a candidate has chosen a particular reserved category, no request shall be entertained for change to any other reserved category.
(ii) While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of category from general to reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 12(iii) No candidate with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) of any sub category shall be allowed to change his/her sub-category of disability.
(iv) While the above principle will be followed in general, in case of a candidate unfortunately becoming a candidate belonging to Person with Benchmark Disability during the course of the examination process, the candidate should produce valid document showing him acquiring a disability to the extent of 40% or more as defined under the RPwD Act, 2016 to enable him to get the benefits of reservation as available to the persons with benchmark disability (PwBD).
28. The closing date fixed for the receipt of the application will be treated as the date for determining the Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I) and Backward Classes (Annexure-II) status of the candidates.
29. A candidate who has more than one living spouse or a candidate who has married a person already having a living spouse shall not be eligible for appointment.
Provided that the Governor may if satisfied that there exists a special ground for doing so, exempt any person from the operation of this rule.
30. The Commission shall make endeavour to upload the OMR answer sheet of the candidate of the Preliminary Examination on the website of the Commission.
31. The Commission shall take necessary care that the answer sheet of such candidates, who have appeared in the Main Examination, shall not be cancelled/rejected due to technical reasons. However, the same may be cancelled on other grounds such as adoption of unfair practices or under provision of Rule 16 of these rules.
32. The candidate selected for the Main (Written) Examination or the Interview Test, will present themselves at their own expense, at a time and place as specified by the Commission.
33. (i) A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the discharge of his duties as an officer of the service.
(ii) Any candidate called for the Interview Test by the Commission may be required to undergo medical examination. It shall be arranged in a Government hospital as per the direction of the Commission. No fees shall be payable to the Medical Board by the candidate for the medical examination.
In case of appeal or on its own motion the Commission may constitute an Appellate Medical Board including the experts in the area for conducting the Medical Examination for the aggrieved Person(s) with Benchmark Disability (PwBD).
34. The Commission reserves the final right to recommend the successful candidates to the services for which he/she is deemed fit.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 1335. If two or more candidates have obtained equal marks in the aggregate, then the candidate obtaining higher marks in the Main (written) Examination shall be given preference. In case of tie, the candidate higher in age shall be given preference.
36. (i) Recommendation once made by the Commission to the Government (Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and Rajbhasha) shall not be altered except for special reasons such as withdrawal of requisition by the department or as per the direction of Court.
(ii) The State Government through the Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and Rajbhasha shall take decision on the recommendation of the Commission preferably within a month's time.
The aforesaid decision of the Government shall be communicated to the respective Cadre Controlling Department, which shall take necessary action for issuing appointment letters to the recommended candidates after proper verification and medical examinations as per their respective service rules.
37. A candidate shall be given maximum three month's time to present himself for joining. If for any reason a candidate does not join the service or does not obtain leave for delayed joining then his/her recommendation shall be cancelled and the respective vacancy shall be added to the next year's requisition.
38. Interpretation :- If any doubt arises relating to the interpretation of these rules, it shall be referred to the Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and Rajbhasha whose decision thereon shall be final.
39. Safeguards :- Nothing in these rules or in any order issued under them shall have the effect of depriving any person of any right or privilege to which he is entitled to, by or under, any law in force.
40. Amendment of the Parts/Appendices :- The State Government may amend any or all of the parts/appendices to these rules. 41. Repeal and Savings :- The Bihar Civil Services (Executive Branch) and the Bihar Junior Civil Services
Recruitment Rules, 1951, rules, circulars, notifications and instructions, resolutions issued by the various Cadre Controlling Authorities with respect to the Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination in the past and related to the appointment on the basis of direct examination are hereby superseded by these rules.
Provided that any order made or action taken under the rules superseded shall be deemed to have been made or taken under the corresponding provisions of these rules.
Principal Secretary to Government,
Department of Personnel, Administrative Reforms and
Rajbhasha
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 14Appendix-I
Section – I
Plan of Examination
1. The Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination comprises of two successive stages:-
(a) Combined Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for the Main (Written) Examination; and
(b) Combined Civil Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various services and posts.
2. Preliminary Examination
The examination shall comprise of two compulsory papers of 200 marks each, namely, General Studies – I and General Studies – II.
(i) All questions of compulsory papers will be of objective type (Multiple Choice Question) and each paper will be of 2 hours duration,
(ii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English,
(iii) Selection list for the Main (Written) Examination shall be prepared on the basis of total marks obtained in both the papers. However, the minimum qualifying marks will be as prescribed under Rule 17.
3. Main Examination :- The Main Examination will consist of a Written Examination and an Interview Test.
(i) The Written Examination will consist of 6 papers as detailed in Section - III.
(ii) Selection list for the Interview Test shall be prepared on the basis of the total marks obtained in Papers – II to VI ( 5 papers in all) subject to scoring minimum qualifying marks i.e. 30 in Paper – I and minimum qualifying marks in aggregate as prescribed under Rule – 17 in the remaining 5 Papers.
(iii) The number of candidates to be summoned for interview will be approximately two and half times (2.5) of the total number of advertisted vacancies.
(iv) The Commission shall summon the candidates for the interview, who have obtained such qualifying marks in the written part of the Main Examination as may be fixed by the Commission. However, this qualifying marks will not be less than the minimum qualifying marks prescribed under rule 17(i).
Provided further that if adequate number of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled tribes/Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I)/ Backward Class (Annexure-II)/Economically Weaker Section (EWS) are not available amongst the candidates to be declared qualified for admission to the Interview Test, the commission may keep the cut off marks maximum up to 8 (eight) percent less than the last selected candidate, but it shall not be less than the minimum marks mentioned in rule 17(i).
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 15(v) The total marks for Interview Test would be 100 and there shall be no minimum qualifying marks therein.
(vi) The final merit list will be prepared on the basis of overall marks obtained in Main (Written) Examination and Interview Test except marks obtained in Paper – I, as already mentioned in Rule – 19.
Section – II
How to apply
1. The Commission shall invite application to appear in the Preliminary Examination through online mode only.
2. The Commission shall, at its discretion decide the consolidated examination fee. In case of candidates belonging to any reserved category, the Commission may remit or reduce the examination fees. Ordinarily, this fee will be non-refundable.
3. For the Main Examination, a candidate shall be required to submit Detailed Application Form along with scanned document/certificates in support of date of birth, category (viz. Scheduled Tribes/Scheduled Castes/Extremely Backward Classes (Annexure-I)/Backward Classes (Annexure-II)/Economically Weaker Section (EWS)/Percentage of Disability) and educational qualification in online mode only with the required examination fee.
4. Candidates are required to indicate the language medium (Hindi/English) in which they would like to write the Main (Written) Examination and to be interviewed in the relevant column of the Main Examination Detailed Application Form.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 16Section - III
Scheme and subjects for the Preliminary and Main Examination
A. Preliminary Examination:-
(i) The Preliminary Examination will consist of two papers of objective type (Multiple Choice Questions) and carry a maximum of 400 marks.
(ii) This examination is meant to serve as a screening test only. The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidate who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining their final merit.
