RNI No. GOAENG/2002/6410 Reg. No. G-2/RNP/GOA/32/2018-20
Panaji, 5th March, 2020 (Phalguna 15, 1941) SERIES I No. 49 PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
NOTE
There is an Extraordinary issue to the Official Gazette, Series I No. 48 dated 27-02-2020, namely, Extraordinary dated 29-02-2020 from pages 1593 to1594, Notification No. 38/1/2017-Fin(R&C)(01/2020-Rate) regarding amendment of Government Notification dated 30th June, 2017 from Department of Finance (Revenue & Control Division).
INDEX
Department Notification
Subject Pages
2. Environment Not.- 1/24/2010/STE-DIR Central Rules.
1595 Dir. & Jt. Secretary
3. Finance Not.- 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) Adoption of Rule 10 of CCS Rules, 2016 by the 1599 Under Secretary
State Government.
3. Home Not.- 19/03/2020-HD(G) The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019. 1600 Under Secretary
4. Law & Judiciary Not.- 10/4/2019-LA-352 The Repealing and Amending Act, 2019. 1606 Under Secretary
GOVERNMENT OF GOA
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change __
Department of Environment __
Notification
Notification
New Delhi, the 14th September, 2016 1/24/2010/STE-DIR
The following Notification published in the Gazette of India is hereby published for the general information of public:—
(1) S.O. 2944(E) dated 14-09-2016;
(2) G.S.R. 568(E) dated 18-06-2018;
By order and in the name of Governor of
Goa.
Johnson B. Fernandes, Director & Joint
Secretary (Environment).
S.O. 2944(E).— In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (1) and clause (v) of sub-section (2) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of 1986) read with sub-rule (4) of rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, the Central Government, after having dispensed with the requirement of notice under clause (a) of sub-rule (3) of rule 5 of the said rule, in public interest, hereby makes the following further amendments in the notification of the Government of India, in the erstwhile Ministry of Environment and Forests number Porvorim, 27th February 2020.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020S.O.1533(E), dated the 14th September, 2006 namely:—
In the said notification, for paragraph, 9 relating to Validity to Environment Clearance (EC), the following paragraph shall be substituted, namely:—
"9. Validity of Environmental Clearance (EC):— (i) The "Validity of Environmental Clearance" is meant the period from which a prior environmental clearance is granted by the regulatory authority, or may be presumed by the applicant to have been granted under sub-paragraph (iii) of paragraph 8, to the start of production operations by the project or activity, or completion of all construction operations in case of construction projects (item 8 of the Schedule), to which the application for prior environmental clearance refers. The prior environmental clearance granted for a project or activity shall be valid for a period of ten years in the case of River Valley projects [item 1(c) of the Schedule], project life as estimated by the Expert Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert Appraisal Committee or District Level Expert Appraisal Committee subject to a maximum of thir ty years for mining projects and seven years in the case of all other projects and activities.
(ii) In the case of Area Development projects and Townships [item 8(b)], the validity period of seven years shall be limited only to such activities as may be the responsibility of the applicant as a developer:
Provided that this period of validity with respect to sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) above may be extended by the regulator y authority concerned by a maximum period of three years if an application is made to the regulatory authority by the applicant within the validity period, together with an updated Form I, and Supplementary Form IA, for Construction projects or activities (item 8 of the Schedule):
Provided further that the regulatory authority may also consult the Expert Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert Appraisal Committee or District Level Expert Appraisal Committee, as the case may be, for grant of such extension.
(iii) Where the application for extension under sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) above has been filed—
(a) within thirty days after the validity period of Environmental Clearance, such cases shall be referred to concerned Expert Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert Appraisal Committee or District Level Exper t Appraisal Committee and based on their recommendations, the delay shall be condoned at the level of the Joint Secretary in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change or Member Secretary, State Level Expert Appraisal Committee or Member Secretary, District Level Expert Appraisal Committee, as the case may be;
(b) more than thirty days after the validity period of Environmental Clearance but less than ninety days after such validity period, then, based on the recommendations of the Exper t Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert Appraisal Committee or District Level Expert Appraisal Committee, the delay shall be condoned with the approval of the Minister in charge of Environment, Forest and Climate Change or Chairman, as the case may be:
Provided that no condonation for delay shall be granted for any application for extension filed beyond ninety days after the validity period of Environmental Clearance.".
[F. No. 22-27/2015-IA-III]
MANOJ KUMAR SINGH, Jt Secy.