(iii) There will be no negative marking for incorrect answers in the Preliminary Examination.
(iv) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and no marks will be awarded.
(v) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
(vi) Details of the syllabi are indicated in Appendix – III.
B. Main Examination :
| Sl. No. | Subject | Duration | Maximum Marks | Remarks |
| Paper – I | General Hindi & General English, having two separate sections on (i) General Hindi, and (ii) General English, each of 50 marks having separate answer sheets. | 3 hours | 100 | This paper will only be qualifying in nature in which out of 100 (combined both Hindi & English) every candidate will have to secure minimum 30 marks. |
| Note: The marks obtained in this paper will not be counted for the preparation of the merit list either for the Interview Test or for the final merit list. | ||||
| Paper – II | Language and Literature: Under this paper, every candidate will have to opt for one Language and Literature out of fifteen listed below - (i) Oriya/Odia Language & Literature (ii) Bangali Language & Literature (iii) Urdu Language & Literature (iv) Sanskrit Language & Literature (v) English Language & Literature (vi) Hindi Language & Literature (vii) Santhali Language & Literature (viii) Panchpargania Language & Literature (ix) Nagpuri Language & Literature (x) Mundari Language & Literature (xi) Kurux Language & Literature (xii) Kurmali Language & Literature (xiii) Khortha Language & Literature (xiv) Khadia Language & Literature (xv) Ho Language & Literature | 3 hours | 150 | Descriptive type |
| Paper – III | Social Science, having two distinct sections on (i) History &(ii) Geography, each of equal weightage. | 3 hours | 200 | Descriptive type |
| Paper – IV | Indian Constitution & Polity, Public Administration & Good Governance | 3 hours | 200 | Descriptive type |
| Paper – V | Indian Economy, Globalization and Sustainable Development | 3 hours | 200 | Descriptive type |
| Paper – VI | General Sciences, Environment & Technology Development | 3 hours | 200 | Descriptive type |
| Total Marks | 950 |
(c) Main Examination : Written (950 marks) + Interview Test (100 marks)
Grand Total = 1050 marks.
The details of the syllabi are indicated in Appendix-III.
General Instructions for Preliminary and Main Examination : -
(i) Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them except for the conditions given below.
(ii) The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) in the categories of blindness, locomotor disability (both arm affected – BA) and cerebral palsy will be provided the facility of scribe, if desired by the candidate. In case of other category of Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) as defined under section 2 (r) of the RPWD Act, 2016, the facility of scribe will be allowed to such candidates on production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write and scribe is essential to write examination on behalf from the Civil Surgeon.
(iii) The candidates have discretion of opting for his/her own scribe or request the Commission for the same. The details of scribe i.e. whether own or the Commission's will be sought at the time of filling up the application form.
(iv) The qualification of the Commission's scribe as well as own scribe will not be moreJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 18 than the minimum qualification criteria of the examination. However, the qualification of the scribe should always be matriculate or above.
(v) The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) in the category of blindness, locomotor disability (both arms affected-BA) and cerebral palsy will be allowed Compensatory Time of twenty minutes per hour of the examination. In case of other categories of Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD), this facility will be provided on production of a certificate from the Civil Surgeon to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write.
Note (1) : The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination hall and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) candidate in writing the Combined Civil Services Examination shall be governed by the instructions issued by the Commission in this regard. Violation of all or any of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of the candidature of the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) candidate in addition to any other action that the Commission may take against the scribe.
C. Interview Test :-
The candidate will be interviewed by a Board who will have before them a record of his career. He will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The objective of the interview is to assess the suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental caliber of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interest in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.
(i) The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.
(ii) The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialized or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside the State or Country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth.
***********
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 19Appendix-II
Table-1.
| Service Name | UNR | EWS | BC-I | BC-II | SC | ST | Total |
| Jharkhand Administrative Service | 5 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 5 | 15 |
| Jharkhand Police Service | 4 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 3 | 11 |
| Jharkhand Finance Service | 3 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 2 | 9 |
| Jharkhand Information Service | 4 | 1 | - | - | 1 | 1 | 7 |
| Jharkhand Social Security Service | 2 | 1 | - | - | 1 | 1 | 5 |
| Jharkhand Probation Service | 2 | - | - | - | - | 1 | 3 |
| Total | 20 | 5 | 4 | 3 | 5 | 13 | 50 |
| Table-2. | |||||||||
| Merit list of 200 qualified candidates under Rule-19 (i) | |||||||||
| Sl. No. | Roll No. | Category | Marks | P1 | P2 | P3 | P4 | P5 | P6 |
| 1 | 10506876 | UNR | 200 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 2 | 10506885 | UNR | 199 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 3 | 10506929 | BC-I | 198 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 4 | 10506970 | UNR | 197 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 5 | 10506989 | SC | 196 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 6 | 10505069 | BC-II | 195 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 7 | 10505838 | ST | 194 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 8 | 10505153 | EWS | 193 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 9 | 10507157 | UNR | 192 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 10 | 10507166 | BC-II | 191 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 11 | 10507228 | BC-II | 190 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 12 | 10500108 | BC-I | 189 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 13 | 10505841 | ST | 188 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 14 | 10505906 | ST | 187 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 15 | 10507244 | UNR | 186 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 16 | 10507361 | UNR | 185 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 17 | 10507363 | UNR | 184 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 18 | 10500196 | BC-I | 183 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 19 | 10505076 | BC-II | 182 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 20 | 10505254 | SC | 181 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 21 | 10506057 | ST | 180 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 22 | 10505184 | EWS | 179 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 23 | 10506065 | ST | 178 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 24 | 10500276 | BC-I | 177 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 25 | 10507407 | BC-I | 176 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 26 | 10505271 | SC | 174 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 27 | 10506127 | ST | 173 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 28 | 10506162 | ST | 172 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 29 | 10506245 | St | 171 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 30 | 10505202 | EWS | 170 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 31 | 10507449 | UNR | 169 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 32 | 10507509 | UNR | 167 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 33 | 10507526 | BC-I | 166 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 34 | 10505405 | SC | 165 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 35 | 10506302 | ST | 164 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 36 | 10507631 | BC-II | 163 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 37 | 10505211 | EWS | 162 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 38 | 10505431 | SC | 161 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 39 | 10506328 | ST | 160 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 40 | 10507674 | UNR | 159 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 41 | 10507684 | UNR | 158 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 42 | 10507810 | UNR | 157 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 43 | 10507851 | UNR | 156 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 44 | 10505088 | BC-II | 155 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 45 | 10507866 | UNR | 154 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 46 | 10507916 | UNR | 153 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 47 | 10500447 | BC-I | 152 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 48 | 10507928 | UNR | 152 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 49 | 10506437 | ST | 152 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 50 | 10500549 | UNR | 151 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 51 | 10507969 | UNR | 151 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 52 | 10500557 | UNR | 150 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 53 | 10507986 | BC-II | 150 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 54 | 10500563 | UNR | 149 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 55 | 10508079 | BC-II | 149 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 56 | 10500592 | UNR | 148 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 57 | 10508130 | UNR | 148 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 58 | 10500849 | UNR | 147 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 59 | 10508338 | UNR | 147 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 60 | 10500893 | UNR | 146 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 61 | 10508531 | UNR | 146 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 62 | 10505687 | SC | 146 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 63 | 10501200 | UNR | 145 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 64 | 10508830 | UNR | 145 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 65 | 10515016 | SC | 145 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 66 | 10501217 | UNR | 144 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 67 | 10508847 | UNR | 144 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 68 | 10515087 | SC | 144 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 69 | 10506535 | ST | 144 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 70 | 10501286 | UNR | 143 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 71 | 10508912 | UNR | 143 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 72 | 10505236 | EWS | 143 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 73 | 10515192 | SC | 143 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 74 | 10501365 | UNR | 142 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 75 | 10509086 | UNR | 142 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 76 | 10511527 | UNR | 142 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 77 | 10515195 | SC | 142 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 78 | 10501413 | UNR | 141 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 79 | 10509176 | BC-II | 141 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 80 | 10511540 | UNR | 141 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 81 | 10515275 | SC | 141 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 82 | 10501424 | UNR | 140 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 83 | 10509439 | BC-II | 140 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 84 | 10511544 | UNR | 140 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 85 | 10515295 | SC | 140 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 86 | 10501471 | UNR | 139 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 87 | 10509443 | UNR | 139 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 88 | 10511644 | UNR | 139 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 89 | 10515307 | SC | 139 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 90 | 10501743 | UNR | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 91 | 10509450 | UNR | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 92 | 10511692 | UNR | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 93 | 10515403 | SC | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 94 | 10506605 | ST | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 95 | 10501744 | ST | 137 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 96 | 10509471 | BC-I | 137 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 97 | 10511771 | EWS | 137 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 98 | 10515707 | UNR | 137 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 99 | 10501899 | UNR | 136 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 100 | 10509506 | BC-I | 136 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 101 | 10512117 | UNR | 136 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 102 | 10515775 | BC-I | 136 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 103 | 10501975 | UNR | 135 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 104 | 10509531 | SC | 135 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 105 | 10512201 | UNR | 135 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 106 | 10515840 | SC | 135 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 107 | 10501991 | UNR | 134 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 108 | 10509702 | UNR | 134 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 109 | 10512392 | ST | 134 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 110 | 10515996 | EWS | 134 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 111 | 10502048 | UNR | 133 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 112 | 10509737 | UNR | 133 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 113 | 10512429 | BC-II | 133 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 114 | 10516012 | UNR | 133 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 115 | 10502094 | BC-II | 132 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 116 | 10509934 | UNR | 132 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 117 | 10512455 | UNR | 132 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 118 | 10516242 | SC | 132 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 119 | 10502213 | UNR | 131 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 120 | 10509987 | EWS | 131 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 121 | 10512571 | UNR | 131 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 122 | 10516260 | UNR | 131 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 123 | 10502226 | ST | 130 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 124 | 10510023 | UNR | 130 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 125 | 10512590 | ST | 130 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 126 | 10516279 | UNR | 130 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 127 | 10502229 | UNR | 129 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 128 | 10510133 | UNR | 129 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 129 | 10512604 | UNR | 129 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 130 | 10516341 | EWS | 129 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 131 | 10502252 | UNR | 128 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 132 | 10510284 | UNR | 128 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 133 | 10512737 | EWS | 128 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 134 | 10516349 | UNR | 128 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 135 | 10502412 | BC-I | 127 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 136 | 10510326 | UNR | 127 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 137 | 10512785 | UNR | 127 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 138 | 10516449 | UNR | 127 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 139 | 10502673 | BC-I | 126 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 140 | 10510425 | UNR | 126 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 141 | 10512810 | UNR | 126 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 142 | 10516593 | BC-II | 126 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 143 | 10502705 | UNR | 125 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 144 | 10510461 | UNR | 125 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 145 | 10513056 | SC | 125 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 146 | 10516667 | UNR | 125 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 147 | 10502714 | BC-II | 124 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 148 | 10510484 | UNR | 124 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 149 | 10513190 | EWS | 124 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 150 | 10516696 | UNR | 124 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 151 | 10502810 | SC | 123 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 152 | 10510510 | UNR | 123 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 153 | 10513351 | UNR | 123 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 154 | 10516721 | SC | 123 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 155 | 10503369 | UNR | 122 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 156 | 10510576 | UNR | 122 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 157 | 10513374 | UNR | 122 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 158 | 10516724 | UNR | 122 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 159 | 10503681 | UNR | 121 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 160 | 10510751 | BC-II | 121 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 161 | 10513489 | UNR | 121 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 162 | 10516855 | EWS | 121 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 163 | 10503696 | UNR | 120 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 164 | 10510915 | BC-I | 120 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 165 | 10513564 | BC-II | 120 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 166 | 10516867 | SC | 120 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 167 | 10504072 | UNR | 119 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 168 | 10511146 | UNR | 119 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 169 | 10513773 | UNR | 119 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 170 | 10517024 | ST | 119 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 171 | 10504486 | UNR | 118 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 172 | 10511172 | SC | 118 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 173 | 10513806 | EWS | 118 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 174 | 10517045 | UNR | 118 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 175 | 10504499 | UNR | 117 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 176 | 10511291 | BC-I | 117 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 177 | 10513817 | UNR | 117 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 178 | 10517135 | UNR | 117 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 179 | 10504504 | BC-I | 116 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 180 | 10511422 | UNR | 116 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 181 | 10513871 | ST | 116 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 182 | 10517141 | EWS | 116 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 183 | 10504568 | UNR | 115 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 184 | 10511500 | UNR | 115 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 185 | 10513915 | BC-I | 115 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 186 | 10504570 | UNR | 114 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 187 | 10514015 | UNR | 114 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 188 | 10504616 | BC-I | 113 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 189 | 10514023 | UNR | 113 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 190 | 10504621 | SC | 112 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 191 | 10514077 | UNR | 112 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 192 | 10514148 | BC-II | 111 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 193 | 10514167 | SC | 110 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 194 | 10514220 | SC | 109 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 195 | 10514323 | UNR | 108 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 196 | 10514355 | EWS | 107 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 197 | 10514453 | ST | 106 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 198 | 10514606 | UNR | 105 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 199 | 10514915 | ST | 104 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| 200 | 10514916 | ST | 103 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS |
| Table-3 | |||||||||||
| Model selection list [under Rule-19 (ii)] | |||||||||||
| Sl. No. | Roll No. | Category | Marks | P1 | P2 | P3 | P4 | P5 | P6 | SERVICE ALLOTTED | SELECTED UNDER CATEGORY |
| 1 | 10506876 | UNR | 200 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | UNR |
| 2 | 10506885 | UNR | 199 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | UNR |
| 3 | 10506929 | BC-I | 198 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | UNR |
| 4 | 10506970 | UNR | 197 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | UNR |
| 5 | 10506989 | SC | 196 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | UNR |
| 6 | 10505069 | BC-II | 195 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | BC-II |
| 7 | 10505838 | ST | 194 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | ST |
| 8 | 10505153 | EWS | 193 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | EWS |
| 9 | 10507157 | UNR | 192 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | UNR |
| 10 | 10507166 | BC-II | 191 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | UNR |
| 11 | 10507228 | BC-II | 190 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | UNR |
| 12 | 10500108 | BC-I | 189 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | BC-I |
| 13 | 10505841 | ST | 188 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | ST |
| 14 | 10505906 | ST | 187 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | ST |
| 15 | 10507244 | UNR | 186 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | UNR |
| 16 | 10507361 | UNR | 185 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | UNR |
| 17 | 10507363 | UNR | 184 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | UNR |
| 18 | 10500196 | BC-I | 183 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | BC-I |
| 19 | 10505076 | BC-II | 182 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | BC-II |
| 20 | 10505254 | SC | 181 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | SC |
| 21 | 10506057 | ST | 180 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | ST |
| 22 | 10505184 | EWS | 179 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | EWS |
| 23 | 10506065 | ST | 178 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JAS | ST |
| 24 | 10500276 | BC-I | 177 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | BC-I |
| 25 | 10507407 | BC-I | 176 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | UNR |
| 26 | 10505271 | SC | 174 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | SC |
| 27 | 10506127 | ST | 173 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | ST |
| 28 | 10506162 | ST | 172 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | ST |
| 29 | 10506245 | ST | 171 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPS | ST |
| 30 | 10505202 | EWS | 170 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | EWS |
| 31 | 10507449 | UNR | 169 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | UNR |
| 32 | 10507509 | UNR | 167 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | UNR |
| 33 | 10507526 | BC-I | 166 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | BC-I |
| 34 | 10505405 | SC | 165 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | SC |
| 35 | 10506302 | ST | 164 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | ST |
| 36 | 10507631 | BC-II | 163 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | BC-II |
| 37 | 10505211 | EWS | 162 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | UNR |
| 38 | 10505431 | SC | 161 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | UNR |
| 39 | 10506328 | ST | 160 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JFS | ST |
| 40 | 10507674 | UNR | 159 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JSSS | UNR |
| 41 | 10507684 | UNR | 158 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JSSS | UNR |
| 42 | 10507810 | UNR | 157 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPbS | UNR |
| 43 | 10507851 | UNR | 156 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPbS | UNR |
| 44 | 10506437 | ST | 152 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | ST |
| 45 | 10505687 | SC | 146 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | SC |
| 46 | 10515016 | SC | 145 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JSSS | SC |
| 47 | 10506535 | ST | 144 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JSSS | ST |
| 48 | 10505236 | EWS | 143 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JIS | EWS |
| 49 | 10506605 | ST | 138 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JPbS | ST |
| 50 | 10511771 | EWS | 137 | JAS | JPS | JFS | JIS | JSS | JPbS | JSSS | EWS |
***********
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 27Appendix – III
Syllabi for Examination
SYLLABUS FOR THE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
Paper – I General Studies-I Total Marks : 200 The paper will consist of 100 objective type questions, each of 2 marks, drawn from the subjects – History of India, Geography of India, Indian Polity and Governance, Economic and Sustainable Development, Science and Technology, Jharkhand Specific Questions, National and International Current Events, General Question of Miscellaneous Nature. Candidates will have to answer all the questions.
15 Questions
(A) History of India (1) Ancient India (5 questions)
(2) Medieval India (5 questions)
Modern India (5 questions)
(3)
10 Questions
(B) Geography of India (1) (2) (3) (4)
General Geography (3 questions) Physical Geography (3 questions) Economical Geography (2 questions) Social & Demographic Geography (2 questions)
10 Questions
(C) Indian Polity and Governance (1) (2) (3)
Constitution of India (4 questions) Public Administration and Good Governance (4 questions) Decentralization: Panchayats & Municipalities (2questions)
(D) Economic and Sustainable Development 10 Questions (1) (2) (3)
Basic features of Indian Economy (4 questions) Sustainable Development and Economic issues (4 questions) Economic Reforms and Globalization (2 questions)
15 Questions
(E) Science & Technology (1) (2) (3)
General Science (6 questions) Agriculture & Technology Development (6 questions) Information & Communication Technology (3 questions)
10 Questions
(F) Jharkhand Specific Questions (General Awareness
of its History, Society, Culture & Heritage)
(G) National & International Current Events 15 Questions
(H) General Questions of Miscellaneous Nature
not requiring subject specialization, such as
15 Questions
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8)
Human Rights Environmental Protection, Bio-diversity & Climate Change Urbanization Sports Disaster Management Poverty and Un-employment Awards United Nations and other International AgenciesJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 28
Paper – II General Studies-II (Jharkhand Specific Questions) Total Marks : 200
100(Objective types) 2
8 × 2 16
1
1
1
1
(A) 1 1 2
7 × 2 14
(B)
1
1
1
2 2
(C) 5 × 2 10
1 1 1
1
1
5 × 2 10 (D) , , , ,
1
1
1
1
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1
(E) 5 × 2 10
3 x 2 = 6
(F)Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 29 (G)
5 x 2 = 10
(H)
12 x 2 = 24
(C.N.T.)
(S.P.T.)
(I)
10 x 2= 20 , , ,
(J) ,
6 x 2= 12 (K)
5 x 2 = 10
5 x 2 = 10 (L)
(M) 5 x 2 = 10 (N) ,
7 x 2 = 14 (Mitigation) (Adaptation)
(O)
5 x 2 = 10 (P) 7 x 2 = 14Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 30
SYLLABUS FOR THE MAIN EXAMINATION
PAPER – I
General Hindi and General English Total Marks : 100
The General Hindi and General English paper shall be composite paper, consisting of two segments, namely (i) Hindi and (ii) English. Both the segments shall be of equal weightage i.e. each of 50 marks. The purpose of the paper is to test the working knowledge of the candidates in the above two languages. As such the questions to be asked in both the segments of this paper shall be of matric standard only and shall be confined to the following areas :-
(A) General Hindi: 50 marks
(
(B) General English: 50 marks
1. Essay (400 words) – 15 marks
– 15 marks
2. Grammar
3. Comprehension – 10 marks
– 10 marks
4. Précis
It will be only a qualifying paper in which out of 100 (combined both Hindi & English) every candidate will have to secure only 30 marks.
The marks obtained in this paper will not be counted for the preparation of merit list.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 31PAPER – II
Language & Literature
Total Marks : 150
The candidate will have the choice to opt for one of the following language and literatures :-
a. Oriyya Language & Literature
b. Bangali Language & Literature
c. Urdu Language & Literature
d. Sanskrit Language & Literature
e. English Language & Literature
f. Hindi Language & Literature
g. Santhali Language & Literature
h. Panchpargania Language & Literature
i. Nagpuri Language & Literature
j. Mundari Language & Literature
k. Kurux Language & Literature
l. Kurmali Language & Literature
m. Khortha Language & Literature
n. Khadia Language & Literature
o. Ho Language & Literature
This paper will be set for a maximum of 150 marks and marks obtained in this paper shall be counted for preparation of the Merit List of the Main Examination.