Note: The principal rules were published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3, OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020 Sub-section (ii) vide notification number S.O. 1533
| Sl. No. | Industry | Parameters | Standards | |
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | |
| Ambient Air Quality Standards with respect to Noise in Airport Noise Zone | ||||
| "112 | Airports | Type of Airports | Limits in dB (A) Leq* | |
| Day Time | Night Time | |||
| Busy Airports | 70 | 65 | ||
| All other Airports excluding proposed airports | 65 | 60 |
(E), dated the 14th September, 2006 and amended vide S.O. 1737(E) dated the 11th October, 2007, S.O. 3067 (E) dated the 1st December, 2009, S.O. 695 (E) dated the 4th April, 2011, S.O. 2896 (E) dated the 13th December, 2012 , S.O.674(E) dated the 13th March, 2013, S.O. 2204 (E) dated the 19th July, 2013,
S.O. 2555 (E) dated the 21st August, 2013, S.O.2559(E) dated the 22nd August, 2013, S.O. 2731 (E) dated the 9th September, 2013, S.O. 562(E) dated the 26th February, 2014, S.O.637(E) dated the 28th February, 2014, S.O. 1599(E) dated the 25th June, 2014, S.O. 2601 (E) dated 7th October, 2014, S.O. 2600 (E) dated 9th October, 2014, S.O. 3252(E) dated 22nd December, 2014, S.O. 382 (E) dated 3rd February, 2015, S.O. 811(E) dated 23rd March, 2015, S.O. 996 (E) dated 10th April, 2015, S.O. 1142 (E) dated 17th April, 2015, S.O. 1141 (E) dated 29th April, 2015, S.O. 1834 (E) dated the 6th July, 2015,
S.O. 2571 (E) dated the 31st August, 2015, S.O. 2572 (E) dated the 14th September, 2015, S.O. 141 (E)
dated the 15th January, 2016 and S.O. 648 (E) dated
the 3rd March, 2016.
_______
Notification
New Delhi, the 18th June, 2018
G.S.R. 568(E).— In exercise of the powers conferred by sections 6 and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of 1986), the Central Government hereby makes the following rules further to amend the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, namely:
1. (1) These rules may be called the Environment (Protection) Amendment Rules, 2018.
(2) They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.
2. In the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, in Schedule–I, after serial number 111 and the entries relating thereto, the following serial number and the entries shall be inserted, namely:—
Definitions: (a) *dB(A) Leq denotes the time weighted average of the level of sound in decibels on scale A which is relatable to human hearing. A day time from 6.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m. and night time from 10.00 p.m. to 6.00 a.m. are considered for time weighted average.
(b) "A", in dB(A) Leq, denotes the frequency weighting in the measurement of noise and corresponds to frequency response characteristics of the human ear (The range of human hearing is 20 Hz to 20 kHz).
(c) A "decibel" is a unit in which noise is
measured.
(d) Leq: It is energy mean of the noise level
over a specified period.
(e) Busy Airport - For the purpose of noise management at airports, a busy airport shall be defined as "a civil airport which has more than 50,000 aircraft movements per year (a movement being a take-off or a landing)" excluding those purely for training purposes on light aircraft.
(f) Take-off – A phase of flight from the application of takeoff power to an altitude of final take-off segment.
(g) Landing – A phase of flight from the beginning of the landing flare until aircraft exits the landing runway comes to a stop on the runway, or when power is applied for takeoff in the case of a touch-and-go landing.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020(h) Lmax is unit for aircraft maximum noise level in units dB(A) which is maximum or peak noise value for aircraf ts at the monitoring location in accordance with the noise standards notified by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation for respective airports.
(i) Other Airports – an airport having more than 15000 but less than 50000 aircraf t movement annually.
(j) Proposed Airports – airport that is not
functional yet and is under development.
Note: (i) Day time shall mean from 6.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m and night time shall mean from 10.00 p.m. to 6.00 a.m.
(ii) The above specified limits shall have a
tolerance limit of 10dB (A) Leq.
(iii) The specified limit excludes defense aircraft and aircraft landing and take-off noise from all runways and aircraft engine/ground run-ups, helipad locations earmarked by Airport Operator for this purpose.
(iv) However, the limit for aircraft noise as Lmax will be notified by the airport operator with approval of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation at the aircraft noise monitoring locations installed by the airports as mentioned in paragraph 1 of this notification.