The detailed syllabi of the above 15 Languages & Literatures shall be as follows :-
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 32: 150
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Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 34Total Marks : 150
Bengali Language & Literature
Part-I
(a) History of Bengali Language (i) Origin and development of Bengali Language
(ii) Origin and development of Bengali Script
(iii) Origin and development of old Aryan, Middle Indo Aryan, Modern Indo Bengali Language
(iv) The chronological track from Proto Indo-European to Bangla (Family tree with branches and approximate dates.)
(b) Bengali Upa-Bhasha Shabda Bhandar, Dwani Paribartaner sutra.
(c) History of Bengali Literature (i) Charyapada
(ii) Andhakar yug
(iii) Krittibas
(iv) Maladhar Basu
(v) SriKrishna kirtan o chandidas
(vi) Bidyapati
Part-II
(d) Prose, Poetry, Drama
(i) Meghnad Vada Kabya- Madhusudan Dutta
(ii) Muchiram gurer Jibancharit- Bankimchandra
(iii) Achalayatam- Rabindranath
(iv) Srikanta (vol-I)- Saratchandra
(v) Vaishnava padavali (Calcutta University), poems of Vidyapati, Chandidas, Jnanadas, Govinddas and Balramdas.
(e) Grammar
(i) Bhabsamprasaran
(ii) Sarangsha
(iii) Pratibedan
(f) Development of Prose, Poetry, Drama, Critic and Novel in Bangla Literature.
(g) Fiction major author (Bankimchandra, Tagore, Saratchandra, Bibhutibusan, Tarashanar, Manik)Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 35
Urdu Literature
Total Marks : 150
Part-I
(a) Different theories about the origin of Urdu language.
(b) Origin and development of Urdu script.
(c) Benefits of Linguistic.
(d) Urdu literature (prose fiction)
(i) Nirmala (Novel) - Premchand (ii) Short stories
(cid:1) Kaloo Bhangi - Krishna Chandra (cid:1) Laj Wanti - Rajinder Singh Bedi (cid:1) Khol Do - Saadat Hassan Munto (cid:1) Parinda Pakarnewali Gadi - Ghayas Ahamed Gaddi (cid:1) Mrs. John - Sheen Akhtar
Part-II
(e) Urdu Poetry Ghalib : - Ghazal (i) Hazaron Khawahisen Aaisi ke.
(ii) Ye Na Thi hamari Qismat.
Meer Taqi Meer :-
(i) Ulti hogai sab tadbeeren.
(ii) Shaam se kuch bujha sa Rahta.
Hasrat Mohani :- Chupke Chupke rat din Asnsoo bahana yaad hai.
(f) Following five Poems :-
- Akbar Allahabadi
- Wahab danish - Jameel Muzhari
(i) Lenin khuda ke huzoor mein - Iqbal (ii) Saqui Nama - Iqbal (iii) Naseehat Akhlaque (iv) Balai Zamini (v) Ertaqua
(g) Urdu Language (Grammar) (i) Opposite (ii) Gender (iii) Letter (iv) Application (v) Meanings (vi) Singular-Plural (vii) Summary.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 36ः
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English Language and Literature
Total Marks : 150
Part-I
Vocabulary)
v. Middle English (Dialects of Modern English; Characteristics of Middle English; Rise of Standard English)
(b) The Definition of Poetry : its characteristics, purpose, forms of poetry--lyric, sonnet, ode, balled, free verse, blank verse, rhymed verse, poetic
terms -- alliteration, resonance, rhyme scheme, meter--its
types.)
(c) Comprehension (A passage containing approximately 1000 words to be set).
(d) Grammar :
(i) Noun, Verb, Adjective, Adverb, Article, Preposition, Subject- Verb-Agreement, Narration, Voice, Transformation, Clause.
(ii) Single-word substitution (iii) Correction of errors (iv) Pairs of words (v) Idioms and Phrases
Part-II
English Literature:
(e) History of English Literature (British, American, Colonial and Post-Colonial Writing)
from the 14th century up to the 21st century:
Poetry, Drama, Prose, Novel, Criticism, Biography, Autobiography, Short-Stories (General introduction of eminent poets, dramatists, novelists, prose-writers, short-story writers, autobiographers, biographers, popular writers)
(f) Fiction and Drama (Critical Study and Explanation):
(i) Kanthapura : Raja Rao
(ii) A Passage to India: E.M. Forster
(iii) Macbeth : William Shakespeare
(iv) Arms and the Man : G.B. Shaw
(g) Poetry (Critical Study and Explanation):
(i) The Quality of Mercy :William ShakespeareJharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 38 (ii) The Little Black Boy : William Blake
(iii) The Solitary Reaper : William Wordsworth
(iv) Mutability : P.B. Shelley
(v) I Think Continually of Those Who were Truly Great
(vi) Heaven of Freedom : Rabindranath Tagore
(vii) A Soul's Prayer : Sarojini Naidu
(h) Prose (Critical Study and Explanation):
(i) On Habits : A.G. Gardiner
(ii) India Again : E.M. Forster
(iii) Playing the English Gentleman : Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Of Studies : Francis Bacon
(v) Mr. Know All : Somerset Maugham
(vi) The Homecoming : Rabindranath Tagore
(vii) The Cherry Tree : Ruskin Bond
(i) Essay : On socio-economic or current topic.
Note :- The paper shall also comprise of questions related to English Grammar
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PAPER - III
SOCIAL SCIENCES (History and Geography) Total Marks : 200
The question paper of Social Sciences shall have two distinct sections; one of History and the other one of Geography; each of 100 marks. The candidates will be required to answer one compulsory and two optional questions from each section i.e. six questions in all. The compulsory question of each section, covering the entire syllabus of the concerned section, shall have ten objective type questions, each of two marks (10×2 = 20 marks). In addition, there shall be four optional questions in each section of History and Geography. Since there are four distinct sub- sections, both in History and Geography, one question will be drawn from each sub-section as to make a total of four optional questions in each of the two distinct sections of History and Geography; of which candidates will be required to answer only two questions; each of 40 marks.
The optional questions shall be answered in the traditional, descriptive style, requiring long-answers.
Section (A) - History: 100 Marks
(A) Ancient Period: (i) The Indus Valley Civilization : Origin, antiquity, extent, authorship and main features, (ii) Origin of the Aryans.
(iii) Antiquity and stratification of the Vedic Literature; Society, economy and religion during Early (Rig - Vedic) period. (iv) The Lichchavis and their republican constitution.
(v) The Rise of the Magadhan empire.
(vi) The Mauryas : Extent of empire, Kalinga War and its impact; Asoka's Dhamma, Foreign Policy, Development of Art & Architecture during the Mauryan period, (vii) The Kushanas : Kanishka : Extent of empire, His religious policy: Development of Art, Architecture and Letters during the Kushana period.
(viii) The Guptas : Extent of empire; development of language and literature, art & architecture during the Gupta period.
(ix) Harsha-Vardhan : The last great Hindu ruler of Northern India; cultural achievements during his period.
(x) The Cholas : Maritime activities in South-east Asian countries, Chola administration, art & architecture.
(xi) Cultural Achievements of the Pallavas.
(B) Medieval Period: (xii) The Arab Invasion of India. (xiii) The Ghaznavid Invasion of India. (xiv) The Delhi Sultanate : Market and Military Reforms of Allauddin Khilji; Utopian policies of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
(xv) The Mongol invasion of India.
(xvi) Religious Movements : (a) Sufism. (b) Bhakti Movement
(xvii) Dawn of a New-Islamic culture : Indo - Islamic architecture; Development of Urdu and Hindi languages.
(xviii) The Mughals : First Battle of Panipat; Achievements of Sher Shah Suri, Consolidation of Mughal empire; Establishment of Jagirdari and Mansabdari systems under Akbar, Akbar's Religious and Rajput policies, Aurangzeb's Religious and Rajput policies, Mughal Architecture and Painting, Economic Condition during Mughal period.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 60(xix) The Rise of the Marathas : Achievements of Shivaji, Northward expansion of the Maratha's and their downfall.
(C) Modern Period: (xx) Beginning of European settlements : Formation and growth of East India Company; Consolidation of British power in India : Battles of Plassey and Buxar; Control over Mysore; Subsidiary Alliance; Doctrine of Lapse; Doctrine of Escheat.
(xxi) Resistance to Colonial Rule: Peasant; Tribal and Cultural Renaissance; Revolt of 1857.
(xxii) Social Reforms Movements in Hindu Community : Brahma Samaj, Arya Samaj, Ram Krishna Mission, Prarthana Samaj and Theosophical Society of India.
(xxiii) Social Reforms Movements in Muslim Community : Wahabi Movement & Aligarh Movement.
(xxiv) Struggle for Raising Women's status : Abolition of Sati System, Widow Marriage Act, Consent Bill, Stress on Female Education.
(xxv) Land Revenue Administration under the British rule : Permanent Settlement;
Ryotwari & Mahalwari Systems.
(xxvi) Rise of Nationalism in India in the 19th century : Formation of Indian National Congress :Moderates and Extremists: Swadeshi Movement, Home Rule League Movement: Khilafat Movement.
(xxvii) Mahatma Gandhi and Mass politics : Non-Co-operation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement.
(xxxii) The partition of India and its consequences. (xxix) India After Independence: Integration of Princely states in Indian Union; Linguistic Reorganization of States; Non-alligned policy under Nehru and Indira Gandhi, Libration of Bangladesh.
(D) History of Jharkhand :
(xxx) Adi-dharma i.e. Sarana cult of Jharkhand tribals,
(xxxi) Concept of Sadan and emergence of Nagpuria language, (xxxii) Tribal Revolts in Jharkhand and Nationalist struggle, (xxxiii) Birsa Movement, (xxxiv) Tana Bhagat Movement, and
(xxxv) Freedom Movement in Jharkhand.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 61Section (B) - Geography : 100 Marks
(A) Physical Geography (General Principles): (i) Origin and evolution of earth, interior of earth, Wegner's Continental Drift Theory:
Plate tectonics, Volcanoes, Earthquakes and Tsunamis.
(ii) Major types of rocks and their characteristics, evolution and characteristics of landforms in the Fluvial, Glacial, Arid and Karst regions.
(iii) Geomorphic processes; Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and deposition, soil formation, Landscape cycles, ideas of Davis and Penck.
(iv) Composition, Structure and Stratification of the atmosphere. (v) Insolation, heat budget of the earth. (vi) Horizontal and vertical distribution of temperature, inversion of temperature. (vii) Air masses and fronts, Tropical and temperate cyclones. (viii) Evaporation and Condensation: dew, frost, fog, mist and cloud, rainfall types. (ix) Classification of climates, (Koppen and Thornthwaite), Greenhouse effect, global warming and climatic changes.
(x) Hydrological cycle, distribution of temperature and solicits in the oceans and seas, waves, tides and Currents, ocean floor relief features.
(B) Physical and Human Geography of India :
(xi) Structure, relief and physiographic divisions, Drainage Systems : Himalayan and the Peninsular.
(xii) Indian monsoon, mechanism, onset and retreat, climatic types (Koppen and Trewartha). Green Revolution and its impact on major crops of India. Food scarcity.
(xiii) Natural Vegetation-Forest types and distribution, wild life, conservation, biosphere reserves.
(xiv) Major types of Soils. (ICAR classification) and their distribution. Soil degradation and conservation.
(xv) Natural Hazards : Floods, Droughts, Cyclones, Landslides.
(xvi) Population growth, distribution and density.
(xvii) Age : Sex, ratio, rural-urban composition.
(xviii) Population, environment and development.
(xix) Types of Settlements: rural and urban, Urban morphology : functional classification of Urban settlements, Problems of human settlement in India.
(C) Natural Resources of India : Development and Utilization
(xx) Land Resources : General land use, agricultural land use, geographical condition and distribution of major crops, like, Rice, Wheat, Cotton, Jute, Sugarcane, Rubber, Tea and Coffee.
(xxi) Water Resources : Availability and utilization for industrial and other purposes, irrigation, scarcity of water, methods of conservation-rain water harvesting and watershed management, ground water management.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 62(xxii) Minerals and Energy Resources : Distribution and utility of (a) metallic minerals (iron ore, copper, bauxite, magnese) (b) non metallic and conventional minerals (coal, petroleum and natural gas) (c) hydro electricity and non conventional sources of energy (Solar, Wind, bio-gas) (d) energy sources, their distribution and conservation.
(xxiii) Development of Industries : Types of Industries; factors of industrial location, distribution and changing pattern of selected industries (Iron and steel, cotton textile, sugar and petrochemicals); Weber's theory of industrial location-its relevance in the modern world.
(xxiv) Transport, Communication and International Trade :
(a) Roads, railways and water ways.
(b) Bases of International trade, changing pattern of India's foreign trade.
(D) Geography of Jharkhand and Utilization of its Resources :
(xxv) Geological history, landforms, drainage, climate, soil types and forests; agriculture and irrigation, Damodar & Suberna rekha valley projects: mineral resources of Jharkhand, their extraction and utilization.
(xxvi) Population : Growth, distribution, density; Tribal population and their distribution, Problems of Tribes and Tribal development Plans; their customs, rituals, festivals etc. (xxvii) Industrial and urban development, Major Industries- Iron, Steel and Cement; Cottage Industries.
(xxviii) Pattern of urban settlement and Pollution Problems.
Note :- The paper would comprise of 40% questions related to the State of Jharkhand.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 63PAPER-IV
INDIAN CONSTITUTION & POLITY, PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION & GOOD
GOVERNANCE
Total Marks : 200 The question paper of the Indian Constitution, Polity and Public Administration shall consist of two distinct sections i.e. one on Indian Constitution and Polity, and the other one on Public Administration & Good Governance, each of 100 marks. The Candidates will be required to answer one compulsory and two optional questions from each section. The compulsory question of each section, covering the entire syllabus of the concerned section shall have ten objective type of questions, each of two marks (10x2=20). In addition, there shall be four optional questions in each section, of which candidates will be required to answer only two questions, each of 40 marks. The optional questions shall be answered in the traditional, descriptive form; requiring long answers.