(v) The noise limits specified in above shall replace and supersede the ambient air quality in respect of noise limits of the following existing zones:
(a) Silence;
(b) Residential; and
(c) Commercial areas;
(vi) As specified in the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 in the areas falling directly under Airport Noise Zone.
(vii) The noise standards within the overall boundary of airports shall be applicable as Industrial Areas i.e. day time 75 dB (A) Leq and night time 70 db (A) Leq as per the Noise (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 and shall be measured at different points of airport boundary and then averaged.
(viii) These standards will not be applicable to a civil airport which has less than 15,000 aircraft movement annually.
1 (1) For Airports excluding newly proposed airports: In addition to dB(A) Leq applicable in the 'airport noise zones' specified above, Lmax value in dB(A) shall be published by the airport operator with approval of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation only for airports having more than 50,000 annual traffic movements. These Lmax values shall be complied by airlines and to be monitored and communicated by Airport Operator to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. These Lmax value shall be reviewed as and when there is a requirement in future.
(2) For Proposed Airports (yet to be operationalized): (i) For any upcoming/New Airports, noise modeling shall be conducted by the airport operators and results should be submitted to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change while seeking Environment Clearance under the Environment Impact Assessment Notification, 2006.
(ii) The airport operators should also develop airport noise zone as specified in paragraph 4 and share the same with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and concerned State Development Authority for necessary land use planning around airport.
(iii) The concerned State/Union Territory Development Authorities should not allow any new residential, institutions & commercial facilities and other noise sensitive area falling in the airport noise zone area without any noise reduction measure.
2. Compliance of noise levels applicable to Airport Noise Zone as specified above shall lie with the airport operator and overseen by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation.
3. Airport operators shall prepare Noise Management Plan for compliance of the Airport Noise Standards.
4. Airport Noise Zones:
(1) The Airport Noise Zone area for each Airport shall be defined as Noise Contour for day and night period by the respective Airport Operator on the basis of existing GSR 751 (E), issued by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (Height Restrictions for Safeguarding of Aircraft Operations) Rules, 2015 published on 30th September, 2015 as amended from time to time on Height Restriction for Safeguarding of Aircraft Operation considering all approach and departure funnels and Instrument Flight Procedures (i.e. Instrument Approach OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020 Procedures, Standard Instrument Departure & Standard Terminal Arrival Route) in consultation with airports Air Navigation Service Provider as per the Master Plan of the Airport. The same shall be shall be approved by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation and displayed on the website of respective Airport Operators. This activity shall be completed within two years from the date of issuance of the final notification.
(2) State/Union Territory Development Authorities should take into consideration of Airport Operations requirements in the airport noise zone area for the land use planning around the airport.
5. Airport Noise Mapping: Noise mapping in for all airports should be carried out as per the requirements specified in the Director General Civil Aviation's requirements by the airport operators considering future aircraft movement and traffic projections of the airport as per the Master Plan of the Airport. This information to be displayed at a prominent places at Airports as well as in the website of respective Airport Operator and State/ /Union Territory Development Authority.
6. Protocol and Measurements Procedure: Monitoring protocol and measurements procedure for airport noise zone displayed on the website of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and the Climate Change and the Central Pollution Control Board shall be followed.
7. Development Authorities/Regional Planning Department shall specify provisions for inclusion of sound resistance in new buildings, facilities and projects of residential, institutional, hospital and commercial facilities in the design, construction and materials selections for improving indoor environment under existing building codes and bye laws for any building constructions coming under airport noise zones.
8. All the Airport, Airline and Authority shall comply with the requirements specified in the notification within two years from the date of notification.".
[F.No. Q-15017/31/2015-CPW]
Dr. A. SENTHIL VEL, Scientist 'G'
Note : The principal rules were published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3, Sub-section (i), vide number S.O. 844 (E), dated the 19th November, 1986 and last amended vide notification G.S.R. 263(E), dated the 22nd March, 2018.
Department of Finance
Revenue & Control Division __
Order
8/1/2016-Fin(R&C)
Read: 1. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C)/(A)
dated 31-11-2016
2. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
25-7-2017
3. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
10-08-2017
4. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
04-09-2017
5. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
29-09-2017
6. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
25-10-2017
7. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
14-06-2018
8. Order No. 8/1/2016-Fin(R&C) dated
28-11-2018.