Section (A) - Indian Constitution and Polity
(i) Preamble of the Indian Constitution (Secular, Democratic and Socialist)-Philosophy behind it.
(ii) Salient features of the Indian Constitution; Concept of Public Interest Litigation; Basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
(iii) Fundamental Rights & Duties.
(iv) Directive Principles of the State Policy.
(v) Union Government : (a) Union Executive : Powers and functions of President, Vice President, Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers; Functioning under a Coalition Government.
(b) Union Legislature : Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha : Organization and Functions; Law making process; Parliamentary Committees; Parliament's control over Executive;
Privileges and immunities of Parliament and its Members.
(c) Union Judiciary : The Supreme Court: Its role and powers; Principles of Natural Justice & Rule of Law; Judicial Review and Judicial Activism.
(vi) State Government: (a) State Executive : Powers and functions of Governor, Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
(b) State Legislature : Organization, Powers and functions, with special reference to Jharkhand.
(c) State Judiciary: High Court: Organization, Powers and functions ; Subordinate Judiciary.
(d) The Panchayats and the Municipalities : Constitution, powers, functions and responsibilities with special reference to 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments.
(vii) Centre-State Relationship: Administrative, Legislative and Financial.
(viii) Provisions relating to Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribal Areas.
(ix) Special provisions relating to reservation of seats for S.C. and S.T. in Legislature, Services etc.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 64(x) Emergency Provisions of the Constitution.
(xi) Comptroller & Auditor-General of India (CAG).
(xii) Election Commission of India.
(xiii) Political Parties and Pressure Groups.
Section (B) - Public Administration & Good Governance
(xiv) Public Administration : Introduction, meaning, scope and significance.
(xv) Public and Private Administration.
(xvi) Union Administration : Central Secretariat, Cabinet Secretariat, Prime Minister's Office, Planning Commission, Finance Commission.
(xvii) State Administration : State Secretariat, Chief Secretary, Chief Minister's Office.
(xvii) District Administration : Origin and development of the office of the District Magistrate and Collector; Changing Role of the District Collector; Impact of the separation of Judiciary on District Administration.
(xix) Personnel Administration : Recruitment of Civil Services : Union Public Service Commission and the State Public Service Commission; Training of Civil Servants;
Leadership and its qualities; Employee's morale and productivity.
(xx) Delegation, Centralization and de-centralization of authority.
(xxi) Bureaucracy: Origin; its merits and demerits; Role of Bureaucracy in Policy formulation and its implementation. Nexus between Bureaucracy and Political Executive; Generalist versus Specialist.
(xxii) Development Administration.
(xxiii) Disaster Management : Causes, Meaning and Classification of Disaster; Disaster Mitigation :
Immediate and long-term measures.
(xxiv) Good Governance : Meaning and concept of Good and Responsive Governance; Main features of Good Governance : Accountability, Transparency, Honesty and Quick Delivery;
Role of Civil Society and Peoples Participation in Good Governance. Grievance Redressal Mechanism : Lokpal, Lokayukta, Central Vigilance Commissioner: Citizens Charter : Object, Machinery and Measures provided in) (i) Right to Service Act; (ii) Right to Information Act; (iii) Right to Education Act; (iv) The Consumer Protection Act: (v) Domestic Violence Against Women (Prevention) Act: (vi) Old Age Act.
(xxv) Human Rights : Concept and Meaning: Universal Declaration of Human Rights; National Human Rights Commission; State Human Rights Commission; Human Rights and Socialissues : Human Rights and Terrorism.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 65PAPER-V
INDIAN ECONOMY, GLOBALIZATION AND SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
Total Marks : 200
The question paper on Indian Economy, Globalization and Sustainable Development shall consist of five sections Section - I shall be compulsory. This section shall contain twenty objective questions each of two marks (20x2=40 marks). The twenty objective questions of this section shall be drawn from the entire syllabus of the paper, of which 6 questions will be drawn from Group A, 6 from Group B,4 from Group C and 4 from Group D of the syllabus. Section II, III, IV & V of the question paper shall have two optional questions each; drawn respectively from Groups A, B, C & D of the syllabus, of which the candidates will be required to answer one question from each group, each question carrying 40 marks. Thus, altogether the candidates will be required to answer one objective type compulsory question, carrying 40 marks, and 4 optional questions, each carrying 40 marks. The optional questions shall be answered in the traditional, descriptive form; requiring long answers.
Group (A) - Basic Features of Indian Economy
(i)
National Income : Elementary concepts of national income and methods of its calculation e.g. GDP, GNP, NDP, NNP, GSDP, NSDP, DDP at constant and current prices, at factor cost etc. (ii) Inflation : Concept, control of Inflation : monetary, fiscal and direct measures.
(iii) Demographic features: Work force composition, demographic dividend with special reference to census of 2011; National Population Policy.
(iv) Agriculture and Rural Economy: Importance of agriculture in national economy: agricultural growth in India-production & productivity: causes of low productivity and measures taken by government to improve agricultural production; Green Revolution, and Rainbow revolution; WTO and agriculture, Marketing and pricing of agricultural inputs and outputs.
(v) Industrial Economy: Policy Initiative & charges.
(vi) Public Finance : Nature, importance and scope of public finance; Public Revenue- Principles and types of taxation; direct, indirect, progressive and proportional, concept of VAT.
(vii) Public Expenditure : Theories of public expenditure: causes of growth of public expenditure and its impact on economy; internal and external borrowings.
(viii) Budget: Principles of budgeting; types of budgeting – Performance based, Zero-based; FRMD.
(ix) Fiscal Policy : Concept and role of fiscal policy in achieving employment, stability and economic development.
(x) Centre-State fiscal relationship, role of Finance Commission; Financial aspects of 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments.
(xi) Structure of Indian monetary and banking system in India.
(A) Composition and direction of India's trade; Balance of payment problem.
Group (B) - Sustainable Development, Economic Issues and Indian Development Strategy
(xii) Meaning and Measurement of Economic Development: Characteristics of Under Development.
(xiii) Indicators of development: HDI, GDI, GEM; India's HDI progress.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 66(xiv) Role of Foreign capital & technology in growth of economy.
(xv) Sustainable development : concept and indicators of sustainable development; economic, social and environmental sustainability; concept of Green GDP; Strategy and policy for sustainable development in India.
(xvi) Meaning of inclusive growth and development policy and strategy during 11th and 12th Five Year Plans.
(xvii) Development status and issues pertaining to socially and economically marginalised sections, like STs, SCs, religious minorities, backward castes and women; schemes launched for their development by Central/State Governments, including TSP, SCSP and minorities.
(xviii) Poverty and Un-employment : Measurements and trends; identification of BPL families, HPI, Multi Dimensional Indian poverty index.
(xix) Food and Nutritional Security: Trends in Food production and consumption in India; Problem of Food Security : Problems and issues of storage, procurement, distribution, import and export: Government policies, schemes and programmes such as, PDS, ICDS and Mid-day Meal etc.