In pursuance to the order dated 28-11-2018
read above at Sr. 8, the OM No. 4-21/2017-
-IC/E.IIIA dated 29-10-2019 issued by
Government of India, Ministry of Finance,
Department of Expenditure, New Delhi,
regarding drawal of next increment under
Rule 10 of Central Service (Revised Pay)
Rules, 2016, has been adopted by the State
Government for its implementation.
The OM, referred above is available on the website of the Directorate of Accounts, www.accountsgoa.gov.in.
By order and in the name of Governor of
Goa.
Pranab G. Bhat, Under Secretary, Finance
(R&C).
Porvorim, 22nd February, 2020.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020Department of Home
Home—General Division __
Notification
19/03/2020-HD(G)
Read: 1) Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 published in Extraordinary Gazette of India, Par t II, section I dated 13-12-2019.
2) Notification dated 12-02-2020 published in Gazette of India, Extraordinary No. 665, Par t II, section 3, sub-section (ii).
The following Act and Notification, read in preamble received from the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Law & Justice, New Delhi is hereby published for general information of the public.
Nilesh K. Daigodkar, Under Secretar y
(Home).
Porvorim, 28th February, 2020.
_________
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 13th December, 2019
Agrahayana 22, 1941 (Saka)
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the Preseident on the 13th December, 2019 and is hereby published for general information:—
_________
The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
No. 48 of 2019 [13-12-2019]
AN
ACT
further to amend the Arms Act, 1959.
Be it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. Short title and commencement.— (1) This Act may be called the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.
54 of 1959.
2. Amendment of section 2.— In the Arms Act, 1959 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Act), in section 2, af ter clause (e), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
'(ea) "licence" means a licence issued in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules made thereunder and includes a licence issued in the electronic form;'.
3. Amendment of section 3.— In section 3
of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—
(i) for the words "three firearms", the words "two firearm" shall be substituted;
(ii) for the proviso, the following provisos
shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided that a person who has in his possession more firearms than two at the commencement of the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019, may retain with him any two of such firearms and shall deposit, within one year from such commencement, the remaining firearm with the officer in charge of the nearest police station or, subject to the conditions prescribed for the purposes of sub-section (1) of section 21, with a licensed dealer or, where such person is a member of the armed forces of the Union, in a unit armoury referred to in that sub-section after which it shall be delicensed within ninety days from the date of expiry of aforesaid one year:
Provided further that while granting arms licence on inheritance or heirloom basis, the limit of two firearms shall not be exceeded.".
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 20204. Amendment of section 5.— In section 5 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), in clause (a), for the word "manufacture,", the words "manufacture, obtain, procure," shall be substituted.
5. Amendment of section 6.— In section 6 of the principal Act, after the words "convert an imitation firearm into a firearm", the words and figures "or convert from any category of firearms mentioned in the Arms Rules, 2016 into any other category of firearms" shall be inserted.
6. Amendment of section 8.— In section 8 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), for the word "firearm", the words "firearm or ammunition" shall be substituted.
7. Amendment of section 13.— In section 13 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), in clause (a), in sub-clause (ii), for the words and figures "point 22 bore rifle or an air rifle", the word "firearm" shall be substituted.
8. Amendment of section 15.— In section 15 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1),—
(a) for the words "period of three years", the words "period of five years" shall be substituted;
(b) after the proviso, the following
proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided fur ther that the licence granted under section 3 shall be subject to the conditions specified in sub-clauses (ii) and (iii) of clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 9 and the licensee shall produce the licence along with the firearm or ammunition and connected document before the licensing authority after every five years from the date on which it is granted or renewed.".