(xx) Governmental policies for food and nutritional security. (xxi) Planning Strategy : Objectives and strategy of Indian Five Year Plans: Functions and Role of NDC, Planning Commission.
(xxii) Decentralized Planning : Meaning and importance; PRIS and decentralised planning: major initiatives in India.
Group (C) - Economic Reforms, Nature and Impact on Indian Economy
(xxiii) New economic Reforms-Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization, rationale and need for reforms, International financial institutions IMF, World Bank, WTO, their role and impact on Indian economy.
(xxiv) Financial and Banking sector reforms, economic reforms and rural banking impact on rural credit : sources and problems of rural credit, institutional credit, SHG, micro finance, NABARD, RRBs, Scheduled Commercial Banks, rural co-operatives, financial inclusion.
(xxv) Globalization of Indian economy: its positive and negative impacts on different sectors, issues of FDI and FII in India.
(xxvi) Agricultural sector reforms and its impact on growth; issues of subsidies and public investment on agriculture, reforms and agrarian crisis.
(xxvii) Industrial development and Economic reforms in India : Major changes in Industrial policy, its impact on Industrial growth and problems of SMEs; role of Public Sector enterprises in India's Industrialization in post reforms period; Disinvestinent and Privatisation of Public Enterprises.
Group (D) - Economy of Jharkhand: Features, Issues, Challenges and Strategies
(xxviii) Economic growth and structure of Jharkhand's economy, sectoral composition, growth in SDP and per capita NSDP in last decade, Agricultural and Industrial growth in Jharkhand.
(xxix) Demographic features of Jharkhand : population growth, sex ratio, density, literacy, composition of work force, rural-urban composition etc. with special reference to Census of 2001 and 2011, inter district variations.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 67(xxx) Status of poverty, unemployment, food security, malnutrition, education and health indicators in Jharkhand, major initiatives, Issues of agricultural and rural development, major programs and schemes; poverty alleviation programs; PURA, Bharat Nirman, MGNREGA, PMGSY, SGSY, IAY, NRLM etc., Food security schemes.
(xxxi) Land, forest and environmental issues in Jharkhand : land reforms and agrarian relations, tribal land allenation, development induced displacement of people; its impacts and policy initiatives. Forest issues and implementation of FRA. Environmental degradation and State policy to deal with to it.
(xxxii) Five year plans in Jharkhand strategy and achievement in X and XIth plan, TSP and SCSP, Public finance trends in Jharkhand, Industrial policy in Jharkhand and industrial development.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 68PAPER-VI
GENERAL SCIENCE, ENVIRONMENT & TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT
Total Marks : 200 The question paper of General Science, Environment & Technology Development shall have six sections. Section – I, shall have 20 objective type of questions, each of 2 marks (20 × 2 = 40 marks). Questions for this section will be drawn at the rate of four questions from each of the five Groups of the syllabus. Sections II, III, IV, V and VI of the question paper shall have two optional questions each, drawn respectively from Groups A, B, C, D and E of the syllabus; of which candidates will be required to answer only one question from each group, each question carrying 32 marks. Optional questions shall be answered in the traditional manner, requiring descriptive answers, not exceeding 500 to 600 words. Thus, altogether candidates will be required to answer one objective type compulsory question (40 marks) and five descriptive type optional questions (5 × 32 = 160 marks).
Group (A) - Physical Science
(I) System of Units : MKS, CGS and SI.
(II) Definition of speed, velocity, gravity, mass, weight, force, impact, work, power and energy.
(III) Solar system, relative position of Earth with respect to Sun and other planets, movement of earth and moon in solar system, lunar and solar eclipses.
(IV) Concept and Nature of sound, Wave length and frequency, Infrasonic and Ultrasonic sounds.
Sources of Infrasonic sound in nature, Ultrasonic sound characteristics and some applications.
Group (B) - Life Science
(i) The living world, Cell-Structure and its functions, Diversity of organism.
(ii) Bio molecules - structure and function of carbohydrates, proteins and fats, Vitamins and deficiency diseases, Enzymes, Hormones - Plant hormones and growth regulation, Animal hormones and their functions.
(iii) Cell reproduction - Cell cycle, Mitosis and Melosis.
(iv) Medallion Inheritance - Monohybrid and Dihybrid cross, Sex linked Inheritance, Sex Determination, DNA Structure & Function, DNA Replication, Protein Synthesis, Gene Regulation, Molecular basis of differentiation.
(v) Theories of Evolution of Life on earth, including Human Evolution.
Group (C) - Agriculture Science
(i) Different agro-climatic zones of Jharkhand, rain fall pattern and known abiotic stresses in each zone.
(ii) Rain fed agriculture: Conventional food and horticultural crops of the state, Need for diversification of crops for food as well as nutritional security in the wake of climate change;
Rain water harvesting and its role in improving agriculture output in Jharkhand; Fish farming.
Jharkhand Gazette (Extraordinary), Friday, 22th January, 2021 69(iii) Soil fertility status of Jharkhand. Application of Vermi compost and Farm Yard Manure (FYM) for improving soil health. Nitrogen fixing bacteria; their applications and Concept of Organic farming.
(iv) Concept of Agro-forestry. Waste lands and means to reclaim them.
(v) Government schemes for the benefit of the farmers of the state.
Group (D) - Environmental Science
Concept of Ecosystem, Structure and Function of Ecosystem, Natural resources-Renewable and Non renewable resources, Environmental Conservation in-situ and ex-situ conservation, Pollution- Air, Water, Sound and Soil, Solid Waste Management; Biodiversity: concept, hotspots, threats to biodiversity: Global Environmental Issues: Climate change, Global warming, Ozone layer depletion, Acid rain, Desertification, Environmental Laws-The Environment (Protection) Act, The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, Forest Conservation Act.
Group (E) - Science & Technology Development
National Policy on Science and Technology: Energy demand of the country: Conventional and Non-conventional sources of energy: Nuclear Energy: its merits and demerits: Trends in Nuclear Policy, NPT and CTBT. Space Technology-Indian space programmes, Application of Satellites for different purposes; Indian missile programme; Remote sensing : GIS and its application in weather forecasting disaster warning mapping of water, soil, and mineral Resources etc; Use of Biotechnology in agriculture, animal breeding, pharmaceuticals, food technology, and environmental conservation:
Possible adverse effects of biotechnological interventions; Information technology: Computers and its application in data processing, data programmes, Cybercrime and cyber laws.
National Health Policy: national programmes for prevention and control of Malaria, Leprosy, T.B., Cancer, Aids, Blindness etc.
Note :- The Government may facilitate the Commission with specific instructions for setting up
the question papers from time to time. Approval has been granted on the proposal through Departmental Memorandum Memo No. 11/Lo.Se.Aa-01-03/2020-95 dated 06.01.2021 on State Cabinet's Meeting dated 06.01.2021 vide Item no. 2.
By the order of the Governor of Jharkhand
Ajoy Kumar Singh,
Principal Secretary to the Government.