9. Amendment of section 25.— In section
25 of the principal Act,—
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(a) in clause (a), for the word "manufactures,", the words "manufactures, obtains, procures," shall be substituted;
(b) in clause (b), after the words "convert an imitation firearm into a firearm", the words and figures "or convert from any category of firearms mentioned in the Arms Rules, 2016 into any other category of firearms" shall be inserted;
(c) in the long line, for the words "three years but which may extend to seven years", the words "seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life" shall be substituted;
(ii) in sub-section (1A),—
(a) for the words "five years but which may extend to ten years", the words "seven years but which may extend to fourteen years" shall be substituted;
(b) the following proviso shall be
inserted, namely:—
"Provided that the Court may, for any adequate and special reasons to be recorded in the judgment, impose a sentence of imprisonment for a term of less than seven years.";
(iii) after sub-section (1A), the following
sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
"(1AB) Whoever, by using force, takes the firearm from the police or armed forces shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.";
(iv) in sub-section (1AA), for the words "seven years", the words "ten years" shall be substituted;
(v) in sub-section (1B),—
(a) in the long line, for the words "one year but which may extend to three years", the words "two years but which may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine" shall be substituted;
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020(b) in the proviso, for the words "one year", the words "two years" shall be substituted;
(vi) after sub-section (5), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
'(6) If any member of an organised crime syndicate or any person on its behalf has at any time has in his possession or carries any arms or ammunition in contravention of any provision of Chapter II shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
(7) Whoever on behalf of a member of an organised crime syndicate or a person on its behalf,—
(i) manufactures, obtains, procures, sells, transfers, converts, repairs, tests or proves, or exposes or offers for sale or transfer, conversion, repair, test or proof, any arms or ammunition in contravention of section 5; or
(ii) shortens the barrel of a firearm or converts an imitation firearm into a firearm or converts from any category of firearms mentioned in the Arms Rules, 2016 into any other categor y of firearms in contravention of section 6; or
(iii) brings into, or takes out of India, any arms or ammunition of any class or description in contravention of section 11,
shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of sub-
sections (6) and (7),—
(a) "organised crime" means any continuing unlawful activity by any person, singly or collectively, either as a member of an organised crime syndicate or on behalf of such syndicate, by use of violence or threat of violence or intimidation or coercion, or other unlawful means, with the objective of gaining pecuniary benefits, or gaining undue economic or other advantage for himself or any person;
(b) "organised crime syndicate" means a group of two or more persons who, acting either singly or collectively, as a syndicate or gang indulge in activities of organised crime.
(8) Whoever involves in or aids in the illicit trafficking of firearms and ammunition in contravention of sections 3, 5, 6, 7 and 11 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub- section, "illicit trafficking" means the import, export, acquisition, sale, delivery, movement or transfer of firearms and ammunition into, from or within the territory of India, if the firearms and ammunition are not marked in accordance with the provisions of this Act or are being trafficked in contravention of the provisions of this Act including smuggled firearms of foreign make or prohibited arms and prohibited ammunition.
(9) Whoever uses firearm in a rash or negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with an imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub- section, "celebratory gunfire" means the practice of using firearm in public gatherings, religious places, marriage parties or other functions to fire ammunition.'.
10. Amendment of section 27.— In section 27 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), for the words "shall be punishable with death", the words "shall be punishable with OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020 imprisonment for life, or death and shall also be liable to fine" shall be substituted.
11. Amendment of section 44.— In section 44 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), in clause (f),—
(a) for the words "firearm shall be stamped or otherwise shown thereon", the words "firearm or ammunition shall be stamped or otherwise shown thereon for the purposes of tracing" shall be substituted;
(b) the following Explanation shall be
inserted, namely:—
'Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, "tracing" means the systematic tracking of firearms and ammunition from manufacturer to purchaser for the purpose of detecting, investigating and analysing illicit manufacturing and illicit trafficking;'.
DR . G. NARAYANA RAJU, Secretary to the Govt. of India.
________
MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS ___
Notification
New Delhi, the 12th February, 2020
S.O. 665(E).— Whereas the Central Government is of the opinion that it is necessary and expedient in public interest to exempt certain classes of persons from the operation of some of the provisions of the Arms Act, 1959 (54 of 1959). Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by section 41 of the Arms Act, 1959 (54 of 1959) and in supersession of the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Home Affairs vide number S.O. 1988(E), dated the 4th August, 2014, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before such supersession, the Central Government hereby exempts the classes of the persons specified in column (2) of the Schedule hereto annexed, in respect of the arms of the category of description specified in the corresponding entry in column (3) thereof, when carried or possessed for their own personal use for the purpose of training or use in competitions, from the operations of the provisions of sub- section (2) of section 3 and clause (a) (i) of sub-section (1) of section 9 of the said Act and subject to such conditions as are specified in the corresponding entries in column (4) of the said Schedule, namely:—
2. Definitions.— For the purposes of this
notification—
(a) "International Championship" means the Asian Games, the Asian Shooting Championship, the Asian Women or Asian Junior Shooting Championship, the Commonwealth Games, the Commonwealth Shooting Championships, the Olympic Games, the World Junior or Senior Shooting Championships and the World Cups in Senior as well Junior events;
(b) "International Medalist" means a person who has won an individual or team medal in an International Championship;
(c) "Renowned Shooter" means a person who has participated in a National Shooting Championship in an Open Men's Event or Open Women's Event or Open Civilian's Event whether through Qualif ying Tournament or Wild Card Entry conducted in accordance with the rules of International Shooting Union and has attained the Minimum Qualifying Score specified by the National Rifle Association;
(d) "Junior Target Shooter" means a person who has completed the age of twelve years but is below the age of twenty one years and has taken part in at least one State Championship (held once a year) or in the Zonal Championship or National Level Shooting Competition recognised by National Rifle Association and/or by respective State Rifle Association;
(e) "Aspiring Shooter" means a person who has taken part in at least one State Championship (held once a year) or in the OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020 Zonal Championship or National Level Shooting Competition recognised by National Rifle Association and/or by respective State Rifle Association and attained the Minimum Qualifying Score specified by the National Rifle Association of India.
3. Certifying bodies.— (a) the certifying body for the persons specified at serial number (1) of the Schedule shall be the Government of India in the Department of Sports, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The certificate shall state that the award was conferred for excellence as a shooter;
(b) the certifying body for the persons specified at serial number (2) of the Schedule shall be the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI). The certificate shall state that the Medal has been won by the International Medalists in the International Championships and in case of Renowned Shooters the Merit Certificate shall mention the Qualifying Score along with the Minimum Qualifying Score (MQS) for the event as specified by NRAI;
(c) the certifying bodies for the persons specified at serial numbers 3 and 4 of the Schedule shall be the National Rifle Association of India or the approved or affiliated State Rifle Association(s) of NRAI. The Certificate issued shall mention the Qualifying Score along with the Minimum Qualifying Score for the event as specified by NRAI or the State Rifle Association;
(d) the certifying body for the entities mentioned at serial number 5 of the Schedule shall be as under:—
| Entity | Certifying Body |
| Shooting Clubs/District Rifle Associations affiliated with State Rifle Associations or National Rifle Association of India | State Rifle Association or National Rifle Association of India |
| State Rifle Association | National Rifle Association |
| National Rifle Association | Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports |
| , , Shooting Ranges | Sports Authority of India/Sports Authority of the State Government/National Rifle Association of India. |
4. Other conditions of exemption.— The exemption hereby granted under this notification shall further be subject to the following conditions, namely:—
(a) The Junior Target Shooter claiming exemption under the notification has completed the age of twelve years;
(b) Area Validity of the licenses issued to the persons mentioned at serial numbers 1 to 4 of the Schedule will be for All India and the issuing licensing authority shall be authorised to grant the same without referring it to the Central or the State Government for approval;
(c) For exemptees at serial number 1 and serial number 2 of the Schedule, a weapon with spare or conversion barrels is to be treated as one weapon only at the time of endorsement on the licence and full details of the said weapon and such spare or conversion barrel shall be endorsed on the respective Arms Licence.
5. Publication of details of eligible exemptees.— The database in respect of all eligible exemptees shall be put on the website of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and/or that of the National Rifle Association of India for the purpose of cross verification by any licensing authority.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020 (cid:1423)(cid:1438)(cid:1401) (cid:178)(cid:1400)(cid:7003)(cid:3)(cid:1411) (cid:1423)(cid:1438)(cid:1426)(cid:1414)(cid:3)(cid:1399)(cid:1438)(cid:3)(cid:1426)(cid:1438)(cid:1406)(cid:1420)(cid:7074)(cid:3)(cid:29)(cid:3)(cid:1383)(cid:1434)(cid:1438)(cid:1417)(cid:1438)(cid:1426)(cid:1413)SCHEDULE
Exemptions related to possession of Arms
| Sr. No. | Persons or class of persons | Categories/descriptions of arms | Conditions |
| (1) | (2) | (3) | (4) |
| 1. | Arjuna Awardee | General exemption on the number of arms to be possessed provided that the Arjuna Award is conferred in shooting. | The person must hold a certificate issued by the appropriate certifying body referred to in paragraph 3 of this notification. |
| 2. | International Medalist / Renowned Shooter | (i) Rifles in caliber 22 Long Rifle (also known as 22 LR); (ii) Center fire Rifles with calibers up to mm 8 including all calibers lower than 8mm; (iii) Pistols/Revolvers of caliber up to and including 9 mm but excluding 9 mm parabellum(9X19 mm); (iv) Shotguns of caliber up to 12 bore/guage including all calibers lower than 12 bore/gauge. | total number of weapons (i) The exempted shall not exceed twelve in addition to the number of weapons he is entitled to possess as a normal citizen as per the provisions of the Act, subject to an overall ceiling of fourteen weapons; (ii) The person must hold a certificate issued by the appropriate certifying body referred to in paragraph 3 of this notification. N ote: if a shooter is renowned in one (a) event only, the maximum number of weapons he can possess shall be ten (i.e. eight in the exempted category plus two weapons which he can possess as a normal citizen under sub-section 2 of section 3 of the Act); ( b) if a shooter is renowned in two events, the maximum number of weapons he can possess shall be twelve (i.e. ten in the exempted category plus two weapons which he can possess as a normal citizen under sub- section 2 of section 3 of the Act); ( c) if a shooter is renowned in more than two events, the maximum number of weapons he can possess shall be fourteen (i.e. twelve in the exempted category plus two weapons which he can possess as a |
| normal citizen under sub- section 2 of section 3 of the Act). | |||
| 3. | Junior Target Shooter | Type of arms used in the event in which the person is a Junior Target Shooter. | (i) The exemption is restricted to two weapons of any category in which the person is a Junior target shooter; (ii) The person must hold a certificate issued by the appropriate certifying body referred to in paragraph 3 of this notification. |
| 4. | Aspiring Shooter | Type of arms used in the event in which the person is an Aspiring Shooter. | (i) The exemption is restricted to two weapons of any category in which the person is an Aspiring Shooter; (ii) The person must hold a certificate issued by the appropriate certifying body referred to in paragraph 3 of this notification. |
| 5. | National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) / Affiliated State Rifle Association(s) with NRAI / District Rifle Association(s) affiliated with State Rifle Association(s) / All Shooting Clubs affiliated with the State Rifle Association or NRAI / All Shooting Ranges under the Sports Authority of India or the Sports Authority of the State Governments. | Rifles in calibre .22 Long (i) Rifle (also known as .22 LR); fire Rifles with (ii) Center calibers up to 8 mm including all calibers lower than 8 mm; (iii) Pistols/Revolvers of caliber up to and including 9 mm but excluding 9 mm parabellum (9x19 mm); (iv) Shotguns of caliber up to 12 bore/gauge including all calibers lower than 12 bore/gauge. | (i) No upper limit on the number of Arms, subject to the discretion of the licensing authority based on the recommendations of the certifying body; (ii) The entity must hold a certificate issued by the appropriate certifying body referred to in paragraph 3 of this notification. |
[F. No. V-11026/133/2019-Arms]
PUNYA SALILA SRIVASTAVA, Jt. Secy.
———ttt———
(cid:3)
Department of Law & Judiciary
(cid:3)
(cid:3)
Legal Affairs Division —— Notification
(cid:3)
10/4/2019-LA-352
passed by Parliament and assented to by the President on 08-08-2019 and published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 1, dated 08-08-2019, is hereby published for the general information of the public.
(cid:3)
D. S. Raut Dessai, Joint Secretary (Law).
The Repealing and Amending Act, 2019 (cid:3) (Central Act No. 31 of 2019), which has been
Porvorim, 31st December, 2019.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA SERIES I No. 49 5TH MARCH, 2020The Repealing and Amending Act, 2019
AN
ACT
to repeal certain enactments and to amend
certain other enactments.
Be it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. Short title.— This Act may be called the
Repealing and Amending Act, 2019.
2. Repeal of certain enactments.— The enactments specified in the First Schedule are hereby repealed.
3. Amendment of certain enactments.— The enactments specified in the Second Schedule are hereby amended to the extent and in the manner specified in the fourth column thereof.
4. Savings.— The repeal by this Act of any enactment shall not affect any other enactment in which the repealed enactment has been applied, incorporated or referred to;
and this Act shall not affect the validity, invalidity, effect or consequences of anything already done or suffered, or any right, title, obligation or liability already acquired, accrued or incurred, or any remedy or proceeding in respect thereof, or any release or discharge of or from any debt, penalty, obligation, liability, claim or demand, or any indemnity already granted, or the proof of any past act or thing;
nor shall this Act affect any principle or rule of law, or established jurisdiction, form or course of pleading, practice or procedure, or existing usage, custom, privilege, restriction, exemption, office or appointment, notwithstanding that the same respectively may have been in any manner affirmed or recognised or derived by, in or from any enactment hereby repealed;
nor shall the repeal by this Act of any enactment revive or restore any jurisdiction, office, custom, liability, right, title, privilege, restriction, exemption, usage, practice, procedure or other matter or thing not now existing or in force.
________
THE FIRST SCHEDULE
(See section 2)
Repeals
Year Act No.
1 2
Short Title
3
1850 XII The Public Accountants' Defaults Act, 1850.
1881 XI The Municipal Taxation Act, 1881.
1892 X The Government Management of Private Estates Act, 1892.
1956 69 The Terminal Tax on Railway Passengers Act, 1956.
1958 56 The Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly (Constitution and Proceedings)
Validation Act, 1958.
1960 22 The Cotton Transport (Amendment) Act, 1960
1963 1 The Hindi Sahitya Sammelan (Amendment) Act, 1963.
1963 35 The Dramatic Performances (Delhi Repeal) Act, 1963.
1964 10 The Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Amendment Act, 1964.
1968 49 The Delhi and Ajmer Rent Control (Nasirabad Cantonment Repeal) Act, 1968.
1973 56 The Alcock Ashdown Company Limited (Acquisition of Undertakings) Act, 1973.
1976 55 The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore Mines Labour Welfare
Cess Act, 1976.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA
SERIES I No. 49
5TH MARCH, 2020
1 2 3
1976 61 The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore Mines Labour Welfare
Fund Act, 1976.
1976 62 The Beedi Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1976.
1980 68 The Tea (Amendment) Act, 1980.
1981 62 The Aligarh Muslim University (Amendment) Act, 1981.
1982 63 The Road Transport Corporations (Amendment) Act, 1982.
1983 41 The Transformers and Switchgear Limited (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings)
Act, 1983.
1988 22 The Tamil Nadu Agricultural Service Co-operative Societies (Appointment of Special
Officers) Amendment Act, 1988.
1999 3 The High Denomination Bank Notes (Demonetisation) Amendment Act, 1998.
2001 39 The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2001.
2001 48 The Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001.
2002 16 The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2002.
2002 43 The Delhi University (Amendment) Act, 2002.
2007 3 The Dalmia Dadri Cement Limited (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings)
Amendment Act, 2006.
2007 28 The Central Road Fund (Amendment) Act, 2007.
2009 21 The Prevention of Money-laundering (Amendment) Act, 2009.
2009 22 The Central Industrial Security Force (Amendment) Act, 2009.
2009 38 The Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2009.
2010 3 The Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009.
2011 6 The Repatriation of Prisoners (Amendment) Act, 2011.
2011 14 The Customs (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2011.
2012 28 The National Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2012.
2012 34 The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Act, 2012.
2014 8 The Governors (Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges) Amendment Act, 2014.
2014 9 The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)
Act, 2014.
2014 19 The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2014.
2014 20 The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Amendment) Act, 2014.
2014 31 The Merchant Shipping (Amendment) Act, 2014.
2014 32 The Merchant Shipping (Second Amendment) Act, 2014.
2014 39 The National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special Provisions) Second (Amendment)
Act, 2014.
2015 2 The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Amendment Act, 2015.
2015 3 The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2015.
2015 5 The Insurance Laws (Amendment) Act, 2015.
2015 10 The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.
2015 12 The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2015.
2015 14 The Regional Rural Banks (Amendment) Act, 2015.
2015 16 The Warehousing Corporations (Amendment) Act, 2015.
2015 21 The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015.
OFFICIAL GAZETTE — GOVT. OF GOA
SERIES I No. 49
5TH MARCH, 2020
1 2 3
2016 10 The Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2016.
2016 13 The High Court and the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service)
Amendment Act, 2016.
2016 25 The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016.
2016 42 The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)
Act, 2016.
2016 45 The Central Agricultural University (Amendment) Act, 2016.
2016 48 The Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016.
2017 19 The National Institute of Technology, Science Education and Research (Amendment)
Act, 2017.
2017 21 The Collection of Statistics (Amendment) Act, 2017.
2017 25 The Indian Institutes of Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2017.
________
THE SECOND SCHEDULE
(See section 3)
Amendments
Year Act No. Short title Amendments
1 2 3
4
1961 43 The Income-tax Act, 1961 In section 54GA, in the Explanation to sub-section (1), in clause (a), after the word, brackets, letters "clause (za)", the words and figure "of section 2" shall be inserted.
2017 33 The Indian Institutes of (i) in section 3, in clause (f), for the words "Director", Management Act, 2017 means', the words "Director" means' shall be
substituted;
(ii) in section 36, in sub-section (1), for the word "Ordinance", the word "Ordinances" shall be substituted.
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